<regElement name="CHAPTER 1" level="2" title="ADMINISTRATION">

ADMINISTRATION

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="DEFINITIONS">

DEFINITIONS

<regElement name="R18.1.101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 41-1001, except for the definition of "person", shall apply to this Chapter. In addition, the terms in this Chapter shall have the following meanings:

1. "Attorney general" means the attorney general of the state of Arizona and includes any assistant attorneys general or other attorneys appointed by the Office of the Attorney General to represent the Department at a contested case.

2. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

3. "Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality or the Director's designee.

4. "General public hearing" means a hearing, subject to the requirements of Article 4, held to obtain comment from the public with respect to Department actions. "General public hearing" shall not include oral proceedings, or contested case hearings.

5. "Hearing officer" means an individual appointed by the Director to perform the duties described in R18-1-203 at any contested case hearing.

6. "Oral proceeding" means a proceeding held during the rulemaking process, as described by A.R.S. &#167; 41-1023.

7. "Person" means an individual, employee, officer, managing body, trust, firm, joint stock company, consortium, public or private corporation, including a government corporation, partnership, association, state, a political subdivision of this state, or commission or the United States Government or a federal facility, interstate body or other entity.

8. "Presiding officer" means any individual appointed by the Director to perform the duties described in R18-1-304 at any oral proceeding.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="ADMINISTRATIVE APPEALS">

ADMINISTRATIVE APPEALS

<regElement name="R18.1.201" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

Sections R18-1-202 through R18-1-205 and R18-1-207 govern notices of administrative appeal filed with the Department and requesting a hearing before the Office of Administrative Hearings or a body of formal administrative adjudication other than the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.202" level="4" title="Notice of Appeal">

Notice of Appeal

When the Department determines that an agency action is an appealable agency action, the Department shall serve notice as prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.03(A). Any failure of the Department to serve notice of an appealable agency action under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.03(A) does not prevent a party from requesting a hearing under &#167; 41-1092.03(B) if the request is made within 30 days of the date on the Departmental notice of the action giving rise to the request. The Department shall forward all hearing requests made under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.03 to the Office of Administrative Hearings.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3772, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.203" level="4" title="Contested Case Procedures">

Contested Case Procedures

A. Subject to the provisions at A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.01 and 41-1092.02 and except as provided at subsection (B), the Department shall apply the notice and informal settlement conference provisions at A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03 and 41-1092.06 to contested cases that are appealable through the Office of Administrative Hearings.

B. If A.R.S. Title 49 provides a time limit on the filing of a notice of administrative appeal, then the person filing the notice of administrative appeal shall comply with that filing time limit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.204" level="4" title="Record of Administrative Appeal">

Record of Administrative Appeal

The Department shall preserve a record of an administrative appeal of a contested case or appealable agency action for a period of three years commencing on the date the notice of appeal is filed with the Department or during the time an appeal of the matter is still pending, whichever is longer. If not made confidential by law, the Department shall make the record available for public inspection upon request.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.205" level="4" title="Notice of Intent to Rely on License Application Components as Submitted">

Notice of Intent to Rely on License Application Components as Submitted

A. If the Department submits to a license applicant a notice that the application is missing required components, is substantively deficient, or is otherwise deficient, or submits to a license applicant a request for additional information to enable the Department to reach a decision to grant the license, then the Department shall include a brief explanation of the basis of or reason for the notice or request.

B. If a license applicant receives a notice from the Department that the application is lacking application components, is substantively deficient, or is otherwise deficient, or receives from the Department a request for additional information, the applicant, in lieu of submitting some or all of the components or information identified by the Department, may submit to the Department a written notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted. The applicant shall submit the notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted within the time specified in the Department's notice of deficiencies or request for additional information. If the Department's notice of deficiencies or request for additional information does not specify a time, then the applicant shall submit the notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted within 60 days after the mailing date of the Department's notice of deficiencies or request for additional information.

C. A notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted shall include the following:

1. Name of the applicant.

2. License application number or other identification.

3. Date of the Department notice or request in question.

4. Identification of the application component or components objected to with reasons for the objection or objections.

5. A statement that the applicant intends to rely on the application components as submitted as the basis upon which the Department may determine whether to grant or deny the license.

D. A license applicant may submit additional license application components or other information at the same time the applicant submits a notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted.

E. The Department, after receiving a notice of intent to rely on the license application components as submitted, shall do one of the following:

1. Rescind its request for the application component or components objected to in the notice.

2. Modify its request for the application component or components objected to in the notice.

3. Grant the license unconditionally, meaning that the Department did not add conditions not requested by the applicant.

4. Grant the license with conditions, meaning that the Department added conditions not requested by the applicant.

5. Deny the license.

F. To the extent that a licensing provision of the Arizona Revised Statutes requires different treatment of licensing notifications of application deficiencies or licensing requests for additional information, this Section does not apply.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.206" level="4" title="Adjudicative Proceedings Before the Department">

Adjudicative Proceedings Before the Department

The Department shall use rules of the Office of Administrative Hearings to govern the initiation and conduct of formal adjudicative proceedings before the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.207" level="4" title="Requests for Rehearing or Review">

Requests for Rehearing or Review

A party to a formal adjudicative proceeding before the Office of Administrative Hearings or the Department may obtain a rehearing or review of the decision that is based on the proceeding, as follows:

1. The party shall file with the Department a written motion for rehearing or review of the decision not later than 30 days after service of the decision upon the party.

2. An opposing party may file with the Department a written response to the motion for rehearing or review not later than 15 days after service of the motion for rehearing or review upon the opposing party.

3. Service is complete on personal service or five days after the date the decision or motion is mailed to the party or opposing party.

4. The Director may require the filing of written briefs upon the issues raised in the motion or response and may provide for oral argument.

5. The Director shall decide whether to grant a motion for rehearing or review of the decision within 15 days after the response to the motion is filed or, if a response is not filed, within five days after the expiration of the response period. The Director shall grant a rehearing or review for any of the following reasons and shall specify the reasons:

a. The decision is not justified by the evidence or is contrary to law.

b. There is newly discovered material evidence which could not with reasonable diligence have been discovered and produced at the original proceeding.

c. One or more of the following has deprived the party of a fair hearing:

i. Irregularity or abuse of discretion in the conduct of the proceeding.

ii. Misconduct of the Department, its hearing officer, or the prevailing party.

iii. Accident or surprise which could not have been prevented by ordinary prudence.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3)

<regElement name="R18.1.208" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.209" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.210" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.211" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.212" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.213" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.214" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.1.215" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.216" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.217" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.218" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.219" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 2854, effective July 30, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="PUBLIC PARTICIPATION IN RULEMAKING">

PUBLIC PARTICIPATION IN RULEMAKING

<regElement name="R18.1.301" level="4" title="Agency Record">

Agency Record

The official rulemaking record is located in the Department and may be reviewed any working day, Monday through Friday, from 8:00 a.m. until 5:00 p.m., except state holidays.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.302" level="4" title="Petition for Rule Adoption, Amendment or Repeal">

Petition for Rule Adoption, Amendment or Repeal

A. Any person requesting that the Department adopt, amend, or repeal a rule, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1033, shall submit a petition as prescribed in this Section before such request may be considered by the Department.

B. Each petition shall contain:

1. The name and current address of the person submitting the petition.

2. If the request is for adoption of a new rule, a statement of that fact, followed by the specific language of the proposed rule.

3. If the request is for amendment of a current rule, a statement of that fact, followed by the A.A.C. number and title of the rule being proposed for amendment. This shall be followed by the specific language of the current rule; any language to be deleted shall be struck out but clearly readable, and any language to be added by the proposed amendment shall be underlined.

4. If the request is for repeal of a current rule, a statement of this fact, followed by the A.A.C. number and title of the rule being proposed for repeal.

5. The signature of the person submitting the petition.

6. The reason the rule should be adopted, amended or repealed.

C. The petition may contain any information to support subsection (B)(6) of this Section, including:

1. Any statistical data or other justification, with clear reference to any exhibits which may be attached to the petition;

2. An identification of what persons or segment of the public the petitioner believes would be affected and how they would be affected;

3. If the petitioner is a public agency, the petition may also contain a summary of issues raised in any public hearing which may be relevant, or any written comments offered by the public;

4. The identification of any statute which the petitioner believes gives the Department the authority to adopt, amend, or repeal the rule.

D. Within 60 calendar days of the receipt by the Director of a complete petition, the Department shall act in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 41-1033 as follows:

1. If the petition results in the initiation of a rulemaking, the procedures for rulemaking, set forth in Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 3, Arizona Revised Statutes, shall be followed.

2. If the petition is denied, a written notice stating the basis of denial shall be issued by the Director to the person filing the petition.

3. The original petition and a copy of any notice of denial shall be placed in the official record and remain there for five years to be considered in the course of the Department's five-year rule review process.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.303" level="4" title="Written Comments During Rulemaking">

Written Comments During Rulemaking

A. Any member of the public may comment upon a rule proposed by the Department by submitting written comments on the proposed rule to the Director.

B. Any document is considered to have been submitted on the date it is received by the Department. If a document is mailed, this date shall be the date on the postmark.

C. All written comments received during the period specified by A.R.S. &#167; 41-1023(A) shall be considered by the Department.

D. All original written comments on proposed rules shall be placed in the official record.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.304" level="4" title="Oral Proceedings">

Oral Proceedings

A. Requests for oral proceedings, as prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 41-1023, shall:

1. Be filed with the Director;

2. Include the name and current address of the person making the request;

3. Refer to the proposed rule and include the date and issue of the Arizona Administrative Register in which the notice was published, if known.

B. The oral proceeding shall be recorded either by an electronic recording device or stenographically, and any resulting cassette tapes or transcripts, registers and all written comments received shall become part of the official record.

C. The procedures the presiding officer shall use to conduct oral proceedings shall include:

1. Voluntary registration of attendees. Identification shall not be required, however, in order for a person to attend an oral proceeding.

2. Registration of persons intending to speak. Registration information shall include the registrant's name, representative capacity, if applicable, and a brief summary of intended oral remarks.

3. Opening of the record. Opening remarks by the presiding officer shall summarize the rulemaking activities to date and the importance and purpose of public comments, and present the agenda.

4. A statement by Department representatives. The statement shall explain the contents, purpose and intended operation of the proposed rulemaking, including the economic impact and any adverse impact on small businesses.

5. A public oral comment period. Public oral comments may be limited to a reasonable time period, as determined by the presiding officer. Comments may be limited to prevent undue repetition.

6. Further presentations. The Department may present additional information during an oral proceeding, after public comments are received. Any person shall have the opportunity to respond to this presentation during the proceeding.

7. Closing remarks. The presiding officer shall identify relevant, future rulemaking dates and shall announce the location where the record may be reviewed and the date and time of close of record.

D. Within 10 working days of close of the record of an oral proceeding, or a longer period if approved by the Director, the presiding officer shall file a written memorandum summarizing the contents of all oral presentations made during the proceeding, and shall transmit any original cassette tapes and written submissions to the Director.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.305" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section expired under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E) at 8 A.A.R. 5018, effective August 31, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.1.306" level="4" title="Written Criticism of Rule">

Written Criticism of Rule

A. Any person may file a written criticism of an effective rule with the Director.

B. The criticism shall clearly identify the rule addressed, and specify why the existing rule is inadequate, unduly burdensome, unreasonable or otherwise considered to be improper.

C. The Director shall acknowledge receipt of any criticism within 10 working days and shall place the criticism in the official record, for review by the Department, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1054.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="PUBLIC NOTICE AND GENERAL PUBLIC HEARINGS">

PUBLIC NOTICE AND GENERAL PUBLIC HEARINGS

<regElement name="R18.1.401" level="4" title="Notice">

Notice

A. When notice is required by statute or rule, and notice procedures are not otherwise prescribed by statute or rule, the Department shall:

1. Publish the notice as a legal notice at least once, in one or more newspapers of general circulation in the county or counties concerned;

2. Include in the notice the following information:

a. The major issue under consideration or a description of the reason for the action;

b. The Department's proposed action and effective date for that action;

c. The location where relevant, nonconfidential documents may be obtained and reviewed during normal business hours;

d. The name, address and telephone number of a person within the Department who may be contacted for further information;

e. The location where public comments may be addressed, and the date and time by which comments shall be received.

B. In addition to meeting the requirements in subsection (A), a notice for a general public hearing shall include the following information:

1. The time and location of the general public hearing;

2. A statement to the effect that any person may appear at the hearing and present views, either orally or in writing;

3. The time by which a decision shall be reached;

4. The exact nature of the action or issues to be discussed.

C. The notice for a general public hearing described in this Section shall be published at least 30 days prior to the date of the hearing unless otherwise prescribed by statute or rule.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.402" level="4" title="General Public Hearing Procedures">

General Public Hearing Procedures

A. If a general public hearing is required by statute or by rule, the hearing shall be noticed as required in R18-1-401.

B. The Department shall maximize the opportunity for public participation at a general public hearing and shall consider all of the following when scheduling the general public hearing:

1. A location in or near the geographical area of the issue addressed in the hearing, and easily accessible to a majority of the affected public;

2. A time which can facilitate public attendance;

3. Other hearings concerning the public, in the same geographical area, which may be scheduled for the same time and location.

C. The Department may schedule persons wishing to speak, and Department personnel knowledgeable about the issue shall be present to provide information.

D. A general public hearing shall be conducted so as to do both of the following:

1. Inform the public of the exact nature of the action or issue, and

2. Allow time for persons to make statements and submit written comments.

E. The person presiding at a general public hearing shall maintain order and may allot equitable time periods for oral comment by participants.

F. A general public hearing shall be recorded by means of an electronic device or stenographically.

G. The record of a general public hearing shall be maintained by the Department and made available for public inspection, during normal business hours, at the location specified in the public notice. The record of the hearing shall include the agenda, written comments submitted before the close of record, and the tape or transcript of the hearing.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 7, 1988 (Supp. 88-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="LICENSING TIME-FRAMES">

LICENSING TIME-FRAMES

<regElement name="R18.1.501" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions provided in A.R.S. &#167; 41-1001, &#167; 41-1072, and R18-1-101, the following definitions apply to this Article:

1. "Administrative completeness" or "administratively complete" means Department receipt of all application components required by statute or rule and necessary to enable the Department to issue a notice of administrative completeness under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074 and thereby end the administrative completeness review time-frame and start the substantive review time-frame.

2. "Administrative completeness review" means the process of clerical verification by the Department to determine whether the submitted application components meet the requirements of administrative completeness.

3. "Applicant" means the person who requests the Department to issue a license.

4. "Applicant response" means a written response from the applicant to a Department notice that complies with all the following:

a. The response identifies the applicant.

b. The response identifies the Department notice.

c. The response is addressed to the Department employee identified in the Department notice as the designated recipient of the notice.

d. The response contains the required information identified in the Department notice or the response contains a notice under R18-1-520 to rely on the application components as submitted.

5. "Application" means a request to the Department to issue a license to the requestor when that request is in writing and complies with R18-1-502 and R18-1-503(A).

6. "Application clerk" means a Department employee with authority to receive applications for the specific license identified on the submitted application component or applicant response.

7. "Application component" means a document, other written information, or fee required by statute or rule and submitted to the Department in support of an application.

8. "Companion category" means one of an association of two or more consecutive categories, shown on the license tables with paired license names, and containing a distinction between "standard" and "complex", between "without a public hearing" and "with a public hearing", or "without a public meeting" and "with a public meeting".

9. "Complex" means an application category that requires a significant increase in Department application review resources in excess of applications processed in a companion standard category due to the size, novelty, complexity, or technical difficulty expressed in the application.

10. "Comprehensive request for additional information" means a Department notification made after the administrative completeness review time-frame that:

a. Contains a list of information required by statute or rule and necessary before the Department may grant the license; and

b. Suspends the running of days within the time-frames.

11. "Day" means business day and excludes Saturdays, Sundays, and state holidays.

12. "Department notification" or "Department notice" means written communication by the Department to an applicant in person or at the mailing or electronic address identified on the application. The Department may notify the applicant at the applicant's electronic address only if the applicant provides that address as part of an application component. The notification is effective:

a. If mailed, on the date of its postmark.

b. If delivered in person by a Department employee or agent, on the date of delivery.

c. If delivered electronically, on the date of delivery to the electronic address.

13. "Department receipt" of an application component or an applicant response means one of the following days, whichever is later:

a. If the component or response is handed to an application clerk by the applicant, the day of actual receipt by the application clerk.

b. If the component or response is mailed, five days after a postmark identifying mailing date.

c. If the Department notifies the applicant within five days after the date of actual receipt, the day of actual receipt of the component or response by the application clerk.

d. If during an application moratorium or time-frame suspension declared under R18-1-518, the day after the moratorium or suspension ends.

14. "Electronic address" means either a telephone number for facsimile document communication (fax) or an electronic mail (e-mail) address. "Electronic address" does not mean a telephone number for voice or TDD (telephone device for the deaf) communication.

15. "Fee excusal" means the sanction imposed on a Department fund under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077(A) that requires the Department to excuse further fees required from the applicant by the Department.

16. "Initial fee" means that part of the fee required to be submitted under R18-1-503(A).

17. "License category" means a numbered category identified on a license table.

18. "License table" means a table within this Article.

19. "Licensing time-frame" means any of the time-frames identified in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1072 through 41-1079, the operation of which requires the Department to report its compliance level for overall time-frames to the Governor's Regulatory Review Council under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1078(A).

20. "Licensing time-frame agreement" means an agreement made under any of the Sections R18-1-508 through R18-1-513.

21. "Penalty" means the sanction imposed on a Department fund under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077(B).

22. "Phased application" means an application processed pursuant to a licensing time-frame agreement that allows the applicant to submit application components in two or more phases with each phase providing for administrative completeness review.

23. "Pre-application" means the period prior to Department receipt of an applicant's first application component submittal under R18-1-503(A).

24. "Presumptive administrative completeness" means the expiration of the administrative completeness review time-frame and the automatic start of the running of days within the substantive review time-frame under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074(C) if the Department fails to issue a notice of administrative completeness under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074(A).

25. "Presumptive overall time-frame" means the sum of the days shown for the administrative completeness review and substantive review time-frames on the license tables for that license category and may be different from the actual overall time-frame because the presumptive overall time-frame does not include a lengthening of the time-frame due to a time-frame extension agreement or a shortening of the time-frame due to early starting of the substantive review time-frame caused by the issuance of a notice of administrative completeness.

26. "Presumptive substantive review time-frame" means the days shown for the substantive review time-frame on the license tables for a license category.

27. "Refund" means the sanction imposed on a Department fund under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077(A) that requires the Department to refund fees already paid by the applicant into that fund.

28. "Request for additional information" means a Department notification or contact made after the administrative completeness review time-frame and that identifies information required by statute or rule and necessary before the Department may grant the license.

29. "Sanction" means a refund, fee excusal, or penalty under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077.

30. "Site inspection" means an inspection performed by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1009 as part of a required component of an application for a license shown on the license tables.

31. "Substantive review" means the process of qualitative evaluation by the Department of application components to determine whether the components meet all requirements in statute or rule and necessary to grant the license. "Substantive review" does not include clerical verification of the components nor does it include Department investigations resulting from reporting or notification requirements.

32. "Time-frame extension" means the entire period after the overall time-frame would otherwise expire and during which an application is not subject to sanctions. The substantive review and overall time-frames continue in effect and do not expire during the time-frame extension.

33. "Withdrawn application" means an application that has ceased to be subject to this Article due to the applicant's request that the Department cease all consideration of the application under R18-1-517. An applicant's ability to withdraw an application is not governed by this Article.

34. "WQARF" means water quality assurance revolving fund.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.502" level="4" title="Applicability; Effective Date"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Applicability; Effective Date

A. This Article does not apply to any of the following:

1. A license not requiring an application.

2. A license conferred by a prospective licensee's notification to the Department of an event, activity, or facility and that is not conferred by the Department in the form of a written license issued to the notifier in response to the notification.

3. A license issued at the Department's initiative.

4. A license issued by default if the Department does not make a licensing decision within a time identified in statute or rule.

5. A license not identified in a category shown on the license tables.

6. A license that requires one or more application components pursuant to an enforcement, abatement, or compliance order or consent agreement or a notice of violation in addition to those identified for a license category shown on the license tables if submission of the component or components is required before the Department may make a decision to grant the license.

7. A license issued by a political subdivision of the state when acting under an agreement with the Department made pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-107 or A.R.S. Title 11, Chapter 7, Article 3.

8. An application for which the applicant is not the prospective licensee.

9. Compliance activity by licensees in conformance with an issued license except for license renewal or revision activity.

10. Contractual activity under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1005(A)(16).

11. Activity that leads to the revocation, suspension, annulment, or withdrawal of a license.

12. A license for which Department receipt of the first application component submittal under R18-1-503(A) occurs before the effective date of this Article. The effective date of this Article shall be at midnight two weeks after the notice of final rulemaking is filed with the Secretary of State.

B. If an application becomes subject to this Article, it remains subject to the terms of the original license category in which it was classified unless the application is withdrawn, is altered by a licensing time-frames agreement, or is changed under R18-1-516. If altered by a licensing time-frames agreement, the terms of the original license category are modified only to the extent expressly stated in the licensing time-frames agreement.

C. If an Arizona statute or other rule in this Title conflicts with this Article, the statute or other rule governs except that only this Article determines whether an applicant is entitled to a refund and fee excusal due to Department failure to notify an applicant of a licensing decision within a licensing time-frame under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077(A).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.503" level="4" title="Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame Operation; Administrative Completeness">

Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame Operation; Administrative Completeness

A. The administrative completeness review time-frame for an application begins on the day of Department receipt of the first component submittal in support of the application that contains all the following:

1. Identification of the applicant.

2. If the license is for a facility, identification of the facility.

3. Name and mailing address of the applicant or applicant's agent authorized by the applicant to receive all notices issued by the Department under this Article.

4. Identification of the license category in which the application shall be first processed. If companion categories are shown on a license table for this license, the application shall be first processed in the companion category that is determined as follows:

a. If "standard" and "complex" categories are shown, in the "standard" category.

b. If "without a public hearing" and "with a public hearing" are shown, in the "without a public hearing" category.

c. If "without a public meeting" and "with a public meeting" are shown, in the "without a public meeting" category.

5. Completed Department application form if required for the license category.

6. Initial fee if required for the license category.

7. All application components set forth by the Department in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 41-1079.

B. The administrative completeness review time-frame for an application ends on the earlier of the following days:

1. The day the Department notifies the applicant that the application is administratively complete under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074.

2. If the Department does not notify the applicant that the application is administratively complete under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074, the last day shown for the administrative completeness review time-frame for the relevant license category on the license tables.

C. If a notice of administrative deficiencies states that the Department is suspending the running of days within the time-frames until the applicant supplies the missing information identified on a comprehensive list of specific deficiencies included with the notice, the running of days within the administrative completeness review time-frame suspends on the day of notification.

D. If suspended, the running of days within the administrative completeness review time-frame resumes upon Department receipt of the missing information identified on the comprehensive list of specific deficiencies except when the Department notifies the applicant within 10 days after receipt that not all of the missing information was supplied, in which case the running of days within the time-frame remains suspended from the time of the first notice under subsection (C) of this Section until the missing information is supplied to the Department.

E. If the Department determines that an applicant has submitted all application components required by statute or rule within the administrative completeness review time-frame and necessary to allow the Department to grant the license, the Department shall notify the applicant that the application is administratively complete under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074.

F. If presumptive administrative completeness occurs:

1. Further notices of administrative deficiencies issued under subsection (C) of this Section will not suspend the running of days within the substantive review or overall time-frames and

2. The Department does not waive the requirement for the applicant to submit all application components necessary to allow the Department to grant the license.

G. The running of days within the administrative completeness review time-frame also suspends and resumes under R18-1-518 (emergencies).

H. If, within five days after Department receipt of a first component submittal under subsection (A) of this Section, the Department determines that the submittal is so defective that the applicant clearly failed to make a good faith effort to submit all application components required by statute or rule and necessary for the Department to make a licensing decision to grant the license, the Department may determine that the submittal is not subject to this Article and that the Department shall not process the submittal. Department notification of this determination under R18-1-507(E) will cause all time-frames to end. The Department shall allow the applicant to reclaim the submittal.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.504" level="4" title="Substantive Review Time-frame Operation; Requests for Additional Information">

Substantive Review Time-frame Operation; Requests for Additional Information

A. The substantive review time-frame for an application begins on one of the following days:

1. If the Department notifies the applicant that the application is administratively complete before the expiration of the administrative completeness review time-frame, one day after notification.

2. If the Department does not notify the applicant that the application is administratively complete before the expiration of the administrative completeness review time-frame, one day after expiration.

B. The substantive review time-frame for an application ends on the earlier of the following days:

1. The day of Department notification that it has made a licensing decision under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1076 and R18-1-507.

2. The last day shown for the substantive review time-frame for the license category on the license tables.

C. If the Department notifies the applicant to respond to a comprehensive request for additional information, the running of days within the substantive review time-frame suspends on the day of Department notification. The Department may issue only one comprehensive request that suspends the running of days within the substantive review time-frame under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1075(A).

D. The running of days within the substantive review time-frame resumes upon Department receipt of the missing information identified in the comprehensive request except if the Department notifies the applicant within 15 days after receipt that not all of the missing information was supplied, in which case the running of days within the time-frame remains suspended until the applicant supplies the missing information to the Department.

E. The running of days within the substantive review time-frame also suspends and resumes under R18-1-518 (emergencies).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.505" level="4" title="Overall Time-frame Operation">

Overall Time-frame Operation

A. The overall time-frame for an application begins on the same day as the administrative completeness review time-frame.

B. The running of days within the overall time-frame suspends and resumes in concert with the administrative completeness and substantive review time-frames and time-frame extensions.

C. The duration of the overall time-frame equals the sum of all the following days unless altered by R18-1-508 (licensing time-frames pre-application agreements), R18-1-511 (changed licensing time-frames agreements), or R18-1-513 (licensing time-frames opt-in agreements):

1. The lesser of:

a. The number of days shown for the administrative completeness review time-frame on the license tables, or

b. The actual number of days for the administrative completeness review time-frame if the Department notifies the applicant under R18-1-503(E) that the application is administratively complete before the expiration of the administrative completeness review time-frame;

2. The lesser of:

a. The number of days shown for the substantive review time-frame on the license tables,

b. The actual number of days for the substantive review time-frame if the Department notifies the applicant of a licensing decision under R18-1-504(B)(1), or

c. The actual number of days for the substantive review time-frame if the applicant causes the time-frame clocks to end under R18-1-507(D); and

3. The number of days added by one or more licensing time-frames extension agreements under R18-1-510.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.506" level="4" title="Time-frame Extension Operation">

Time-frame Extension Operation

A. If created by a licensing time-frames extension agreement under R18-1-510, the time-frame extension for an application begins one day after the substantive review and overall time-frames would otherwise expire and operates as if they were still in operation.

B. The time-frame extension for an application ends on one of the following days, whichever is earlier:

1. The day of Department notification that it has made a licensing decision under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1076 and R18-1-507.

2. The day shown for the expiration of the time-frame extension identified in the time-frame extension agreement.

C. The Department may notify an applicant to respond to one comprehensive request for additional information during the time-frame extension on the same terms as prescribed in R18-1-504 except that the Department shall not make more than one comprehensive request for additional information under both R18-1-504 and this Section.

D. An applicant and the Department may enter into one or more licensing time-frames supplemental request agreements during the time-frame extension on the same terms as prescribed in R18-1-509.

E. The running of days within the time-frame extension also suspends and resumes under R18-1-518 (emergencies).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.507" level="4" title="Ending of Time-frames; Licensing Decisions; Withdrawal; Notice of Licensing Time-frames Nonapplicability">

Ending of Time-frames; Licensing Decisions; Withdrawal; Notice of Licensing Time-frames Nonapplicability

A. Department notification of the following licensing decisions is sufficient to end all licensing time-frames for an application:

1. Unconditional grant of the license, meaning that the Department did not add conditions not requested by, or agreed to by, the applicant.

2. Conditional grant of the license, meaning that the Department added conditions not requested by, or agreed to by, the applicant.

3. Denial of the license.

B. Department notification of a conditional grant of a license under subsection (A) of this Section shall include both the following:

1. An explanation of the applicant's right to appeal the action under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1076(2) and 41-1092.03(A).

2. An explanation of the applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

C. The Department may deny a license under subsection (A) of this Section if the applicant submits incomplete or inaccurate information in response to a notice of administrative deficiencies under R18-1-503, a request for additional information or a comprehensive request for additional information under R18-1-504, a supplemental request for additional information under R18-1-509, or any other deficiency in the application that prevents the Department from exercising its authority to grant the license. Department notice of the denial of a license shall include all the following:

1. A justification for the denial under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1076(1).

2. An explanation of the applicant's right to appeal the action under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1076(2) and 41-1092.03(A).

3. An explanation of the applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

D. The following actions by the applicant are sufficient to end all time-frames for an application:

1. Withdrawing the application under R18-1-517.

2. Entering into a changed licensing time-frames agreement under R18-1-511.

E. If the Department determines during its review of an application that the application is not subject to this Article, the Department shall notify the applicant that the application is not subject to this Article. The Department notification shall contain the Department's reason for making the determination. Department notification causes all time-frames for the application to end.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.508" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames Pre-application Agreements">

Licensing Time-frames Pre-application Agreements

A. An applicant and the Department may enter into a licensing time-frames pre-application agreement to allow the applicant to do one or more of the following:

1. Submit certain application components in one or more phases during the substantive review time-frame.

2. Coordinate the licensing time-frames requirements of this Article with expedited application review by a private consultant under contract with the Department for that purpose.

3. Coordinate the licensing time-frames requirements of this Article with an applicant's requirements to apply for and obtain other approvals reasonably related to the subject matter of the application.

B. A licensing time-frames pre-application agreement shall contain at least the following terms:

1. Unless otherwise specified in the agreement, all requirements of this Article remain in effect.

2. A waiver under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1004 by the applicant of its rights to the number of time-frame days identified on the license tables in consideration of the Department allowing the applicant to enter into a licensing time-frames pre-application agreement.

3. Identification of application components.

4. The number of days for the administrative completeness review time-frame and the substantive review time-frame. Time spent in pre-application review shall not count toward the running of days within the time-frames.

5. A fee adjustment, if appropriate.

6. Identification of the license category within which the Department shall begin processing the application.

C. A licensing time-frames pre-application agreement that allows the applicant to submit certain application components in one or more phases during the substantive review time-frame shall contain at least the terms identified in subsection (B) of this Section and the following terms:

1. The overall time-frame shall not be less than the presumptive overall time-frame identified in subsection (B)(6) of this Section.

2. The administrative completeness review time-frame shown for the license category identified in subsection (B)(6) of this Section shall apply only to the first application phase.

3. The applicant may submit components otherwise required for administrative completeness in subsequent phases during the substantive review time-frame only to the extent that the agreement specifies deadlines for each subsequent application phase and identifies the application components required in each subsequent phase. The Department may notify the applicant to respond to a notice of administrative deficiencies within 15 days after each subsequent submittal or the deadline identified in the agreement for each subsequent phased application component submittal.

4. The Department may suspend the running of days within the time-frames once in each application phase with a comprehensive request for additional information on the same terms as prescribed under R18-1-504.

D. The Department shall consider all the following factors when determining whether to enter into a licensing time-frames pre-application agreement:

1. The complexity of the licensing subject matter. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the presumptive substantive review time-frame is less than 90 days.

2. The resources of the Department. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that either the negotiation of the agreement or the terms of the agreement are likely to require the Department to expend additional resources to the significant detriment of other applicants.

3. The impact on public health and safety or the environment. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that the terms of the agreement are likely to cause a significant increase or change in the nature of the potential detrimental effects of the facility or activity to be governed by the license on public health and safety or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.509" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames Supplemental Request Agreements">

Licensing Time-frames Supplemental Request Agreements

A. An applicant and the Department may enter into one or more licensing time-frames supplemental request agreements to allow the suspension of the running of days within the relevant substantive review and overall time-frames and time-frame extensions pending a response from the applicant to a supplemental request for additional information under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1075(A). A request for additional time alone is not a valid justification for a supplemental request agreement.

B. A licensing time-frames supplemental request agreement shall contain at least the following terms:

1. Unless otherwise specified in the agreement, all requirements of this Article remain in effect.

2. A list of the additional information requested.

3. The running of days within the relevant substantive review and overall time-frames and time-frame extensions shall suspend and resume under Sections R18-1-504 through R18-1-506.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.510" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames Extension Agreements">

Licensing Time-frames Extension Agreements

A. An applicant and the Department may enter into one or more time-frames extension agreements to extend the substantive review and overall time-frames under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1075(B).

B. The total of all time-frames extension agreements may extend the time-frames no more than 25% of the number of days beyond the presumptive overall time-frame or, if identified as a fixed number in an R18-1-508 pre-application agreement, the presumptive overall time-frame in that agreement. A calculation that results in a fraction of a day shall be rounded to the nearest day.

C. A time-frames extension agreement shall contain at least the following terms:

1. Unless specified otherwise in the agreement, all requirements of this Article remain in effect.

2. The number of time-frame extension days.

3. The agreement creates a time-frame extension that operates under R18-1-506.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.511" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames Changed Application Agreements">

Licensing Time-frames Changed Application Agreements

A. An applicant and the Department may enter into a licensing time-frames agreement to allow the applicant to change information previously submitted in support of a license application and to supersede the time-frames of that application with new time-frames. A changed licensing time-frames agreement causes all time-frames on the application to end under R18-1-507(D) and creates a new set of time-frames that operates under the agreement.

B. A changed licensing time-frames agreement shall contain at least the following terms:

1. Unless specified otherwise in the agreement, all requirements of this Article remain in effect.

2. A waiver under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1004 by the applicant of its rights to the number of time-frame days identified on the license tables in consideration of the Department allowing the applicant to change the information submitted in support of a changed application.

3. Identification of application components required in support of the changed application.

4. The number of time-frame days applicable to the changed application.

5. A fee adjustment, if appropriate.

6. Identification of the license category within which the Department shall continue processing the changed application.

C. The Department shall consider all the following factors when determining whether to enter into a changed licensing time-frames agreement:

1. The complexity of the licensing subject matter. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the presumptive substantive review time-frame is less than 30 days.

2. The resources of the Department. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that either the negotiation of the agreement or the terms of the agreement are likely to require the Department to expend additional resources to the significant detriment of other applicants.

3. The impact on public health and safety or the environment. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that the terms of the agreement are likely to cause a significant increase or change in the nature of the potential detrimental effects of the facility or activity to be governed by the license on public health and safety or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.512" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.1.513" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames Opt-in Agreements">

Licensing Time-frames Opt-in Agreements

A. An applicant and the Department may enter into an agreement to make an application subject to this Article when that application is otherwise exempt. An opt-in agreement creates a set of time-frames that operates under the agreement.

B. A licensing time-frames opt-in agreement shall contain at least the following terms:

1. Unless otherwise specified in the agreement, all requirements of this Article apply to the application.

2. Identification of the license category within which the Department shall continue processing the application.

3. Identification of application components required in support of the application.

4. The number of time-frame days applicable to the application.

5. A fee adjustment, if appropriate.

C. A licensing time-frames opt-in agreement may allow an applicant to submit certain application components in one or more phases during the substantive review time-frame if the agreement contains terms equivalent to those under R18-1-508(C).

D. The Department shall consider all the following factors when determining whether to enter into a licensing time-frames opt-in agreement:

1. The complexity of the licensing subject matter. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the time set for the substantive review time-frame is less than 90 days.

2. The resources of the Department. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that either the negotiation of the agreement or the terms of the agreement are likely to require the Department to expend additional resources to the significant detriment of other applicants.

3. The impact on public health and safety or the environment. The Department shall not enter into an agreement if the Department determines that the terms of the agreement are likely to cause a significant increase or change in the nature of the potential detrimental effects of the facility or activity to be governed by the license on public health and safety or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.514" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.1.515" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.1.516" level="4" title="Reassignment of License Category">

Reassignment of License Category

A. The Department may reassign an application to a different category if an evaluation of the application components indicates that a change is necessary in the category in which the application is classified. The Department shall notify the applicant of the change in the license category at which time the reassignment shall take effect. The Department notice shall contain the Department's reason for making the reassignment to a different license category. After receiving Department notification, the applicant may submit an R18-1-521 notice of intent to rely on the license category in effect before Department notification.

B. If a public hearing or public meeting is requested for an application for a license that requires the Department to hold a public hearing or public meeting on a proposed licensing decision if requested, the Department shall reassign the application from a license category not providing for a public hearing or public meeting to the companion category so providing.

C. Reassignment may include a change from a standard to a companion complex category if such categories are shown on the license tables.

D. Reassignment to a new license category under this Section means only that the time-frames for the application expire on the days shown for the new license category rather than the previous category.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.517" level="4" title="Application Withdrawal">

Application Withdrawal

Withdrawal of an application causes all time-frames for that application to end.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.518" level="4" title="Emergencies and Upset Conditions">

Emergencies and Upset Conditions

A. The Director may declare a moratorium on the starting of time-frames for new applications or may declare a suspension of all time-frames for one or more license categories identified on the license tables upon a determination that the starting of time-frames for new applications or the continued running of days within the time-frames on existing applications in that license category is likely to result in sanctions for those applications due to emergencies including:

1. Diversion of Department resources to respond to pollution prevention emergency activity,

2. Loss of use of premises,

3. Computer failure, or

4. Lack of access to a site inspection location due to weather or other natural conditions.

B. A declaration of a time-frame moratorium or suspension under subsection (A) of this Section shall be in writing and shall include all the following:

1. The reason for the time-frame moratorium or suspension.

2. Identification of the license categories subject to the time-frame moratorium or suspension.

3. If relevant, restriction of the declaration to one or more application review or site inspection locations.

4. Expiration of the time-frame moratorium or suspension by a date certain.

C. The Director may revoke declarations or issue successive declarations. The Director shall ensure that the duration of a time-frame moratorium or suspension under subsection (A) of the Section is limited to the shortest time necessary to address the emergency.

D. A declaration of a time-frame moratorium or suspension under subsection (A) of this Section affects only the operation of the time-frames and does not prohibit the Department from acceptance or continued review of license applications.

E. A declaration of a time-frame moratorium or suspension under subsection (A) of this Section applies only to applications and license categories that are subject to sanctions

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.519" level="4" title="Public Hearings; Public Meetings; Public Notice Periods">

Public Hearings; Public Meetings; Public Notice Periods

The suspension or expiration of the substantive review time-frame does not invalidate public hearings, public meetings, or public notice periods required by law to occur before a decision by the Department to grant a license.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.520" level="4" title="Notice of Intent to Rely on the Application Components as Submitted">

Notice of Intent to Rely on the Application Components as Submitted

A. An applicant, instead of submitting some or all of the application components identified by the Department, may submit an R18-1-205 notice of intent to rely on the application components as submitted in response to either of the following:

1. Receiving a notice of administrative deficiencies issued by the Department during the administrative completeness review time-frame.

2. Receiving a comprehensive request for additional information or a supplemental request for additional information issued by the Department after the administrative completeness review time-frame.

B. If the Department decides under R18-1-205 to rescind or modify the identification of the application component or components objected to by the applicant, the Department shall make the decision within 15 days after Department receipt of the applicant's R18-1-205 notice. If, at the time of the decision, the running of days within the time-frames is suspended:

1. A decision to rescind the identification of all application components identified in the notice shall resume the running of days within the time-frames.

2. A decision to rescind less than all or to modify the identification of one or more application components identified in the notice, shall allow the running of days within the time-frames to remain suspended in accordance with the Department notice identified in subsections (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this Section.

C. If, within 15 days after Department receipt of the applicant's R18-1-205 notice, the Department has not notified the applicant of a decision to rescind or modify the identification of the application component or components complained of in the notice, the running of days within the time-frames, if suspended, shall resume.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.521" level="4" title="Notice of Intent to Rely on the License Category">

Notice of Intent to Rely on the License Category

A. Upon Department notification that the Department has changed the license category under R18-1-516, an applicant may submit a notice of intent to rely on the license category in effect before the Department notification.

B. The applicant's notice under subsection (A) of this Section shall include all of the following:

1. Identification of the applicant.

2. Identification of the license application.

3. Identification of the date of the Department notice.

4. A statement that the applicant intends to rely on the license category in effect before Department notification of the R18-1-516 license category change as the basis upon which the Department shall make a licensing decision.

C. Upon receipt of an applicant's notice under subsection (A) of this Section, the Department shall do one of the following:

1. Rescind the change under subsection (D) of this Section.

2. Make a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A) and process the decision in the changed category identified under R18-1-516.

3. Allow the license category to revert under subsection (E) of this Section.

D. If the Department decides to rescind the change in the license category, the Department shall notify the applicant of the decision within 15 days after Department receipt of the applicant's notice under subsection (A) of this Section and shall continue to process the application in the license category on which the applicant is relying.

E. If, within 15 days after Department receipt of the applicant's notice under subsection (A) of this Section, the Department has not notified the applicant of a decision under subsection (C) of this Section, the license category shall revert to the category in effect before the R18-1-516 Department notification with the same effect on the time-frames as described in subsection (D) of this Section.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.522" level="4" title="Notice of Change of Applicant's Agent for Receiving Licensing Time-frames Notices">

Notice of Change of Applicant's Agent for Receiving Licensing Time-frames Notices

A. An applicant may change the designation of its agent identified under R18-1-503(A)(3) for receiving Department licensing time-frames notification.

B. To change the designation of the agent, the applicant shall submit a notice that complies with all the following to the application clerk:

1. Identification of the applicant.

2. Identification of the application.

3. Name and mailing address of the current agent authorized to receive all notices issued by the Department under this Article.

4. Name and mailing address of the new agent authorized to receive all notices issued by the Department under this Article.

5. Date when the applicant's authorization of the new agent will be effective.

6. Certification by the applicant that the information given under this subsection is true.

C. Upon Department receipt of the applicant's notice under subsection (B) of this Section, the Department shall notify the applicant of the date of receipt. The effective date of the change of applicant's agent shall not be less than three days after Department receipt of the notice.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.523" level="4" title="Refunds, Fee Excusals, and Penalties">

Refunds, Fee Excusals, and Penalties

A. An application is subject to sanctions under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077 only if the application is governed by this Article and requires a fee that is deposited in a Department fund. In addition, an application is subject to penalties under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1077(B) only if it is subject to a substantive review time-frame as indicated on the license tables. An application withdrawn before the expiration of the overall time-frame is not subject to sanctions.

B. The Department shall make a refund and fee excusal to an applicant for an application if the Department determines both of the following:

1. The overall time-frame for that application expired prior to Department notification of a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A).

2. The applicant is the prospective licensee of the application.

C. The Department shall issue a refund and make a fee excusal within 15 days after the Department makes a determination that a refund and fee excusal is due.

D. A refund and fee excusal is limited to the specific application giving rise to the refund and fee excusal and does not include a refund or payment excusal for services requested by the applicant beyond the scope of the application. A refund is limited to the amount actually received from the applicant by the Department for the review of the specific application giving rise to the refund and does not include interest.

E. The Department shall pay to the state general fund a penalty for an application if the Department determines both of the following:

1. The overall time-frame for that application expired prior to Department notification of a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A)

2. On the last calendar day of the month, the Department still has not made a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A).

F. If an application accumulates excused fees, the Department shall calculate the penalty each month to include both the penalty due for the current month plus any additional penalties now due for previous months resulting from the continued accumulation of excused fees during the current month.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.524" level="4" title="Site Inspections">

Site Inspections

A. If a site inspection is a required application component for a license category, an applicant complies with the requirement to submit a site inspection application component if either of the following is met:

1. The applicant makes all necessary areas of a site available for inspection by the Department at a mutually agreed-upon time and for the period of time necessary for the Department to complete the site inspection.

2. The Department determines that the conditions of a license are such that a site inspection will provide no additional required information in order for the Department to make a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A)(1) or R18-1-507(A)(2).

B. If made, a site inspection shall be performed under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1009. The purpose of a site inspection application component is to allow the Department to identify what site specific facts may be determinative of required license conditions in order to make a licensing decision under R18-1-507(A)(1) or R18-1-507(A)(2).

C. The Department shall prepare an inspection report under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1009(D) for every site inspection made. The inspection report shall state both of the following:

1. The Department's action resulting from the inspection is completed.

2. Whether the applicant complied with subsection (A)(1) of this Section.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.1.525" level="4" title="Licensing Time-frames; Application Components"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="8"><dwc name="lead" times="13"><dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Licensing Time-frames; Application Components

The administrative completeness review time-frame days, the substantive review time-frame days, and the references to application components for each license category subject to this Article are shown on the license tables.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 1. Class I Air Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Individual Class I prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) licenses:

<table> 1. Standard Class I PSD major source permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-406. 41 219 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, and R18-2-406, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 2. Standard Class I PSD major source permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-406. 41 251 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, and R18-2-406, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 3. Complex Class I PSD major source permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-406. 41 281 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, and R18-2-406, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. Complex Class I PSD major source permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-406. 41 313 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, and R18-2-406, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Group II: Individual Class I major new source review (NSR) licenses:

<table> 5. Standard Class I major NSR permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-403. 41 219 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, R18-2-403, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 6. Standard Class I major NSR permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-403. 41 251 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, R18-2-403, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 7. Complex Class I major NSR permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-403. 41 281 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, R18-2-403, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 1 (Continued). Class I Air Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group II (Continued): Individual Class I major new source review (NSR) licenses:

<table> 8. Complex Class I major NSR permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-403. 41 313 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, R18-2-402, and R18-2-403, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Group III: Individual Class I other major source licenses:

<table> 9. Standard Class I other major source permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 344 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and fee required. 10. Standard Class I other major source permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 376 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and fee required. 11. Complex Class I other major source permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 406 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and fee required. 12. Complex Class I other major source permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 438 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and fee required. </table>

Group IV: Individual Class I renewal licenses:

<table> 13. Standard Class I renewal permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 344 No A.A.C. R18-2-304 Department application form, site inspection, required. 14. Standard Class I renewal permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 376 No A.A.C. R18-2-304 Department application form, site inspection, required. 15. Complex Class I renewal permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and, R18-2-322. 41 406 No A.A.C. R18-2-304 Department application form, site inspection, required. 16. Complex Class I renewal permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 438 No A.A.C. R18-2-304 Department application form, site inspection, required. </table>

Table 1 (Continued). Class I Air Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group V: Individual Class I transfer, amendment, and revision licenses:

<table> 17. Class I transfer, A.R.S. &#167; 49-429, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-323. 5 10 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-323, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

<table> 18. Class I administrative amendment, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-318. 10 41 No A.A.C. R18-2-318, Site inspection required. 19. Class I minor revision, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-319. 41 103 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-319, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 20. Standard Class I significant revision with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 344 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: A.A.C. R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required 21. Standard Class I significant revision with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 376 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: A.A.C. R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required 22. Complex Class I significant revision with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 406 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: A.A.C. R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required 23. Complex Class I significant revision with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 438 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: A.A.C. R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Group VI: Authority to operate (ATO) under Class I general permit licenses:

<table> 24. Class I general permit petition, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-502(B). 21 61 No A.A.C. R18-2-502(B). 25. Class I general coverage ATO new permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-503. 21 103 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-503, Fee: R18-2-511, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 26. Class I general coverage ATO renewal permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-505. 21 103 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-505, Fee: R18-2-511, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 1 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 2. Class II Air Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Individual Class II new licenses:

<table> 1. Standard Class II permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 240 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 2. Standard Class II permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 272 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 3. Complex Class II permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 302 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. Complex Class II permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302. 41 334 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Group II: Individual Class II renewal licenses:

<table> 5. Standard Class II renewal with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 240 No A.A.C. R18-2-304, Department application form and site inspection required. 6. Standard Class II renewal with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 272 No A.A.C. R18-2-304, Department application form and site inspection required. 7. Complex Class II renewal with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 302 No A.A.C. R18-2-304, Department application form and site inspection required. 8. Complex Class II renewal with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-322. 41 334 No A.A.C. R18-2-304, Department application form site inspection required. </table>

Group III: Individual Class II transfer, amendment, and revision licenses:

<table> 9. Class II transfer, A.R.S. &#167; 49-429, A.A.C. R18-2-302, R18-2-323. 5 10 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-323, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 10. Class II administrative amendment, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, A.A.C. R18-2-302, R18-2-318. 10 41 No A.A.C. R18-2-318. </table>

Table 2 (Continued). Class II Air Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073-(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group III (Continued): Individual Class II transfer, amendment, and revision licenses:

<table> 11. Class II minor revision, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.01. A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-319. 41 62 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-319, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 12. Standard Class II significant revision with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 198 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 13. Standard Class II significant revision with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 230 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 14. Complex Class II significant revision with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 260 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 15. Complex Class II significant revision with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.01, A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-320. 41 292 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-304, Fee: R18-2-326, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Group IV: Authority to operate (ATO) under general permit licenses.

<table> 16. Class II general permit petition, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-502(B). 21 61 No A.A.C. R18-2-502(B). 17. Class II general coverage ATO new permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-503. 21 103 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-503, Fee: R18-2-511, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 18. Class II general coverage ATO renewal permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-302 and R18-2-505. 21 103 Yes A.A.C. R18-2-505, Fee: R18-2-511, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 19. Class II general coverage ATO variance, A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H), A.A.C. R18-2-507. 21 103 No A.A.C. R18-2-507, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 2 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 3. Open Burning Licenses Issued by the Phoenix Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. Dangerous material open burning permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-501, A.A.C. R18-2-602. 5 21 No A.A.C. R18-2-602(E)(1), Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 3 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 3-N. Open Burning Licenses Issued by the Northern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. Dangerous material open burning permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-501, A.A.C. R18-2-602. 5 21 No A.A.C. R18-2-602(E)(1), Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 3-N adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 3-S. Open Burning Licenses Issued by the Southern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. Dangerous material open burning permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-501, A.A.C. R18-2-602. 5 21 No A.A.C. R18-2-602(E)(1), Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 3-S adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 4. Vehicle Emission Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. Fleet station permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-546, A.A.C. R18-2-1019, R18-2-1026. 15 21 No A.A.C. R18-2-1019, Department application form required. </table>

<table> 2. Analyzer facility registration, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-542(J)(4) and 49-546(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-2-1027. 10 10 No A.A.C. R18-2-1027, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 4 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 5. Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Phoenix Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Drinking water approval-to-construct (ATC) licences:

<table> 1. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 2. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 3. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. 4. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group II: Drinking water approval-of-construction (AOC) licenses:

<table> 5. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 6. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 7. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. 8. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group III: Other licenses:

<table> 9. Standard drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 10. Complex drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 5 (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Phoenix Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group III (Continued): Other licenses:

<table> 11. Drinking water time extension approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 5 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 5-N. Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Northern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Drinking water approval-to-construct (ATC) licences:

<table> 1. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 2. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 3. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. 4. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group II: Drinking water approval-of-construction (AOC) licenses:

<table> 5. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 6. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 7. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. 8. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group III: Other licenses:

<table> 9. Standard drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 10. Complex drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 5-N (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Northern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group III (Continued): Other licenses:

<table> 11. Drinking water time extension approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 5-N adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 5-S. Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Southern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Drinking water approval-to-construct (ATC) licences:

<table> 1. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 2. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval to construct, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 3. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. 4. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-203, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group II: Drinking water approval-of-construction (AOC) licenses:

<table> 5. Standard drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 6. Complex drinking water treatment facility, project, or well approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-507. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-507, Department application form and site inspection required. 7. Standard public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 21 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. 8. Complex public and semi-public swimming pool approval of construction, A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(12). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-5-204, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group III: Other licenses:

<table> 9. Standard drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. 10. Complex drinking water new source approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, R-18-4-505. 11 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 5-S (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Construction Licenses Issued by the Southern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group III (Continued): Other licenses:

<table> 11. Drinking water time extension approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353, A.A.C. R18-4-505. 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-4-505, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 5-S adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 6. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 6 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 6-E. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 6-E adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 6-N. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 6-N adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 6-S. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 6-S adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 7. Pesticide Contamination Prevention Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. New pesticide approval A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(F) A.A.C. R18-6-102(B) 62 124 No A.A.C. R18-6-102, R18-6-106 2. Active ingredient or pesticide criticality determination A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(F) A.A.C. R18-6-102(B) 21 41 No A.A.C. R18-6-102 3. Pesticide addition or deletion to groundwater protection list approval A.R.S. &#167; 49-305(A) A.A.C. R18-6-105(D) 21 41 No A.A.C. R18-6-105(D) </table>

Historical Note

Table 7 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed; new Table made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 7-N. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 7-N adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 7-S. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 7-S adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 8. Safe Drinking Water Monitoring and Treatment Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Safe drinking water monitoring, sample, and sample site change and waiver licenses:

<table> 1. Monitoring frequency change approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-206(G)(1), R18-4-206(G)(2), R18-4-206(J), R18-4-206(K)(1), R18-4-206(K)(2), R18-4-207(I)(1), R18-4-207(I)(2), R18-4-208(E), R18-4-208(F), R18-4-209(G), R18-4-212(E), R18-4-212(F), R18-4-212(G)(1), R18-4-212(G)(2), R18-4-212(I)(3), R18-4-213(A), R18-4-214(F), R18-4-216(E), R18-4-216(G)(1), R18-4-216(G)(2), R18-4-216(H)(3), R18-4-217(E)(1), R18-4-310(E), R18-4-310(E)(2), R18-4-313(J), R18-4-313(K), R18-4-313(M)(1), R18-4-313(M)(2), R18-4-313(M)(4), R18-4-403(E)(1), R18-4-403(E)(2). 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-4-206(G)(1), R18-4-206(G)(2), R18-4-206(J), R18-4-206(K)(1), R18-4-206(K)(2), R18-4-207(I)(1), R18-4-207(I)(2), R18-4-208(E), R18-4-208(F), R18-4-209(G), R18-4-212(E), R18-4-212(F), R18-4-212(G)(1), R18-4-212(G)(2), R18-4-212(I)(3), R18-4-213(A), R18-4-214(F), R18-4-216(E), R18-4-216(G)(1), R18-4-216(G), R18-4-216(H)(3), R18-4-217(E)(1), R18-4-310(E), R18-4-310(E)(2), R18-4-313(J), R18-4-313(K), R18-4-313(M)(1), R18-4-313(M)(2), R18-4-313(M)(4), R18-4-403(E)(1), R18-4-403(E)(2), Department application form required. 2. Monitoring sample change approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-214(E), R18-4-310(E), R18-4-313(J), R18-4-313(M)(1), R18-4-313(M)(2). 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-4-214(E), R18-4-310(E), R18-4-313(J), R18-4-313(M)(1), R18-4-313(M)(2), Department application form required. 3. Residual disinfectant concentration sampling interval approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-303(B)(2)(a). 15 15 No A.A.C. R18-4-303, Department application form required. 4. Interim monitoring relief determination, A.R.S. &#167; 49-359(B)(3). 21 41 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-359(B), Department application form required. 5. Man-made radioactivity environmental surveillance substitution approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-217(H)(3)(d). 21 62 No A.A.C. R18-4-217(H)(3)(d), Department application form required. 6. Consecutive public water system monitoring requirements modification approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-113. 21 84 No A.A.C. R18-4-113, Department application form and site inspection required. 7. Trihalomethane source basis for sampling purposes approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-214(C). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-214, Department application form and site inspection required. 8. Sodium multiple well sampling number reduction approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-402(B). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-402, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 8 (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Monitoring and Treatment Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I (Continued): Safe drinking water monitoring, sample, and sample site change and waiver licenses:

<table> 9. Turbidity monitoring frequency reduction approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-302(H). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-302, Department application form and site inspection required. 10. Monitoring waiver approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-206(L), R18-4-207(L), R18-4-212(K)(1), R18-4-212(K)(2), R18-4-212(K)(3), R18-4-212(K)(4), R18-4-216(M)(1), R18-4-216(M)(2), R18-4-217(E)(2), R18-4-401(D), R18-4-404(E), R18-4-404(F). 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-206(L), R18-4-207(L), R18-4-212(K)(1), R18-4-212(K)(2), R18-4-212(K)(3), R18-4-212(K)(4), R18-4-216(M)(1), R18-4-216(M)(2), R18-4-217(E)(2), R18-4-401(D), R18-4-404(E), R18-4-404(F), Department application form required. </table>

Group II: Safe drinking water variance and exemption licenses:

<table> 11. Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement variance with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-110. 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-110, Department application form and site inspection required. 12. Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement variance with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-110. 21 187 No A.A.C. R18-4-110, Department application form and site inspection required. 13. Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement exemption with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-111. 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-111, Department application form and site inspection required. 14 Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement exemption with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-111. 21 187 No A.A.C. R18-4-111, Department application form and site inspection required. 15. Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement compliance extension approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-111(C). 21 32 No A.A.C. R18-4-111, Department application form and site inspection required. 16. Maximum contaminant level or treatment technique requirement compliance additional extension approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-111(C)(4). 21 42 No A.A.C. R18-4-111, Department application form and site inspection required. 17. Safe drinking water requirement exclusion approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-112(A). 21 42 No A.A.C. R18-4-112(B), Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 8 (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Monitoring and Treatment Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group II (Continued): Safe drinking water variance and exemption licenses:

<table> 18. Backflow-prevention assembly third-party certifying entity designation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-115(D)(2). 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-115, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group III: Safe drinking water treatment and monitoring plan licenses:

<table> 19. Maximum contaminant level compliance blending plan approval (for 10 or fewer points-of entry), A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-221(A). 21 42 No A.A.C. R18-4-221, Department application form and site inspection required. 20. Maximum contaminant level compliance blending plan approval (for more than 10 points-of-entry), A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-221(A). 21 84 No A.A.C. R18-4-221, Department application form and site inspection required. 21. Maximum contaminant level compliance blending plan change approval (for 10 or fewer points-of entry), A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-221(B). 21 42 No A.A.C. R18-4-221, Department application form and site inspection required. 22. Maximum contaminant level compliance blending plan change approval (for more than 10 points-of-entry, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-221(B). 21 84 No A.A.C. R18-4-221, Department application form and site inspection required. 23. Maximum contaminant level compliance at subsequent downstream service connections monitoring plan approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-221(A)(2). 21 125 No A.A.C. R18-4-221, Department application form and site inspection required. 24. Point-of-entry treatment device monitoring plan approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-222(B)(1). 15 15 No A.A.C. R18-4-222, Department application form and site inspection required. 25. Point-of-entry treatment device design approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), R18-4-222(B)(2). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-222, Department application form and site inspection required. 26. Lead and copper source water treatment determination modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-313(N). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-313, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Table 8 (Continued). Safe Drinking Water Monitoring and Treatment Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group III (Continued): Safe drinking water treatment and monitoring plan licenses:

<table> 27. Lead and copper source water concentration determination modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-314(N). 21 167 No A.A.C. R18-4-314, Department application form and site inspection required. 28. Lead service line extent under system control determination approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-315(D). 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-315, Department application form and site inspection required. 29. Lead service line extent under system control rebuttable presumption determination approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-315(E). 21 105 No A.A.C. R18-4-315, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Group IV: Lead and copper corrosion control licenses:

<table> 30. Lead and copper optimal corrosion control treatment approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-313(A). 42 502 No A.A.C. R18-4-313, Department application form and site inspection required. 31. Large water system lead and copper corrosion control activities equivalency demonstration approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-306(B)(1). 42 502 No A.A.C. R18-4-306, Department application form and site inspection required. 32. Small and medium water system lead and copper corrosion control activities equivalency demonstration approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-307(B)(2). 21 502 No A.A.C. R18-4-307, Department application form and site inspection required. 33. Lead and copper optimal corrosion treatment determination modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-313(N). 42 376 No A.A.C. R18-4-313, Department application form and site inspection required. 34. Lead and copper water quality control parameters determination modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-353(A)(2), A.A.C. R18-4-313(N). 42 376 No A.A.C. R18-4-313, Department application form and site inspection required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 8 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 9. Water and Wastewater Facility Operator Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components </table>

Group I: Drinking water operator licenses:

<table> 1. Drinking water treatment or distribution facility operator new certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-352, A.A.C. R18-5-105. 105 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-5-115, Fee: R18-5-113, Department application form, test space availability, and initial fee required. 2. Drinking water treatment or distribution facility operator renewal certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-352, A.A.C. R18-5-107, R18-5-108(D). 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-5-115, Fee: R18-5-113, Department application form and initial fee required. 3. Drinking water treatment or distribution facility operator reciprocity certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-352, A.A.C. R18-5-110(A). 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-5-115, Fee: R18-5-113, Department application form and initial fee required. 4. Drinking water treatment or distribution facility operator certification without examination, A.R.S. &#167; 49-352, A.A.C. R18-5-111. 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-5-115, Fee: R18-5-113, Department application form and initial fee required. </table>

Group II: Wastewater operator licenses:

<table> 5. Wastewater treatment or collection facility operator new certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-361, A.A.C. R18-5-105. 105 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-1-115, Fee: A.A.C. R18-1-113, Department application form, test space availability, and initial fee required. 6. Wastewater treatment or collection facility operator renewal certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-361, A.A.C. R18-5-107, R18-5-108(D). 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-1-115, Fee: A.A.C. R18-1-113, Department application form and initial fee required. 7. Wastewater treatment or collection system operator reciprocity certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-361, A.A.C. R18-5-110(A). 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-1-115, Fee: A.A.C. R18-1-113, Department application form and initial fee required. 8. Wastewater treatment or collection system operator certification without examination, A.R.S. &#167; 49-361, A.A.C. R18-5-111. 42 10 No A.A.C. R18-5-101 through R18-1-115, Fee: A.A.C. R18-1-113, Department application form and initial fee required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 9 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 10. Water Permit Licensing Time-frames (Business Days)

<table> Permits Authority Administrative Completeness Review Substantive Review Overall Time-frame Pre-Construction Post-Construction Total AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS Individual Permit No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-242 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 2 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 186 231 1 221 266 Complex Individual Permit No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-242 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 2 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 249 294 1 284 329 Individual Permit Significant Amendment No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-242 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 2 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 186 231 1 221 266 Individual Permit Other Amendment A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-242 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 2 35 n/a n/a 100 135 Temporary Individual Permit A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-242 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 2 35 n/a n/a 145 180 Type 3 General Permit A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-D301 through R18-9-D307 21 n/a n/a 60 81 4.01 General Permit 300 services or less More than 300 services A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-E301 21 21 21 21 32 62 21 32 53 94 95 2 136 2 Standard Single 4.02, 4.03, 4.13, and 4.14 General Permits A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-E302 A.A.C. R18-9-E303 A.A.C. R18-9-E313 A.A.C. R18-9-E314 21 21 21 10 31 73 2 4.23 General Permit A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-E323 21 21 62 32 94 136 2 Standard Combined Two or three Type 4 General Permits A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-E302 through R18-9-E323 21 21 32 21 53 95 2 Complex Combined Four or more Type 4 General Permits A.R.S. &#167; 49-245 A.A.C. R18-9-E302 through R18-9-E323 21 21 62 32 94 136 2 SUBDIVISION APPROVALS Subdivision Individual facilities A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(11) A.A.C. R18-5-408 21 n/a n/a 46 67 Subdivision Community facilities A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(B)(11) A.A.C. R18-5-403 21 n/a n/a 37 58 RECLAIMED WATER PERMITS Individual Permit No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-203 A.A.C. R18-9-702 through R18-9-707 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 186 231 1 221 266 Complex Individual Permit No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-203 A.A.C. R18-9-702 through A.A.C. R18-9-707 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 249 294 1 284 329 Type 3 General Permit A.R.S. &#167; 49-203 A.A.C. R18-9-717 A.A.C. R18-9-718 A.A.C. R18-9-719 21 n/a n/a 60 81 ARIZONA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM (AZPDES) PERMITS Individual Permit Major Facility 5 No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-255.01 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9, Part B 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 249 294 1 284 3, 4 329 3, 4 Individual Permit Minor Facility 6 No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-255.01 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9, Part B 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 186 231 1 221 3, 4 266 3, 4 Individual Permit Stormwater / Construction Activities No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-255.01 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9, Part B 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 126 171 1 161 206 3, 4 Individual Permit Major Modification No public hearing Public hearing A.R.S. &#167; 49-255.01 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9, Part B 35 35 n/a n/a n/a n/a 186 231 1 221 3, 4 266 3, 4 LAND APPLICATION OF BIOSOLIDS REGISTRATIONS Biosolid Applicator Registration Request Acknowledgment A.R.S. &#167; 49-255.03 A.A.C. R18-9-1004 15 n/a n/a 0 15 </table>

1

A request for a public hearing allows the Department 60 days to publish the notice of public hearing and for the official comment period. Forty-five business days are added to the substantive review time-frame.

2

Each request for an alternative design, installation, or operational feature under R18-9-A312(G) to a Type 4 General Permit adds eight business days to the substantive review time-frame.

3

EPA reserves the right, under 40 CFR 123.44, to take 90 days to supply specific grounds for objection to a draft or proposed permit when a general objection is filed within the review period. The first 30 days run concurrently with the Department's official comment period. Forty-five business days will be added to the substantive review time-frame to allow for the EPA review.

4

If a request for a variance is submitted to the Department, 40 CFR 124.62 requires that specific variances are subject to review by EPA. Under 40 CFR 123.44, EPA reserves the right to take 90-days to approve or deny the variance. Sixty-four business days will be added to the substantive review time-frame to allow for the EPA review.

5

"Major facility" means any NPDES "facility or activity" classified as such by the EPA in conjunction with the Director.

6

"Minor facility" means any facility that is not classified as a major facility.

Historical Note

Table 10 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table repealed; new Table made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 11. Surface Water Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Clean Water Act (CWA) &#167; 401 certification licenses: 1. CWA &#167; 401 state certification of a proposed CWA &#167; 402 NPDES permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-202. 21 42 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-202, Public notice of underlying proposed permit required. 2. CWA &#167; 401 state certification of a proposed CWA &#167; 404 permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-202. 21 42 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-202, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1341(a), Public notice of underlying proposed permit and Department application form required. 3. CWA &#167; 401 state certification of a proposed nonpoint source activity for a federal permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-202. 5 32 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-202, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 11 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 12. Solid Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Solid waste variance licenses: 1. Rule or standard variance request, A.R.S. &#167; 49-763.01. 21 41 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-763.01, Department application form required. Group II: Nonlandfill solid waste facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 2. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 3. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 5. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 6. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit significant amendment with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 7. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit significant amendment with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 8. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit significant amendment with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 9. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit significant amendment with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 10. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit other amendment, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form and initial fee required. 11. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit other amendment, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 12. Nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP permit transfer approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 21 32 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form and initial fee required. 13. Nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 14. Standard nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 15. Complex nonlandfill solid waste discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-A213. 21 125 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A213, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-107, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 12 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Table amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 241, effective March 11, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Table 13. Special Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Special waste licenses: 1. Waste from shredding motor vehicles alternative sampling plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-762 and 49-857, A.A.C. R18-8-307(A). 5 5 No A.A.C. R18-8-307(A), Initial fee required. 2. Special waste temporary treatment facility approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-762 and 49-857, A.A.C. R18-8-1610. 32 62 No A.A.C. R18-8-1607. Group II: Special waste facility plan licenses: 3. Existing special waste facility plan approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(A)(2). 32 124 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. New special waste facility plan approval with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(A)(1). 32 62 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 5. New special waste facility plan approval with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(A)(1). 32 124 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 6. New special waste facility operation temporary authorization, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(C). 21 41 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(C), Site inspection required. Group III: Special waste facility amendment licenses: 7. Special waste facility plan type III substantial change, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 8. Special waste facility plan type IV substantial change with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 9. Special waste facility plan type IV substantial change with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 62 Yes A.A.C. R18-8-307 and R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 13 (Continued). Special Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group IV: Special waste discharging facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 10. Standard special waste discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 11. Standard special waste discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 12. Complex special waste discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 13. Complex special waste discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 14. Standard special waste discharging facility AP major modification permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 15. Standard special waste discharging facility AP major modification permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 16. Complex special waste discharging facility AP major modification permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 17. Complex special waste discharging facility AP major modification permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 18. Standard special waste discharging facility AP other modification permit, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 13 (Continued). Special Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group IV (Continued): Special waste discharging facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 19. Complex special waste discharging facility AP other modification permit, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 20. Special waste discharging facility AP permit transfer approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 32 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-121(E), Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form and initial fee required. 21. Special waste discharging facility AP closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 22. Standard special waste discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 23. Complex special waste discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 125 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 24. Special waste VEMUR approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 47 No A.A.C. R18-7-207, Department application form and initial fee required. 25. Special waste VEMUR cancellation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-7-207, Department application form and initial fee required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 13 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 14. Landfill Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Solid waste landfill facility plan licenses: 1. Existing solid waste facility plan approval (landfill), A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-761(B) and 49-762.07(E). 32 124 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 2. New solid waste facility plan approval with no public hearing (landfill), A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-761(B) and 49-762.07(E). 32 62 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 3. New solid waste facility plan approval with a public hearing (landfill), A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-761(B) and 49-762.07(E). 32 124 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. New landfill operation temporary authorization, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(C). 21 41 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03(C). Group II: Solid waste landfill facility amendment licenses: 5. Solid waste facility plan type III substantial change (landfill), A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 41 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application, site inspection, form required. 6. Solid waste facility plan type IV substantial change (landfill) with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 41 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application, site inspection, form required. 7. Solid waste facility plan type IV substantial change (landfill) with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06(B). 21 62 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 257, 40 C.F.R. &#167; 258, Fee: R18-13-701 through R18-13-703, Department application, site inspection, form required. Group III: Landfill facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 8. Standard landfill discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 9. Standard landfill discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 14 (Continued). Landfill Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group III (Continued): Landfill facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 10. Complex landfill discharging facility AP new permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 11. Complex landfill discharging facility AP new permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 12. Standard landfill discharging facility AP major modification permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 13. Standard landfill discharging facility AP major modification permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 232 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 14. Complex landfill discharging facility AP major modification permit with no public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 15. Complex landfill discharging facility AP major modification permit with a public hearing, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 295 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 16. Standard landfill discharging facility AP other modification permit, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 186 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 17. Complex landfill discharging facility AP other modification permit, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 35 249 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-107 through R18-9-109, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 18. Landfill discharging facility AP permit transfer approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 32 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-121(E), Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form and initial fee required. </table>

Table 14 (Continued). Landfill Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group III (Continued): Landfill facility individual discharging aquifer protection (AP) licenses: 19. Landfill discharging facility AP closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 20. Standard landfill discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 41 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form required. 21. Complex landfill discharging facility AP post-closure plan approval, A.R.S &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-251, A.A.C. R18-9-101 through R18-9-130. 21 125 Yes A.A.C. R18-9-116, Fee: R18-14-101 through R18-14-108, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 14 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 15. Reserved

Table 16. Waste Tire, Lead Acid Battery, and Used Oil Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Waste tire licenses: 1. Waste tire collection site registration, A.R.S. &#167; 44-1303. 11 21 No A.A.C. R18-8-302(A), Department application form required. 2. Mining off-road waste tire collection facility license, A.R.S. &#167; 44-1304, A.A.C. R18-8-511, R18-8-706. 32 62 No A.R.S. &#167; 44-1304. Group II: Lead acid battery licenses: 3. Lead battery collection or recycling facility authorization, A.R.S. &#167; 44-1322(C). 32 62 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-857.01(A), Department application form required. Group III: Used oil licenses: 4. Used oil collection center registration number, A.R.S. &#167; 49-802(C)(1). 11 21 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-802(C)(1). </table>

Historical Note

Table 16 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 17. Hazardous Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) new and renewal licenses: 1. Hazardous waste container or tank permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 251 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.16, and 270.27, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 2. Hazardous waste container or tank permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 293 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.16, and 270.27, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 3. Hazardous waste surface impoundment permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.17, and 270.27, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 4. Hazardous waste surface impoundment permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.17, and 270.27, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 5. Hazardous waste pile permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.18, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 6. Hazardous waste pile permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.18, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 7. Hazardous waste incinerator or burning boiler and industrial furnace (BIF) permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 502 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.19, 270.22, 270.62, and 270.66, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), EPA 8700-23, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 8. Hazardous waste incinerator or burning boiler and industrial furnace (BIF) permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 544 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.19, 270.22, 270.62, and 270.66, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 9. Hazardous waste land treatment permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.20, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 17 (Continued). Hazardous Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I (Continued): Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) new and renewal licenses: 10. Hazardous waste land treatment permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.20, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 11. Hazardous waste landfill facility permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 502 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.21, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 12. Hazardous waste landfill facility permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 544 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.21, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 13. Hazardous waste miscellaneous unit permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.23, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 14. Hazardous waste miscellaneous unit permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, and 270.23, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 15. Hazardous waste drip pad permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.26, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 16. Hazardous waste drip pad permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 270.10-270.14, 270.26, EPA 8700-23, Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 17. Hazardous waste emergency permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 10 84 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.61, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form and site inspection required. 18. Hazardous waste land treatment demonstration using field test or laboratory analysis permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.63, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 19. Hazardous waste research, development, and demonstration permit, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270(Q). 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.65, EPA 8700-23, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. </table>

Table 17 (Continued). Hazardous Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACR TF Days SR TF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I (Continued): Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) new and renewal licenses: 20. Hazardous waste temporary authorization request approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 84 No 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(e), EPA 8700-23, Department application form and site inspection required. Group II: Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) modification licenses: 21. Hazardous waste permit transfer approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 125 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.40, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 22. Hazardous waste Class 1 permit modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 125 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(a), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 23. Hazardous waste Class 2 permit modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(b), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 24. Hazardous waste Class 3 incinerator, BIF, or landfill permit modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 502 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(c), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 25. Hazardous waste Class 3 other permit modification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(c), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. 26. Hazardous waste permit modification classification request, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922, A.A.C. R18-8-270. 84 125 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.42(d), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required. Group III: Hazardous waste closure plan licenses: 27. Hazardous waste interim status facility partial closure plan approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922. 84 95 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 264 Subpart G and 265 Subpart G, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required 28. Hazardous waste interim status facility final closure plan approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922. 84 95 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167;&#167; 264 Subpart G and 265 Subpart G, Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required </table>

Table 17 (Continued). Hazardous Waste Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group III (Continued): Hazardous waste closure plan licenses: 29. Hazardous waste post-closure permit with no public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922. 84 376 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.1(c), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required 30. Hazardous waste post-closure permit with a public hearing, A.R.S. &#167; 49-922. 84 418 Yes 40 C.F.R. &#167; 270.1(c), Fee: A.A.C. R18-8-270(G), Department application form, site inspection, and initial fee required Group IV: Hazardous waste voluntary environmental mitigation use restriction (VEMUR) licenses: 31. Hazardous waste VEMUR approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 47 No A.A.C. R18-7-207. 32. Hazardous waste VEMUR cancellation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-7-207. </table>

Historical Note

Table 17 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 18. Underground Storage Tank Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Underground Storage Tank (UST) technical requirement license. 1. UST temporary closure extension request approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1008, A.A.C. R18-12-270. 42 84 No A.A.C. R18-12-270(F)-(G), Department application form required. Group II: Underground Storage Tank (UST) service provider licenses. 2. UST installation and retrofit service provider certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1082, A.A.C. R18-12-803(1). 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-12-806, Department application form required. 3. UST tightness testing service provider certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1082, A.A.C. R18-12-803(2). 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-12-806, Department application form required. 4. UST cathodic protection testing service provider certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1082, A.A.C. R18-12-803(3). 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-12-806, Department application form required. 5. UST decommissioning service provider certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1082, A.A.C. R18-12-803(4). 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-12-806, Department application form required. 6. UST interior lining service provider certification, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1082, A.A.C. R18-12-803(5). 11 11 No A.A.C. R18-12-806, Department application form required. Group III: Leaking Underground Storage Tank (LUST) licenses. 7. LUST VEMUR approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 47 No A.A.C. R18-7-207. 8. LUST VEMUR cancellation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-7-207. Group IV: State assurance fund (SAF) licenses. 9. SAF firm pre-qualification approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(D), A.A.C. R18-12-602. 11 42 No A.A.C. R18-12-602, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 18 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 19. WQARF Remediation Licenses Issued by the Phoenix Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. WQARF preliminary investigation work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.01. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06, and 49-287.01, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 2. WQARF remedial investigation work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.03. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.03, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 3. WQARF feasibility study work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.03. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.03, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 4. WQARF standard remedial action plan (RAP) approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.04. 21 105 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.04, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 5. WQARF complex remedial action plan (RAP) approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.04. 21 146 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.04, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 6. WQARF determination of no further action (DNFA) approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(F). 42 84 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-287.01(F) and 49-287.01(G), Site inspection required. 7. WQARF site rescoring approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(F). 21 42 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(F), Site inspection required. 8. WQARF qualified business settlement approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-292.01(A). 21 42 No A.R.S. &#167; 49.292.01(B), Department application form required. 9. WQARF financial hardship settlement approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-292.02(A). 21 42 No A.R.S. &#167; 49.292.02(B). 10. WQARF VEMUR approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 47 No A.A.C. R18-2-207, Department application form required. 11. WQARF VEMUR cancellation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-2-207, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 19 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 19-S. WQARF Remediation Licenses Issued by the Southern Regional Office

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. WQARF preliminary investigation work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.01. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06, and 49-287.01, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 2. WQARF remedial investigation work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.03. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.03, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 3. WQARF feasibility study work plan approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.03. 21 63 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.03, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 4. WQARF standard remedial action plan (RAP) approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.04. 21 105 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.04, A.A.C.R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 5. WQARF complex remedial action plan (RAP) approval, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.06 and 49-287.04. 21 146 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151, 49-152, 49-282.06 and 49-287.04, A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209, Site inspection required. 6. WQARF determination of no further action (DNFA) approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(F). 42 84 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-287.01(F) and 49-287.01(G), Site inspection required. 7. Reserved. 8. Reserved. 9. Reserved. 10. WQARF VEMUR approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 47 No A.A.C. R18-2-207, Department application form required. 11. WQARF VEMUR cancellation approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), A.A.C. R18-7-207. 15 27 No A.A.C. R18-2-207, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 19-S adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 20. Voluntary Program Remediation Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components Group I: Voluntary program acceptance license: 1. Voluntary program eligibility determination, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-104(A)(17) and 49-282.05. 21 21 No A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-104(A)(17) and 49-282.05. Group II: Voluntary program greenfields remediation license: 2. Voluntary program greenfields notice-to-proceed (NTP) approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-154(C). 5 5 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-154(C), Department application form required. Group III: Voluntary program brownfields remediation license: 3. Voluntary program brownfields certification, Governor letter to EPA of August 29, 1997, concerning the "designation of the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality as A State Environmental Agency pursuant to Section 198(c)(1)(C)" of the federal Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997. 21 21 No Section 198(c)(1)(C) of the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997, Department application form required. </table>

Historical Note

Table 20 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 21. Pollution Prevention Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. State agency hazardous waste generation level pre-approval, A.R.S. &#167; 49-972(C). 63 63 No A.R.S. &#167; 49-972(E). </table>

Historical Note

Table 21 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 22. Multi-Program Licenses

Subject to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1073(A) Licensing Time-frame Requirements

ACRTF means Administrative Completeness Review Time-frame.

SRTF means Substantive Review Time-frame.

Day means business day.

<table> License Category ACRTF Days SRTF Days Subject to Sanctions Application Components 1. Airport construction &amp; expansion certificate (air &amp; water), A.R.S. &#167; 49-104. 21 42 No 49 U.S.C. &#167; 2208(7)(A). </table>

Historical Note

Table 22 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3343, effective August 13, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 2" level="2" title="AIR POLLUTION CONTROL">

AIR POLLUTION CONTROL

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="GENERAL">

GENERAL

<regElement name="R18.2.101" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="chlorin" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="5"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="1"><dwc name="methylen chlorid" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="1"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="2">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions prescribed in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-101, 49-401.01, 49-421, 49-471, and 49-541, in this Chapter, unless otherwise specified:

1. "Act" means the Clean Air Act of 1963 (P.L. 88-206; 42 U.S.C. 7401 through 7671q) as amended by the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 (P.L. 101-549).

2. "Actual emissions" means the actual rate of emissions of a pollutant from an emissions unit, as determined in subsections (a) through (e).

a. In general, actual emissions as of a particular date shall equal the average rate, in tons per year, at which the unit actually emitted the pollutant during a two-year period that precedes the particular date and that is representative of normal source operation. The Director may allow the use of a different time period upon a demonstration that it is more representative of normal source operation. Actual emissions shall be calculated using the unit's actual operating hours, production rates, and types of materials processed, stored or combusted during the selected time period.

b. If there is inadequate information to determine actual historical emissions, the Director may presume that source-specific allowable emissions for the unit are equivalent to the actual emissions of the unit.

c. For any emissions unit at a Class I source, other than an electric utility steam generating unit in subsection (e), that has not begun normal operations on the particular date, actual emissions shall equal the unit's potential to emit on that date.

d. For any emissions unit at a Class II source that has not begun normal operations on the particular date, actual emissions shall be based on applicable control equipment requirements and projected conditions of operation.

e. For an electric utility steam generating unit (other than a new unit or the replacement of an existing unit), actual emissions of the unit following the physical or operational change shall equal the representative actual annual emissions of the unit, if the source owner or operator maintains and submits to the Director, on an annual basis for a period of five years from the date the unit resumes regular operation, information demonstrating that the physical or operational change did not result in an emissions increase. A longer period, not to exceed 10 years, may be required by the Director if the Director determines the longer period to be more representative of normal source post-change operations.

3. "Administrator" means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

4. "Affected facility" means, with reference to a stationary source, any apparatus to which a standard is applicable.

5. "Affected source" means a source that includes one or more units which are subject to emission reduction requirements or limitations under Title IV of the Act.

6. "Affected state" means any state whose air quality may be affected by a source applying for a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal and that is contiguous to Arizona or that is within 50 miles of the permitted source.

7. "Afterburner" means an incinerator installed in the secondary combustion chamber or stack for the purpose of incinerating smoke, fumes, gases, unburned carbon, and other combustible material not consumed during primary combustion.

8. "Air curtain destructor" means an incineration device designed and used to secure, by means of a fan-generated air curtain, controlled combustion of only wood waste and slash materials in an earthen trench or refractory-lined pit or bin.

9. "Air pollution control equipment" means equipment used to eliminate, reduce or control the emission of air pollutants into the ambient air.

10. "Air quality control region" (AQCR) means an area so designated by the Administrator pursuant to Section 107 of the Act and includes the following regions in Arizona:

a. Maricopa Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which is comprised of the County of Maricopa.

b. Pima Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which is comprised of the County of Pima.

c. Northern Arizona Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which encompasses the counties of Apache, Coconino, Navajo, and Yavapai.

d. Mohave-Yuma Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which encompasses the counties of La Paz, Mohave, and Yuma.

e. Central Arizona Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which encompasses the counties of Gila and Pinal.

f. Southeast Arizona Intrastate Air Quality Control Region which encompasses the counties of Cochise, Graham, Greenlee, and Santa Cruz.

11. "Allowable emissions" means the emission rate of a stationary source calculated using both the maximum rated capacity of the source, unless the source is subject to federally enforceable limits which restrict the operating rate or hours of operation, and the most stringent of the following:

a. The applicable New Source Performance Standards or National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, as contained in Articles 9 or 11 of this Chapter;

b. The applicable existing source performance standard, as approved for the SIP and contained in Article 7 of this Chapter; or,

c. The emissions rate specified in any federally promulgated rule or federally enforceable permit conditions applicable to the state of Arizona.

12. "Ambient air" means that portion of the atmosphere, external to buildings, to which the general public has access.

13. "Applicable implementation plan" means those provisions of the state implementation plan approved by the Administrator or a federal implementation plan promulgated in accordance with Title I of the Act.

14. "Applicable requirement" means any of the following:

a. Any federal applicable requirement.

b. Any other requirement established pursuant to this Chapter or A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3.

15. "Arizona Testing Manual" means the Arizona Testing Manual for Air Pollutant Emissions.

16. "ASTM" means the American Society for Testing and Materials.

17. "Attainment area" means an area so designated by the Administrator acting pursuant to Section 107 of the Act as having ambient air pollutant concentration equal to or less than national primary or secondary ambient air quality standards for a particular pollutant or pollutants.

18. "Begin actual construction" means, in general, initiation of physical on-site construction activities on an emissions unit which are of a permanent nature. Such activities include installation of building supports and foundations, laying of underground pipework, and construction of permanent storage structures. With respect to a change in method of operation this term refers to those on-site activities, other than preparatory activities, which mark the initiation of the change.

19. "Best available control technology" (BACT) means an emission limitation, including a visible emissions standard, based on the maximum degree of reduction for each air pollutant listed in R18-2-101(97)(a) which would be emitted from any proposed major source or major modification, taking into account energy, environmental, and economic impact and other costs, determined by the Director in accordance with R18-2-406(A)(4) to be achievable for such source or modification.

20. "Btu" means British thermal unit, which is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1&#176; F.

21. "CFR" means the Code of Federal Regulations, with standard references in this Chapter by Title and Part, so that "40 CFR 51" means "Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 51."

22. "Charge" means the addition of metal bearing materials, scrap, or fluxes to a furnace, converter or refining vessel.

23. "Clean coal technology" means any technology, including technologies applied at the precombustion, combustion, or post-combustion stage, at a new or existing facility that will achieve significant reductions in air emissions of sulfur dioxide or oxides of nitrogen associated with the utilization of coal in the generation of electricity, or process steam, that was not in widespread use as of November 15, 1990.

24. "Clean coal technology demonstration project" means a project using funds appropriated under the heading "Department of Energy - Clean Coal Technology," up to a total amount of $2,500,000,000 for commercial demonstration of clean coal technology or similar projects funded through appropriations for the Environmental Protection Agency. The federal contribution for a qualifying project shall be at least 20% of the total cost of the demonstration project.

25. "Coal" means all solid fossil fuels classified as anthracite, bituminous, subbituminous, or lignite by ASTM D-388-91, (Classification of Coals by Rank).

26. "Combustion" means the burning of matter.

27. "Commence" means, as applied to construction of a source, or a major modification as defined in Article 4 of this Chapter, that the owner or operator has all necessary preconstruction approvals or permits and either has:

a. Begun, or caused to begin, a continuous program of actual on-site construction of the source, to be completed within a reasonable time; or

b. Entered into binding agreements or contractual obligations, which cannot be cancelled or modified without substantial loss to the owner or operator, to undertake a program of actual construction of the source to be completed within a reasonable time.

28. "Construction" means any physical change or change in the method of operation, including fabrication, erection, installation, demolition, or modification of an emissions unit, which would result in a change in actual emissions.

29. "Continuous monitoring system" or "continuous emission monitoring system" means the total equipment, required under the emission monitoring provisions in this Chapter, used to sample and, if applicable, to condition, to analyze, and to provide, on a continuous basis, a permanent record of emission or process parameters.

30. "Controlled atmosphere incinerator" means one or more refractory-lined chambers in which complete combustion is promoted by recirculation of gases by mechanical means.

31. "Discharge" means the release or escape of an effluent from a source into the atmosphere.

32. "Dust" means finely divided solid particulate matter occurring naturally or created by mechanical processing, handling or storage of materials in the solid state.

33. "Dust suppressant" means a chemical compound or mixture of chemical compounds added with or without water to a dust source for purposes of preventing air entrainment.

34. "Effluent" means any air contaminant which is emitted and subsequently escapes into the atmosphere.

35. "Electric utility steam generating unit" means any steam electric generating unit that is constructed for the purpose of supplying more than one-third of its potential electric output capacity and more than 25 MW electrical output to any utility power distribution system for sale. Any steam supplied to a steam distribution system for the purpose of providing steam to a steam-electric generator that would produce electrical energy for sale is also considered in determining the electrical energy output capacity of the affected facility.

36. "Emission" means an air contaminant or gas stream, or the act of discharging an air contaminant or a gas stream, visible or invisible.

37. "Emission standard" or "emission limitation" means a requirement established by the state, a local government, or the Administrator which limits the quantity, rate, or concentration of emissions of air pollutants on a continuous basis, including any requirements which limit the level of opacity, prescribe equipment, set fuel specifications, or prescribe operation or maintenance procedures for a source to assure continuous emission reduction.

38. "Emissions unit" means any part of a stationary source which emits or would have the potential to emit any regulated air pollutant.

39. "Equivalent method" means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant which has been demonstrated under R18-2-311(D) to have a consistent and quantitatively known relationship to the reference method, under specified conditions.

40. "Excess emissions" means emissions of an air pollutant in excess of an emission standard as measured by the compliance test method applicable to such emission standard.

41. "Existing source" means any source which does not have an applicable new source performance standard under Article 9 of this Chapter.

42. "Federal applicable requirement" means any of the following as they apply to emissions units covered by a Class I or II permit (including requirements that have been promulgated or approved by EPA through rulemaking at the time of issuance but have future effective compliance dates):

a. Any standard or other requirement provided for in the applicable implementation plan approved or promulgated by EPA through rulemaking under Title I of the Act that implements the relevant requirements of the Act, including any revisions to that plan promulgated in 40 CFR 52.

b. Any term or condition of any preconstruction permits issued pursuant to regulations approved or promulgated through rulemaking under Title I, including parts C or D, of the Act.

c. Any standard or other requirement under Section 111 of the Act, including Section 111(d).

d. Any standard or other requirement under Section 112 of the Act, including any requirement concerning accident prevention under Section 112(r)(7) of the Act.

e. Any standard or other requirement of the acid rain program under Title IV of the Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder and incorporated pursuant to R18-2-333.

f. Any requirements established pursuant to Section 504(b) or Section 114(a)(3) of the Act.

g. Any standard or other requirement governing solid waste incineration, under Section 129 of the Act.

h. Any standard or other requirement for consumer and commercial products, under Section 183(e) of the Act.

i. Any standard or other requirement for tank vessels under Section 183(f) of the Act.

j. Any standard or other requirement of the program to control air pollution from outer continental shelf sources, under Section 328 of the Act.

k. Any standard or other requirement of the regulations promulgated to protect stratospheric ozone under Title VI of the Act, unless the Administrator has determined that such requirements need not be contained in a Title V permit.

l. Any national ambient air quality standard or increment or visibility requirement under Part C of Title I of the Act, but only as it would apply to temporary sources permitted pursuant to Section 504(e) of the Act.

43. "Federal Land Manager" means, with respect to any lands in the United States, the secretary of the department with authority over such lands.

44. "Federally enforceable" means all limitations and conditions which are enforceable by the Administrator under the Act, including all of the following:

a. The requirements of the New Source Performance Standards and National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants contained in Articles 9 and 11 of this Chapter;

b. The requirements of such other state or county rules or regulations approved by the Administrator, including the requirements of state and county operating and new source review permit programs that have been approved by the Administrator;

c. The requirements of any applicable implementation plan;

d. Emissions limitations, controls, and other requirements, and any associated monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements, which are entered into voluntarily by a source pursuant to R18-2-306.01.

45. "Final permit" means the version of a permit issued by the Department after completion of all review required by this Chapter.

46. "Fixed capital cost" means the capital needed to provide all the depreciable components.

47. "Fuel" means any material which is burned for the purpose of producing energy.

48. "Fuel burning equipment" means any machine, equipment, incinerator, device or other article, except stationary rotating machinery, in which combustion takes place.

49. "Fugitive emissions" means those emissions which could not reasonably pass through a stack, chimney, vent, or other functionally equivalent opening.

50. "Fume" means solid particulate matter resulting from the condensation and subsequent solidification of vapors of melted solid materials.

51. "Fume incinerator" means a device similar to an afterburner installed for the purpose of incinerating fumes, gases and other finely divided combustible particulate matter not previously burned.

52. "Good engineering practice (GEP) stack height" means a stack height meeting the requirements described in R18-2-332.

53. "Heat input" means the quantity of heat in terms of Btu's generated by fuels fed into the fuel burning equipment under conditions of complete combustion.

54. "Incinerator" means any equipment, machine, device, contrivance or other article, and all appurtenances thereof, used for the combustion of refuse, salvage materials or any other combustible material except fossil fuels, for the purpose of reducing the volume of material.

55. "Indian governing body" means the governing body of any tribe, band, or group of Indians subject to the jurisdiction of the United States and recognized by the United States as possessing power of self-government.

56. "Indian reservation" means any federally recognized reservation established by Treaty, Agreement, Executive Order, or Act of Congress.

57. "Insignificant activity" means an activity in an emissions unit that is not otherwise subject to any applicable requirement and which belongs to one of the following categories:

a. Landscaping, building maintenance, or janitorial activities.

b. Gasoline storage tanks with capacity of 10,000 gallons or less.

c. Diesel and fuel oil storage tanks with capacity of 40,000 gallons or less.

d. Batch mixers with rated capacity of 5 cubic feet or less.

e. Wet sand and gravel production facilities that obtain material from subterranean and subaqueous beds, whose production rate is 200 tons/hour or less, and whose permanent in-plant roads are paved and cleaned to control dust. This does not include activities in emissions units which are used to crush or grind any non-metallic minerals.

f. Hand-held or manually operated equipment used for buffing, polishing, carving, cutting, drilling, machining, routing, sanding, sawing, surface grinding, or turning of ceramic art work, precision parts, leather, metals, plastics, fiberboard, masonry, carbon, glass, or wood.

g. Powder coating operations.

h. Internal combustion (IC) engine-driven compressors, IC engine-driven electrical generator sets, and IC engine-driven water pumps used only for emergency replacement or standby service.

i. Lab equipment used exclusively for chemical and physical analyses.

j. Any other activity which the Director determines is not necessary, because of its emissions due to size or production rate, to be included in an application in order to determine all applicable requirements and to calculate any fee under this Chapter.

58. "Kraft pulp mill" means any stationary source which produces pulp from wood by cooking or digesting wood chips in a water solution of sodium hydroxide and sodium sulfide at high temperature and pressure. Regeneration of the cooking chemicals through a recovery process is also considered part of the kraft pulp mill.

59. "Lead" means elemental lead or alloys in which the predominant component is lead.

60. "Lime hydrator" means a unit used to produce hydrated lime product.

61. "Lime plant" includes any plant which produces a lime product from limestone by calcination. Hydration of the lime product is also considered to be part of the source.

62. "Lime product" means any product produced by the calcination of limestone.

63. "Major modification" means any physical change or change in the method of operation of a major source that would result in a significant net emissions increase of any regulated air pollutant.

a. Any net emissions increase that is significant for volatile organic compounds is significant for ozone.

b. Any net emissions increase that is significant for oxides of nitrogen is significant for ozone for ozone nonattainment areas classified as marginal, moderate, serious, or severe.

c. For the purposes of this definition the following are not a physical change or change in the method of operation:

i. Routine maintenance, repair, and replacement;

ii. Use of an alternative fuel or raw material by reason of an order under Sections 2(a) and (b) of the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, 15 U.S.C. 792, or by reason of a natural gas curtailment plan under the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 792 - 825r;

iii. Use of an alternative fuel by reason of an order or rule under Section 125 of the Act;

iv. Use of an alternative fuel at a steam generating unit to the extent that the fuel is generated from municipal solid waste;

v. Use of an alternative fuel or raw material by a stationary source that either:

(1) The source was capable of accommodating before December 12, 1976, unless the change would be prohibited under any federally enforceable permit condition established after December 12, 1976, under 40 CFR 52.21, or under Articles 3 or 4 of this Chapter; or

(2) The source is approved to use under any permit issued under 40 CFR 52.21, or under Articles 3 or 4 of this Chapter.

vi. An increase in the hours of operation or in the production rate, unless the change would be prohibited under any federally enforceable permit condition established after December 12, 1976, under 40 CFR 52.21, or under Articles 3 or 4 of this Chapter.

vii. Any change in ownership at a stationary source;

viii. The addition, replacement, or use of a pollution control project at an existing electric utility steam generating unit, unless the Director determines that the addition, replacement, or use renders the unit less environmentally beneficial, or except:

(1) When the Director has reason to believe that the pollution control project would result in a significant net increase in representative actual annual emissions of any criteria pollutant over levels used for that source in the most recent Title I air quality impact analysis in the area, if any, and

(2) The Director determines that the increase will cause or contribute to a violation of any national ambient air quality standard or PSD increment, or visibility limitation;

ix. The installation, operation, cessation, or removal of a temporary clean coal technology demonstration project, if the project complies with:

(1) The SIP and

(2) Other requirements necessary to attain and maintain the national ambient air quality standards during the project and after it is terminated;

x. For electric utility steam generating units located in attainment and unclassifiable areas only, the installation or operation of a permanent clean coal technology demonstration project that constitutes repowering, if the project does not result in an increase in the potential to emit any regulated pollutant emitted by the unit. This exemption applies on a pollutant-by-pollutant basis; and

xi. For electric utility steam generating units located in attainment and unclassifiable areas only, the reactivation of a very clean coal-fired electric utility steam generating unit.

64. "Major source" means:

a. A major source as defined in R18-2-401.

b. A major source under Section 112 of the Act:

i. For pollutants other than radionuclides, any stationary source that emits or has the potential to emit, in the aggregate, including fugitive emission 10 tons per year (tpy) or more of any hazardous air pollutant which has been listed pursuant to Section 112(b) of the Act, 25 tpy or more of any combination of such hazardous air pollutants, or such lesser quantity as described in Article 11 of this Chapter. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, emissions from any oil or gas exploration or production well (with its associated equipment) and emissions from any pipeline compressor or pump station shall not be aggregated with emissions from other similar units, whether or not such units are in a contiguous area or under common control, to determine whether such units or stations are major sources; or

ii. For radionuclides, "major source" shall have the meaning specified by the Administrator by rule.

c. A major stationary source, as defined in Section 302 of the Act, that directly emits or has the potential to emit, 100 tpy or more of any air pollutant including any major source of fugitive emissions of any such pollutant. The fugitive emissions of a stationary source shall not be considered in determining whether it is a major stationary source for the purposes of Section 302(j) of the Act, unless the source belongs to one of the following categories of stationary source:

i. Coal cleaning plants (with thermal dryers).

ii. Kraft pulp mills.

iii. Portland cement plants.

iv. Primary zinc smelters.

v. Iron and steel mills.

vi. Primary aluminum ore reduction plants.

vii. Primary copper smelters.

viii. Municipal incinerators capable of charging more than 50 tons of refuse per day.

ix. Hydrofluoric, sulfuric, or nitric acid plants.

x Petroleum refineries.

xi. Lime plants.

xii. Phosphate rock processing plants.

xiii. Coke oven batteries.

xiv. Sulfur recovery plants.

xv. Carbon black plants (furnace process).

xvi. Primary lead smelters.

xvii. Fuel conversion plants.

xviii. Sintering plants.

xix. Secondary metal production plants.

xx. Chemical process plants.

xxi. Fossil-fuel boilers (or combination thereof) totaling more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input.

xxii. Petroleum storage and transfer units with a total storage capacity exceeding 300,000 barrels.

xxiii. Taconite ore processing plants.

xxiv. Glass fiber processing plants.

xxv. Charcoal production plants.

xxvi. Fossil-fuel-fired steam electric plants of more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input.

xxvii. Any other stationary source category, which as of August 7, 1980, is being regulated under Section 111 or 112 of the Act.

65. "Malfunction" means any sudden and unavoidable failure of air pollution control equipment, process equipment or a process to operate in a normal and usual manner, but does not include failures that are caused by poor maintenance, careless operation or any other upset condition or equipment breakdown which could have been prevented by the exercise of reasonable care.

66. "Minor source" means a source of air pollution which is not a major source for the purposes of Article 4 of this Chapter and over which the Director, acting pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-402(B), has asserted jurisdiction.

67. "Minor source baseline area" means the air quality control region in which the source is located.

68. "Monitoring device" means the total equipment, required under the applicable provisions of this Chapter, used to measure and record, if applicable, process parameters.

69. "Motor vehicle" means any self-propelled vehicle designed for transporting persons or property on public highways.

70. "Multiple chamber incinerator" means three or more refractory-lined combustion chambers in series, physically separated by refractory walls and interconnected by gas passage ports or ducts.

71. "Natural conditions" includes naturally occurring phenomena that reduce visibility as measured in terms of light extinction, visual range, contrast, or coloration.

72. "Necessary preconstruction approvals or permits" means those permits or approvals required under the Act and those air quality control laws and rules which are part of the SIP.

73. "Net emissions increase" means:

a. The amount by which the sum of subsections (69)(a)(i) and (ii) exceeds zero:

i. Any increase in actual emissions from a particular physical change or change in the method of operation at a stationary source; and

ii. Any other increases and decreases in actual emissions at the source that are contemporaneous with the particular change and are otherwise creditable.

b. An increase or decrease in actual emissions is contemporaneous with the increase from the particular change only if it occurs between:

i. The date five years before construction on the particular change commences; and

ii. The date that the increase from the particular change occurs.

c. An increase or decrease in actual emissions is creditable only if the Director has not relied on it in issuing a permit, which is in effect when the increase in actual emissions from the particular change occurs. In addition, in nonattainment areas, a decrease in actual emissions shall be considered in determining net emissions increase due to modifications only if the state has not relied on it in demonstrating attainment or reasonable further progress.

d. An increase or decrease in actual emissions of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, or PM

10

which occurs before the applicable baseline date, as described in R18-2-218, is creditable only if it is required to be considered in calculating the amount of maximum allowable increases remaining available.

e. An increase in actual emissions is creditable only to the extent that the new level of actual emissions exceeds the old level.

f. A decrease in actual emissions is creditable only to the extent that:

i. The old level of actual emissions or the old level of allowable emissions, whichever is lower, exceeds the new level of actual emissions;

ii. It is federally enforceable at and after the time that actual construction on the particular change begins;

iii. It has approximately the same qualitative significance for public health and welfare as that attributed to the increase from the particular change; and

iv. The emissions unit was actually operated and emitted the specific pollutant.

g. An increase that results from a physical change at a source occurs when the emissions unit on which construction occurred becomes operational and begins to emit a particular pollutant. Any replacement unit that requires shakedown becomes operational only after a reasonable shakedown period, not to exceed 180 days.

74. "New source" means any stationary source of air pollution which is subject to an applicable new source performance standard under Article 9 of this Chapter.

75. "Nitric acid plant" means any facility producing nitric acid 30% to 70% in strength by either the pressure or atmospheric pressure process.

76. "Nitrogen oxides" means all oxides of nitrogen except nitrous oxide, as measured by test methods set forth in the Appendices to 40 CFR 60.

77. "Nonattainment area" means an area so designated by the Administrator acting pursuant to Section 107 of the Act as exceeding national primary or secondary ambient air standards for a particular pollutant or pollutants.

78. "Nonpoint source" means a source of air contaminants which lacks an identifiable plume or emission point.

79. "Opacity" means the degree to which emissions reduce the transmission of light and obscure the view of an object in the background.

80. "Operation" means any physical or chemical action resulting in the change in location, form, physical properties, or chemical character of a material.

81. "Owner or operator" means any person who owns, leases, operates, controls, or supervises an affected facility or a stationary source of which an affected facility is a part.

82. "Particulate matter" means any airborne finely divided solid or liquid material with an aerodynamic diameter smaller than 100 micrometers.

83. "Particulate matter emissions" means all finely divided solid or liquid materials other than uncombined water, emitted to the ambient air as measured by applicable test methods and procedures described in R18-2-311.

84. "Pollution control project" means any activity or project undertaken at an existing electric utility steam generating unit to reduce emissions from the unit. The activities or projects are limited to:

a. The installation of conventional or innovative pollution control technology, including advanced flue gas desulfurization, sorbent injection for sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides controls, and electrostatic precipitators;

b. An activity or project to accommodate switching to a fuel less polluting than the fuel used before the activity or project, including natural gas or coal reburning, or the co-firing of natural gas and other fuels for the purpose of controlling emissions;

c. A permanent clean coal technology demonstration project conducted under Title II, section 101(d) of the Further Continuing Appropriations Act of 1985 (42 U.S.C. 5903(d), or subsequent appropriations, up to a total amount of $2,500,000,000 for commercial demonstration of clean coal technology, or similar projects funded through appropriations for the Environmental Protection Agency, or

d. A permanent clean coal technology demonstration project that constitutes a repowering project.

85. "PM

10

" means particulate matter with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers as measured by a reference method contained within 40 CFR 50 Appendix J or by an equivalent method designated in accordance with 40 CFR 53.

86. "PM

10

emissions" means finely divided solid or liquid material, with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers emitted to the ambient air as measured by applicable test methods and procedures described in R18-2-311.

87. "Plume" means visible effluent.

88. "Pollutant" means an air contaminant the emission or ambient concentration of which is regulated pursuant to this Chapter.

89. "Portable source" means any building, structure, facility, or installation subject to regulation pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426 which emits or may emit any air pollutant and is capable of being operated at more than one location.

90. "Potential to emit" or "potential emission rate" means the maximum capacity of a stationary source to emit a pollutant, excluding secondary emissions, under its physical and operational design. Any physical or operational limitation on the capacity of the source to emit a pollutant, including air pollution control equipment and restrictions on hours of operation or on the type or amount of material combusted, stored, or processed, shall be treated as part of its design if the limitation or the effect it would have on emissions is federally enforceable.

91. "Primary ambient air quality standards" means the ambient air quality standards which define levels of air quality necessary, with an adequate margin of safety, to protect the public health, as specified in Article 2 of this Chapter.

92. "Process" means one or more operations, including equipment and technology, used in the production of goods or services or the control of by-products or waste.

93. "Proposed permit" means the version of a permit for which the Director offers public participation under R18-2-330 or affected state review under R18-2-307(D).

94. "Proposed final permit" means the version of a Class I permit that the Department proposes to issue and forwards to the Administrator for review in compliance with R18-2-307(A).

95. "Reactivation of a very clean coal-fired electric utility steam generating unit" means any physical change or change in the method of operation associated with commencing commercial operations by a coal-fired utility unit after a period of discontinued operation if the unit:

a. Has not been in operation for the two-year period before enactment of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, and the emissions from the unit continue to be carried in the Director's emissions inventory at the time of enactment;

b. Was equipped before shutdown with a continuous system of emissions control that achieves a removal efficiency for sulfur dioxide of no less than 85% and a removal efficiency for particulates of no less than 98%;

c. Is equipped with low-NOx burners before commencement of operations following reactivation; and

d. Is otherwise in compliance with the Act.

96. "Reclaiming machinery" means any machine, equipment device or other article used for picking up stored granular material and either depositing this material on a conveyor or reintroducing this material into the process.

97. "Reference method" means the methods of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant as described in the Arizona Testing Manual; 40 CFR 50, Appendices A through K; 40 CFR 52, Appendices D and E; 40 CFR 60, Appendices A through F; and 40 CFR 61, Appendices B and C.

98. "Regulated air pollutant" means any of the following:

a. Any conventional air pollutant as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01.

b. Nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds.

c. Any air contaminant that is subject to a standard contained in Article 9 of this Chapter.

d. Any hazardous air pollutant as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01.

e. Any Class I or II substance listed in Section 602 of the Act.

99. "Repowering" means:

a. Replacing an existing coal-fired boiler with one of the following clean coal technologies:

i. Atmospheric or pressurized fluidized bed combustion;

ii. Integrated gasification combined cycle;

iii. Magnetohydrodynamics;

iv. Direct and indirect coal-fired turbines;

v. Integrated gasification fuel cells; or

vi. As determined by the Administrator, in consultation with the United States Secretary of Energy, a derivative of one or more of the above technologies; and

vii. Any other technology capable of controlling multiple combustion emissions simultaneously with improved boiler or generation efficiency and with significantly greater waste reduction relative to the performance of technology in widespread commercial use as of November 15, 1990.

b. Repowering also includes any oil, gas, or oil and gas-fired unit that has been awarded clean coal technology demonstration funding as of January 1, 1991, by the United States Department of Energy.

c. The Director shall give expedited consideration to permit applications for any source that satisfies the requirements of this subsection and is granted an extension under section 409 of the Act.

100. "Representative actual annual emissions" means the average rate, in tons per year, at which a source is projected to emit a pollutant for the 2-year period after a physical change or change in the method of operation of a unit, (or a different consecutive 2-year period within 10 years after that change, if the Director determines that the different period is more representative of source operations), considering the effect the change will have on increasing or decreasing the hourly emissions rate and on projected capacity utilization. In projecting future emissions the Director shall:

a. Consider all relevant information, including historical operational data, the company's representations, filings with Arizona or federal regulatory authorities, and compliance plans under Title IV of the Act; and

b. Exclude, in calculating any increase in emissions that results from the particular physical change or change in the method of operation at an electric utility steam generating unit, that portion of the unit's emissions following the change that could have been accommodated during the representative baseline period and is attributable to an increase in projected capacity utilization at the unit unrelated to the particular change, including any increased utilization due to the rate of electricity demand growth for the utility system as a whole.

101. "Run" means the net period of time during which an emission sample is collected, which may be, unless otherwise specified, either intermittent or continuous within the limits of good engineering practice.

102. "Secondary ambient air quality standards" means the ambient air quality standards which define levels of air quality necessary to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant, as specified in Article 2 of this Chapter.

103. "Secondary emissions" means emissions which are specific, well defined, quantifiable, occur as a result of the construction or operation of a major source or major modification, but do not come from the major source or major modification itself, and impact the same general area as the stationary source or modification which causes the secondary emissions. Secondary emissions include emissions from any offsite support facility which would not otherwise be constructed or increase its emissions as a result of the construction or operation of the major source or major modification. Secondary emissions do not include any emissions which come directly from a mobile source, such as emissions from the tailpipe of a motor vehicle, from a train, or from a vessel.

104. "Shutdown" means the cessation of operation of any air pollution control equipment or process equipment for any purpose, except routine phasing out of process equipment.

105. "Significant" means:

a. In reference to a net emissions increase or the potential of a source to emit any of the following pollutants, a rate of emissions that would equal or exceed any of the following rates:

<table> Pollutant Emissions Rate Carbon monoxide 100 tons per year (tpy) Nitrogen oxides 40 tpy Sulfur dioxide 40 tpy Particulate matter 25 tpy PM 10 15 tpy VOC 40 tpy Lead 0.6 tpy Fluorides 3 tpy Sulfuric acid mist 7 tpy Hydrogen sulfide (H 2 S) 10 tpy Total reduced sulfur (including H 2 S) 10 tpy Reduced sulfur compounds (including H 2 S) 10 tpy Municipal waste combustor organics (measured as total tetra-through octa-chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans) 3.5 x 10 -6 tpy Municipal waste combustor metals (measured as particulate matter) 15 tpy Municipal waste combustor acid gases (measured as sulfur dioxide and hydrogen chloride) 40 tpy Municipal solid waste landfill emissions (measured as nonmethane organic compounds) 50 tpy </table>

b. In ozone nonattainment areas classified as serious or severe, significant emissions of VOC shall be determined under R18-2-405.

c. For a regulated air pollutant that is not listed in subsection (a), is not a Class I or II substance listed in Section 602 of the Act, and is not a hazardous air pollutant according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01(11), any emission rate.

d. Notwithstanding the emission amount listed in subsection (a), any emissions rate or any net emissions increase associated with a major source or major modification, which would be constructed within 10 kilometers of a Class I area and have an impact on the ambient air quality of such area equal to or greater than 1 &#956;g/m

3

(24-hour average).

106. "Smoke" means particulate matter resulting from incomplete combustion.

107. "Stack" means any point in a source designed to emit solids, liquids, or gases into the air, including a pipe or duct but not including flares.

108. "Stack in existence" means that the owner or operator had either:

a. Begun, or caused to begin, a continuous program of physical on-site construction of the stack;

b. Entered into binding agreements or contractual obligations, which could not be cancelled or modified without substantial loss to the owner or operator, to undertake a program of construction of the stack to be completed in a reasonable time.

109. "Start-up" means the setting into operation of any air pollution control equipment or process equipment for any purpose except routine phasing in of process equipment.

110. "State implementation plan" (SIP) means the plan adopted by the state of Arizona which provides for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of such primary and secondary ambient air quality standards as are adopted by the Administrator, pursuant to the Act.

111. "Stationary rotating machinery" means any gas engine, diesel engine, gas turbine, or oil fired turbine operated from a stationary mounting and used for the production of electric power or for the direct drive of other equipment.

112. "Stationary source" means any building, structure, facility or installation subject to regulation pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(A) which emits or may emit any air pollutant. "Building," "structure," "facility," or "installation" means all of the pollutant-emitting activities which belong to the same industrial grouping, are located on one or more contiguous or adjacent properties, and are under the control of the same person or persons under common control. Pollutant-emitting activities shall be considered as part of the same industrial grouping if they belong to the same "Major Group" as described in the "Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987."

113. "Sulfuric acid plant" means any facility producing sulfuric acid by the contact process by burning elemental sulfur, alkylation acid, hydrogen sulfide, or acid sludge, but does not include facilities where conversion to sulfuric acid is utilized as a means of preventing emissions of sulfur dioxide or other sulfur compounds to the atmosphere.

114. "Temporary clean coal technology demonstration project" means a clean coal technology demonstration project operated for five years or less, and that complies with the SIP and other requirements necessary to attain and maintain the national ambient air quality standards during the project and after the project is terminated.

115. "Temporary source" means a source which is portable, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01(23) and which is not an affected source.

116. "Total reduced sulfur" (TRS) means the sum of the sulfur compounds, primarily hydrogen sulfide, methyl mercaptan, dimethyl sulfide, and dimethyl disulfide, that are released during kraft pulping and other operations and measured by Method 16 in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A.

117. "Total suspended particulate" (TSP) means particulate matter as measured by the reference method described in 40 CFR 50, Appendix B, plus any particulate matter from fugitive emissions quantified by methods approved by the Director.

118. "Trivial activities" means activities and emissions units, such as the following, that may be omitted from a Class I or Class II permit application. Certain of the following listed activities include qualifying statements intended to exclude similar activities:

a. Combustion emissions from propulsion of mobile sources;

b. Air-conditioning units used for human comfort that do not have applicable requirements under title VI of the Act;

c. Ventilating units used for human comfort that do not exhaust air pollutants into the ambient air from any manufacturing, industrial or commercial process;

d. Non-commercial food preparation;

e. Janitorial services and consumer use of janitorial products;

f. Internal combustion engines used for landscaping purposes;

g. Laundry activities, except for dry-cleaning and steam boilers;

h. Bathroom and toilet vent emissions;

i. Emergency or backup electrical generators at residential locations;

j. Tobacco smoking rooms and areas;

k. Blacksmith forges;

l. Plant maintenance and upkeep activities, including grounds-keeping, general repairs, cleaning, painting, welding, plumbing, re-tarring roofs, installing insulation, and paving parking lots, if these activities are not conducted as part of a manufacturing process, are not related to the source's primary business activity, and do not otherwise trigger a permit revision. Cleaning and painting activities qualify as trivial activities if they are not subject to VOC or hazardous air pollutant (HAP) control requirements;

m. Repair or maintenance shop activities not related to the source's primary business activity, not including emissions from surface coating, de-greasing, or solvent metal cleaning activities, and not otherwise triggering a permit revision;

n. Portable electrical generators that can be moved by hand from one location to another. "Moved by hand" means capable of being moved without the assistance of any motorized or non-motorized vehicle, conveyance, or device;

o. Hand-held equipment for buffing, polishing, cutting, drilling, sawing, grinding, turning, or machining wood, metal, or plastic;

p. Brazing, soldering, and welding equipment, and cutting torches related to manufacturing and construction activities that do not result in emission of HAP metals. Brazing, soldering, and welding equipment, and cutting torches related to manufacturing and construction activities that emit HAP metals are insignificant activities based on size or production level thresholds. Brazing, soldering, and welding equipment, and cutting torches directly related to plant maintenance and upkeep and repair or maintenance shop activities that emit HAP metals are treated as trivial and listed separately in this definition;

q. Air compressors and pneumatically operated equipment, including hand tools;

r. Batteries and battery charging stations, except at battery manufacturing plants;

s. Storage tanks, vessels, and containers holding or storing liquid substances that will not emit any VOC or HAP;

t. Storage tanks, reservoirs, and pumping and handling equipment of any size containing soaps, vegetable oil, grease, animal fat, and nonvolatile aqueous salt solutions, if appropriate lids and covers are used;

u. Equipment used to mix and package soaps, vegetable oil, grease, animal fat, and nonvolatile aqueous salt solutions, if appropriate lids and covers are used;

v. Drop hammers or hydraulic presses for forging or metalworking;

w. Equipment used exclusively to slaughter animals, not including other equipment at slaughterhouses, such as rendering cookers, boilers, heating plants, incinerators, and electrical power generating equipment;

x. Vents from continuous emissions monitors and other analyzers;

y. Natural gas pressure regulator vents, excluding venting at oil and gas production facilities;

z Hand-held applicator equipment for hot melt adhesives with no VOC in the adhesive formulation;

aa. Equipment used for surface coating, painting, dipping, or spraying operations, except those that will emit VOC or HAP;

bb. CO(2) lasers used only on metals and other materials that do not emit HAP in the process;

cc. Electric or steam-heated drying ovens and autoclaves, but not the emissions from the articles or substances being processed in the ovens or autoclaves or the boilers delivering the steam;

dd. Salt baths using nonvolatile salts that do not result in emissions of any regulated air pollutants;

ee. Laser trimmers using dust collection to prevent fugitive emissions;

ff. Bench-scale laboratory equipment used for physical or chemical analysis, but not laboratory fume hoods or vents;

gg. Routine calibration and maintenance of laboratory equipment or other analytical instruments;

hh. Equipment used for quality control, quality assurance, or inspection purposes, including sampling equipment used to withdraw materials for analysis;

ii. Hydraulic and hydrostatic testing equipment;

jj. Environmental chambers not using HAP gases;

kk. Shock chambers;

ll. Humidity chambers;

mm. Solar simulators;

nn. Fugitive emissions related to movement of passenger vehicles, if the emissions are not counted for applicability purposes under R18-2-101(64)(c) and any required fugitive dust control plan or its equivalent is submitted with the application;

oo. Process water filtration systems and demineralizers;

pp. Demineralized water tanks and demineralizer vents;

qq. Oxygen scavenging or de-aeration of water;

rr. Ozone generators;

ss. Fire suppression systems;

tt. Emergency road flares;

uu. Steam vents and safety relief valves;

ww. Steam leaks; and

xx. Steam cleaning operations and steam sterilizers

119. "Unclassified area" means an area which the Administrator, because of a lack of adequate data, is unable to classify as an attainment or nonattainment area for a specific pollutant, and which, for purposes of this Chapter, is treated as an attainment area.

120. "Uncombined water" means condensed water containing analytical trace amounts of other chemical elements or compounds.

121. "Urban or suburban open area" means an unsubdivided tract of land surrounding a substantial urban development of a residential, industrial, or commercial nature and which, though near or within the limits of a city or town, may be uncultivated, used for agriculture, or lie fallow.

122. "Vacant lot" means a subdivided residential or commercial lot which contains no buildings or structures of a temporary or permanent nature.

123. "Vapor" means the gaseous form of a substance normally occurring in a liquid or solid state.

124. "Visibility impairment" means any humanly perceptible change in visibility (light extinction, visual range, contrast, coloration) from that which would have existed under natural conditions.

125. "Visible emissions" means any emissions which are visually detectable without the aid of instruments and which contain particulate matter.

126. "Volatile organic compounds (VOC)" means any compound of carbon, excluding carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, metallic carbides or carbonates, and ammonium carbonate, that participates in atmospheric photochemical reactions. This includes any such organic compound other than the following:

a. Methane;

b. Ethane;

c. Methylene chloride (dichloromethane);

d. 1,1,1-trichloroethane (methyl chloroform);

e. 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane (CFC-113);

f. Trichlorofluoromethane (CFC-11);

g. Dichlorodifluoromethane (CFC-12);

h. Chlorodifluoromethane (HCFC-22);

i. Trifluoromethane (HFC-23);

j. 1,2-dichloro 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane (CFC-114);

k. Chloropentafluoroethane (CFC-115);

l. 1,1,1-trifluoro 2,2-dichloroethane (HCFC-123);

m. 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (HFC-134a);

n. 1,1-dichloro 1-fluoroethane (HCFC-141b);

o. 1-chloro 1,1-difluoroethane (HCFC-142b);

p. 2-chloro-1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (HCFC-124);

q. Pentafluoroethane (HFC-125);

r. 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane (HFC-134);

s. 1,1,1-trifluoroethane (HFC-143a);

t. 1,1-difluoroethane (HFC-152a);

u. Parachlorobenzotrifluoride (PCBTF);

v. Cyclic, branched, or linear completely methylated siloxanes;

w. Acetone;

x. Perchloroethylene (tetrachloroethylene);

y. 3,3-dichloro-1,1,1,2,2-pentafluoropropane (HCFC-225ca);

z. 1,3-dichloro-1,1,2,2,3-pentafluoropropane (HCFC-225cb);

aa. 1,1,1,2,3,4,4,5,5,5-decafluoropentane (HFC 43-10mee);

bb. Difluoromethane (HFC-32);

cc. Ethylfluoride (HFC-161);

dd. 1,1,1,3,3,3-hexafluoropropane (HFC-236fa);

ee. 1,1,2,2,3-pentafluoropropane (HFC-245ca);

ff. 1,1,2,3,3-pentafluoropropane (HFC-245ea);

gg. 1,1,1,2,3-pentafluoropropane (HFC-245eb);

hh. 1,1,1,3,3-pentafluoropropane (HFC-245fa);

ii. 1,1,1,2,3,3-hexafluoropropane (HFC-236ea);

jj. 1,1,1,3,3-pentafluorobutane (HFC-365mfc);

kk. Chlorofluoromethane (HCFC-31);

ll. 1 chloro-1-fluoroethane (HCFC-151a);

mm. 1,2-dichloro-1,1,2-trifluoroethane (HCFC-123a);

nn. 1,1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4-nonafluoro-4-methoxy-butane (C

4

F

9

OCH

3

);

oo. 2-(difluoromethoxymethyl)-1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptafluoropropane ((CF

3

)

2

CFCF

2

OCH

3

);

pp. 1-ethoxy-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,4-nonafluorobutane (C

4

F

9

OC

2

H

5

);

qq. 2-(ethoxydifluoromethyl)-1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptafluoropropane ((CF

3

)

2

CFCF

2

OC

2

H

5

;

rr. Methyl acetate; and

ss. Perfluorocarbon compounds that fall into these classes:

i. Cyclic, branched, or linear, completely fluorinated alkanes.

ii. Cyclic, branched, or linear, completely fluornated ethers with no unsaturations.

iii. Cycle, branched, or linear, completely fluorinated tertiary amines with no unsaturations; or

iv. Sulfur containing perfluorocarbons with no unsaturations and with sulfur bonds only to carbon and fluorine.

127. "Wood waste burner" means an incinerator designed and used exclusively for the burning of wood wastes consisting of wood slabs, scraps, shavings, barks, sawdust or other wood material, including those that generate steam as a by-product.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-101 repealed, new Section R9-3-101 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, paragraph (133) (Supp. 80-1). Editorial correction, paragraph (58) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective July 9, 1980. Amended by adding new paragraphs (24), (55), (102), and (115) and renumbering accordingly, effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Amended paragraph (133), added paragraph (156) and renumbered accordingly effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Amended paragraph (29) by deleting (aa) and (bb) effective August 9, 1985 (Supp. 85-4). Former Section R9-3-101 renumbered without change as R18-2-101 (Supp. 87-3). Amended paragraph (98) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2). Amended effective October 7, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective February 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-1). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended effective January 31, 1997; filed with the Office of Secretary of State January 10, 1997 (Supp. 97-1). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.102" level="4" title="Incorporated Materials">

Incorporated Materials

The following documents are incorporated by reference and are on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department:

1. The Department's "Arizona Testing Manual for Air Pollutant Emissions," amended as of March 1992 (and no future editions).

2. All ASTM test methods referenced in this Chapter as of the year specified in the reference (and no future amendments). They are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19103-1187.

3. The U.S. Government Printing Office's "Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987" (and no future editions).

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective February 3, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.103" level="4" title="Applicable Implementation Plan; Savings">

Applicable Implementation Plan; Savings

No rule adopted in this Chapter shall preempt or nullify any applicable requirement or emission standard in an applicable implementation plan unless the Director revises the applicable implementation plan in conformance with the requirements of 40 CFR 51, Subpart F, and the Administrator approves the revision.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="AMBIENT AIR QUALITY STANDARDS; AREA DESIGNATIONS; CLASSIFICATIONS">

AMBIENT AIR QUALITY STANDARDS; AREA DESIGNATIONS; CLASSIFICATIONS

<regElement name="R18.2.201" level="4" title="Particulate matter">

Particulate matter

A. The primary ambient air quality standards for particulate matter are:

1. 50 micrograms per cubic meter of PM

10

-- annual arithmetic mean concentration.

2. 150 micrograms per cubic meter of PM

10

-- 24-hour average concentration.

B. The secondary ambient air quality standards for particulate matter are:

1. 50 micrograms per cubic meter of PM

10

-- annual arithmetic mean concentration.

2. 150 micrograms per cubic meter of PM

10

-- 24-hour average concentration.

C. The primary and secondary annual ambient air quality standards for PM

10

shall be considered attained when the expected annual arithmetic mean concentration, as determined in accordance with 40 CFR 50, Appendix K, is less than or equal to 50 micrograms per cubic meter.

D. The primary and secondary 24-hour ambient air quality standards for PM

10

shall be considered attained when the expected number of days per calendar year with a 24-hour average concentration above 150 micrograms per cubic meter, as determined in accordance with 40 CFR 50, Appendix K, is less than or equal to 1.

Historical Note

Amended effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Section R9-3-201 repealed, new Section R9-3-201 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (E) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection(B)(1) and deleted subsections (C) through (E) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-201 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-201 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.202" level="4" title="Sulfur oxides (sulfur dioxide)">

Sulfur oxides (sulfur dioxide)

A. The primary ambient air quality standards for sulfur oxides, measured as sulfur dioxide, are:

1. 80 micrograms per cubic meter (0.03 ppm) -- annual arithmetic mean.

2. 365 micrograms per cubic meter (0.14 ppm) -- maximum 24-hour concentration not to be exceeded more than once per year.

B. The secondary ambient air quality standard for sulfur oxides, measured as sulfur dioxide, is 1300 micrograms per cubic meter (0.5 ppm) -- maximum three-hour concentration not to be exceeded more than once per year.

Historical Note

Amended effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Section R9-3-202 repealed, new Section R9-3-202 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (B) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended by deleting subsections (C) through (E) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-202 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-202 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.203" level="4" title="Ozone">

Ozone

A. The primary ambient air quality standard for ozone is 0.12 ppm (235 micrograms per cubic meter).

B. The secondary ambient air quality standard for ozone is 0.12 ppm (235 micrograms per cubic meter).

C. The standards are attained when the expected number of days per calendar year with maximum hourly average concentrations above 0.12 ppm (235 micrograms per cubic meter) is less than or equal to 1, as determined by 40 CFR 50, Appendix H.

Historical Note

Amended effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Section R9-3-204 repealed, new Section R9-3-204 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended by deleting subsections (B) through (D) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-204 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-204 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-103 renumbered from R18-2-204 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.204" level="4" title="Carbon monoxide">

Carbon monoxide

A. The primary ambient air quality standards for carbon monoxide are:

1. 9 parts per million (10 milligrams per cubic meter) -- maximum eight-hour concentration not to be exceeded more than once per year.

2. 35 parts per million (40 milligrams per cubic meter) -- maximum one-hour concentration not to be exceeded more than once per year.

B. An eight-hour average shall be considered valid if at least 75% of the hourly averages for the eight-hour period are available. In the event that only six or seven hourly averages are available, the eight-hour average shall be computed on the basis of the hours available using 6 or 7 as the divisor.

C. When summarizing data for comparison with the standards, averages shall be stated to one decimal place. Comparison of the data with the levels of the standards in parts per million shall be made in terms of integers with fractional parts of 0.5 or greater rounding up.

Historical Note

Amended effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Section R9-3-205 repealed, new Section R9-3-205 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended by deleting subsections (B) through (D) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-205 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-205 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-204 renumbered to R18-2-203, new Section R18-2-204 renumbered from R18-2-205 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.205" level="4" title="Nitrogen dioxide">

Nitrogen dioxide

A. The primary ambient air quality standard for nitrogen dioxide is 0.053 parts per million (100 micrograms per cubic meter) -- annual arithmetic mean.

B. The secondary ambient air quality standard for nitrogen dioxide is 0.053 (parts per million (100 micrograms per cubic meter) -- annual arithmetic mean.

C. The standards are attained when the annual arithmetic mean concentration in a calendar year is less than or equal to 0.053 ppm, rounded to three decimal places, with fractional parts equal to or greater than 0.0005 ppm rounded up. To demonstrate attainment, an annual mean shall be based upon hourly data that is at last 75% complete or upon data derived from the manual methods, that is at least 75% complete for the scheduled sampling days in each calendar quarter.

Historical Note

Amended effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Section R9-3-206 repealed, new Section R9-3-206 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended by deleting subsections (B) through (D) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-206 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-206 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-205 renumbered to R18-2-204, new Section R18-2-205 renumbered from R18-2-206 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.206" level="4" title="Lead"> <dwc name="lead" times="5">

Lead

A. The primary ambient air quality standard for lead and its compounds, measured as elemental lead, is 1.5 micrograms per cubic meter -- maximum arithmetic mean averaged over a calendar quarter.

B. The secondary ambient air quality standard for lead and its compounds, measured as elemental lead, is 1.5 micrograms per cubic meter -- maximum arithmetic mean averaged over a calendar quarter.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-207 repealed effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). New Section R9-3-207 adopted effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended by deleting subsections (B) through (D) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-207 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-207 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-206 renumbered to R18-2-205, new Section R18-2-206 renumbered from R18-2-207 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.207" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-207 renumbered to R18-2-206 effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.208" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.209" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.210" level="4" title="Attainment, Nonattainment, and Unclassifiable Area Designations">

Attainment, Nonattainment, and Unclassifiable Area Designations

40 CFR 81.303 as amended as of July 1, 2003 (and no future editions) is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department of Environmental Quality.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 3281, effective September 27, 2004 (Supp. 04-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.211" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.212" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.213" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.214" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.215" level="4" title="Ambient air quality monitoring methods and procedures">

Ambient air quality monitoring methods and procedures

A. Only those methods which have been either designated by the Administrator as reference or equivalent methods or approved by the Director shall be used to monitor ambient air.

B. Quality assurance, monitor siting, and sample probe installation procedures shall be in accordance with procedures described in the Appendices to 40 CFR 58.

C. The Director may approve other procedures upon a finding that the proposed procedures are substantially equivalent or superior to procedures in the Appendices to 40 CFR 58.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-215 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-215 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.216" level="4" title="Interpretation of ambient air quality standards and evaluation of air quality data">

Interpretation of ambient air quality standards and evaluation of air quality data

A. Unless otherwise specified, interpretation of all ambient air quality standards contained in this Article shall be in accordance with 40 CFR 50.

B. The evaluation of air quality data in terms of procedure, methodology, and concept is to be consistent with methods described in Appendix 10 to this Chapter.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-216 repealed, new Section R9-3-216 adopted effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-216 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-216 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.217" level="4" title="Designation and Classification of Attainment Areas">

Designation and Classification of Attainment Areas

A. All attainment and unclassified areas or parts thereof shall be classified as either Class I, Class II or Class III.

B. All of the following areas which were in existence on August 7, 1977, including any boundary changes to those areas which occurred subsequent to the date of enactment of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1977 and before March 12, 1993, shall be Class I areas irrespective of attainment status and shall not be redesignated:

1. International parks;

2. National wilderness areas which exceed 5,000 acres in size;

3. National memorial parks which exceed 5,000 acres in size; and

4. National parks which exceed 6,000 acres in size.

C. The following areas shall be designated only as Class I or II:

1. An area which as of August 7, 1977, exceeds 10,000 acres in size and is one of the following:

a. A national monument,

b. A national primitive area,

c. A national preserve,

d. A national recreational area,

e. A national wild and scenic river,

f. A national wildlife refuge,

g. A national lakeshore or seashore.

2. A national park or national wilderness area established after August 7, 1977, which exceeds 10,000 acres in size.

D. All other areas shall be Class II areas unless redesignated under subsections (E) or (F).

E. The Governor or the Governor's designee may redesignate areas of the state as Class I or Class II, provided that the following requirements are fulfilled:

1. At least one public hearing is held in or near the area affected;

2. Other states, Indian governing bodies and Federal Land Managers, whose land may be affected by the proposed redesignation are notified at least 30 days prior to the public hearing.

3. A discussion document of the reasons for the proposed redesignation including a description and analysis of health, environmental, economic, social and energy effects of the proposed redesignation is prepared by the Governor or the Governor's designee. The discussion document shall be made available for public inspection at least 30 days prior to the hearing and the notice announcing the hearing shall contain appropriate notification of the availability of such discussion document.

4. Prior to the issuance of notice respecting the redesignation of an area which includes any federal lands, the Governor or the Governor's designee has provided written notice to the appropriate Federal Land Manager and afforded the Federal Land Manager adequate opportunity, not in excess of 60 days, to confer with the state respecting the redesignation and to submit written comments and recommendations. The Governor or the Governor's designee shall publish a list of any inconsistency between such redesignation and such recommendations, together with the reasons for making such redesignation against the recommendation of the Federal Land Manager, if any Federal Land Manager has submitted written comments and recommendations.

5. The redesignation is proposed after consultation with the elected leadership of local governments in the area covered by the proposed redesignation.

6. The redesignation is submitted to the Administrator as a revision to the SIP.

F. The Governor or the Governor's designee may redesignate areas of the state as Class III if all of the following criteria are met:

1. Such redesignation meets the requirements of subsection (E);

2. Such redesignation has been approved after consultation with the appropriate committee of the legislature if it is in session or with the leadership of the legislature if it is not in session.

3. The general purpose units of local government representing a majority of the residents of the area to be redesignated concur in the redesignation;

4. Such redesignation shall not cause, or contribute to, concentration of any air pollutant which exceeds any maximum allowable increase or maximum allowable concentration permitted under the classification of any area;

5. For any new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification of such source which may be permitted to be constructed and operated only if the area in question is redesignated as Class III, any permit application or related materials shall be made available for public inspection prior to a public hearing.

6. The redesignation is submitted to the Administrator as a revision to the SIP.

G. A redesignation shall not be effective until approved by the Administrator as part of an applicable implementation plan.

H. Lands within the exterior boundaries of Indian reservations may be redesignated only by the appropriate Indian governing body.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (A), paragraph (5), subparagraph (d) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-217 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-217 (Supp. 87-3). Amended and subsection (B) renumbered to Section R18-2-218 effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.218" level="4" title="Limitation of Pollutants in Classified Attainment Areas">

Limitation of Pollutants in Classified Attainment Areas

A. Areas designated as Class I, II, or III shall be limited to the following increases in air pollutant concentrations occurring over the baseline concentration; provided that for any period other than an annual period, the applicable maximum allowable increase may be exceeded once per year at any one location:

<table> CLASS I Maximum Allowable Increase (Micrograms per cubic meter) Particulate matter: PM 10 Annual arithmetic mean 4 24-hour maximum 8 Sulfur dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 2 24-hour maximum 5 3-hour maximum 25 Nitrogen dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 2.5 CLASS II Particulate matter: PM 10 Annual arithmetic mean 17 24-hour maximum 30 Sulfur dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 20 24-hour maximum 91 3-hour maximum 512 Nitrogen dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 25 CLASS III Particulate matter: PM 10 Annual arithmetic mean 34 24-hour maximum 60 Sulfur dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 40 24-hour maximum 182 3-hour maximum 700 Nitrogen dioxide: Annual arithmetic mean 50 </table>

B. The baseline concentration shall be that ambient concentration level which exists in the baseline area at the time of the applicable minor source baseline data.

1. The major source baseline date is:

a. January 6, 1975, for sulfur dioxide and particulate matter; and

b. February 8, 1988, for nitrogen dioxide.

2. The minor source baseline date shall be the earliest date after August 7, 1977, for sulfur dioxide and particulate matter, and February 8, 1988, for nitrogen dioxide, that either:

a. A major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification submits a complete permit application to the Administrator under 40 CFR 52.21; or

b. A major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification submits a complete permit application to the Director under R18-2-304(E)(2) or R18-2-406.

3. A baseline concentration shall be determined for each pollutant for which there is a minor source baseline date and shall include both:

a. The actual emissions representative of sources in existence on the minor source baseline date, except as provided in subsection (B)(4); and

b. The allowable emissions of major sources as defined in R18-2-401 which commenced construction before the major source baseline date but were not in operation by the applicable minor source baseline date.

4. The following shall not be included in the baseline concentration and shall affect the applicable maximum allowable increase:

a. Actual emissions from any major source as defined in R18-2-401 on which construction commenced after the major source baseline date; and

b. Actual emissions increases and decreases at any stationary source occurring after the minor source baseline date.

C. The baseline date shall be established for each pollutant for which maximum allowable increases or other equivalent measures have been established if both:

1. The area in which the proposed source or modification would construct is designated as attainment or unclassifiable for the pollutant on the date of its complete application under either subsection (B)(2)(a) or (b); and

2. In the case of a major source as defined in R18-2-401, the pollutant would be emitted in significant amounts, or in the case of a major modification, there would be a significant net emissions increase of the pollutant.

D. The baseline area shall be the AQCR that contains the area, designated as attainment or unclassifiable, in which the major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification establishing the minor source baseline date would construct or would have an air quality impact equal to or greater than 1 ug/m3 (annual average) of the pollutant for which the minor source baseline date is established. Area redesignations under R18-2-217 that would redesignate a baseline area cannot intersect or be smaller than the area of impact of any new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification which either:

1. Establishes a minor source baseline date; or

2. Is subject to either 40 CFR 52.21 or R18-2-406 and would be constructed in Arizona.

E. The maximum allowable concentration of any air pollutant in any area to which subsection (A) applies shall not exceed a concentration for each pollutant equal to the concentration permitted under the ambient air quality standards contained in this Article.

F. For purposes of determining compliance with the maximum allowable increases in ambient concentrations of an air pollutant, the following concentrations of such pollutant shall not be taken into account:

1. Concentration of such pollutant attributable to the increase in emissions from major and stationary sources which have converted from the use of petroleum products, or natural gas, or both, by reason of a natural gas curtailment order which is in effect under the provisions of Sections 2(a) and (b) of the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, 15 U.S.C. 792, over the emissions from such sources before the effective date of such order;

2. The concentration of such pollutant attributable to the increase in emissions from major and stationary sources which have converted from using gas by reason of a natural gas curtailment plan in effect pursuant to the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 792 - 825r, over the emissions from such sources before the effective date of the natural gas curtailment plan;

3. Concentrations of PM

10

attributable to the increase in emissions from construction or other temporary activities of a new or modified source;

4. The increase in concentrations attributable to new sources outside the United States over the concentrations attributable to existing sources which are included in the baseline concentration; and

5. Concentrations attributable to the temporary increase in emissions of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, or PM

10

from major sources as defined in R18-2-401 when the following conditions are met:

a. The operating permit issued to such sources specifies the time period during which the temporary emissions increase of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, or PM

10

would occur. Such time period shall not be renewable and shall not exceed two years unless a longer period is specifically approved by the Director.

b. No emissions increase shall be approved which would either:

i. Impact any portion of any Class I area or any portion of any other area where an applicable incremental ambient standard is known to be violated in that portion; or

ii. Cause or contribute to the violation of a state ambient air quality standard.

c. The operating permit issued to such sources specifies that, at the end of the time period described in subsection (F)(5)(a), the emissions levels from the sources would not exceed the levels occurring before the temporary emissions increase was approved.

6. The exception granted with respect to increment consumption under subsections (F)(1) and (2) shall not apply more than five years after the effective date of the order or natural gas curtailment plan on which the exception is based.

G. If the Director or the Administrator determines that the SIP is substantially inadequate to prevent significant deterioration or that an applicable maximum allowable increase as specified in subsection (A) is being violated, the SIP shall be revised to correct the inadequacy or the violation. The SIP shall be revised within 60 days of such a finding by the Director or within 60 days following notification by the Administrator, or by such later date as prescribed by the Administrator after consultation with the Director.

H. The Director shall review the adequacy of the SIP on a periodic basis and within 60 days of such time as information becomes available that an applicable maximum allowable increase is being violated.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (A), paragraph (5), subparagraph (d) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-217 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-217 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-218 renumbered to R18-2-219, new Section R18-2-218 renumbered from R18-2- 217(B) and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective February 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.219" level="4" title="Violations">

Violations

A. One exceedance per year of the ambient air quality standards prescribed in this Article shall be allowed for each pollutant at each monitoring site.

B. Each additional exceedance at each site shall constitute a violation of ambient air quality standards.

C. The provisions of subsection (A) shall not apply to any of the following:

1. The annual and quarterly standards.

2. The standards for ozone prescribed in R18-2-203.

3. The primary and secondary 24-hour PM

10

standards prescribed in R18-2-201.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-218 repealed, new Section R9-3-218 adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-218 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-218 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-219 renumbered to R18-2-220, new Section R18-2-219 renumbered from R18-2-218 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.220" level="4" title="Air pollution emergency episodes">

Air pollution emergency episodes

A. Procedures shall be implemented by the Director in order to prevent the occurrence of ambient air pollutant concentrations which would cause significant harm to the health of persons, as specified in subsection (B)(4). The procedures and actions required for each stage are described in the Department's "Procedures for Prevention of Emergency Episodes," amended as of October 18, 1988 (and no future edition), which is incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. The following stages are identified by air quality criteria in order to provide for sequential emissions reductions, public notification and increased Department monitoring and forecast responsibilities. The declaration of any stage, and the area of the state affected, shall be based on air quality measurements and meteorological analysis and forecast.

1. A Stage I air pollution alert shall be declared when any of the alert level concentrations listed in subsection (B)(4) are exceeded at any monitoring site and when meteorological conditions indicate that there will be a continuance or recurrence of alert level concentrations for the same pollutant during the subsequent 24-hour period. If, 48 hours after an alert has been initially declared, air pollution concentrations and meteorological conditions do not improve, the warning stage control actions shall be implemented but no warning shall be declared, unless air quality has deteriorated to the extent described in subsection (B)(2).

2. A Stage II air pollution warning shall be declared when any of the warning level concentrations listed in subsection (B)(4) are exceeded at any monitoring site and when meteorological conditions indicate that there will be a continuance or recurrence of concentrations of the same pollutant exceeding the warning level during the subsequent 24-hour period. If, 48 hours after a warning has been initially declared, air pollution concentrations and meteorological conditions do not improve, the emergency stage shall be declared and its control actions implemented.

3. A Stage III air pollution emergency shall be declared when any of the emergency level concentrations listed in subsection (B)(4) are exceeded at any monitoring site and when meteorological conditions indicate that there will be a continuance or recurrence of concentrations of the same pollutant exceeding the emergency level during the subsequent 24-hour period.

4. Summary of emergency episode and significant harm levels:

<table> Pollutant Averaging Time Alert Warning Emergency Significant Harm Carbon monoxide 1-hr -- -- -- 144 (mg/m 3 ) 4-hr -- -- -- 86.3 8-hr 17 34 46 57.5 Nitrogen dioxide 1-hr 1,130 2,260 3,000 3,750 (ug/m 3 ) 24-hr 282 565 750 938 Ozone (ppm) 1-hr .2 .4 .5 .6 PM 10 (ug/m 3 ) 24-hr 350 420 500 600 Sulfur dioxide 24-hr 800 1,600 2,100 2,620 (ug/m 3 ) </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Editorial correction, subsection (B), paragraph (2) (Supp. 80-1). Editorial correction, subsection (A) (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-3-219 repealed, new Section R9-3-219 adopted effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-219 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-219 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-220 renumbered from R18-2-219 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="PERMITS AND PERMIT REVISIONS">

PERMITS AND PERMIT REVISIONS

<regElement name="R18.2.301" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The following definitions, and the definitions contained in Article 1 of this Chapter and A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01 apply to this Article unless the context otherwise requires:

1. "Alternative method" means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant which is not a reference or equivalent method but which has been demonstrated to produce results adequate for the Director's determination of compliance in accordance with R18-2-311(D).

2. "Billable permit action" means the issuance or denial of a new permit, significant permit revision, or minor permit revision, or the renewal of an existing permit.

3. "Capacity factor" means the ratio of the average load on a machine or equipment for the period of time considered to the capacity rating of the machine or equipment.

4. "CEM" means a continuous emission monitoring system as defined in R18-2-101.

5. "Complete" means, in reference to an application for a permit, that the application contains all the information necessary for processing the application. Designating an application complete for purposes of permit processing does not preclude the Director from requesting or accepting any additional information.

6. "Dispersion technique" means any technique which attempts to affect the concentration of a pollutant in the ambient air by any of the following:

a. Using that portion of a stack which exceeds good engineering practice stack height;

b. Varying the rate of emission of a pollutant according to atmospheric conditions or ambient concentrations of that pollutant; or

c. Increasing final exhaust gas plume rise by manipulating source process parameters, exhaust gas parameters, stack parameters, or combining exhaust gases from several existing stacks into one stack; or other selective handling of exhaust gas streams so as to increase the exhaust gas plume rise. This shall not include any of the following:

i. The reheating of a gas stream, following use of a pollution control system, for the purpose of returning the gas to the temperature at which it was originally discharged from the facility generating the gas stream.

ii. The merging of exhaust gas streams under any of the following conditions:

(1) The source owner or operator demonstrates that the facility was originally designed and constructed with such merged gas streams;

(2) After July 8, 1985, such merging is part of a change in operation at the facility that includes the installation of pollution controls and is accompanied by a net reduction in the allowable emissions of a pollutant, applying only to the emission limitation for that pollutant; or

(3) Before July 8, 1985, such merging was part of a change in operation at the facility that included the installation of emissions control equipment or was carried out for sound economic or engineering reasons. Where there was an increase in the emission limitation or, in the event that no emission limitation was in existence prior to the merging, an increase in the quantity of pollutants actually emitted prior to the merging, the reviewing agency shall presume that merging was significantly motivated by an intent to gain emissions credit for greater dispersion. Absent a demonstration by the source owner or operator that merging was not significantly motivated by such intent, the reviewing agency shall deny credit for the effects of such merging in calculating the allowable emissions for the source.

iii. Smoke management in agricultural or silvicultural prescribed burning programs.

iv. Episodic restrictions on residential woodburning and open burning.

v. Techniques which increase final exhaust gas plume rise where the resulting allowable emissions of sulfur dioxide from the facility do not exceed 5,000 tons per year.

7. "Emissions allowable under the permit" means a permit term or condition determined at issuance to be required by an applicable requirement that establishes an emissions limit (including a work practice standard) or an emissions cap that the source has assumed to avoid an applicable requirement to which the source would otherwise be subject.

8. "Fossil fuel-fired steam generator" means a furnace or boiler used in the process of burning fossil fuel for the primary purpose of producing steam by heat transfer.

9. "Fuel oil" means Number 2 through Number 6 fuel oils as specified in ASTM D-396-90a (Specification for Fuel Oils), gas turbine fuel oils Numbers 2-GT through 4-GT as specified in ASTM D-2880-90a (Specification for Gas Turbine Fuel Oils), or diesel fuel oils Numbers 2-D and 4-D as specified in ASTM D-975-90a (Specification for Diesel Fuel Oils).

10. "Itemized bill" means a breakdown of the permit processing time into the categories of pre-application activities, completeness review, substantive review, and public involvement activities, and within each category, a further breakdown by employee name.

11. "Major source threshold" means the lowest applicable emissions rate for a pollutant that would cause the source to be a major source at the particular time and location, under R18-2-101(64).

12. "NAICS" means the 5- or 6-digit North American Industry Classification System-United States, 1997, number for industries used by the U.S. Department of Commerce.

13. "Permit processing time" means all time spent by Air Quality Division staff or consultants on tasks specifically related to the processing of an application for the issuance or renewal of a particular permit or permit revision, including time spent processing an application that is denied.

14. "Quantifiable" means, with respect to emissions, including the emissions involved in equivalent emission limits and emission trades, capable of being measured or otherwise determined in terms of quantity and assessed in terms of character. Quantification may be based on emission factors, stack tests, monitored values, operating rates and averaging times, materials used in a process or production, modeling, or other reasonable measurement practices.

15. "Reasonably available control technology" (RACT) means, for facilities subject to an existing source performance standard, the emissions limitation of the existing source performance standard.

16. "Replicable" means, with respect to methods or procedures, sufficiently unambiguous that the same or equivalent results would be obtained by the application of the method or procedure by different users.

17. "Responsible official" means one of the following:

a. For a corporation: a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy or decision-making functions for the corporation, or a duly authorized representative of such person if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit and either:

i. The facilities employ more than 250 persons or have gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second quarter 1980 dollars); or

ii. The delegation of authority to such representatives is approved in advance by the permitting authority;

b. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: a general partner or the proprietor, respectively;

c. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: Either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For the purposes of this Article, a principal executive officer of a federal agency includes the chief executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency (e.g., a Regional Administrator of EPA); or

d. For affected sources:

i. The designated representative in so far as actions, standards, requirements, or prohibitions under Title IV of the Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder are concerned; and

ii. The designated representative for any other purposes under 40 CFR 70.

18. "Small source" means a source with a potential to emit, without controls, less than the rate defined as significant in R18-2-101, but required to obtain a permit solely because it is subject to a standard under 40 CFR 63.

19. "Startup" means the setting in operation of a source for any purpose.

20. "Synthetic minor" means a source with a permit that contains voluntarily accepted emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements (for example, a cap on production rates or hours of operation, or limits on the type of fuel) under R18-2-306.01 to reduce the potential to emit to a level below the major source threshold.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-301 renumbered to R18-2-302, new Section R18-2-301 adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Correction to table in subsection (A)(13) (Supp. 93-1). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 343, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5670, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.302" level="4" title="Applicability; Classes of Permits">

Applicability; Classes of Permits

A. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, no person shall commence construction of, operate, or make a modification to any source subject to regulation under this Article, without obtaining a permit or permit revision from the Director.

B. There shall be two classes of permits as follows:

1. A Class I permit shall be required for a person to commence construction of or operate any of the following:

a. Any major source,

b. Any solid waste incineration unit required to obtain a permit pursuant to Section 129(e) of the Act,

c. Any affected source, or

d. Any source in a source category designated by the Administrator pursuant to 40 CFR 70.3 and adopted by the Director by rule.

2. Unless a Class I permit is required, a Class II permit shall be required for:

a. A person to commence construction of or operate any of the following:

i. Any source, including an area source, subject to a standard, limitation, or other requirement under Section 111 of the Act;

ii. Any source, including an area source, subject to a standard or other requirement under Section 112 of the Act, except that a source is not required to obtain a permit solely because it is subject to regulations or requirements under Section 112 (r) of the Act;

iii. Any source that emits or has the potential to emit, without controls, significant quantities of regulated air pollutants;

iv. Stationary rotating machinery of greater than 325 brake horsepower; or

v. Fuel-burning equipment which, at a location or property other than a one or two family resisdence, is fired at a sustained rate of more than 1 million Btu per hour for more than an eight-hour period.

b. A person to modify a source which would cause it to emit, or have the potential to emit, quantities of regulated air pollutants greater than or equal to those specified in subsection (B)(2)(a)(iii).

C. Notwithstanding subsections (A) and (B), the following sources do not require a permit unless the source is a major source, or unless operation without a permit would result in a violation of the Act:

1. Sources subject to 40 CFR 60, Subpart AAA, Standards of Performance for New Residential Wood Heaters;

2. Sources and source categories that would be required to obtain a permit solely because they are subject to 40 CFR 61.145; and

3. Agricultural equipment used in normal farm operations. "Agricultural equipment used in normal farm operations" does not include equipment classified as a source that requires a permit under Title V of the Act, or that is subject to a standard under 40 CFR 60 or 61.

D. No person may construct or reconstruct any major source of hazardous air pollutants, unless the Director determines that maximum achievable control technology emission limitation (MACT) for new sources under Section 112 of the Act will be met. If MACT has not been established by the Administrator, such determination shall be made on a case-by-case basis pursuant to 40 CFR 63.40 through 63.44, as incorporated by reference in R18-2-1101(B). For purposes of this subsection, constructing and reconstructing a major source shall have the meaning prescribed in 40 CFR 63.41.

Historical Note

Amended effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Amended as an emergency effective December 15, 1975 (Supp. 75-2). Amended effective May 10, 1976 (Supp. 76-3). Amended effective April 12, 1977 (Supp. 77-2). Amended effective March 24, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Former Section R9-3-301 repealed, new Section R9-3-301 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsections (B) and (C) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Amended subsection (B), paragraph (3) effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-301 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-301 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-302 renumbered to R18-2-302.01, new Section R18-2-302 renumbered from R18-2-301 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2).

R18-2-302.01. Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1); Former Section R9-3-302 repealed, new Section R9-3-302 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-302 repealed, new Section R9-3-302 adopted effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-302 repealed, new Section R9-3-302 adopted effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-302 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-302 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-302.01 renumbered from Section R18-2-302 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.303" level="4" title="Transition from Installation and Operating Permit Program to Unitary Permit Program"> <dwc name="copper" times="1">

Transition from Installation and Operating Permit Program to Unitary Permit Program

A. An installation or operating permit issued before September 1, 1993, and the authority to operate, as provided in Laws 1992, Ch. 299, &#167; 65, continues in effect until either of the following occurs:

1. The installation or operating permit is terminated.

2. The Director issues or denies a Class I or Class II permit to the source.

B. Sources requiring Class I permits that are in existence on the date this Section becomes effective shall submit permit applications on or before the following dates:

1. Kraft pulp mills: 5/1/94

2. Metallic mineral processing plants: 5/1/94

3. Portland cement plants: 8/1/94

4. Non-metallic mineral processing plants: 8/1/94

5. Lumber mills: 8/1/94

6. Primary copper smelters: 11/1/94

7. Lime manufacturing plants: 11/1/94

8. Nitric acid plants: 11/1/94

9. Petroleum refineries: 11/1/94

10. Electric utility steam generating units: 2/1/95

11. Combined cycle gas turbines: 2/1/95

12. Fossil-fuel fired industrial and commercial

equipment: 2/1/95

13. Stationary gas turbines: 5/1/95

14. Any other source requiring a Class I permit: 5/1/95

C. Except as provided in subsection (D), sources requiring Class II permits that are in existence on the date this Section becomes effective may submit permit applications at any time after this Section is effective and shall submit applications within 180 days of receipt of written notice from the Director that an application is required.

D. All sources requiring a Class II permit under R18-2- 302(B)(2)(b)(i) and (ii) shall submit complete permit applications no later than May 1, 1998.

E. Any application for an operating permit or an installation permit that is determined to be complete prior to the effective date of this Section but for which no permit has been issued shall be considered complete for the purposes of this Section. In issuing a permit pursuant to such an application, the Director shall include in the permit all elements addressed in the application and a schedule of compliance for submitting an application for a permit revision to address the elements required to be in the permit that were not included in the operating permit or installation permit application. No later than six months after the effective date of this Section, the Director shall take final action on an operating permit application or an installation permit application determined to be complete prior to the effective date of this Section.

F. Unless otherwise provided, R18-2-317 through R18-2-323 shall apply to sources with permits issued before the effective date of this Section.

Historical Note

Amended effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Amended effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). Former Section R9-3-303 repealed, new Section R9-3-303 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-303 repealed, new Section R9-3-303 adopted effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (D), paragraph (1) effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-303 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-303 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.304" level="4" title="Permit Application Processing Procedures">

Permit Application Processing Procedures

A. Unless otherwise noted, this Section applies to each source requiring a Class I or II permit or permit revision.

B. Standard Application Form and Required Information. To apply for any permit in this Chapter, applicants shall complete the "Standard Permit Application Form" and supply all information required by the "Filing Instructions" as shown in Appendix 1. The Director, either upon the Director's own initiative or on the request of a permit applicant, may waive a requirement that specific information or data be submitted in the application for a Class II permit for a particular source or category of sources if the Director determines that the information or data would be unnecessary to determine all of the following:

1. The applicable requirements to which the source may be subject;

2. That the source is so designed, controlled, or equipped with such air pollution control equipment that it may be expected to operate without emitting or without causing to be emitted air contaminants in violation of the provisions of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 2 and this Chapter;

3. The fees to which the source may be subject;

4. A proposed emission limitation, control, or other requirement that meets the requirements of R18-2-306.01.

C. Unless otherwise required by R18-2-303(B) through (D), a timely application is:

1. For a source, other than a major source, applying for a permit for the first time, one that is submitted within 12 months after the source becomes subject to the permit program.

2. For purposes of permit renewal, a timely application is one that is submitted at least six months, but not more than 18 months, prior to the date of permit expiration.

3. For initial phase II acid rain permits under Title IV of the Act and regulations incorporated pursuant to R18-2-333, one that is submitted to the Director by January 1, 1996, for sulfur dioxide, and by January 1, 1998, for nitrogen oxides.

4. Any source under R18-2-326(B)(3) which becomes subject to a standard promulgated by the Administrator pursuant to Section 112(d) of the Act shall, within 12 months of the date on which the standard is promulgated, submit an application for a permit revision demonstrating how the source will comply with the standard.

D. If an applicable implementation plan allows the determination of an alternative emission limit, a source may, in its application, propose an emission limit that is equivalent to the emission limit otherwise applicable to the source under the applicable implementation plan. The source shall also demonstrate that the equivalent limit is quantifiable, accountable, enforceable, and subject to replicable compliance determination procedures.

E. A complete application shall comply with all of the following:

1. To be complete, an application shall provide all information required by subsection (B) (standard application form section). An application for permit revision only need supply information related to the proposed change, unless the source's proposed permit revision will change the permit from a Class II permit to a Class I permit. A responsible official shall certify the submitted information consistent with subsection (H) (Certification of Truth, Accuracy, and Completeness).

2. An application for a new permit or permit revision shall contain an assessment of the applicability of the requirements of Article 4 of this Chapter. If the applicant determines that the proposed new source is a major source as defined in R18-2-401, or the proposed permit revision constitutes a major modification as defined in R18-2-101, then the application shall comply with all applicable requirements of Article 4.

3. An application for a new permit or a permit revision shall contain an assessment of the applicability of the requirements established pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426.03 and 49-426.06. If the applicant determines that the proposed new source permit or permit revision is subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.03 or &#167; 49-426.06, the application shall comply with all applicable requirements promulgated under those sections.

4. Except for proposed new major sources or major modifications subject to the requirements of Article 4 of this Chapter, an application for a new permit, a permit revision, or a permit renewal shall be deemed to be complete unless, within 60 days of receipt of the application, the Director notifies the applicant by certified mail that the application is not complete.

5. If a source wishes to voluntarily enter into an emissions limitation, control, or other requirement pursuant to R18-2-306.01, the source shall describe that emissions limitation, control, or other requirement in its application, along with proposed associated monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements necessary to demonstrate that the emissions limitation, control, or other requirement is permanent, quantifiable, and otherwise enforceable as a practical matter.

6. If, while processing an application that has been determined or deemed to be complete, the Director determines that additional information is necessary to evaluate or take final action on that application, the Director may request such information in writing, delivered by certified mail, and set a reasonable deadline for a response. Except for minor permit revisions as set forth in R18-2-319, a source's ability to continue operating without a permit, as set forth in this Article, shall be in effect from the date the application is determined to be complete until the final permit is issued, provided that the applicant submits any requested additional information by the deadline specified by the Director. If the Director notifies an applicant that its application is not complete under subsection (E)(4), the application may not be deemed automatically complete until an additional 60 days after receipt of the next submittal by the applicant. The Director may, after one submittal by the applicant pursuant to this subsection, reject an application that is determined to be still incomplete and shall notify the applicant of the decision by certified mail. After a rejection under this subsection, the Director may deny the permit or revoke an existing permit, as applicable.

7. The completeness determination shall not apply to revisions processed through the minor permit revision process.

8. Activities which are insignificant pursuant to R18-2-101(57) shall be listed in the application. The application need not provide emissions data regarding insignificant activities. If the Director determines that an activity listed as insignificant does not meet the requirements of R18-2-101(57), the Director shall notify the applicant in writing and specify additional information required.

9. If a permit applicant requests terms and conditions allowing for the trading of emission increases and decreases in the permitted facility solely for the purpose of complying with a federally enforceable emission cap that is established in the permit independent of otherwise applicable requirements, the permit applicant shall include in its application proposed replicable procedures and permit terms that ensure the emissions trades are quantifiable and enforceable.

10. The Director is not in disagreement with a notice of confidentiality submitted with the application pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-432.

F. A source applying for a Class I permit that has submitted information with an application under a claim of confidentiality pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-432 and R18-2-305 shall submit a copy of such information directly to the Administrator.

G. Duty to Supplement or Correct Application. Any applicant who fails to submit any relevant facts or who has submitted incorrect information in a permit application shall, upon becoming aware of such failure or incorrect submittal, promptly submit such supplementary facts or corrected information. In addition, an applicant shall provide additional information as necessary to address any requirements that become applicable to the source after the date it filed a complete application but prior to release of a proposed permit.

H. Certification of Truth, Accuracy, and Completeness. Any application form, report, or compliance certification submitted pursuant to this Chapter shall contain certification by a responsible official of truth, accuracy, and completeness. This certification and any other certification required under this Article shall state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete.

I. Action on Application.

1. The Director shall issue or deny each permit according to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-427. The Director may issue a permit with a compliance schedule for a source that is not in compliance with all applicable requirements at the time of permit issuance.

2. In addition, a permit may be issued, revised, or renewed only if all of the following conditions have been met:

a. The application received by the Director for a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal shall be complete according to subsection (E).

b. Except for revisions qualifying as administrative or minor under R18-2-318 and R18-2-319, all of the requirements for public notice and participation under R18-2-330 shall have been met.

c. For Class I permits, the Director shall have complied with the requirements of R18-2-307 for notifying and responding to affected states, and if applicable, other notification requirements of R18-2-402(D)(2) and R18-2-410(C)(2).

d. For Class I and II permits, the conditions of the permit shall require compliance with all applicable requirements.

e. For permits for which an application is required to be submitted to the Administrator under R18-2-307(A), and to which the Administrator has properly objected to its issuance in writing within 45 days of receipt of the proposed final permit and all necessary supporting information from the Department, the Director has revised and submitted a proposed final permit in response to the objection and EPA has not objected to this proposed final permit.

f. For permits to which the Administrator has objected to issuance pursuant to a petition filed under 40 CFR 70.8(d), the administrator's objection has been resolved.

g. For a Class II permit that contains voluntary emission limitations, controls, or other requirements established pursuant to R18-2-306.01, the Director shall have complied with the requirement of R18-2-306.01(C) to provide the Administrator with a copy of the proposed permit.

3. If the Director denies a permit under this Section, a notice shall be served on the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested. The notice shall include a statement detailing the grounds for the denial and a statement that the permit applicant is entitled to a hearing.

4. The Director shall provide a statement that sets forth the legal and factual basis for the proposed permit conditions including references to the applicable statutory or regulatory provisions. The Director shall send this statement to any person who requests it and, for Class I permits, to the Administrator.

5. Except as provided in R18-2-303 and R18-2-402, regulations promulgated under Title IV or V of the Act, or the permitting of affected sources under the acid rain program pursuant to R18-2-333, the Director shall take final action on each permit application (and request for revision or renewal) within 18 months after receiving a complete application.

6. Priority shall be given by the Director to taking action on applications for construction or modification submitted pursuant to Title I, Parts C (Prevention of Significant Deterioration) and D (New Source Review) of the Act.

7. A proposed permit decision shall be published within nine months of receipt of a complete application and any additional information requested pursuant to subsection (E)(6) to process the application. The Director shall provide notice of the decision as provided in R18-2-330 and any public hearing shall be scheduled as expeditiously as possible.

J. Requirement for a Permit. Except as noted under the provisions in R18-2-317 and R18-2-319, no source may operate after the time that it is required to submit a timely and complete application, except in compliance with a permit issued pursuant to this Chapter. However, if a source under R18-2-326(B)(3) submits a timely and complete application for continued operation under a permit revision or renewal, the source's failure to have a permit is not a violation of this Article until the Director takes final action on the application. This protection shall cease to apply if, subsequent to the completeness determination, the applicant fails to submit, by the deadline specified in writing by the Director, any additional information identified as being needed to process the application.

Historical Note

Amended effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-304 repealed, new Section R9-3-304 formerly Section R9-3-305 renumbered and amended effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). Former Section R9-3-304 repealed, new Section R9-3-304 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-304 repealed, new Section R9-3-304 adopted effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-304 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-304 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective October 7, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). The reference to R18-2-101(54) in subsection (E)(8) corrected to reference R18-2-101(57) (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 343, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.305" level="4" title="Public Records; Confidentiality">

Public Records; Confidentiality

A. The Director shall make all permits, including all elements required to be in the permit pursuant to R18-2-306, available to the public. No permit shall be issued unless the information required by R18-2-306 is present in the permit.

B. A notice of confidentiality pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-432(C) shall:

1. Precisely identify the information in the documents submitted which is considered confidential.

2. Contain sufficient supporting information to allow the Director to evaluate whether such information satisfies the requirements related to trade secrets or, if applicable, how the information, if disclosed, is likely to cause substantial harm to the person's competitive position.

C. Within 30 days of receipt of a notice of confidentiality that complies with subsection (B) above, the Director shall make a determination as to whether the information satisfies the requirements for trade secret or competitive position pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-432(C)(1) and so notify the applicant in writing. If the Director agrees with the applicant that the information covered by the notice of confidentiality satisfies the statutory requirements, the Director shall include a notice in the file for the permit or permit application that certain information has been considered confidential.

D. If the Director takes action pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-432(D) and obtains a final order authorizing disclosure, the Director shall place the information in the public file and shall notify any person who has requested disclosure. If the court determines that the information is not subject to disclosure, the Director shall provide the notice specified in subsection (C) above.

Historical Note

Amended effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Amended as an emergency effective December 15, 1975 (Supp. 75-2). Amended effective May 10, 1976 (Supp. 76-3). Former Section R9-3-306 renumbered as Section R9-3-305 effective August 6, 1976. References changed to conform (Supp. 76-4). Amended effective April 12, 1977 (Supp. 77-2). Amended effective March 24, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Former Section R9-3-305 repealed, new Section R9-3-305 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-305 repealed, new Section R9-3-305 adopted effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-305 renumbered without change as R18-2-305 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.306" level="4" title="Permit Contents">

Permit Contents

A. Each permit issued by the Director shall include the following elements:

1. The date of issuance and the permit term.

2. Enforceable emission limitations and standards, including operational requirements and limitations that ensure compliance with all applicable requirements at the time of issuance and operational requirements and limitations that have been voluntarily accepted under R18-2-306.01.

a. The permit shall specify and reference the origin of and authority for each term or condition and identify any difference in form as compared to the applicable requirement upon which the term or condition is based.

b. The permit shall state that, if an applicable requirement of the Act is more stringent than an applicable requirement of regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Act, both provisions shall be incorporated into the permit and shall be enforceable by the Administrator.

c. Any permit containing an equivalency demonstration for an alternative emission limit submitted under R18-2-304(D) shall contain provisions to ensure that any resulting emissions limit has been demonstrated to be quantifiable, accountable, enforceable, and based on replicable procedures.

d. The permit shall specify applicable requirements for fugitive emission limitations, regardless of whether the source category in question is included in the list of sources contained in the definition of major source in R18-2-101.

3. Each permit shall contain the following requirements with respect to monitoring:

a. All monitoring and analysis procedures or test methods required under applicable monitoring and testing requirements, including:

i. Monitoring and analysis procedures or test methods under 40 CFR 64;

ii. Other procedures and methods promulgated under sections 114(a)(3) or 504(b) of the Act; and

iii. Monitoring and analysis procedures or test methods required under R18-2-306.01.

b. 40 CFR 64 as adopted July 1, 1998, is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. This incorporation by reference contains no future editions or amendments. If more than one monitoring or testing requirement applies, the permit may specify a streamlined set of monitoring or testing provisions if the specified monitoring or testing is adequate to assure compliance at least to the same extent as the monitoring or testing applicable requirements not included in the permit as a result of such streamlining;

c. If the applicable requirement does not require periodic testing or instrumental or noninstrumental monitoring (which may consist of recordkeeping designed to serve as monitoring), periodic monitoring sufficient to yield reliable data from the relevant time period that are representative of the source's compliance with the permit as reported under subsection (A)(4). The monitoring requirements shall ensure use of terms, test methods, units, averaging periods, and other statistical conventions consistent with the applicable requirement, and as otherwise required under R18-2-306.01. Recordkeeping provisions may be sufficient to meet the requirements of this subsection; and

d. As necessary, requirements concerning the use, maintenance, and, if appropriate, installation of monitoring equipment or methods.

4. The permit shall incorporate all applicable recordkeeping requirements including recordkeeping requirements established under R18-2-306.01, for the following:

a. Records of required monitoring information that include the following:

i. The date, place as defined in the permit, and time of sampling or measurement;

ii. The date any analyses was performed;

iii. The name of the company or entity that performed the analysis;

iv. A description of the analytical technique or method used;

v. The results of any analysis; and

vi. The operating conditions existing at the time of sampling or measurement;

b. Retention of records of all required monitoring data and support information for a period of at least five years from the date of the monitoring sample, measurement, report, or application. Support information includes all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip-chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation and copies of all reports required by the permit.

5. The permit shall incorporate all applicable reporting requirements including reporting requirements established under R18-2-306.01 and require the following:

a. Submittal of reports of any required monitoring at least every six months. All instances of deviations from permit requirements shall be clearly identified in the reports. All required reports shall be certified by a responsible official consistent with R18-2-304(H) and R18-2-309(A)(5).

b. Prompt reporting of deviations from permit requirements, including those attributable to upset conditions as defined in the permit, the probable cause of the deviations, and any corrective actions or preventive measures taken. Notice that complies with subsection (E)(3)(d) shall be considered prompt for the purposes of this subsection (A)(5)(b).

6. A permit condition prohibiting emissions exceeding any allowances the source lawfully holds under Title IV of the Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder.

a. A permit revision is not required for increases in emissions that are authorized by allowances acquired under the acid rain program, if the increases do not require a permit revision under any other applicable requirement.

b. A limit shall not be placed on the number of allowances held by the source. The source shall not, however, use allowances as a defense to noncompliance with any other applicable requirement.

c. Any allowance shall be accounted for according to the procedures established in regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Act.

d. Any permit issued under the requirements of this Chapter and Title V of the Act to a unit subject to the provisions of Title IV of the Act shall include conditions prohibiting all of the following:

i. Annual emissions of sulfur dioxide in excess of the number of allowances to emit sulfur dioxide held by the owner or operator of the unit or the designated representative of the owner or operator,

ii. Exceedances of applicable emission rates,

iii. Use of any allowance before the year for which it is allocated, and

iv. Contravention of any other provision of the permit.

7. A severability clause to ensure the continued validity of the various permit requirements in the event of a challenge to any portion of the permit.

8. Provisions stating the following:

a. The permittee shall comply with all conditions of the permit including all applicable requirements of Arizona air quality statutes A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, and the air quality rules, 18 A.A.C. 2. Any permit noncompliance is grounds for enforcement action; for a permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or revision; or for denial of a permit renewal application. Noncompliance with any federally enforceable requirement in a permit is a violation of the Act.

b. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of the permit.

c. The permit may be revised, reopened, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit revision, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or of a notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.

d. The permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege to the permit holder.

e. The permittee shall furnish to the Director, within a reasonable time, any information that the Director may request in writing to determine whether cause exists for revising, revoking and reissuing, or terminating the permit, or to determine compliance with the permit. Upon the Director's request, the permittee shall also furnish to the Director copies of records required to be kept by the permit. For information claimed to be confidential, the permittee shall furnish a copy of the records directly to the Administrator along with a claim of confidentiality.

f. For any major source operating in a nonattainment area for all pollutants for which the source is classified as a major source, the source shall comply with reasonably available control technology.

9. A provision to ensure that the source pays fees to the Director under A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(E), R18-2-326, and R18-2-511.

10. A provision stating that a permit revision shall not be required under any approved economic incentives, marketable permits, emissions trading, and other similar programs or processes for changes provided for in the permit.

11. Terms and conditions for reasonably anticipated operating scenarios identified by the source in its application as approved by the Director. The terms and conditions shall:

a. Require the source, contemporaneously with making a change from one operating scenario to another, to record in a log at the permitted facility a record of the scenario under which it is operating;

b. Extend the permit shield described in R18-2-325 to all terms and conditions under each such operating scenario; and

c. Ensure that the terms and conditions of each such alternative scenario meet all applicable requirements and the requirements of this Chapter.

12. Terms and conditions, if the permit applicant requests them, and as approved by the Director, for the trading of emissions increases and decreases in the permitted facility, to the extent that the applicable requirements provide for trading the increases and decreases without a case-by-case approval of each emissions trade. The terms and conditions:

a. Shall include all terms required under subsections (A) and (C) to determine compliance;

b. Shall not extend the permit shield in subsection (D) to all terms and conditions that allow the increases and decreases in emissions;

c. Shall not include trading that involves emission units for which emissions are not quantifiable or for which there are no replicable procedures to enforce the emissions trades; and

d. Shall meet all applicable requirements and requirements of this Chapter.

13. Terms and conditions, if the permit applicant requests them and they are approved by the Director, setting forth intermittent operating scenarios including potential periods of downtime. If the terms and conditions are included, the state's emissions inventory shall not reflect the zero emissions associated with the periods of downtime.

14. Upon request of a permit applicant, the Director shall issue a permit that contains terms and conditions allowing for the trading of emission increases and decreases in the permitted facility solely for the purpose of complying with a federally enforceable emission cap established in the permit independent of otherwise applicable requirements. The permit applicant shall include in its application proposed replicable procedures and permit terms that ensure the emissions trades are quantifiable and enforceable. The Director shall not include in the emissions trading provisions any emissions units for which emissions are not quantifiable or for which there are no replicable procedures to enforce the emissions trades. The permit shall also require compliance with all applicable requirements. Changes made under this subsection shall not include modifications under any provision of Title I of the Act and shall not exceed emissions allowable under the permit. The terms and conditions shall provide, for Class I sources, for notice that conforms to R18-2-317(D) and (E), and for Class II sources, for logging that conforms to R18-2-317.02(B)(5). In addition, the notices for Class I and Class II sources shall describe how the increases and decreases in emissions will comply with the terms and conditions of the permit.

15. Other terms and conditions as are required by the Act, A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Articles 1 and 2, and the rules adopted in 18 A.A.C. 2.

B. Federally-enforceable Requirements.

1. The following permit conditions shall be enforceable by the Administrator and citizens under the Act:

a. Except as provided in subsection (B)(2), all terms and conditions in a Class I permit, including any provision designed to limit a source's potential to emit;

b. Terms or conditions in a Class II permit setting forth federal applicable requirements; and

c. Terms and conditions in any permit entered into voluntarily under R18-2-306.01, as follows:

i. Emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements; and

ii. Monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements associated with the emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements in subsection (B)(1)(c)(i).

2. Notwithstanding subsection (B)(1)(a), the Director shall specifically designate as not being federally enforceable under the Act any terms and conditions included in a Class I permit that are not required under the Act or under any of its applicable requirements.

C. Each permit shall contain a compliance plan as specified in R18-2-309.

D. Each permit shall include the applicable permit shield provisions under R18-2-325.

E. Emergency provision.

1. An "emergency" means any situation arising from sudden and reasonably unforeseeable events beyond the control of the source, including acts of God, that requires immediate corrective action to restore normal operation and that causes the source to exceed a technology-based emission limitation under the permit, due to unavoidable increases in emissions attributable to the emergency. An emergency shall not include noncompliance to the extent caused by improperly designed equipment, lack of preventative maintenance, careless or improper operation, or operator error.

2. An emergency constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with technology-based emission limitations if the conditions of subsection (E)(3) are met.

3. The affirmative defense of emergency shall be demonstrated through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:

a. An emergency occurred and the permittee can identify the cause or causes of the emergency;

b. At the time of the emergency the permitted facility was being properly operated;

c. During the period of the emergency, the permittee took all reasonable steps to minimize levels of emissions that exceeded the emissions standards or other requirements in the permit; and

d. The permittee submitted notice of the emergency to the Director by certified mail, facsimile, or hand delivery within two working days of the time when emission limitations were exceeded due to the emergency. This notice shall contain a description of the emergency, any steps taken to mitigate emissions, and corrective action taken.

4. In any enforcement proceeding, the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an emergency has the burden of proof.

5. This provision is in addition to any emergency or upset provision contained in any applicable requirement.

F. A Class I permit issued to a major source shall require that revisions be made under R18-2-321 to incorporate additional applicable requirements adopted by the Administrator under the Act that become applicable to a source with a permit with a remaining permit term of three or more years. A revision shall not be required if the effective date of the applicable requirement is after the expiration of the permit. The revisions shall be made as expeditiously as practicable, but not later than 18 months after the promulgation of the standards and regulations. Any permit revision required under this subsection shall comply with R18-2-322 for permit renewal and shall reset the five-year permit term.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-307 renumbered as Section R9-3-306 effective August 6, 1976. Reference changed to conform (Supp. 76-4). Former Section R9-3-306 repealed, new Section R9-3-306 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-306 renumbered without change as R18-2-306 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (I) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 343, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

R18-2-306.01. Permits Containing Voluntarily Accepted Emission Limitations and Standards

A. A source may voluntarily propose in its application, and accept in its permit, emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements that are permanent, quantifiable, and otherwise enforceable as a practical matter in order to avoid classification as a source that requires a Class I permit or to avoid one or more other federal applicable requirements. For the purposes of this Section, "enforceable as a practical matter" means that specific means to assess compliance with an emissions limitation, control, or other requirement are provided for in the permit in a manner that allows compliance to be readily determined by an inspection of records and reports.

B. In order for a source to obtain a permit containing voluntarily accepted emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements, the source shall demonstrate all of the following in its permit application:

1. The emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements to be imposed for the purpose of avoiding an applicable requirement are at least as stringent as the emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements that would otherwise be applicable to that source, including those that originate in an applicable implementation plan; and the permit does not waive, or make less stringent, any limitations or requirements contained in or issued pursuant to an applicable implementation plan, or that are otherwise federally enforceable.

2. All voluntarily accepted emissions limitations, controls, or other requirements will be permanent, quantifiable, and otherwise enforceable as a practical matter.

C. At the same time as notice of proposed issuance is first published pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(D), the Director shall send a copy of any Class II permit proposed to be issued pursuant to this Section to the Administrator for review during the comment period described in the notice pursuant to R18-2-330(D).

D. The Director shall send a copy of each final permit issued pursuant to this Section to the Administrator.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3).

R18-2-306.02. Establishment of an Emissions Cap

A. An applicant may, in its application for a new permit, renewal of an existing permit, or as a significant permit revision, request an emissions cap for a particular pollutant expressed in tons per year as determined on a 12-month rolling average, or any shorter averaging time necessary to enforce any applicable requirement, for any emissions unit, combination of emissions units, or an entire source to allow operating flexibility including emissions trading for the purpose of complying with the cap. This Section shall not apply to sources that hold an authority to operate under a general permit pursuant to Article 5 of this Chapter.

B. An emissions cap for a Class II source that limits the emissions of a particular pollutant for the entire source shall not exceed any of the following:

1. The applicable requirement for the pollutant if expressed in tons per year;

2. The source's actual emissions plus the applicable significance level for the pollutant established in R18-2-101(104);

3. The applicable major source threshold for the pollutant; or

4. A sourcewide emission limitation for the pollutant voluntarily agreed to by the source under R18-2-306.01.

C. In order to incorporate an emissions cap in a permit the applicant must demonstrate to the Director that terms and conditions in the permit will:

1. Ensure compliance with all applicable requirements for the pollutant;

2. Contain replicable procedures to ensure that the emissions cap is enforceable as a practical matter and emissions trading conducted under it is quantifiable and enforceable as a practical matter. For the purposes of this Section, "enforceable as a practical matter" shall include the following criteria:

a. The permit conditions are permanent and quantifiable;

b. The permit includes a legally enforceable obligation to comply;

c. The limits impose an objective and quantifiable operational or production limit or require the use of in-place air pollution control equipment;

d. The permit limits have short-term averaging times consistent with the averaging times of the applicable requirement;

e. The permit conditions are enforceable and are independent of any other applicable limitations; and

f. The permit conditions for monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements are sufficient to comply with R18-2-306(A)(3),(4), and (5).

3. For a Class I permit, include all terms required under R18-2-306(A) and R18-2-309.

D. Class I sources shall log an increase or decrease in actual emissions authorized as a trade under an emissions cap unless an applicable requirement requires notice to the Director. The log shall contain the information required by the permit including, at a minimum, when the proposed emissions increase or decrease occurred, a description of the physical change or change in method of operation that produced the increase or decrease, the change in emissions from the physical change or change in method of operation, and how the increase or decrease in emissions complies with the permit. Class II sources shall comply with R18-2-317.02(B)(5).

E. The Director shall not include in an emissions cap or emissions trading allowed under a cap any emissions unit for which the emissions are not quantifiable or for which there are no replicable procedures or practical means to enforce emissions trades.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.307" level="4" title="Permit Review by the EPA and Affected States">

Permit Review by the EPA and Affected States

A. Except as provided in R18-2-304(F) and as waived by the Administrator, for each Class I permit, a copy of each of the following shall be provided to the Administrator as follows:

1. The applicant shall provide a complete copy of the application including any attachments, compliance plans, and other information required by R18-2-304(E) at the time of submittal of the application to the Director.

2. The Director shall provide the proposed final permit after public and affected state review.

3. The Director shall provide the final permit at the time of issuance.

B. The Director shall keep all records associated with all permits for a minimum of five years from issuance.

C. No permit for which an application is required to be submitted to the Administrator under subsection (A) shall be issued if the Administrator properly objects to its issuance in writing within 45 days of receipt of the proposed final permit from the Department and all necessary supporting information.

D. Review by Affected States.

1. For each Class I permit, the Director shall provide notice of each proposed permit to any affected state on or before the time that the Director provides this notice to the public as required under R18-2-330 except to the extent R18-2-319 requires the timing of the notice to be different.

2. If the Director refuses to accept a recommendation of any affected state submitted during the public or affected state review period, the Director shall notify the Administrator and the affected state in writing. The notification shall include the Director's reasons for not accepting any such recommendation and shall be provided to the Administrator as part of the submittal of the proposed final permit. The Director shall not be required to accept recommendations that are not based on federal applicable requirements or requirements of state law.

E. Any person who petitions the Administrator pursuant to 40 CFR 70.8(d) shall notify the Department by certified mail of such petition as soon as possible, but in no case more than 10 days following such petition. Such notice shall include the grounds for objection and whether such objections were raised during the public comment period. If the Administrator objects to the permit as a result of a petition filed under this subsection, the Director shall not issue the permit until EPA's objection has been resolved, except that a petition for review does not stay the effectiveness of a permit or its requirements if the permit was issued after the end of the 45-day administrative review period and prior to the Administrator's objection.

F. If the Director has issued a permit prior to receipt of the Administrator's objection under subsection (E), and the Administrator indicates that it should be revised, terminated, or revoked and reissued, the Director shall reopen the permit in accordance with R18-2-321 and may thereafter issue only a revised permit that satisfies the Administrator's objection. In any case, the source shall not be in violation of the requirement to have submitted a timely and complete application.

G. Prohibition on Default Issuance.

1. No Class I permit including a permit renewal or revision shall be issued until affected states and the Administrator have had an opportunity to review the proposed permit.

2. No permit or renewal shall be issued unless the Director has acted on the application.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-307 renumbered as Section R9-3-306 effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). New Section R9-3-307 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-307 repealed, new Section R9-3-307 adopted effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (B)(4)(b) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-307 renumbered without change as R18-2-307 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.308" level="4" title="Emission Standards and Limitations">

Emission Standards and Limitations

Wherever applicable requirements apply different standards or limitations to a source for the same item, all applicable requirements shall be included in the permit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-308 repealed, new Section R9-3-308 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-308 renumbered without change as R18-2-308 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.309" level="4" title="Compliance Plan; Certification"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Compliance Plan; Certification

All permits shall contain the following elements with respect to compliance:

1. The elements required by R18-2-306(A)(3), (4), and (5).

2. Requirements for certifications of compliance with terms and conditions contained in the permit, including emissions limitations, standards, and work practices. Permits shall include each of the following:

a. The frequency of submissions of compliance certifications, which shall not be less than annually;

b. The means to monitor the compliance of the source with its emissions limitations, standards, and work practices;

c. A requirement that the compliance certification include all of the following (the identification of applicable information may cross-reference the permit or previous reports, as applicable):

i. The identification of each term or condition of the permit that is the basis of the certification;

ii. The identification of the methods or other means used by the owner or operator for determining the compliance status with each term and condition during the certification period. The methods and other means shall include, at a minimum, the methods and means required under R18-2-306(A)(3). If necessary, the owner or operator also shall identify any other material information that must be included in the certification to comply with section 113(c)(2) of the Act, which prohibits knowingly making a false certification or omitting material information;

iii. The status of compliance with the terms and conditions of the permit for the period covered by the certification, including whether compliance during the period was continuous or intermittent. The certification shall be based on the methods or means designated in subsection (2)(c)(ii). The certification shall identify each deviation and take it into account in the compliance certification. For emission units subject to 40 CFR 64, the certification shall also identify as possible EXCEPTION to compliance any period during which compliance is required and in which an excursion or exceedance defined under 40 CFR 64 occurred; and

iv. Other facts the Director may require to determine the compliance status of the source.

d. A requirement that permittees submit all compliance certifications to the Director. Class I permittees shall also submit compliance certifications to the Administrator.

e. Additional requirements specified in sections 114(a)(3) and 504(b) of the Act or pursuant to R18-2-306.01.

3. A requirement for any document required to be submitted by a permittee, including reports, to contain a certification by a responsible official of truth, accuracy, and completeness. This certification and any other certification required under this Section shall state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete.

4. Inspection and entry provisions that require that upon presentation of proper credentials, the permittee shall allow the Director to:

a. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a source is located, emissions-related activity is conducted, or records are required to be kept under the conditions of the permit;

b. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that are required to be kept under the conditions of the permit;

c. Inspect, at reasonable times, any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and air pollution control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under the permit;

d. Sample or monitor, at reasonable times, substances or parameters for the purpose of assuring compliance with the permit or other applicable requirements; and

e. Record any inspection by use of written, electronic, magnetic, or photographic media.

5. A compliance plan that contains all the following:

a. A description of the compliance status of the source with respect to all applicable requirements;

b. A description as follows:

i. For applicable requirements with which the source is in compliance, a statement that the source will continue to comply with the requirements;

ii. For applicable requirements that will become effective during the permit term, a statement that the source will meet the requirements on a timely basis; and

iii. For requirements for which the source is not in compliance at the time of permit issuance, a narrative description of how the source will achieve compliance with such requirements;

c. A compliance schedule as follows:

i. For applicable requirements with which the source is in compliance, a statement that the source will continue to comply with the requirements;

ii. For applicable requirements that will become effective during the permit term, a statement that the source will meet such requirements on a timely basis. A statement that the source will meet in a timely manner applicable requirements that become effective during the permit term shall satisfy this provision, unless a more detailed schedule is expressly required by the applicable requirement;

iii. A schedule of compliance for sources that are not in compliance with all applicable requirements at the time of permit issuance. The schedule shall include a schedule of remedial measures, including an enforceable sequence of actions with milestones, leading to compliance with any applicable requirement for which the source will be in noncompliance at the time of permit issuance. This compliance schedule shall resemble and be at least as stringent as that contained in any judicial consent decree or administrative order to which the source is subject. The schedule of compliance shall supplement, and shall not sanction noncompliance with, the applicable requirements on which it is based.

d. A schedule for submission of certified progress reports no less frequently than every six months for sources required to have a schedule of compliance to remedy a violation. The progress reports shall contain:

i. Dates for achieving the activities, milestones, or compliance required in the schedule of compliance, and dates when such activities, milestones, or compliance were achieved; and

ii. An explanation of why any dates in the schedule of compliance were not or will not be met, and any preventive or corrective measures adopted.

6. The compliance plan content requirements specified in subsection (5) shall apply and be included in the acid rain portion of a compliance plan for an affected source, except as specifically superseded by regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Act, and incorporated under R18-2-333 with regard to the schedule and each method the source will use to achieve compliance with the acid rain emissions limitations.

7. If there is a Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) applicable to the source, a provision that compliance with the FIP is required.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amendment filed September 18, 1979, effective following the adoption of Article 7. Nonferrous Smelter Orders. Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Article 7. Nonferrous Smelter Orders adopted effective January 8, 1980. Amendment filed September 18, 1979 effective January 8, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-309 renumbered without change as R18-2-309 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective October 7, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 343, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 2833, effective June 17, 2004 (Supp. 04-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.310" level="4" title="Affirmative Defenses for Excess Emissions Due to Malfunctions, Startup, and Shutdown">

Affirmative Defenses for Excess Emissions Due to Malfunctions, Startup, and Shutdown

A. Applicability.

This rule establishes affirmative defenses for certain emissions in excess of an emission standard or limitation and applies to all emission standards or limitations except for standards or limitations:

1. Promulgated pursuant to Sections 111 or 112 of the Act,

2. Promulgated pursuant to Titles IV or VI of the Clean Air Act,

3. Contained in any Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) or New Source Review (NSR) permit issued by the U.S. E.P.A.,

4. Contained in R18-2-715(F), or

5. Included in a permit to meet the requirements of R18-2-406(A)(5).

B. Affirmative Defense for Malfunctions.

Emissions in excess of an applicable emission limitation due to malfunction shall constitute a violation. The owner or operator of a source with emissions in excess of an applicable emission limitation due to malfunction has an affirmative defense to a civil or administrative enforcement proceeding based on that violation, other than a judicial action seeking injunctive relief, if the owner or operator of the source has complied with the reporting requirements of R18-2-310.01 and has demonstrated all of the following:

1. The excess emissions resulted from a sudden and unavoidable breakdown of process equipment or air pollution control equipment beyond the reasonable control of the operator;

2. The air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or processes were at all times maintained and operated in a manner consistent with good practice for minimizing emissions;

3. If repairs were required, the repairs were made in an expeditious fashion when the applicable emission limitations were being exceeded. Off-shift labor and overtime were utilized where practicable to ensure that the repairs were made as expeditiously as possible. If off-shift labor and overtime were not utilized, the owner or operator satisfactorily demonstrated that the measures were impracticable;

4. The amount and duration of the excess emissions (including any bypass operation) were minimized to the maximum extent practicable during periods of such emissions;

5. All reasonable steps were taken to minimize the impact of the excess emissions on ambient air quality;

6. The excess emissions were not part of a recurring pattern indicative of inadequate design, operation, or maintenance;

7. During the period of excess emissions there were no exceedances of the relevant ambient air quality standards established in Article 2 of this Chapter that could be attributed to the emitting source;

8. The excess emissions did not stem from any activity or event that could have been foreseen and avoided, or planned, and could not have been avoided by better operations and maintenance practices;

9. All emissions monitoring systems were kept in operation if at all practicable; and

10. The owner or operator's actions in response to the excess emissions were documented by contemporaneous records.

C. Affirmative Defense for Startup and Shutdown.

1. Except as provided in subsection (C)(2), and unless otherwise provided for in the applicable requirement, emissions in excess of an applicable emission limitation due to startup and shutdown shall constitute a violation. The owner or operator of a source with emissions in excess of an applicable emission limitation due to startup and shutdown has an affirmative defense to a civil or administrative enforcement proceeding based on that violation, other than a judicial action seeking injunctive relief, if the owner or operator of the source has complied with the reporting requirements of R18-2-310.01 and has demonstrated all of the following:

a. The excess emissions could not have been prevented through careful and prudent planning and design;

b. If the excess emissions were the result of a bypass of control equipment, the bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe damage to air pollution control equipment, production equipment, or other property;

c. The source's air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or processes were at all times maintained and operated in a manner consistent with good practice for minimizing emissions;

d. The amount and duration of the excess emissions (including any bypass operation) were minimized to the maximum extent practicable during periods of such emissions;

e. All reasonable steps were taken to minimize the impact of the excess emissions on ambient air quality;

f. During the period of excess emissions there were no exceedances of the relevant ambient air quality standards established in Article 2 of this Chapter that could be attributed to the emitting source;

g. All emissions monitoring systems were kept in operation if at all practicable; and

h. The owner or operator's actions in response to the excess emissions were documented by contemporaneous records.

2. If excess emissions occur due to a malfunction during routine startup and shutdown, then those instances shall be treated as other malfunctions subject to subsection (B).

D. Affirmative Defense for Malfunctions During Scheduled Maintenance.

If excess emissions occur due to a malfunction during scheduled maintenance, then those instances will be treated as other malfunctions subject to subsection (B).

E. Demonstration of Reasonable and Practicable Measures.

For an affirmative defense under subsection (B) or (C), the owner or operator of the source shall demonstrate, through submission of the data and information required by this Section and R18-2-310.01, that all reasonable and practicable measures within the owner or operator's control were implemented to prevent the occurrence of the excess emissions.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended Arizona Testing Manual for Air Pollutant Emissions, effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Amended Arizona Testing Manual for Air Pollutant Emissions, as of September 15, 1984, effective August 9, 1985 (Supp. 85-4). Amended effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-310 renumbered without change as R18-2-310 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1164, effective February 15, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

R18-2-310.01. Reporting Requirements

A. The owner or operator of any source shall report to the Director any emissions in excess of the limits established by this Chapter or the applicable permit. The report shall be in two parts as specified below:

1. Notification by telephone or facsimile within 24 hours of the time the owner or operator first learned of the occurrence of excess emissions that includes all available information from subsection (B).

2. Detailed written notification by submission of an excess emissions report within 72 hours of the notification under subsection (1).

B. The excess emissions report shall contain the following information:

1. The identity of each stack or other emission point where the excess emissions occurred;

2. The magnitude of the excess emissions expressed in the units of the applicable emission limitation and the operating data and calculations used in determining the magnitude of the excess emissions;

3. The time and duration or expected duration of the excess emissions;

4. The identity of the equipment from which the excess emissions emanated;

5. The nature and cause of the emissions;

6. The steps taken, if the excess emissions were the result of a malfunction, to remedy the malfunction and the steps taken or planned to prevent the recurrence of the malfunctions;

7. The steps that were or are being taken to limit the excess emissions; and

8. If the source's permit contains procedures governing source operation during periods of startup or malfunction and the excess emissions resulted from startup or malfunction, a list of the steps taken to comply with the permit procedures.

C. In the case of continuous or recurring excess emissions, the notification requirements of this Section shall be satisfied if the source provides the required notification after excess emissions are first detected and includes in the notification an estimate of the time the excess emissions will continue. Excess emissions occurring after the estimated time period or changes in the nature of the emissions as originally reported shall require additional notification pursuant to subsections (A) and (B).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1164, effective February 15, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.311" level="4" title="Test Methods and Procedures">

Test Methods and Procedures

A. Except as otherwise specified in this Chapter, the applicable procedures and testing methods contained in the Arizona Testing Manual; 40 CFR 52, Appendices D and E; 40 CFR 60, Appendices A through F; and 40 CFR 61, Appendices B and C shall be used to determine compliance with the requirements established in this Chapter or contained in permits issued pursuant to this Chapter.

B. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection the opacity of visible emissions shall be determined by Reference Method 9 of the Arizona Testing Manual. A permit may specify a method, other than Method 9, for determining the opacity of emissions from a particular emissions unit, if the method has been promulgated by the Administrator in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A.

C. Except as otherwise specified in this Chapter, the heat content of solid fuel shall be determined according to ASTM method D-3176-89, (Practice for Ultimate Analysis of Coal and Coke) and ASTM method D-2015-91, (Test Method for Gross Calorific Value of Coal and Coke by the Adiabatic Bomb Calorimeter).

D. Except for ambient air monitoring and emissions testing required under Articles 9 and 11 of this Chapter, alternative and equivalent test methods in any test plan submitted to the Director may be approved by the Director for the duration of that plan provided that the following three criteria are met:

1. The alternative or equivalent test method measures the same chemical and physical characteristics as the test method it is intended to replace.

2. The alternative or equivalent test method has substantially the same or better reliability, accuracy, and precision as the test method it is intended to replace.

3. Applicable quality assurance procedures are followed in accordance with the Arizona Testing Manual, 40 CFR 60 or other quality assurance methods which are consistent with principles contained in the Arizona Testing Manual or 40 CFR 60 as approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section

R9-3-311 renumbered without change as R18-2-311 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.312" level="4" title="Performance Tests">

Performance Tests

A. Within 60 days after a source subject to the permit requirements of this Article has achieved the capability to operate at its maximum production rate on a sustained basis but no later than 180 days after initial start-up of such source and at such other times as may be required by the Director, the owner or operator of such source shall conduct performance tests and furnish the Director a written report of the results of the tests.

B. Performance tests shall be conducted and data reduced in accordance with the test method and procedures contained in the Arizona Testing Manual unless the Director:

1. Specifies or approves, in specific cases, the use of a reference method with minor changes in methodology;

2. Approves the use of an equivalent method;

3. Approves the use of an alternative method the results of which he has determined to be adequate for indicating whether a specific source is in compliance; or

4. Waives the requirement for performance tests because the owner or operator of a source has demonstrated by other means to the Director's satisfaction that the source is in compliance with the standard.

5. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to abrogate the Director's authority to require testing.

C. Performance tests shall be conducted under such conditions as the Director shall specify to the plant operator based on representative performance of the source. The owner or operator shall make available to the Director such records as may be necessary to determine the conditions of the performance tests. Operations during periods of start-up, shutdown, and malfunction shall not constitute representative conditions of performance tests unless otherwise specified in the applicable standard.

D. The owner or operator of a permitted source shall provide the Director two weeks prior notice of the performance test to afford the Director the opportunity to have an observer present.

E. The owner or operator of a permitted source shall provide, or cause to be provided, performance testing facilities as follows:

1. Sampling ports adequate for test methods applicable to such facility.

2. Safe sampling platform(s).

3. Safe access to sampling platform(s).

4. Utilities for sampling and testing equipment.

F. Each performance test shall consist of three separate runs using the applicable test method. Each run shall be conducted for the time and under the conditions specified in the applicable standard. For the purpose of determining compliance with an applicable standard, the arithmetic means of results of the three runs shall apply. In the event that a sample is accidentally lost or conditions occur in which one of the three runs is required to be discontinued because of forced shutdown, failure of an irreplaceable portion of the sample train, extreme meteorological conditions, or other circumstances beyond the owner or operator's control, compliance may, upon the Director's approval, be determined using the arithmetic means of the results of the two other runs. If the Director, or the Director's designee is present, tests may only be stopped with the Director's or such designee's approval. If the Director, or the Director's designee is not present, tests may only be stopped for good cause, which includes forced shutdown, failure of an irreplaceable portion of the sample train, extreme meteorological conditions, or other circumstances beyond the operator's control. Termination of testing without good cause after the first run is commenced shall constitute a failure of the test.

G. Except as provided in subsection (H) compliance with the emission limits established in this Chapter or as prescribed in permits issued pursuant to this Chapter shall be determined by the performance tests specified in this Section or in the permit.

H. In addition to performance tests specified in this Section, compliance with specific emission limits may be determined by:

1. Opacity tests.

2. Emission limit compliance tests specifically designated as such in the regulation establishing the emission limit to be complied with.

3. Continuous emission monitoring, where applicable quality assurance procedures are followed and where it is designated in the permit or in an applicable requirement to show compliance.

I. Nothing in this Section shall be so construed as to prevent the utilization of measurements from emissions monitoring devices or techniques not designated as performance tests as evidence of compliance with applicable good maintenance and operating requirements.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective September 28, 1984 (Supp. 84-5). Former Section R9-3-312 renumbered without change as R18-2-312 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.313" level="4" title="Existing Source Emission Monitoring">

Existing Source Emission Monitoring

A. Every source subject to an existing source performance standard as specified in this Chapter shall install, calibrate, operate, and maintain all monitoring equipment necessary for continuously monitoring the pollutants and other gases specified in this Section for the applicable source category.

1. Applicability.

a. Fossil-fuel fired steam generators, as specified in subsection (C)(1), shall be monitored for opacity, nitrogen oxides emissions, sulfur dioxide emissions, and oxygen or carbon dioxide.

b. Fluid bed catalytic cracking unit catalyst regenerators, as specified in subsection (C)(4), shall be monitored for opacity.

c. Sulfuric acid plants, as specified in subsection (C)(3)of this Section, shall be monitored for sulfur dioxide emissions.

d. Nitric acid plants, as specified in subsection (C)(2), shall be monitored for nitrogen oxides emissions.

2. Emission monitoring shall not be required when the source of emissions is not operating.

3. Variations.

a. Unless otherwise prohibited by the Act, the Director may approve, on a case-by-case basis, alternative monitoring requirements different from the provisions of this Section if the installation of a continuous emission monitoring system cannot be implemented by a source due to physical plant limitations or extreme economic reasons. Alternative monitoring procedures shall be specified by the Director on a case-by-case basis and shall include, as a minimum, annual manual stack tests for the pollutants identified for each type of source in this Section. Extreme economic reasons shall mean that the requirements of this Section would cause the source to be unable to continue in business.

b. Alternative monitoring requirements may be prescribed when installation of a continuous emission monitoring system or monitoring device specified by this Section would not provide accurate determinations of emissions (e.g., condensed, uncombined water vapor may prevent an accurate determination of opacity using commercially available continuous emission monitoring systems).

c. Alternative monitoring requirements may be prescribed when the affected facility is infrequently operated (e.g., some affected facilities may operate less than one month per year).

4. Monitoring system malfunction: A temporary exemption from the monitoring and reporting requirements of this Section may be provided during any period of monitoring system malfunction, provided that the source owner or operator demonstrates that the malfunction was unavoidable and is being repaired expeditiously.

B. Installation and performance testing required under this Section shall be completed and monitoring and recording shall commence within 18 months of the effective date of this Section.

C. Minimum monitoring requirements:

1. Fossil-fuel fired steam generators: Each fossil-fuel fired steam generator, except as provided in the following subsections, with an annual average capacity factor of greater than 30%, as reported to the Federal Power Commission for calendar year 1976, or as otherwise demonstrated to the Department by the owner or operator, shall conform with the following monitoring requirements when such facility is subject to an emission standard for the pollutant in question.

a. A continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of opacity which meets the performance specifications of this Section shall be installed, calibrated, maintained, and operated in accordance with the procedures of this Section by the owner or operator of any such steam generator of greater than 250 million Btu per hour heat input except where:

i. Gaseous fuel is the only fuel burned; or

ii. Oil or a mixture of gas and oil are the only fuels burned and the source is able to comply with the applicable particulate matter and opacity regulations without utilization of particulate matter collection equipment, and where the source has never been found to be in violation through any administrative or judicial proceedings, or accepted responsibility for any violation of any visible emission standard.

b. A continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of sulfur dioxide which meets the performance specifications of this Section shall be installed, calibrated, using sulfur dioxide calibration gas mixtures or other gas mixtures approved by the Director, maintained and operated on any fossil-fuel fired steam generator of greater than 250 million Btu per hour heat input which has installed sulfur dioxide pollutant control equipment.

c. A continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of nitrogen oxides which meets the performance specification of this Section shall be installed, calibrated using nitric oxide calibration gas mixtures or other gas mixtures approved by the Director, maintained and operated on fossil-fuel fired steam generators of greater than 1000 million Btu per hour heat input when such facility is located in an air quality control region where the Director has specifically determined that a control strategy for nitrogen dioxide is necessary to attain the ambient air quality standard specified in R18-2-205, unless the source owner or operator demonstrates during source compliance tests as required by the Department that such a source emits nitrogen oxides at levels 30% or more below the emission standard within this Chapter.

d. A continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of the percent oxygen or carbon dioxide which meets the performance specifications of this Section shall be installed, calibrated, operated, and maintained on fossil-fuel fired steam generators where measurements of oxygen or carbon dioxide in the flue gas are required to convert either sulfur dioxide or nitrogen oxides continuous emission monitoring data, or both, to units of the emission standard within this Chapter.

2. Nitric acid plants: Each nitric acid plant of greater than 300 tons per day production capacity, the production capacity being expressed as 100% acid located in an air quality control region where the Director has specifically determined that a control strategy for nitrogen dioxide is necessary to attain the ambient air quality standard specified in R18-2-205, shall install, calibrate using nitrogen dioxide calibration gas mixtures, maintain, and operate a continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of nitrogen oxides which meets the performance specifications of this Section for each nitric acid producing facility within such plant.

3. Sulfuric acid plants: Each sulfuric acid plant as defined in R18-2-101, of greater than 300 tons per day production capacity, the production being expressed as 100% acid, shall install, calibrate using sulfur dioxide calibration gas mixtures or other gas mixtures approved by the Director, maintain and operate a continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of sulfur dioxide which meets the performance specifications of this Section for each sulfuric acid producing facility within such a plant.

4. Fluid bed catalytic cracking unit catalyst regenerators at petroleum refineries. Each catalyst regenerator for fluid bed catalytic cracking units of greater than 20,000 barrels per day fresh-feed capacity shall install, calibrate, maintain and operate a continuous emission monitoring system for the measurement of opacity which meets the performance specifications of this Section for each regenerator within such refinery.

D. Minimum specifications: Owners or operators of monitoring equipment installed to comply with this Section shall demonstrate compliance with the following performance specifications.

1. The performance specifications set forth in Appendix B of 40 CFR 60 are incorporated herein by reference and shall be used by the Director to determine acceptability of monitoring equipment installed pursuant to this Section. However where reference is made to the Administrator in Appendix B of 40 CFR 60, the Director may allow the use of either the state-approved reference method or the federally approved reference method as published in 40 CFR 60. The performance specifications to be used with each type of monitoring system are listed below.

a. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring opacity shall comply with performance specification 1.

b. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring nitrogen oxides shall comply with performance specification 2.

c. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring sulfur dioxide shall comply with performance specification 2.

d. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring sulfur dioxide shall comply with performance specification 3.

e. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring carbon dioxide shall comply with performance specification 3.

2. Calibration gases: Span and zero gases shall be traceable to National Bureau of Standards reference gases whenever these reference gases are available. Every six months from date of manufacture, span and zero gases shall be reanalyzed by conducting triplicate analyses using the reference methods in Appendix A of 40 CFR 60 (Chapter 1) as amended: For sulfur dioxide, use Reference Method 6; for nitrogen oxides, use Reference method 7; and for carbon dioxide or oxygen, use Reference Method 3. The gases may be analyzed at less frequent intervals if longer shelf lives are guaranteed by the manufacturer.

3. Cycling time: Time includes the total time required to sample, analyze, and record an emission measurement.

a. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring opacity shall complete a minimum of one cycle of sampling and analyzing for each successive six-minute period.

b. Continuous emission monitoring systems for measuring oxides of nitrogen, carbon dioxide, oxygen, or sulfur dioxide shall complete a minimum of one cycle of operation (sampling, analyzing, and date recording) for each successive 15-minute period.

4. Monitor location: All continuous emission monitoring systems or monitoring devices shall be installed such that representative measurements of emissions of process parameter (i.e., oxygen, or carbon dioxide) from the affected facility are obtained. Additional guidance for location of continuous emission monitoring systems to obtain representative samples are contained in the applicable performance specifications of Appendix B of 40 CFR 60.

5. Combined effluents: When the effluents from two or more affected facilities of similar design and operating characteristics are combined before being released to the atmosphere through more than one point, separate monitors shall be installed.

6. Zero and drift: Owners or operators of all continuous emission monitoring systems installed in accordance with the requirements of this Section shall record the zero and span drift in accordance with the method prescribed by the manufacturer's recommended zero and span check at least once daily, using calibration gases specified in subsection (C) as applicable, unless the manufacturer has recommended adjustments at shorter intervals, in which case such recommendations shall be followed; shall adjust the zero span whenever the 24-hour zero drift or 24-hour calibration drift limits of the applicable performance specifications in Appendix B of Part 60, Chapter 1, Title 40 CFR are exceeded.

7. Span: Instrument span should be approximately 200% of the expected instrument data display output corresponding to the emission standard for the source.

E. Minimum data requirement: The following subsections set forth the minimum data reporting requirements for sources employing continuous monitoring equipment as specified in this Section. These periodic reports do not relieve the source operator from the reporting requirements of R18-2-310.01.

1. The owners or operators of facilities required to install continuous emission monitoring systems shall submit to the Director a written report of excess emissions for each calendar quarter and the nature and cause of the excess emissions, if known. The averaging period used for data reporting shall correspond to the averaging period specified in the emission standard for the pollutant source category in question. The required report shall include, as a minimum, the data stipulated in this subsection.

2. For opacity measurements, the summary shall consist of the magnitude in actual percent opacity of all six-minute opacity averages greater than any applicable standards for each hour of operation of the facility. Average values may be obtained by integration over the averaging period or by arithmetically averaging a minimum of four equally spaced, instantaneous opacity measurements per minute. Any time periods exempted shall be deleted before determining any averages in excess of opacity standards.

3. For gaseous measurements the summary shall consist of emission averages in the units of the applicable standard for each averaging period during which the applicable standard was exceeded.

4. The date and time identifying each period during which the continuous emission monitoring system was inoperative, except for zero and span checks and the nature of system repair or adjustment shall be reported. The Director may require proof of continuous emission monitoring system performance whenever system repairs or adjustments have been made.

5. When no excess emissions have occurred and the continuous emission monitoring system(s) have not been inoperative, repaired, or adjusted, such information shall be included in the report.

6. Owners or operators of affected facilities shall maintain a file of all information reported in the quarterly summaries, and all other data collected either by the continuous emission monitoring system or as necessary to convert monitoring data to the units of the applicable standard for a minimum of two years from the date of collection of such data or submission of such summaries.

F. Data reduction: Owners or operators of affected facilities shall use the following procedures for converting monitoring data to units of the standard where necessary.

1. For fossil-fuel fired steam generators the following procedures shall be used to convert gaseous emission monitoring data in parts per million to g/million cal (lb/million Btu) where necessary.

a. When the owner or operator of a fossil-fuel fired steam generator elects under subsection (C)(1)(d) to measure oxygen in the flue gases, the measurements of the pollutant concentration and oxygen concentration shall each be on a consistent basis (wet or dry).

i. When measurements are on a wet basis, except where wet scrubbers are employed or where moisture is otherwise added to stack gases, the following conversion procedure shall be used:

<img src="18-02-1.gif"/>ii. When measurements are on a wet basis and the water vapor content of the stack gas is determined at least once every 15 minutes the following conversion procedure shall be used:

<img src="18-02-2.gif"/> Use of this equation is contingent upon demonstrating the ability to accurately determine B(ws) such that any absolute error in B(ws) will not cause an error of more than &#177;1.5% in the term:

<img src="18-02-3.gif"/>iii. When measurements are on a dry basis, the following conversation procedure shall be used:

<img src="18-02-4.gif"/>b. When the owner or operator elects under subsection (C)(1)(d) to measure carbon dioxide in the flue gases, the measurement of the pollutant concentration and the carbon dioxide concentration shall each be on a consistent basis (wet or dry) and the following conversion procedure used;

<img src="18-02-5.gif"/>c. The values used in the equations under subsection (F)(1) above are derived as follows:

E(Q) = pollutant emission, g/million cal (lb/million Btu).

C = pollutant concentration, g/dscm (lb/dscf), determined by multiplying the average concentration (ppm) for each hourly period by 4.16 x 10

-5

M g/dscm per ppm (2.64 x 10

-9

M lb/dscf per ppm) where M = pollutant molecular weight, g/g-mole (lb/lb-mole), M = 64 for sulfur dioxide and 46 for oxides of nitrogen.

C(ws) = pollutant concentrations at stack conditions, g/wscm (lb/wscf), determined by multiplying the average concentration (ppm) for each one-hour period by 4.15 x 10

-5

M lb/wscm per ppm) (2.59 x 10

-5

M lb/wscf per ppm) where M = pollutant molecular weight, g/g mole (lb/lb mole). M = 64 for sulfur dioxide and 46 for nitrogen oxides.

%O(2),%CO(2) = Oxygen or carbon dioxide volume (expressed as percent) determined with equipment specified under subsection (D)(1)(d).

F,F(c) = A factor representing a ratio of the volume of dry flue gases generated to the calorific value of the fuel combusted (F), a factor representing a ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide generated to the calorific value of the fuel combusted (F(c)), respectively. Values of F and F(c) are given in 40 CFR 60.45(f) (Chapter 1).

F(w) = A factor representing a ratio of the volume of wet flue gases generated to the caloric value of the fuel combusted. Values of F(w) are given in Reference Method 19 of the Arizona Testing Manual.

B(wa) = Proportion by volume of water vapor in the ambient air. Approval may be given for determination of B(w)a by on-site instrumental measurement provided that the absolute accuracy of the measurement technique can be demonstrated to be within &#177; 0.7% water vapor. Estimation methods for B(wa) are given in Reference Method 19 of the Arizona Testing Manual.

B(ws) = Proportion by volume of water vapor in the stack gas.

2. For sulfuric acid plants as defined in R18-2-101, the owner or operator shall:

a. Establish a conversion factor three times daily according to the procedures of 40 CFR 60.84(b) (Chapter 1),

b. Multiply the conversion factor by the average sulfur dioxide concentration in the flue gases to obtain average sulfur dioxide emissions in Kg/metric ton (lb/short ton), and

c. Report the average sulfur dioxide emission for each averaging period in excess of the applicable emission standard in the quarterly summary.

3. For nitric acid plants, the owner or operator shall:

a. Establish a conversion factor according to the procedures of 40 CFR 60.73(b) (Chapter 1),

b. Multiply the conversion factor by the average nitrogen oxides concentration in the flue gases to obtain the nitrogen oxides emissions in the units of the applicable standard,

c. Report the average nitrogen oxides emission for each averaging period in excess of applicable emission standard in the quarterly summary.

4. The Director may allow data reporting or reduction procedures varying from those set forth in this Section if the owner or operator of a source shows to the satisfaction of the Director that his procedures are at least as accurate as those in this Section. Such procedures may include but are not limited to the following:

a. Alternative procedures for computing emission averages that do not require integration of data (e.g., some facilities may demonstrate that the variability of their emissions is sufficiently small to allow accurate reduction of data based upon computing averages from equally spaced data points over the averaging period).

b. Alternative methods of converting pollutant concentration measurements to the units of the emission standards.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (C), paragraph (1), subparagraph (d) (Supp 80-2). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-313 renumbered without change as R18-2-313 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1164, effective February 15, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.314" level="4" title="Quality Assurance">

Quality Assurance

Facilities subject to the permit requirements of this Article shall submit a quality assurance plan to the Director that meets the requirements of R18-2-311(D)(3) within 12 months of the effective date of this Section. Facilities subject to the requirements of R18-2-313 shall submit a quality assurance plan as specified in the permit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-314 renumbered without change as R18-2-314 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.315" level="4" title="Posting of Permit">

Posting of Permit

A. Any person who has been granted an individual or general permit shall post such permit or a certificate of permit issuance on location where the equipment is installed in such a manner as to be clearly visible and accessible. All equipment covered by the permit shall be clearly marked with one of the following:

1. The current permit number,

2. A serial number or other equipment number that is also listed in the permit to identify that piece of equipment.

B. A copy of the complete permit shall be kept on the site.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-315 renumbered without change as R18-2-315 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.316" level="4" title="Notice by Building Permit Agencies">

Notice by Building Permit Agencies

All agencies of the county or political subdivisions of the county that issue or grant building permits or approvals shall examine the plans and specifications submitted by an applicant for a permit or approval to determine if an air pollution permit will possibly be required under the provisions of this Chapter. If it appears that an air pollution permit will be required, the agency or political subdivision shall give written notice to the applicant to contact the Director and shall furnish a copy of that notice to the Director.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-316 renumbered without change as R18-2-316 (Supp. 87-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.317" level="4" title="Facility Changes Allowed Without Permit Revisions - Class I">

Facility Changes Allowed Without Permit Revisions - Class I

A. A facility with a Class I permit may make changes without a permit revision if all of the following apply:

1. The changes are not modifications under any provision of Title I of the Act or under A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01(17);

2. The changes do not exceed the emissions allowable under the permit whether expressed therein as a rate of emissions or in terms of total emissions;

3. The changes do not violate any applicable requirements or trigger any additional applicable requirements;

4. The changes satisfy all requirements for a minor permit revision under R18-2-319(A); and

5. The changes do not contravene federally enforceable permit terms and conditions that are monitoring (including test methods), recordkeeping, reporting, or compliance certification requirements.

B. The substitution of an item of process or pollution control equipment for an identical or substantially similar item of process or pollution control equipment shall qualify as a change that does not require a permit revision, if the substitution meets all of the requirements of subsections (A), (D), and (E).

C. Except for sources with authority to operate under general permits, permitted sources may trade increases and decreases in emissions within the permitted facility, as established in the permit under R18-2-306(A)(12), if an applicable implementation plan provides for the emissions trades without applying for a permit revision and based on the seven working days notice prescribed in subsection (D). This provision is available if the permit does not provide for the emissions trading as a minor permit revision.

D. For each change under subsections (A) through (C), a written notice by certified mail or hand delivery shall be received by the Director and the Administrator a minimum of seven working days in advance of the change. Notifications of changes associated with emergency conditions, such as malfunctions necessitating the replacement of equipment, may be provided less than seven working days in advance of the change but must be provided as far in advance of the change or, if advance notification is not practicable, as soon after the change as possible.

E. Each notification shall include:

1. When the proposed change will occur;

2. A description of the change;

3. Any change in emissions of regulated air pollutants;

4. The pollutants emitted subject to the emissions trade, if any;

5. The provisions in the implementation plan that provide for the emissions trade with which the source will comply and any other information as may be required by the provisions in the implementation plan authorizing the trade;

6. If the emissions trading provisions of the implementation plan are invoked, then the permit requirements with which the source will comply; and

7. Any permit term or condition that is no longer applicable as a result of the change.

F. The permit shield described in R18-2-325 shall not apply to any change made under subsections (A) through (C). Compliance with the permit requirements that the source will meet using the emissions trade shall be determined according to requirements of the implementation plan authorizing the emissions trade.

G. Except as otherwise provided for in the permit, making a change from one alternative operating scenario to another as provided under R18-2-306(A)(11) shall not require any prior notice under this Section.

H. Notwithstanding any other part of this Section, the Director may require a permit to be revised for any change that, when considered together with any other changes submitted by the same source under this Section over the term of the permit, do not satisfy subsection (A).

I. The Director shall make available to the public monthly summaries of all notices received under this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-317 renumbered without change as R18-2-317 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

R18-2-317.01. Facility Changes that Require a Permit Revision - Class II

A. The following changes at a source with a Class II permit shall require a permit revision:

1. A change that triggers a new applicable requirement or violates an existing applicable requirement.

2. Establishment of, or change in, an emissions cap;

3. A change that will require a case-by-case determination of an emission limitation or other standard, or a source-specific determination of ambient impacts, or a visibility or increment analysis;

4. A change that results in emissions that are subject to monitoring, recordkeeping or reporting under R18-2-306(A)(3),(4), or (5) if the emissions cannot be measured or otherwise adequately quantified by monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting requirements already in the permit;

5. A change that will authorize the burning of used oil, used oil fuel, hazardous waste, or hazardous waste fuel, or any other fuel not currently authorized by the permit;

6. A change that requires the source to obtain a Class I permit;

7. Replacement of an item of air pollution control equipment listed in the permit with one that does not have the same or better pollutant removal efficiency;

8. Establishment or revision of a limit under R18-2-306.01;

9. Increasing operating hours or rates of production above the permitted level; and

10. A change that relaxes monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting requirements, except when the change results:

a. From removing equipment that results in a permanent decrease in actual emissions, if the source keeps on-site records of the change in a log that satisfies Appendix 3 of this Chapter and if the requirements that are relaxed are present in the permit solely for the equipment that was removed; or

b. From a change in an applicable requirement.

B. A source with a Class II permit may make any physical change or change in the method of operation without revising the source's permit unless the change is specifically prohibited in the source's permit or is a change described in subsection (A). A change that does not require a permit revision may still be subject to requirements in R18-2-317.02.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

R18-2-317.02. Procedures for Certain Changes that do not Require a Permit Revision - Class II

A. Except for a physical change or change in the method of operation at a Class II source requiring a permit revision under R18-2-317.01, or a change subject to logging or notice requirements in subsection (B) or (C), a change at a Class II source shall not be subject to revision, notice, or logging requirements under this Chapter.

B. Except as otherwise provided in the conditions applicable to an emissions cap created under R18-2-306.02, the following changes may be made if the source keeps onsite records of the changes according to Appendix 3:

1. Implementing an alternative operating scenario, including raw material changes;

2. Changing process equipment, operating procedures, or making any other physical change if the permit requires the change to be logged;

3. Engaging in any new insignificant activity listed in R18-2-101(57)(a) through (i) but not listed in the permit;

4. Replacing an item of air pollution control equipment listed in the permit with an identical (same model, different serial number) item. The Director may require verification of efficiency of the new equipment by performance tests; and

5. A change that results in a decrease in actual emissions if the source wants to claim credit for the decrease in determining whether the source has a net emissions increase for any purpose. The logged information shall include a description of the change that will produce the decrease in actual emissions. A decrease that has not been logged is creditable only if the decrease is quantifiable, enforceable, and otherwise qualifies as a creditable decrease.

C. Except as provided in the conditions applicable to an emissions cap created under R18-2-306.02, the following changes may be made if the source provides written notice to the Department in advance of the change as provided below:

1. Replacing an item of air pollution control equipment listed in the permit with one that is not identical but that is substantially similar and has the same or better pollutant removal efficiency: seven days. The Director may require verification of efficiency of the new equipment by performance tests;

2. A physical change or change in the method of operation that increases actual emissions more than 10% of the major source threshold for any conventional pollutant but does not require a permit revision: seven days;

3. Replacing an item of air pollution control equipment listed in the permit with one that is not substantially similar but that has the same or better efficiency: 30 days. The Director may require verification of efficiency of the new equipment by performance tests;

4. A change that would trigger an applicable requirement that already exists in the permit: 30 days unless otherwise required by the applicable requirement;

5. A change that amounts to reconstruction of the source or an affected facility: seven days. For purposes of this subsection, reconstruction of a source or an affected facility shall be presumed if the fixed capital cost of the new components exceeds 50% of the fixed capital cost of a comparable entirely new source or affected facility and the changes to the components have occurred over the 12 consecutive months beginning with commencement of construction; and

6. A change that will result in the emissions of a new regulated air pollutant above an applicable regulatory threshold but that does not trigger a new applicable requirement for that source category: 30 days. For purposes of this requirement, an applicable regulatory threshold for a conventional air pollutant shall be 10% of the applicable major source threshold for that pollutant.

D. For each change under subsection (C), the written notice shall be by certified mail or hand delivery and shall be received by the Director the minimum amount of time in advance of the change. Notifications of changes associated with emergency conditions, such as malfunctions necessitating the replacement of equipment, may be provided with less than required notice, but must be provided as far in advance of the change, or if advance notification is not practicable, as soon after the change as possible. The written notice shall include:

1. When the proposed change will occur,

2. A description of the change,

3. Any change in emissions of regulated air pollutants, and

4. Any permit term or condition that is no longer applicable as a result of the change.

E. A source may implement any change in subsection (C) without the required notice by applying for a minor permit revision under R18-2-319 and complying with R18-2-319(D)(2) and (G).

F. The permit shield described in R18-2-325 shall not apply to any change made under this Section, other than implementation of an alternate operating scenario under subsection (B)(1).

G. Notwithstanding any other part of this Section, the Director may require a permit to be revised for any change that, when considered together with any other changes submitted by the same source under this Section over the term of the permit, constitutes a change under R18-317.01(A).

H. If a source change is described under both subsections (B) and (C), the source shall comply with subsection (C). If a source change is described under both subsections (C) and R18-2-317.01(B), the source shall comply with R18-2-317.01(B).

I. A copy of all logs required under subsection (B) shall be filed with the Director within 30 days after each anniversary of the permit issue date. If no changes were made at the source requiring logging, a statement to that effect shall be filed instead.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.318" level="4" title="Administrative Permit Amendments">

Administrative Permit Amendments

A. Except for provisions pursuant to Title IV of the Act, an administrative permit amendment is a permit revision that does any of the following:

1. Corrects typographical errors;

2. Identifies a change in the name, address, or phone number of any person identified in the permit, or provides a similar minor administrative change at the source;

3. Requires more frequent monitoring or reporting by the permittee;

4. Allows for a change in ownership or operational control of a source as approved under R18-2-323 where the Director determines that no other change in the permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility coverage, and liability between the current and new permittee has been submitted to the Director;

B. Administrative permit amendments to Title IV provisions of the permit shall be governed by regulations promulgated by the Administrator under Title IV of the Act.

C. The Director shall take no more than 60 days from receipt of a request for an administrative permit amendment to take final action on such request, and for Class I permits may incorporate such changes without providing notice to the public or affected states provided that it designates any such permit revisions as having been made pursuant to this Section.

D. The Director shall submit a copy of Class I permits revised under this Section to the Administrator.

E. Except for administrative permit amendments involving a transfer under R18-2-323, the source may implement the changes addressed in the request for an administrative amendment immediately upon submittal of the request.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-318 renumbered without change as R18-2-318 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (A) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993

(Supp. 93-4).

R18-2-318.01. Annual Summary Permit Amendments for Class II Permits

The Director may amend any Class II permit annually without following R18-2-321 in order to incorporate changes reflected in logs or notices filed under R18-2-317.02. The amendment shall be effective to the anniversary date of the permit. The Director shall make available to the public for any source:

1. A complete record of logs and notices sent to the Department under R18-2-317.02; and

2. Any amendments or revisions to the source's permit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.319" level="4" title="Minor Permit Revisions">

Minor Permit Revisions

A. Minor permit revision procedures may be used only for those changes at a Class I source that satisfy all of the following:

1. Do not violate any applicable requirement;

2. Do not involve substantive changes to existing monitoring, reporting, or recordkeeping requirements in the permit;

3. Do not require or change a case-by-case determination of an emission limitation or other standard, or a source-specific determination of ambient impacts, or a visibility or increment analysis;

4. Do not seek to establish or change a permit term or condition for which there is no corresponding underlying applicable requirement and that the source has assumed in order to avoid an applicable requirement to which the source would otherwise be subject. The terms and conditions include:

a. A federally enforceable emissions cap that the source would assume to avoid classification as a modification under any provision of Title I of the Act; and

b. An alternative emissions limit approved under regulations promulgated under the Section 112(i)(5) of the Act.

5. Are not modifications under any provision of Title I of the Act;

6. Are not changes in fuels not represented in the permit application or provided for in the permit;

7. The increase in the source's potential to emit any regulated air pollutant is not significant as defined in R18-2-101; and

8. Are not required to be processed as a significant revision under R18-2-320.

B. Minor permit revision procedures shall be used for the following changes at a Class II source:

1. A change that triggers a new applicable requirement if all of the following apply:

a. For emissions units not subject to an emissions cap, the net emissions increase is less than the significant level defined in R18-2-101(111);

b. A case-by-case determination of an emission limitation or other standard is not required; and

c. The change does not require the source to obtain a Class I permit;

2. Increasing operating hours or rates of production above the permitted level unless the increase otherwise creates a condition that requires a significant permit revision;

3. A change in fuel from fuel oil or coal, to natural gas or propane, if not authorized in the permit;

4. A change that results in emissions subject to monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting under R18-2-306(A)(3),(4), or (5) and that cannot be measured or otherwise adequately quantified by monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting requirements already in the permit;

5. A decrease in the emissions permitted under an emissions cap unless the decrease requires a change in the conditions required to enforce the cap or to ensure that emissions trades conducted under the cap are quantifiable and enforceable; and

6. Replacement of an item of air pollution control equipment listed in the permit with one that does not have the same or better efficiency.

C. As approved by the Director, minor permit revision procedures may be used for permit revisions involving the use of economic incentives, marketable permits, emissions trading, and other similar approaches, to the extent that the minor permit revision procedures are explicitly provided for in an applicable implementation plan or in applicable requirements promulgated by the Administrator.

D. An application for minor permit revision shall be on the standard application form contained in Appendix 1 and include the following:

1. A description of the change, the emissions resulting from the change, and any new applicable requirements that will apply if the change occurs;

2. For Class I sources, and any source that is making the change immediately after it files the application, the source's suggested draft permit;

3. Certification by a responsible official, consistent with standard permit application requirements, that the proposed revision meets the criteria for use of minor permit revision procedures and a request that the procedures be used;

E. EPA and affected state notification. For Class I permits, within five working days of receipt of an application for a minor permit revision, the Director shall notify the Administrator and affected states of the requested permit revision in accordance with R18-2-307.

F. The Director shall follow the following timetable for action on an application for a minor permit revision:

1. For Class I permits, the Director shall not issue a final permit revision until after the Administrator's 45-day review period or until the Administrator has notified the Director that the Administrator will not object to issuance of the permit revision, whichever is first, although the Director may approve the permit revision before that time. Within 90 days of the Director's receipt of an application under minor permit revision procedures, or 15 days after the end of the Administrator's 45-day review period, whichever is later, the Director shall do one or more of the following:

a. Issue the permit revision as proposed,

b. Deny the permit revision application,

c. Determine that the proposed permit revision does not meet the minor permit revision criteria and should be reviewed under the significant revision procedures, or

d. Revise the proposed permit revision and transmit to the Administrator the new proposed permit revision as required in R18-2-307.

2. Within 60 days of the Director's receipt of an application for a revision of a Class II permit under this Section, the Director shall do one or more of the following:

a. Issue the permit revision as proposed;

b. Deny the permit revision application;

c. Determine that the permit revision does not meet the minor permit revision criteria and should be reviewed under the significant revision procedures; or

d. Revise and issue the proposed permit revision.

G. The source may make the change proposed in its minor permit revision application immediately after it files the application. After the source makes the change allowed by the preceding sentence, and until the Director takes any of the actions specified in subsection (F), the source shall comply with both the applicable requirements governing the change and the proposed revised permit terms and conditions. During this time period, the source need not comply with the existing permit terms and conditions it seeks to modify. However, if the source fails to comply with its proposed permit terms and conditions during this time period, the existing permit terms and conditions it seeks to revise may be enforced against it.

H. The permit shield under R18-2-325 shall not extend to minor permit revisions.

I. Notwithstanding any other part of this Section, the Director may require a permit to be revised under R18-2-320 for any change that, when considered together with any other changes submitted by the same source under this Section or R18-2-317.02 over the life of the permit, do not satisfy subsection (A) for Class I sources or subsection (B) for Class II sources.

J. The Director shall make available to the public monthly summaries of all applications for minor permit revisions.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-319 renumbered without change as R18-2-319 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.320" level="4" title="Significant Permit Revisions">

Significant Permit Revisions

A. For Class I sources, a significant revision shall be used for an application requesting a permit revision that does not qualify as a minor permit revision or as an administrative amendment. A significant revision that is only required because of a change described in R18-2-319(A)(6) or (7) shall not be considered a significant permit revision under part 70 for the purposes of 40 CFR 64.5(a)(2). Every significant change in existing monitoring permit terms or conditions and every relaxation of reporting or recordkeeping permit terms or conditions shall follow significant revision procedures.

B. A source with a Class II permit shall make the following changes only after the permit is revised following the public participation requirements of R18-2-330:

1. Establishing or revising a voluntarily accepted emission limitation or standard as described by R18-2-306.01 or R18-2-306.02, except a decrease in the limitation authorized by R18-2-319(B)(5);

2. Making any change in fuel not authorized by the permit and that is not fuel oil or coal, to natural gas or propane;

3. A change to or addition of an emissions unit not subject to an emissions cap that will result in a net emission increase of a pollutant greater than the significance level in R18-2-101(104);

4. A change that relaxes monitoring, recordkeeping, or reporting requirements, except when the change results from:

a. Removing equipment that results in a permanent decrease in actual emissions, if the source keeps on-site records of the change in a log that satisfies Appendix 3 of this Chapter and if the requirements that are relaxed are present in the permit solely for the equipment that was removed; or

b. A change in an applicable requirement.

5. A change that will cause the source to violate an existing applicable requirement including the conditions establishing an emissions cap;

6. A change that will require any of the following:

a. A case-by-case determination of an emission limitation or other standard;

b. A source-specific determination of ambient impacts, or a visibility or increment analysis; or

c. A case-by-case determination of a monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirement.

7. A change that requires the source to obtain a Class I permit.

C. Any modification to a major source of federally listed hazardous air pollutants, and any reconstruction of a source, or a process or production unit, under Section 112(g) of the Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, shall follow significant permit revision procedures and any rules adopted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.03.

D. Significant permit revisions shall meet all requirements of this Article for applications, public participation, review by affected states, and review by the Administrator that apply to permit issuance and renewal.

E. When an existing source applies for a significant permit revision to revise its permit from a Class II permit to a Class I permit, it shall submit a Class I permit application in accordance with R18-2-304. The Director shall issue the entire permit, and not just the portion being revised, in accordance with Class I permit content and issuance requirements, including requirements for public, affected state, and EPA review, contained in R18-2-307 and R18-2-330.

F. The Director shall process the majority of significant permit revision applications received each calendar year within nine months of receipt of a complete permit application but in no case longer than 18 months. Applications for which the Director undertakes accelerated processing under R18-2-326(N) shall not be included in this requirement. This subsection does not change any time-frame requirements in Chapter 1.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 343, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.321" level="4" title="Permit Reopenings; Revocation and Reissuance; Termination">

Permit Reopenings; Revocation and Reissuance; Termination

A. Reopening for Cause.

1. Each issued permit shall include provisions specifying the conditions under which the permit shall be reopened prior to the expiration of the permit. A permit shall be reopened and revised under any of the following circumstances:

a. Additional applicable requirements under the Act become applicable to a major source with a remaining permit term of three or more years. Such a reopening shall be completed not later than 18 months after promulgation of the applicable requirement. No such reopening is required if the effective date of the requirement is later than the date on which the permit is due to expire, unless the original permit or any of its terms and conditions has been extended pursuant to R18-2-322(B). Any permit revision required pursuant to this subsection shall comply with provisions in R18-2-322 for permit renewal and shall reset the five-year permit term.

b. Additional requirements, including excess emissions requirements, become applicable to an affected source under the acid rain program. Upon approval by the Administrator, excess emissions offset plans shall be deemed to be incorporated into the Class I permit.

c. The Director or the Administrator determines that the permit contains a material mistake or that inaccurate statements were made in establishing the emissions standards or other terms or conditions of the permit.

d. The Director or the Administrator determines that the permit needs to be revised or revoked to assure compliance with the applicable requirements.

2. Proceedings to reopen and issue a permit, including appeal of any final action relating to a permit reopening, shall follow the same procedures as apply to initial permit issuance and shall, except for reopenings under subsection (1)(a), affect only those parts of the permit for which cause to reopen exists. Such reopening shall be made as expeditiously as practicable.

3. Reopenings under subsection (A)(1) shall not be initiated before a notice of such intent is provided to the source by the Director at least 30 days in advance of the date that the permit is to be reopened, except that the Director may provide a shorter time period in the case of an emergency.

4. When a permit is reopened and revised pursuant to this Section, the Director may make appropriate revisions to the permit shield established pursuant to R18-2-325.

B. Within 10 days of receipt of notice from the Administrator that cause exists to reopen a Class I permit, the Director shall notify the source. The source shall have 30 days to respond to the Director. Within 90 days of receipt of notice from the Administrator that cause exists to reopen a permit, or within any extension to the 90 days granted by EPA, the Director shall forward to the Administrator and the source a proposed determination of termination, revision, or revocation and reissuance of the permit. Within 90 days of receipt of an EPA objection to the Director's proposal, the Director shall resolve the objection and act on the permit.

C. The Director may issue a notice of termination of a permit issued pursuant to this Chapter if:

1. The Director has reasonable cause to believe that the permit was obtained by fraud or misrepresentation.

2. The person applying for the permit failed to disclose a material fact required by the permit application form or the regulation applicable to the permit, of which the applicant had or should have had knowledge at the time the application was submitted.

3. The terms and conditions of the permit have been or are being violated.

If the Director issues a notice of termination under this Section, the notice shall be served on the permittee by certified mail, return receipt requested. The notice shall include a statement detailing the grounds for the revocation and a statement that the permittee is entitled to a hearing.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-321 renumbered without change as R18-2-321 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.322" level="4" title="Permit Renewal and Expiration">

Permit Renewal and Expiration

A. A permit being renewed is subject to the same procedural requirements, including any for public participation and affected states and Administrator review, that would apply to that permit's initial issuance.

B. Except as provided in R18-2-303(A), permit expiration terminates the source's right to operate unless a timely application for renewal that is sufficient under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1064 has been submitted in accordance with R18-2-304. Any testing that is required for renewal shall be completed before the proposed permit is issued by the Director.

C. The Director shall act on an application for a permit renewal within the same time-frames as on an initial permit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-322 renumbered without change as R18-2-322 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.323" level="4" title="Permit Transfers">

Permit Transfers

A. Except as provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-429 and subsection (B), a Class I or II permit may be transferred to another person if the person who holds the permit gives notice to the Director in writing at least 30 days before the proposed transfer. The notice shall contain the following:

1. The permit number and expiration date;

2. The name, address, and telephone number of the current permit holder;

3. The name, address and telephone number of the person to receive the permit;

4. The name and title of the individual within the organization who is accepting responsibility for the permit along with a signed statement by that person indicating such acceptance;

5. A description of the equipment to be transferred;

6. A written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between the current and new permittee;

7. Provisions for the payment of any fees pursuant to R18-2-326 or R18-2-501 that will be due and payable before the effective date of transfer;

8. Sufficient information about the source's technical and financial capabilities of operating the source to allow the Director to make the decision in subsection (B) including:

a. The qualifications of each person principally responsible for the operation of the source;

b. A statement by the chief financial officer of the new permittee that it is financially capable of operating the facility in compliance with the law, and the information that provides the basis for that statement;

c. A brief description of any action for the enforcement of any federal or state law, rule, or regulation, or any county, city, or local government ordinance relating to the protection of the environment, instituted against any person employed by the new permittee and principally responsible for operating the facility during the five years preceding the date of application. In lieu of this description, the new permittee may submit a copy of the certificate of disclosure or 10-K form required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-109, or a statement that this information has been filed in compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-109.

B. The Director shall deny the transfer if the Director determines that the organization receiving the permit is not capable of operating the source in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 2, the provisions of this Chapter or the provisions of the permit. Notice of the denial shall be sent to the original permit holder by certified mail stating the reason for the denial within 10 working days of the Director's receipt of the application. If the transfer is not denied within 10 working days after receipt of the notice, it shall be deemed approved.

C. To appeal the transfer denial:

1. Both the transferor and transferee shall petition the hearing board in writing for a public hearing; and

2. The appeal process for a permit shall be followed.

D. The Director shall make available to the public monthly summaries of all notices received under this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-323 renumbered without change as R18-2-323 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.324" level="4" title="Portable Sources">

Portable Sources

A. A portable source that will operate for the duration of its permit solely in one county that has established a local air pollution control program pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-479 shall obtain a permit from that county. A portable source with a county permit shall not operate in any other county.

B. A portable source which has a county permit but proposes to operate outside the county shall obtain a permit from the Director. Upon issuance of a permit by the Director, the county shall terminate the county permit for that source. Before commencing operation in the new county, the source shall notify the Director and the control officer who has jurisdiction over the geographic area that includes the new location according to subsection (D).

C. An owner of portable source equipment which requires a permit under this Chapter shall obtain the permit prior to renting or leasing said equipment. This permit shall be provided by the owner to the renter or lessee, and the renter or lessee shall be bound by the permit provisions. In the event a copy of the permit is not provided to the renter or lessee, both the owner and the lessee or renter shall be responsible for the operation of this equipment in compliance with the permit conditions and any violations thereof.

D. A portable source may be transferred from one location to another provided that the owner or operator of such equipment notifies the Director and any control officer who has jurisdiction over the geographic area that includes the new location of the transfer by certified mail at least 10 working days before the transfer. The notification required under this subsection shall include:

1. A description of the equipment to be transferred including the permit number for such equipment;

2. A description of the present location;

3. A description of the location to which the equipment is to be transferred, including the availability of all utilities, such as water and electricity, necessary for the proper operation of all control equipment;

4. The date on which the equipment is to be moved; and

5. The date on which operation of the equipment will begin at the new location.

E. Any permit for a portable source shall contain conditions that will assure compliance with all applicable requirements at all authorized locations.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.325" level="4" title="Permit Shields">

Permit Shields

A. Each Class I or II permit issued under this Chapter shall specifically identify all federal, state, and local air pollution control requirements applicable to the source at the time the permit is issued. The permit shall state that compliance with the conditions of the permit shall be deemed compliance with any applicable requirement as of the date of permit issuance, provided that such applicable requirements are included and expressly identified in the permit. The Director may include in a permit determinations that other requirements specifically identified are not applicable. Any permit under this Chapter that does not expressly state that a permit shield exists shall not provide such a shield.

B. Nothing in this Section or in any permit shall alter or affect the following:

1. The provisions of Section 303 of the Act (emergency orders), including the authority of the Administrator under that Section;

2. The liability of an owner or operator of a source for any violation of applicable requirements prior to or at the time of permit issuance;

3. The applicable requirements of the acid rain program, consistent with Section 408(a) of the Act;

4. The ability of the Administrator or the Director to obtain information from a source pursuant to Section 114 of the Act, or any provision of state law;

5. The authority of the Director to require compliance with new applicable requirements adopted after the permit is issued.

C. In addition to the provisions of R18-2-321, a permit may be reopened by the Director and the permit shield revised when it is determined that standards or conditions in the permit are based on incorrect information provided by the applicant.

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective September 17, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-3). Emergency rule re-adopted without change effective December 16, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-4). Emergency expired; text deleted (Supp. 93-1). New Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.326" level="4" title="Fees Related to Individual Permits"> <dwc name="copper" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1">

Fees Related to Individual Permits

A. Source Categories. The owner or operator of a source required to have an air quality permit from the Director shall pay the fees described in this Section unless authorized to operate under a general permit issued under Article 5. The fees are based on a source being classified in one of the following three categories:

1. Class I Title V sources are those required or that elect to have a permit under R18-2-302(B)(1).

2. Class II Title V sources are those required to have a permit under R18-2-302(B)(2) and for which either R18-2-302(B)(2)(a)(i) or (ii) applies.

3. Class II Non-Title V sources are those required to have a permit under R18-2-302(B)(2) and for which neither R18-2-302(B)(2)(a)(i) nor (ii) applies.

B. Fees for Permit Actions. The owner or operator of a Class I Title V source, Class II Title V source, or Class II Non-Title V source shall pay to the Director $66 per hour, adjusted annually under subsection (H), for all permit processing time required for a billable permit action. Upon completion of permit processing activities other than issuance or denial of the permit or permit revision, the Director shall send notice of the decision to the applicant along with a final itemized bill. The maximum fee for any billable permit action for a non-Title V source is $25,000. Except as provided in subsection (G), the Director shall not issue a permit or permit revision until the final bill is paid in full.

C. Class I Title V Fees. The owner or operator of a Class I Title V source that has undergone initial startup by January 1 shall annually pay to the Director an administrative fee plus an emissions-based fee as follows:

1. The applicable administrative fee from the table below, as adjusted annually under subsection (H). The fee is due by March 31 or 60 days after the Director mails the invoice under subsection (F), whichever is later.

<table> Class I Title V Source Category Administrative Fee Aerospace $12,900 Cement Plants $39,500 Combustion/Boilers $9,600 Compressor Stations $7,900 Electronics $12,700 Expandable Foam $9,100 Foundries $12,100 Landfills $9,900 Lime Plants $37,000 Copper &amp; Nickel Mines $9,300 Gold Mines $9,300 Mobile Home Manufacturing $9,200 Paper Mills $12,700 Paper Coaters $9,600 Petroleum Products Terminal Facilities $14,100 Polymeric Fabric Coaters $12,700 Reinforced Plastics $9,600 Semiconductor Fabrication $16,700 Copper Smelters $39,500 Utilities - Natural Gas $10,200 Utilities - Fossil Fuel Except Natural Gas $20,200 Vitamin/Pharmaceutical Manufacturing $9,800 Wood Furniture $9,600 Others $9,900 Others with Continuous Emissions Monitoring $12,700 </table>

2. An emissions-based fee of $11.75 per ton of actual emissions of all regulated pollutants emitted during the previous calendar year ending 12 months earlier. The fee is adjusted annually under subsection (d) and due by March 31 or 60 days after the Director mails the invoice under subsection (F), whichever is later.

a. For purposes of this Section, "actual emissions" means the quantity of all regulated pollutants emitted during the calendar year, as determined by the annual emissions inventory under R18-2-327.

b. For purposes of this Section, regulated pollutants consist of the following:

i. Nitrogen oxides and any volatile organic compounds;

ii. Conventional air pollutants, except carbon monoxide and ozone;

iii. Any pollutant that is subject to any standard promulgated under Section 111 of the Act, including fluorides, sulfuric acid mist, hydrogen sulfide, total reduced sulfur, and reduced sulfur compounds; and

iv. Any federally listed hazardous air pollutant.

c. For purposes of this Section, the following emissions of regulated pollutants are excluded from a source's actual emissions:

i. Emissions of any regulated pollutant from the source in excess of 4,000 tons per year;

ii. Emissions of any regulated pollutant already included in the actual emissions for the source, such as a federally listed hazardous air pollutant that is already accounted for as a VOC or as PM

10

;

iii. Emissions from insignificant activities listed in the permit application for the source under R18-2-304(E)(8);

iv. Fugitive emissions of PM

10

from activities other than crushing, belt transfers, screening, or stacking; and

v. Fugitive emissions of VOC from solution-extraction units.

d. The Director shall adjust the rate for emission-based fees every January 1, beginning on January 1, 2003, by multiplying $11.75 by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the most recent year, and then dividing by the CPI for the year 2001. The Consumer Price Index for any year is the average of the Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers published by the United States Department of Labor, as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of that year.

D. Class II Title V Fees. The owner or operator of a Class II Title V source that has undergone initial startup by January 1 shall pay the applicable administrative fee from the table below, adjusted under subsection (H), for that calendar year, and annually thereafter. The fee is due by March 31 or 60 days after the Director mails the invoice under subsection (F), whichever is later.

<table> CLASS II Title V Source Category Administrative Fee Synthetic minor sources, except portable sources Administrative fee from Class I Title V table for category Stationary $5,000 Portables $5,000 Small Source $500 </table>

E. Class II Non-Title V Fees. The owner or operator of a Class II Non-Title V source that has undergone initial startup by January 1 shall pay the applicable inspection fee from the table below, adjusted under subsection (H), for that calendar year, and annually thereafter. The fee is due by March 31 or 60 days after the Director mails the invoice under subsection (F), whichever is later.

<table> Class II Non-Title V Source Category Inspection Fee Stationary $3,250 Portables $3,250 Gasoline Service Stations $500 </table>

F. The Director shall mail the owner or operator of each source an invoice for all fees due under subsections (C), (D), or (E) by January 31.

G. Any person who receives a final itemized bill from the Director under this Section for a billable permit action may request an informal review of the hours billed and may pay the bill under protest. If the bill is paid under protest, the Director shall take final action on the permit or permit revision.

1. The request shall be made in writing, and received by the Director within 30 days of the date of the final bill. Unless the Director and person agree otherwise, the informal review shall take place within 30 days after the Director's receipt of the request. The Director shall arrange the date and location of the informal review with the person at least 10 business days before the informal review. The Director shall review whether the amounts of time billed are correct and reasonable for the tasks involved. The Director shall mail his or her decision on the informal review to the person within 10 business days after the informal review date.

2. The Director's decision after informal review shall become final unless, within 30 days after person's receipt of the informal review decision, the person requests a hearing under R18-1-202.

H. The Director shall adjust the hourly rate every January 1, to the nearest ten cents per hour, beginning on January 1, 2003, by multiplying $66 by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the most recent year, and then dividing by the CPI for the year 2001. The Director shall adjust the administrative or inspection fees listed in subsections (C), (D), and (E) every January 1, to the nearest $10, beginning on January 1, 2003, by multiplying the administrative or inspection fee by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the most recent year, and then dividing by the CPI for the year 2001. The Consumer Price Index for any year is the average of the Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers published by the United States Department of Labor, as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of that year.

I. An applicant for a Class I or Class II permit or permit revision may request that the Director provide accelerated processing of the application by providing the Director written notice 60 days before filing the application. The request shall be accompanied by an initial fee of $15,000. The fee is non-refundable to the extent of the Director's costs for accelerating the processing if the Director undertakes the accelerated processing described below:

1. If an applicant requests accelerated permit processing, the Director may, to the extent practicable, undertake to process the permit or permit revision in accordance with the following schedule:

a. For applications for initial Class I and II permits under R18-2-302 or significant permit revisions under R18-2-320, the Director shall issue or deny the proposed permit or permit revision within 120 days after the Director determines that the application is complete.

b. For minor permit revisions under R18-2-319, the Director shall issue or deny the permit revision within 60 days after receiving a complete application.

2. At any time after an applicant requests accelerated permit processing, the Director may require additional advance payments based on the most recent estimate of additional costs.

3. Upon completion of permit processing activities but before issuance or denial of the permit or permit revision, the Director shall send notice of the decision to the applicant along with a final bill. The maximum fee for any billable permit action for a non-Title V source is $25,000. The final bill shall include all regular permit processing and other fees due, and, in addition, the difference between the cost of accelerating the permit application, including any costs incurred by the Director in contracting for, hiring, or supervising the work of outside consultants, and all advance payments submitted for accelerated processing. In the event all payments made exceed actual accelerated permit costs, the Director shall refund the excess advance payments. Nothing in this subsection affects the public participation requirements of R18-2-330, or EPA and affected state review as required under R18-2-307 or R18-2-319.

J. Inactive Sources. The owner or operator of a permitted source that has undergone initial startup but was shut down for the entire preceding calendar year shall pay 50% of the administrative or inspection fee required under subsection (C), (D), or (E). The owner or operator of a source claiming inactive status under this subsection shall submit a letter to the Director by December 15 of the year prior to the billing year. Termination of a permit does not relieve a source of any past fees due.

K. Transition.

1. Subsections (A) through (J) of this Section are effective January 1, 2002. The first administrative or inspection fees are due on March 31, 2002.

2. Except as provided in subsection (b), all fees incurred after January 1, 2002, are payable in accordance with the rates contained in this Section.

a. Emission-based fees for calendar year 2000 shall be billed at $11.75 per ton and be due March 31, 2002.

b. The hourly rates and maximum fees for a new permit or permit revision are those in effect when the application for the permit or revision is determined to be complete.

c. Fees accrued but not yet paid before the effective date of this Section remain as obligations to be paid to the Department.

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective September 17, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-3). Emergency rule re-adopted without change effective December 16, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-4). Emergency expired; text deleted (Supp. 93-1). New Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5670, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.327" level="4" title="Annual Emissions Inventory Questionnaire">

Annual Emissions Inventory Questionnaire

A. Every source subject to a permit requirement under this Chapter shall complete and submit to the Director an annual emissions inventory questionnaire. The questionnaire is due by March 31 or 90 days after the Director makes the inventory form available, whichever occurs later, and shall include emission information for the previous calendar year. These requirements apply whether or not a permit has been issued and whether or not a permit application has been filed.

B. The questionnaire shall be on a form provided by the Director and shall include the following information:

1. The source's name, description, mailing address, contact person and contact person phone number, and physical address and location, if different than the mailing address.

2. Process information for the source, including design capacity, operations schedule, and emissions control devices, their description and efficiencies.

3. The actual quantity of emissions from permitted emission points and fugitive emissions as provided in the permit, including documentation of the method of measurement, calculation, or estimation, determined pursuant to subsection (C), of the following regulated air pollutants:

a. Any single regulated air pollutant in a quantity greater than 1 ton or the amount listed for the pollutant in subsection (a) of the definition of "significant" in R18-2-101, whichever is less.

b. Any combination of regulated air pollutants in a quantity greater than 2 1/2 tons.

C. Actual quantities of emissions shall be determined using the following emission factors or data:

1. Whenever available, emissions estimates shall either be calculated from continuous emissions monitors certified pursuant to 40 CFR 75, Subpart C and referenced appendices, or data quality assured pursuant to Appendix F of 40 CFR 60.

2. When sufficient data pursuant to subsection (C)(1) is not available, emissions estimates shall be calculated from data from source performance tests conducted pursuant to R18-2-312 in the calendar year being reported or, when not available, conducted in the most recent calendar year representing the operating conditions of the year being reported.

3. When sufficient data pursuant to subsection (C)(1) or (C)(2) is not available, emissions estimates shall be calculated using emissions factors from EPA Publication No. AP-42 "Compilation of Air Pollutant Emission Factors," Volume I: Stationary Point and Area Sources, Fifth Edition, 1995, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, NC (and no future editions) which is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of Secretary of State. AP-42 can be obtained from the Superintendent of Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402, telephone (202) 783-3238, or by downloading the document from the EPA Technology Transfer Network, computer modem number (919) 541-5742, setting 8-N-1, VT100, or ANSI.

4. When sufficient data pursuant to subsections (C)(1) through (C)(3) is not available, emissions estimates shall be calculated from material balance using engineering knowledge of process.

5. When sufficient data pursuant to subsections (C)(1) through (C)(4) is not available, emissions estimates shall be calculated by equivalent methods approved by the Director. The Director shall only approve methods that are demonstrated as accurate and reliable as the applicable method in subsections (C)(1) through (4).

D. Actual quantities of emissions calculated under subsection (C) shall be determined on the basis of actual operating hours, production rates, in-place process control equipment, operational process control data, and types of materials processed, stored, or combusted.

E. An amendment to an annual emission inventory questionnaire, containing the documentation required by subsection (B)(3), shall be submitted to the Director by any source whenever it discovers or receives notice, within two years of the original submittal, that incorrect or insufficient information was submitted to the Director by a previous questionnaire. If the incorrect or insufficient information resulted in an incorrect annual emissions fee, the Director shall require that additional payment be made or shall apply an amount as a credit to a future annual emissions fee. The submittal of an amendment under this subsection shall not subject the owner or operator to an enforcement action or a civil or criminal penalty if the original submittal of incorrect or insufficient information was due to reasonable cause and not wilful neglect.

F. The Director may require submittal of supplemental emissions inventory questionnaires for air contaminants pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-422, 49-424, and 49-426.03 through 49-426.08.

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective September 17, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-3). Emergency rule re-adopted without change effective December 16, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 91-4). Emergency expired; text deleted (Supp. 93-1). New Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.328" level="4" title="Conditional Orders">

Conditional Orders

A. The Director may grant to any person a conditional order for each air pollution source which allows such person to vary from any provision of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 2, or this Chapter, for any non-federally enforceable requirement of a permit issued pursuant to this Chapter if the Director makes each of the following findings:

1. Issuance of the conditional order will not endanger public health or the environment, impede attainment or maintenance of the national ambient air quality standards, or constitute a violation of the Act; and

2. Either of the following is true:

a. There has been a breakdown of equipment or upset of operations beyond the control of the petitioner which causes the source to be out of compliance with the requirements of this Chapter; the source was in compliance with the requirements of this Chapter before the breakdown or upset, and the breakdown or upset may be corrected within a reasonable time;

b. There is no reasonable relationship between the economic and social cost of, and benefits to be obtained from, achieving compliance.

B. The following procedures shall apply to a person seeking a conditional order:

1. The person shall file a petition for a conditional order with the Director. The petition shall contain at a minimum:

a. A description of the breakdown or upset;

b. A description of corrective action being undertaken to bring the source back into compliance;

c. An estimate of emissions related to the breakdown or upset;

d. A compliance schedule with a date of final compliance and interim dates as appropriate;

e. A detailed analysis of the economic and social costs and benefits of achieving compliance with the requirement for which the variance is sought, if the petition is based on subsection (A)(2)(b).

2. If the issuance of the conditional order requires a public hearing pursuant to R18-2-330, the Director shall set the hearing date within 30 days after the filing of the petition and the hearing shall be held within 60 days after the filing of the petition.

3. Notice of the filing of a petition for a conditional order and of the hearing date on said petition shall be published in the manner provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-444 and R18-2-330.

C. Decisions on petitions for a conditional order shall be made as follows:

1. For any conditional order that requires a revision to the SIP, the Director shall comply with the requirements contained in 40 CFR 51, Subpart F.

2. For any other conditional order, the Director shall grant or deny the petition with such terms and conditions as are listed in subsection (E)(2) within 30 days after the conclusion of any required hearing, or, if no hearing is held, within 60 days after the filing of the petition.

D. A fee to cover the costs of processing conditional orders may be charged by the Director prior to issuance consistent with R18-2-326(I) or (J). The fee shall be deposited in the permit administration fund established in A.R.S. &#167; 49-455.

E. The terms of a conditional order or its renewal shall conform to the following:

1. A conditional order issued by the Director shall be valid for such period as the Director prescribes but in no event for more than one year in the case of a source that is required to obtain a permit pursuant to this Chapter and Title V of the Act, and three years in the case of any other source that is required to obtain a permit pursuant to this Chapter.

2. The terms and conditions which are imposed as a condition to the granting or the continued existence of a conditional order shall include:

a. A detailed plan for completion of corrective steps needed to conform to the provisions of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 2, this Chapter, and the requirements of any permit issued pursuant to this Chapter;

b. A requirement that necessary construction shall begin as expeditiously as practicable and proceed as specified in the compliance schedule;

c. Written reports, at least quarterly, of the status of the source and construction progress;

d. The right of the Director to make periodic inspection of the facilities for which the conditional order is granted;

e. Such additional terms and conditions as the Director finds necessary to meet the requirements of this Section and A.R.S. &#167; 49-437.

3. A holder of a conditional order may petition the Director to renew the order. The total term of the initial period and all renewals shall not exceed three years from the date of initial issuance of the order. Petitions for renewal may be filed at any time not more than 60 days nor less than 30 days prior to the expiration of the order. The Director, within 30 days of receipt of a petition, shall renew the conditional order for one year if the petitioner is in compliance and conforming with the terms and conditions imposed. The Director may refuse to renew the conditional order if, after a public hearing held within 30 days of receipt of a petition, the Director finds that the petitioner is not in compliance and conforming with the terms and conditions of the conditional order. If, after a period of three years from the date of original issuance, the petitioner is not in compliance and conforming with the terms and conditions, the Director may renew a conditional order for a total term of two additional years only if the Director finds that failure to comply and conform is due to conditions beyond the control of such petitioner.

4. If the Director amends or adopts any rule imposing conditions on the operation of an air pollution source which have become effective as to the source by reason of the action of the Director or otherwise, and which require the implementation of control strategies necessitating the installation of additional or different air pollution control equipment, the Director may renew a conditional order for an additional term. The term of the renewal shall be governed by the preceding subsections of this Section, except that the total term of the renewal shall not exceed two years.

5. A conditional order issued by the Director shall be effective when issued unless:

a. The conditional order varies from the requirements of the applicable implementation plan, in which case the conditional order shall be submitted to the Administrator as a revision to the applicable implementation plan pursuant to Section 110(l) of the Act and shall become effective upon approval by the Administrator.

b. The conditional order varies from the requirements of a permit issued for a facility that is required to obtain a permit pursuant to Title V of the Act, in which case the conditional order shall be submitted to the Administrator if required by Section 505 of the Act and shall be effective at the end of the review period specified in such section, unless objected to within such period by the Administrator.

F. Violation of the terms and conditions of the conditional order shall subject the source to suspension or revocation of the conditional order in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-441.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.329" level="4" title="Permits Containing the Terms and Conditions of Federal Delayed Compliance Orders (DCO) or Consent Decrees">

Permits Containing the Terms and Conditions of Federal Delayed Compliance Orders (DCO) or Consent Decrees

A. The terms and conditions of either a delayed compliance order (DCO) or consent decree shall be incorporated into a permit through a permit revision. In the event the permit expires prior to the expiration of the DCO or consent decree, the DCO or consent decree shall be incorporated into any permit renewal.

B. The owner or operator of a source subject to a DCO or consent decree shall submit to the Director a quarterly report of the status of the source and construction progress and copies of any reports to the Administrator required under the order or decree. The Director may require additional reporting requirements and conditions in permits issued under this Article.

C. For the purpose of this Chapter, sources subject to a consent decree issued by a federal court shall meet the same requirements as those subject to a DCO.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.330" level="4" title="Public Participation">

Public Participation

A. The Director shall provide public notice, an opportunity for public comment, and an opportunity for a hearing before taking any of the following actions:

1. A permit issuance or renewal of a permit,

2. A significant permit revision,

3. Revocation and reissuance or reopening of a permit,

4. Any conditional orders pursuant to R18-2-328,

5. Granting a variance from a general permit pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06(E) and R18-2-507.

B. The Director shall provide public notice of receipt of complete applications for permits to construct or make a major modification to major sources by publishing a notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the source is or will be located.

C. The Director shall provide the notice required pursuant to subsection (A) as follows:

1. The Director shall publish the notice once each week for two consecutive weeks in two newspapers of general circulation in the county where the source is or will be located.

2. The Director shall mail a copy of the notice to persons on a mailing list developed by the Director consisting of those persons who have requested in writing to be placed on such a mailing list.

D. The notice required by subsection (C) shall include the following:

1. Identification of the affected facility;

2. Name and address of the permittee or applicant;

3. Name and address of the permitting authority processing the permit action;

4. The activity or activities involved in the permit action;

5. The emissions change involved in any permit revisions;

6. The air contaminants to be emitted;

7. If applicable, that a notice of confidentiality has been filed under R18-2-305;

8. If applicable, that the source has submitted a risk management analysis pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06;

9. A statement that any person may submit written comments, or a written request for a public hearing, or both, on the proposed permit action, along with the deadline for such requests or comments;

10. The name, address, and telephone number of a person from the Department from whom additional information may be obtained;

11. Locations where copies of the permit or permit revision application, the proposed permit, and all other materials available to the Director that are relevant to the permit decision may be reviewed, including the closest Department office, and the times at which they shall be available for public inspection.

E. The Director shall hold a public hearing to receive comments on petitions for conditional orders which would vary from requirements of the applicable implementation plan. For all other actions involving a proposed permit, the Director shall hold a public hearing only upon written request. If a public hearing is requested, the Director shall schedule the hearing and publish notice as described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-444 and subsection (D). The Director shall give notice of any public hearing at least 30 days in advance of the hearing.

F. At the time the Director publishes the first notice under subsection (C)(1), the applicant shall post a notice containing the information required in subsection (D) at the site where the source is or may be located. Consistent with federal, state, and local law, the posting shall be prominently placed at a location under the applicant's legal control, adjacent to the nearest public roadway, and visible to the public using the public roadway. If a public hearing is to be held, the applicant shall place an additional posting providing notice of the hearing. Any posting shall be maintained until the public comment period is closed.

G. The Director shall provide at least 30 days from the date of its first notice for public comment. The Director shall keep a record of the commenters and of the issues raised during the public participation process and shall prepare written responses to all comments received. At the time a final decision is made, the record and copies of the Director's responses shall be made available to the applicant and all commenters.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.331" level="4" title="Material Permit Conditions">

Material Permit Conditions

A. For the purposes of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-464(G) and 49-514(G), a "material permit condition" shall mean a condition which satisfies all of the following:

1. The condition is in a permit or permit revision issued by the Director or a control officer after November 15, 1993.

2. The condition is identified within the permit as a material permit condition.

3. The condition is one of the following:

a. An enforceable emission standard imposed to avoid classification as a major modification or major source or to avoid triggering any other applicable requirement;

b. A requirement to install, operate, or maintain a maximum achievable control technology or hazardous air pollutant reasonably available control technology required pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06;

c. A requirement for the installation or certification of a monitoring device;

d. A requirement for the installation of air pollution control equipment;

e. A requirement for the operation of air pollution control equipment;

f. An opacity standard required by Section 111 or Title I, Part C or D of the Act.

4. Violation of the condition is not covered by A.R.S. &#167; 49-464(A) through (F), or (H) through (J) or A.R.S. &#167; 49-514(A) through (F), or (H) through (J).

B. For the purposes of subsections (A)(3)(c), (d), and (e), a permit condition shall not be material where the failure to comply resulted from circumstances which were outside the control of the source. As used in this Section, "circumstances outside the control of the source" shall mean circumstances where the violation resulted from a sudden and unavoidable breakdown of the process or the control equipment, resulted from unavoidable conditions during a start up or shut down or resulted from upset of operations.

C. For purposes of this Section, the term "emission standard" shall have the meaning specified in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-464(U) and 49-514(T).

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.332" level="4" title="Stack Height Limitation">

Stack Height Limitation

A. The limitations set forth herein shall not apply to stacks or dispersion techniques used by the owner or operator prior to December 31, 1970, for which the owner or operator had:

1. Begun, or caused to begin, a continuous program of physical on-site construction of the stack;

2. Entered into building agreements or contractual obligations, which could not be cancelled or modified without substantial loss to the owner or operator, to undertake a program of construction of the stack to be completed in a reasonable time; or

3. Coal-fired steam electric generating units, subject to the provisions of Section 118 of the Act which commenced operation before July 1, 1975, with stacks constructed under a construction contract awarded before February 8, 1974.

B. GEP stack height is calculated as the greater of the following four numbers in subsections (1) through (4):

1. 213.25 feet (65 meters);

2. For stacks in existence on January 12, 1979, and for which the owner or operator had obtained all applicable preconstruction permits or approvals required under 40 CFR Parts 51 and 52 and R18-2-403, Hg = 2.5H;

3. For all other stacks, Hg = H + 1.5L, where

Hg = good engineering practice stack height, measured from the ground-level elevation at the base of the stack;

H = height of nearby structure measured from the ground-level elevation at the base of the stack;

L = lesser dimension (height or projected width) of nearby structure;

provided that the EPA, the Director, or local control agency may require the use of a field study or fluid model to verify GEP stack height for the source; or

4. The height demonstrated by a fluid model or a field study approved by the reviewing agency, which ensures that the emissions from a stack do not result in excessive concentrations of any air pollutant as a result of atmospheric downwash, wakes, or eddy effects created by the source itself, nearby structures, or nearby terrain obstacles;

5. For a specific structure or terrain feature, "nearby" shall be:

a. For purposes of applying the formulae in subsections (B)(2) and (3), that distance up to five times the lesser of the height or the width dimension of a structure but not greater than 0.8 km (1/2 mile).

b. For conducting demonstrations under subsection (B)(4), means not greater than 0.8 km (1/2 mile). An exception is that the portion of a terrain feature may be considered to be nearby which falls within a distance of up to 10 times the maximum height (H+) of the feature, not to exceed 2 miles if such feature achieved a height (H+) 0.8 km from the stack. The height shall be at least 40% of the GEP stack height determined by the formula provided in subsection (B)(3), or 85 feet (26 meters), whichever is greater, as measured from the ground-level elevation at the base of the stack.

6. "Excessive concentrations" means, for the purpose of determining good engineering practice stack height under subsection (B)(4):

a. For sources seeking credit for stack height exceeding that established under subsections (B)(2) and (3), a maximum ground-level concentration due to emissions from a stack due in whole or in part to downwash, wakes, and eddy effects produced by nearby structures or nearby terrain features which individually is at least 40% in excess of the maximum concentration experienced in the absence of such downwash, wakes, or eddy effects and which contributes to a total concentration due to emissions from all sources that is greater than an ambient air quality standard. For sources subject to the requirements for permits or permit revisions under Article 4 of this Chapter, an excessive concentration alternatively means a maximum ground-level concentration due to emissions from a stack due in whole or part to downwash, wakes or eddy effects produced by nearby structures or nearby terrain features which individually is at least 40% in excess of the maximum concentration experienced in the absence of such downwash, wakes, or eddy effects and greater than the applicable maximum allowable increase contained in R18-2-218. The allowable emission rate to be used in making demonstrations under subsection (B)(4) shall be prescribed by the new source performance standard which is applicable to the source category unless the owner or operator demonstrates that this emission rate is infeasible. Where such demonstrations are approved by the Director, an alternative emission rate shall be established in consultation with the source owner or operator;

b. For sources seeking credit after October 11, 1983, for increases in existing stack heights up to the heights established under subsections (B)(2) and (3), either:

i. A maximum ground-level concentration due in whole or in part to downwash, wakes, or eddy effects as provided in subsection (B)(6)(a), except that emission rate specified by any applicable SIP shall be used; or

ii. The actual presence of a local nuisance caused by the existing stack, as determined by the Director; and

c. For sources seeking credit after January 12, 1979, for a stack height determined under subsections (B)(2) and (3), where the Director requires the use of a field study or fluid model to verify GEP stack height, for sources seeking stack height credit after November 9, 1984, based on the aerodynamic influence of cooling towers, and for sources seeking stack height credit after December 31, 1970, based on the aerodynamic influence of structures not adequately represented by the equations in subsections (B)(2) and (3), a maximum ground-level concentration due in whole or in part to downwash, wakes, or eddy effects that is at least 40% in excess of the maximum concentration experienced in the absence of such downwash, wakes, or eddy effects.

C. The degree of emission limitation required of any source after the respective date given in subsection (A) above for control of any pollutant shall not be affected by so much of any source's stack height that exceeds good engineering practice or by any other dispersion technique.

D. The good engineering practice (GEP) stack height for any source seeking credit because of plume impaction which results in concentrations in violation of national ambient air quality standards or applicable maximum allowable increases under R18-2-218 can be adjusted by determining the stack height necessary to predict the same maximum air pollutant concentration on any elevated terrain feature as the maximum concentration associated with the emission limit which results from modelling the source using the GEP stack height as determined herein and assuming the elevated terrain features to be equal in elevation to the GEP stack height. If this adjusted GEP stack height is greater than stack height the source proposes to use, the source's emission limitation and air quality impact shall be determined using the proposed stack height and the actual terrain heights.

E. Before the Director issues a permit or permit revision under this Article to a source based on a good engineering practice stack height that exceeds the height allowed by subsection (B), the Director shall notify the public of the availability of the demonstration study and provide opportunity for a public hearing in accordance with the requirements of R18-1-402.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

R18-2-333. Acid Rain

A. 40 CFR 72, 74, 75 and 76 and all accompanying appendices, adopted as of July 1, 2003, (and no future amendments) are incorporated by reference. These standards are on file with the Department and shall be applied by the Department. These standards can be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington D.C. 20402-9328.

B. When used in 40 CFR 72, 74, 75 or 76, "Permitting Authority" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality and "Administrator" means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

C. If the provisions or requirements of the regulations incorporated in this Section conflict with any of the remaining portions of this Title, the regulations incorporated in this Section apply and take precedence.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 7, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 4170, effective October 11, 2000 (Supp. 00-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 3281, effective September 27, 2004 (Supp. 04-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="PERMIT REQUIREMENTS FOR NEW MAJOR SOURCES AND MAJOR MODIFICATIONS TO EXISTING MAJOR SOURCES">

PERMIT REQUIREMENTS FOR NEW MAJOR SOURCES AND MAJOR MODIFICATIONS TO EXISTING MAJOR SOURCES

<regElement name="R18.2.401" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="2">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in Article 1 of this Chapter and A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01, the following definitions apply to this Article:

1. "Adverse impact on visibility" means visibility impairment that interferes with the management, protection, preservation, or enjoyment of the visitor's visual experience of a Class I area, as determined according to R18-2-410.

2. "Categorical sources" means the following classes of sources:

a. Coal cleaning plants with thermal dryers;

b. Kraft pulp mills;

c. Portland cement plants;

d. Primary zinc smelters;

e. Iron and steel mills;

f. Primary aluminum ore reduction plants;

g. Primary copper smelters;

h. Municipal incinerators capable of charging more than 50 tons of refuse per day;

i. Hydrofluoric, sulfuric, or nitric acid plants;

j. Petroleum refineries;

k. Lime plants;

l. Phosphate rock processing plants;

m. Coke oven batteries;

n. Sulfur recovery plants;

o. Carbon black plants using the furnace process;

p. Primary lead smelters;

q. Fuel conversion plants;

r. Sintering plants;

s. Secondary metal production plants;

t. Chemical process plants;

u. Fossil-fuel boilers, combinations thereof, totaling more than 250 million Btu's per hour heat input;

v. Petroleum storage and transfer units with a total storage capacity more than 300,000 barrels;

w. Taconite preprocessing plants;

x. Glass fiber processing plants;

y. Charcoal production plants;

z. Fossil-fuel-fired steam electric plants and combined cycle gas turbines of more than 250 million Btu's per hour heat input.

3. "Complete" means, in reference to an application for a permit or permit revision, that the application contains all the information necessary for processing the application.

4. "Dispersion technique" means any technique that attempts to affect the concentration of a pollutant in the ambient air by any of the following:

a. Using that portion of a stack that exceeds good engineering practice stack height;

b. Varying the rate of emission of a pollutant according to atmospheric conditions or ambient concentrations of that pollutant; or

c. Increasing final exhaust gas plume rise by manipulating source process parameters, exhaust gas parameters, stack parameters, or combining exhaust gases from several existing stacks into one stack; or other selective handling of exhaust gas streams so as to increase the exhaust gas plume rise. This shall not include any of the following:

i. The reheating of a gas stream, following use of a pollution control system, for the purpose of returning the gas to the temperature at which it was originally discharged from the facility generating the gas stream.

ii. The merging of exhaust gas streams under any of the following conditions:

(1) The source owner or operator demonstrates that the facility was originally designed and constructed with the merged gas streams;

(2) The merging is part of a change in operation at the facility that includes the installation of pollution controls and is accompanied by a net reduction in the allowable emissions of a pollutant, applying only to the emission limitation for that pollutant; or

iii. Smoke management in agricultural or silvicultural prescribed burning programs.

iv. Episodic restrictions on residential woodburning and open burning.

v. Techniques that increase final exhaust gas plume rise if the resulting allowable emissions of sulfur dioxide from the facility do not exceed 5,000 tons per year.

5. "High terrain" means any area having an elevation of 900 feet or more above the base of the stack of a source.

6. "Innovative control technology" means any system of air pollution control that has not been adequately demonstrated in practice but would have a substantial likelihood of achieving greater continuous emissions reduction than any control system in current practice, or of achieving at least comparable reductions at lower cost in terms of energy, economics, or nonair quality environmental impacts.

7. "Low terrain" means any area other than high terrain.

8. "Lowest achievable emission rate" (LAER) means, for any source, the more stringent rate of emissions based on one of the following:

a. The most stringent emissions limitation that is contained in the SIP of any state for the class or category of stationary source, unless the owner or operator of the proposed stationary source demonstrates that the limitations are not achievable; or,

b. The most stringent emissions limitation that is achieved in practice by the class or category of stationary source. This limitation, when applied to a modification, means the lowest achievable emissions rate for the new or modified emissions units within the stationary source. In no event shall the application of this term permit a proposed new or modified stationary source to emit any pollutant in excess of the amount allowable under applicable standards of performance in Articles 9 and 11 of this Chapter.

9. "Major source" means:

a. Any stationary source located in a nonattainment area that emits, or has the potential to emit, 100 tons per year or more of any conventional air pollutant, except as follows:

<table> Pollutant Emitted Nonattainment Pollutant and Classification Quantity Threshold tons/year or more Carbon Monoxide (CO) CO, Serious, with stationary sources as more than 25% of source inventory 50 Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) VOC PM 10 NOx NOx or Ozone, Serious Ozone, Severe PM 10 , Serious Ozone, Serious Ozone, Severe 50 25 70 50 25 </table>

b. Any stationary source located in an attainment or unclassifiable area that emits, or has the potential to emit, 100 tons per year or more of any conventional air pollutant if the source is classified as a Categorical Source, or 250 tons per year or more of any pollutant subject to regulation under the Act if the source is not classified as a Categorical Source;

c. Any change to a minor source, except for VOC or NOx emission increases at minor sources in serious or severe ozone nonattainment areas, that would increase its emissions to the qualifying levels in subsections (a) or (b);

d. Any change in VOC or NOx at a minor source in serious or severe ozone nonattainment areas that would be "significant" under R18-2-405(B) and that would increase its emissions to the qualifying levels in subsection (a);

e. Any stationary source that emits, or has the potential to emit, five or more tons of lead per year;

f. Any source classified as major undergoing modification that meets the definition of reconstruction;

g. A major source that is major for VOC shall be considered major for ozone; or

h. A major source that is major for oxides of nitrogen shall be considered major for ozone in nonattainment areas classified as marginal, moderate, serious, or severe.

10. "Reconstruction" of sources located in nonattainment areas shall be presumed to have taken place if the fixed capital cost of the new components exceeds 50% of the fixed capital cost of a comparable entirely new stationary source, as determined in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 60.15(f)(1) through (3).

11. "Resource recovery project" means any facility at which solid waste is processed for the purpose of extracting, converting to energy, or otherwise separating and preparing solid waste for reuse. Only energy conversion facilities that utilize solid waste that provides more than 50% of the heat input shall be considered a resource recovery project under this Article.

12. "Significance levels" means the following ambient concentrations for the enumerated pollutants:

<table> Averaging Time Pollutant Annual 24-Hour 8-Hour 3-Hour 1-Hour SO 2 1 &#181;g/m 3 5 &#181;g/m 3 25 &#181;g/m 3 NO 2 1 &#181;g/m 3 CO 0.5 mg/m 3 2 &#181;g/m 3 PM 10 1 &#181;g/m 3 5 &#181;g/m 3 Except for the annual pollutant concentrations, exceedance of significance levels shall be deemed to occur when the ambient concentration of the above pollutant is exceeded more than once per year at any one location. If the concentration occurs at a specific location and at a time when Arizona ambient air quality standards for the pollutant are not violated, the significance level does not apply. </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-401 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-401 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-401 renumbered to R18-2-601. New Section R18-2-401 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Typographical error corrected in R18-2-401(9)(a) (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.402" level="4" title="General"> <dwc name="lead" times="2">

General

A. No person shall commence construction of a new major source or the major modification of a source without first obtaining a permit or a permit revision from the Director.

B. An application for a permit or permit revision under this Article shall not be considered complete unless the application demonstrates that:

1. The requirements in subsection (C) are met;

2. The more stringent of the applicable new source performance standards in Article 9 of this Chapter or the existing source performance standards in Article 7 of this Chapter are applied to the proposed new major source or major modification of a major source;

3. The visibility requirements contained in R18-2-410 are satisfied;

4. All applicable provisions of Article 3 of this Chapter are met;

5. The new major source or major modification will be in compliance with whatever emission limitation, design, equipment, work practice or operational standard, or combination thereof is applicable to the source or modification. The degree of emission limitation required for control of any pollutant under this Article shall not be affected in any manner by:

a. Stack height in excess of GEP stack height except as provided in R18-2-332; or

b. Any other dispersion technique, unless implemented prior to December 31, 1970;

6. The new major source or major modification will not exceed the applicable standards for hazardous air pollutants contained in this Chapter;

7. The new major source or major modification will not exceed the limitations, if applicable, on emission from nonpoint sources contained in Article 6 of this Chapter;

8. A stationary source that will emit five or more tons of lead per year will not violate the ambient air quality standards for lead contained in R18-2-206;

9. The new major source or major modification will not have an adverse impact on visibility, as determined according to R18-2-410.

C. Except for assessing air quality impacts within Class I areas, the air impact analysis required to be conducted as part of a permit application shall initially consider only the geographical area located within a 50 kilometer radius from the point of greatest emissions for the new major source or major modification. The Director, on his own initiative or upon receipt of written notice from any person shall have the right at any time to request an enlargement of the geographical area for which an air quality impact analysis is to be performed by giving the person applying for the permit or permit revision written notice thereof, specifying the enlarged radius to be so considered. In performing an air impact analysis for any geographical area with a radius of more than 50 kilometers, the person applying for the permit or permit revision may use monitoring or modeling data obtained from major sources having comparable emissions or having emissions which are capable of being accurately used in such demonstration, and which are subjected to terrain and atmospheric stability conditions which are comparable or which may be extrapolated with reasonable accuracy for use in such demonstration.

D. Unless the requirement has been satisfied pursuant to Article 3 of this Chapter, the Director shall comply with following requirements:

1. Within 60 days after receipt of an application for a permit or permit revision subject to this Article, or any addition to such application, the Director shall advise the applicant of any deficiency. The date of receipt of the application shall be, for the purpose of this Section, the date on which the Director received all required information. The permit application shall not be deemed complete if the Director fails to meet the requirements of this subsection.

2. A copy of any notice required by R18-2-330 shall be sent to the permit applicant, to the Administrator, and to the following officials and agencies having cognizance over the location where the proposed major source or major modification would occur:

a. The air pollution control officer, if one exists, for the county wherein the proposed or existing source that is the subject of the permit or permit revision application is located;

b. The county manager for the county wherein the proposed or existing source that is the subject of the permit or permit revision application is located;

c. The city or town managers of the city or town which contains, and any city or town the boundaries of which are within 5 miles of, the location of the proposed or existing source that is the subject of the permit or permit revision application;

d. Any regional land use planning agency with authority for land use planning in the area where the proposed or existing source that is the subject of the permit or permit revision application is located; and

e. Any state, Federal Land Manager, or Indian governing body whose lands may be affected by emissions from the proposed source or modification.

3. The Director shall take final action on the application within one year of the proper filing of the completed application. The Director shall notify the applicant in writing of his approval or denial.

4. The Director shall terminate a permit or permit revision issued under this Article if the proposed construction or major modification is not begun within 18 months of issuance or, if during the construction or major modification, work is suspended for more than 18 months.

Historical Note

Amended effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). Former Section R9-3-402 repealed, new Section R9-3-402 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended and adopted by reference Open Burning Guidelines for Air Pollution Control effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-402 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-402 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-402 renumbered to R18-2-602, new Section R18-2-402 adopted effective November 15, 1993

(Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.403" level="4" title="Permits for Sources Located in Nonattainment Areas">

Permits for Sources Located in Nonattainment Areas

A. Except as provided in subsections (C) through (G) below, no permit or permit revision shall be issued under this Article to a person proposing to construct a new major source or make a major modification to a source located in any nonattainment area for the pollutant(s) for which the source is classified as a major source or the modification is classified as a major modification unless:

1. The person demonstrates that the new major source or the major modification will meet an emission limitation which is the lowest achievable emission rate (LAER) for that source for that specific pollutant(s). In determining lowest achievable emission rate for a reconstructed stationary source, the provisions of 40 CFR 60.15(f)(4) shall be taken into account in assessing whether a new source performance standard is applicable to such stationary source.

2. The person demonstrates that all existing major sources owned or operated by that person (or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with that person) in the state are in compliance with, or on a schedule of compliance for, all conditions contained in permits of each of the sources and all other applicable emission limitations and standards under the Act and this Chapter.

3. The person demonstrates that emission reductions for the specific pollutant(s) from source(s) in existence in the allowable offset area of the new major source or major modification (whether or not under the same ownership) meet the offset and net air quality benefit requirements of R18-2-404.

B. No permit or permit revision under this Article shall be issued to a person proposing to construct a new major source or make a major modification to a major source located in a nonattainment area unless:

1. The person performs an analysis of alternative sites, sizes, production processes, and environmental control techniques for such new major source or major modification; and

2. The Director determines that the analysis demonstrates that the benefits of the new major source or major modification significantly outweigh the environmental and social costs imposed as a result of its location, construction, or modification.

C. At such time that a particular source or modification becomes a major stationary source or major modification solely by virtue of a relaxation in any enforceable limitation which was established after August 7, 1980, on the capacity of the source or modification otherwise to emit a pollutant, such as restriction on hours of operation, then the requirements of this Section shall apply to the source or modification as though construction had not yet commenced on the source or modification.

D. Secondary emissions shall not be considered in determining the potential to emit of a new source or modification and therefore whether the new source or modification is major. However, if a new source or modification is subject to this Section on the basis of its direct emissions, a permit or permit revision under this Article to construct the new source or modification shall be denied unless the conditions specified in subsections (A)(1) and (2) are met for reasonably quantifiable secondary emissions caused by the new source or modification.

E. A permit to construct a new source or modification shall be denied unless the conditions specified in subsections (A)(1), (2), and (3) are met for fugitive emissions caused by the new source or modification. However, these conditions shall not apply to a new major source or major modification that would be a major source or major modification only if fugitive emissions, to the extent quantifiable, are considered in calculating the potential emissions of the source or modification, and the source is not either a categorical source or belongs to the category of sources for which New Source Performance Standards under 40 CFR 60 or National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants under 40 CFR 61 were promulgated by the Administrator prior to August 7, 1980.

F. The requirements of subsection (A)(3) shall not apply to temporary emission sources, such as pilot plants and portable sources, which are only temporarily located in the nonattainment area, are otherwise regulated by a permit, and are in compliance with the conditions of that permit.

G. A decrease in actual emissions shall be considered in determining the potential of a new source or modification to emit only to the extent that the Director has not relied on it in issuing any permit or permit revision under this Article or the state has not relied on it in demonstrating attainment or reasonable further progress.

H. Within 30 days of the issuance of any permit under this Section, the Director shall submit control technology information from the permit to the Administrator for the purposes listed in Section 173(d) of the Act.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-403 repealed, new Section R9-3-403 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-403 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-403 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-403 renumbered to R18-2-603, new Section R18-2-403 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.404" level="4" title="Offset and Net Air Quality Benefit Standards">

Offset and Net Air Quality Benefit Standards

A. Increased emissions by a major source or major modification subject to this Article shall be offset by reductions in the emissions of each pollutant for which the area has been designated as nonattainment and for which the source or modification is classified as major. The offset may be obtained by reductions in emissions from the source or modification or from any other source in the allowable offset area. Credit for an emissions offset can be used only if it has not been relied upon in demonstrating attainment or reasonable further progress and if it has not been relied upon previously in issuing a permit or permit revision under this Article under R18-2-402 and R18-2-403 or is not otherwise required under this Chapter or under any provision of the SIP.

B. An offset shall not be sufficient unless reductions of total emissions for the particular pollutant for which the offset is required will be:

1. Obtained from sources within the allowable offset area;

2. Contemporaneous with the operation of the new major source or major modification;

3. Less than the baseline of the total emissions for that pollutant, except in ozone nonattainment areas classified as moderate, serious, or severe; and

4. Sufficient to demonstrate that emissions from the new major source or major modification, together with the offset, will result in reasonable further progress for that pollutant.

C. In ozone nonattainment areas classified as marginal, total emissions of VOC and oxides of nitrogen from other sources shall offset those proposed or permitted from the major source or major modification by a ratio of at least 1.10 to 1. In ozone nonattainment areas classified as moderate, total emissions of VOC and oxides of nitrogen from other sources shall offset those proposed or permitted from the major source or major modification by a ratio of at least 1.15 to 1. New major sources and major modifications in serious and severe ozone nonattainment areas shall comply with this Section and R18-2-405.

D. Only intrapollutant emission offsets shall be allowed. Intrapollutant emission offsets for VOC shall only include offset reductions in emissions of VOC. Intrapollutant emission offsets for oxides of nitrogen shall only include offset reductions in emissions of oxides of nitrogen.

E. For purposes of this Section, "reasonable further progress" means compliance with the schedule of annual incremental reductions in emissions of the applicable air pollutant prescribed by the Director based on air quality modeling under R18-2-409, to provide for attainment of the applicable air quality standards by the deadlines set under Part D of Title I of the Act, or in an applicable implementation plan.

F. For purposes of this Article, "net air quality benefit" means that, during similar time periods, either subsection (F)(1) or (2) below is applicable:

1. A reduction in the number of violations of the applicable Arizona ambient air quality standard within the allowable offset area has occurred and the following mathematical expression is satisfied:

<img src="18-02-6.gif"/>when:

C = The applicable Arizona ambient air quality standard.

x

i

= The concentration level of the violation at the i[th] receptor for the pollutant after offsets.

N = The number of violations for the pollutant after offsets (N &#8804; K).

x

j

= The concentration level of the violation at the j[th] receptor for the pollutant before offsets.

K = The number of violations for the pollutant before offsets.

2. The average of the ambient concentrations within the allowable offset area after the implementation of the contemplated offsets will be less than the average of the ambient concentrations within the allowable offset area without the offsets.

G. Baseline further defined:

1. For the purpose of this Section, the baseline of total emissions from any sources in existence or sources that have obtained a permit or permit revision under this Article (regardless of whether or not the sources are in actual operation at the time of application for the permit or permit revision) shall be the total actual emissions at the time the application is filed. In addition, the baseline of total emissions shall consist of all emission limitations included as conditions on federally enforceable permits except that the offset baseline shall be the actual emissions of the source from which offset credit is obtained if:

a. No emission limitations are applicable to a source from which offsets are being sought; or

b. The demonstration of reasonable further progress and attainment of ambient air quality standards is based upon the actual emissions of sources located within a designated nonattainment area.

2. If the emission limitations for a particular pollutant allow greater emissions than the potential emission rate of the source for that pollutant, the baseline shall be the potential emission rate at the time application for the permit or permit revision under this Article is filed, and emissions offset credit shall be allowed only for control below the potential emission rate.

H. For an existing fuel combustion source, offset credit shall be based on the allowable emissions under the regulations or permit conditions applicable to the source for the type of fuel being burned at the time the application for the permit or permit revision under this Article is filed. If an existing source commits to switch to a cleaner fuel at some future date, emissions offset credit based on the actual emissions for the fuels involved shall not be acceptable unless:

1. The permit or permit revision under this Article for the source specifically requires the use of a specified alternative control measure that would achieve the same degree of emissions reduction if the source switches back to a dirtier fuel at some later date; and

2. The source demonstrates to the Director that it has secured an adequate long-term supply of the cleaner fuel.

I. Offsets shall be made on either a pounds-per-hour, pounds-per-day, or tons-per-year basis, whichever is applicable, when all facilities involved in the emission offset calculations are operating at their maximum expected or allowed production rate and, except as otherwise provided in subsection (H), utilizing the type of fuel burned at the time the application for the permit or permit revision under this Article is filed. A tons-per-year basis shall not be used if the new or modified source or the source offsets is not expected to operate throughout the entire year. No emissions credit may be allowed for replacing one VOC with another VOC of lesser reactivity.

J. Emissions reductions achieved by shutting down an existing source or permanently curtailing production or operating hours below baseline levels may be credited, if the work force to be affected has been notified of the proposed shutdown or curtailment. No offset credit for shutdowns or curtailments shall be provided for emissions reductions that are necessary to bring a source into compliance with RACT or any other standard under an applicable implementation plan.

K. The allowable offset area shall be the geographical area in which the sources are located whose emissions are being sought to offset emissions from a new major source or major modification. For the pollutants sulfur dioxide, PM

10

, and carbon monoxide, the allowable offset area shall be determined by atmospheric dispersion modeling. If the emission offsets are obtained from a source on the same premises or in the immediate vicinity of the new major source or major modification, and the pollutants disperse from substantially the same effective stack height, atmospheric dispersion modeling shall not be required. The allowable offset area for all other pollutants shall be the nonattainment areas for those pollutants within which the new major source or major modification is to be located.

L. An emission reduction may only be used to offset emissions if the reduced level of emissions will continue for the life of the new source or modification and if the reduced level of emissions is federally and legally enforceable at the time of permit issuance. It shall be considered legally enforceable if the following conditions are met:

1. The emission reduction is included as a condition in the permit of the source relied upon to offset the emissions from the new major source or major modification, or in the case of reductions from sources controlled by the applicant, is included as a condition of the permit or permit revision under this Article for the new major source or major modification;

2. The emission reduction is adopted as a part of this Chapter or comparable rules of any other governmental entity or is contractually enforceable by the Department and is in effect at the time the permit is issued.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-404 repealed, new Section R9-3-404 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended by adding subsection (C) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-404 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-404 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (C) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section R18-2-404 renumbered to R18-2-604, new Section R18-2-404 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective February 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.405" level="4" title="Special Rule for Major Sources of VOC or Oxides of Nitrogen in Ozone Nonattainment Areas Classified as Serious or Severe">

Special Rule for Major Sources of VOC or Oxides of Nitrogen in Ozone Nonattainment Areas Classified as Serious or Severe

A. Applicability. The provisions of this Section only apply to stationary sources of VOC or oxides of nitrogen in ozone nonattainment areas classified as serious or severe. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, all requirements of Articles 3 and 4 of this Chapter apply.

B. "Significant" means, for the purposes of a major modification of any major source of VOC or oxides of nitrogen, or for determining whether an otherwise minor source is major under R18-2-401(9)(d), any physical change or change in the method of operations that results in net increases in emissions of either pollutant by more than 25 tons when aggregated with all other creditable increases and decreases in emissions from the source over the previous five consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year in which the increase is proposed. For the purposes of this subsection, a physical change or change in the method of operation that results in an increase of less than one ton per year of VOC or oxides of nitrogen before netting does not trigger a five-year aggregation exercise.

C. For any major source that emits or has the potential to emit less than 100 tons VOC or oxides of nitrogen per year, a significant increase in VOC or oxides of nitrogen, respectively, shall constitute a major modification except that the increase in emissions from any discrete emissions unit, operation, or other pollutant emitting activity that is offset from other units, operations, or activities at the source at a ratio of 1.3 to 1 for the increase in VOC or oxides of nitrogen, respectively, from the unit, operation, or activity shall not be considered part of the major modification. BACT shall be substituted for LAER for all major modifications under this subsection. Net emissions increases in VOC or oxides of nitrogen above the internal offset described herein shall be subject to the offset requirements in subsections (E) and (F).

D. For any stationary source that emits or has the potential to emit 100 tons or more of VOC or oxides of nitrogen per year, any significant increase in VOC or oxides of nitrogen, respectively, shall constitute a major modification. If the increase in emissions from the modification at any discrete emissions unit, operation, or other pollutant emitting activity is offset from other units, operations, or activities at the source at a ratio of 1.3 to 1 for the increase in VOC or oxides of nitrogen, respectively, from the unit, operation, or activity, BACT shall be substituted for LAER at the unit, operation, or activity. Net emissions increases in VOC or oxides of nitrogen above the internal offset described herein shall be subject to the offset requirements in subsections (E) and (F).

E. For any new major source or major modification that is classified as major because of emissions or potential to emit VOC or oxides of nitrogen in an ozone nonattainment area classified as serious, the increase in emissions of these pollutants from the source or modification shall be offset at a ratio of 1.2 to 1. The offset shall be made in accordance with the provisions of R18-2-404.

F. For any new major source or major modification that is classified as such because of emissions or potential to emit VOC or oxides of nitrogen in an ozone nonattainment area classified as severe, the increase in emissions of these pollutants from the source or modification shall be offset at a ratio of 1.3 to 1. If the SIP requires all existing major sources of these pollutants in the nonattainment area to apply BACT, then the offset ratio shall be 1.2 to 1. These offsets shall be made in accordance with the provisions of R18-2-404.

Historical Note

Former R9-3-405, Other industries, renumbered R9-3-406, new Section adopted effective September 17, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-405 repealed, new Section R9-3-405 adopted effective May 14,1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-405 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-405 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-405 renumbered to R18-2-605, new Section R18-2-405 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.406" level="4" title="Permit Requirements for Sources Located in Attainment and Unclassifiable Areas">

Permit Requirements for Sources Located in Attainment and Unclassifiable Areas

A. Except as provided in subsections (B) through (G) below and R18-2-408 (Innovative control technology), no permit or permit revision under this Article shall be issued to a person proposing to construct a new major source or make a major modification to a major source that would be constructed in an area designated as attainment or unclassifiable for any pollutant unless the source or modification meets the following conditions:

1. A new major source shall apply best available control technology (BACT) for each pollutant listed in R18-2-101(104)(a) for which the potential to emit is significant.

2. A major modification shall apply BACT for each pollutant listed in R18-2-101(104)(a) for which the modification would result in a significant net emissions increase at the source. This requirement applies to each proposed emissions unit at which a net emissions increase in the pollutant would occur as a result of a physical change or change in the method of operation in the unit.

3. For phased construction projects, the determination of BACT shall be reviewed and modified as appropriate at the latest reasonable time which occurs no later than 18 months prior to commencement of construction of each independent phase of the project. At such time the owner or operator of the applicable stationary source may be required to demonstrate the adequacy of any previous determination of best available control technology for the source.

4. BACT shall be determined on a case-by-case basis and may constitute application of production processes or available methods, systems, and techniques, including fuel cleaning or treatment, clean fuels, or innovative fuel combustion techniques, for control of such pollutant. In no event shall such application of BACT result in emissions of any pollutant, which would exceed the emissions allowed by any applicable new source performance standard or national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants under Articles 9 and 11 of this Chapter. If the Director determines that technological or economic limitations on the application of measurement methodology to a particular emissions unit would make the imposition of an emissions standard infeasible, a design, equipment, work practice, operational standard, or combination thereof may be prescribed instead to satisfy the requirement for the application of BACT. Such standard shall, to the degree possible, set forth the emissions reduction achievable by implementation of such design, equipment, work practice, or operation and shall provide for compliance by means which achieve equivalent results.

5. The person applying for the permit or permit revision under this Article performs an air impact analysis and monitoring as specified in R18-2-407, and such analysis demonstrates that allowable emission increases from the proposed new major source or major modification, in conjunction with all other applicable emission increases or reductions, including secondary emissions, for all pollutants listed in R18-2-218(A), and including minor and mobile source emissions of oxides of nitrogen and PM

10

:

a. Would not cause or contribute to an increase in concentrations of any pollutant by an amount in excess of any applicable maximum allowable increase over the baseline concentration in R18-2-218 for any attainment or unclassified area; or

b. Would not contribute to an increase in ambient concentrations for a pollutant by an amount in excess of the significance level for such pollutant in any adjacent area in which Arizona primary or secondary ambient air quality standards for that pollutant are being violated. A new major source of volatile organic compounds or oxides of nitrogen, or a major modification to a major source of volatile organic compounds or oxides of nitrogen shall be presumed to contribute to violations of the Arizona ambient air quality standards for ozone if it will be located within 50 kilometers of a nonattainment area for ozone. The presumption may be rebutted for a new major source or major modification if it can be satisfactorily demonstrated to the Director that emissions of volatile organic compounds or oxides of nitrogen from the new major source or major modification will not contribute to violations of the Arizona ambient air quality standards for ozone in adjacent nonattainment areas for ozone. Such a demonstration shall include a showing that topographical, meteorological, or other physical factors in the vicinity of the new major source or major modification are such that transport of volatile organic compounds emitted from the source are not expected to contribute to violations of the ozone standards in the adjacent nonattainment areas.

6. Air quality models:

a. All estimates of ambient concentrations required under this Section shall be based on the applicable air quality models, data basis, and other requirements specified in the "Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised)" (EPA-450/2-78-027R, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park, N.C. 27711, July 1986), and "Supplement B to the Guideline on Air Quality Models" (U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, September 1990). Both documents shall be referred to hereinafter as "Guideline" and are adopted by reference and on file with the Secretary of State and with the Department.

b. Where an air quality impact model specified in the "Guideline" is not applicable, the model may be modified or another model substituted. Such a change shall be subject to notice and opportunity for public comment. Written approval of the EPA Administrator shall be obtained for any modification or substitution.

B. The requirements of this Section shall not apply to a new major source or major modification to a source with respect to a particular pollutant if the person applying for the permit or permit revision under this Article demonstrates that, as to that pollutant, the source or modification is located in an area designated as nonattainment for the pollutant.

C. The requirements of this Section shall not apply to a new major source or major modification of a source if such source or modification would be a major source or major modification only if fugitive emissions, to the extent quantifiable, are considered in calculating the potential emissions of the source or modification, and the source is not either among the Categorical Sources listed in R18-2-101 or belongs to the category of sources for which New Source Performance Standards under 40 CFR 60 or National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants under 40 CFR 61 promulgated by the Administrator prior to August 7, 1980.

D. The requirements of this Section shall not apply to a new major source or major modification to a source when the owner of such source is a nonprofit health or educational institution.

E. The requirements of this Section shall not apply to a portable source which would otherwise be a new major source or major modification to an existing source if such portable source is temporary, is under a permit or permit revision under this Article, is in compliance with the conditions of that permit or permit revision under this Article, the emissions from the source will not impact a Class I area nor an area where an applicable increment is known to be violated, and reasonable notice is given to the Director prior to the relocation identifying the proposed new location and the probable duration of operation at the new location. Such notice shall be given to the Director not less than 10 calendar days in advance of the proposed relocation unless a different time duration is previously approved by the Director.

F. Special rules applicable to Federal Land Managers:

1. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a Federal Land Manager may present to the Director a demonstration that the emissions attributed to such new major source or major modification to a source will have significant adverse impact on visibility or other specifically defined air quality related values of any Federal Mandatory area designated in R18-2-217(B) regardless of the fact that the change in air quality resulting from emissions attributable to such new major source or major modification to a source in existence will not cause or contribute to concentrations which exceed the maximum allowable increases for a Class I area. If the Director concurs with such demonstrations, the permit or permit revision under this Article shall be denied.

2. If the owner or operator of a proposed new major source or a source for which major modification is proposed demonstrates to the Federal Land Manager that the emissions attributable to such major source or major modification will have no significant adverse impact on the visibility or other specifically defined air quality-related values of such areas and the Federal Land Manager so certifies to the Director, the Director may issue a permit or permit revision under this Article, notwithstanding the fact that the change in air quality resulting from emissions attributable to such new major source or major modification will cause or contribute to concentrations which exceed the maximum allowable increases for a Class I area. Such a permit or permit revision under this Article shall require that such new major source or major modification comply with such emission limitations as may be necessary to assure that emissions will not cause increases in ambient concentrations greater than the following maximum allowable increases over baseline concentrations for such pollutants:

<table> Maximum Allowable Increase (Micrograms per cubic meter) Sulfur Oxide Period of exposure Low terrain areas: 24-hour maximum 3-hour maximum High terrain areas: 24-hour maximum 3-hour maximum 36 130 62 221 </table>

G. The issuance of a permit or permit revision under this Article in accordance with this Section shall not relieve the owner or operator of the responsibility to comply fully with applicable provisions of the SIP and any other requirements under local, state, or federal law.

H. At such time that a particular source or modification becomes a major source or major modification solely by virtue of a relaxation in any enforceable limitation which was established after August 7, 1980, on the capacity of the source or modification otherwise to emit a pollutant, such as a restriction on hours of operation, then the requirements of this Section shall apply to the source or modification as though construction had not yet commenced on the source or modification.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-405, renumbered effective September 17, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Section R9-3-406 repealed, new Section R9-3-406 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-406 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-406 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-406 renumbered to R18-2-606, new Section R18-2-406 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective February 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-1). The references to R18-2-101(97)(a) in subsection (A)(1) and (2) amended to reference R18-2-101(104)(a) (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.407" level="4" title="Air Quality Impact Analysis and Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1">

Air Quality Impact Analysis and Monitoring Requirements

A. Any application for a permit or permit revision under this Article to construct a new major source or major modification to a major source shall contain an analysis of ambient air quality in the area that the new major source or major modification would affect for each of the following pollutants:

1. For the new source, each pollutant that it would have the potential to emit in a significant amount;

2. For the modification, each pollutant for which it would result in a significant net emissions increase.

B. With respect to any such pollutant for which no Arizona ambient air quality standard exists, the analysis shall contain all air quality monitoring data as the Director determines is necessary to assess ambient air quality for that pollutant in any area that the emissions of the pollutant would affect.

C. With respect to any such pollutant (other than nonmethane hydrocarbons) for which such a standard does exist, the analysis shall contain continuous air quality monitoring data gathered for purposes of determining whether emissions of that pollutant would cause or contribute to a violation of the standard or any maximum allowable increase.

D. In general, the continuous air quality monitoring data that is required shall have been gathered over a period of at least one year and shall represent at least the year preceding receipt of the application, except that, if the Director determines that a complete and adequate analysis can be accomplished with monitoring data gathered over a period shorter than one year (but not to be less than four months), the data that is required shall have been gathered over at least that shorter period.

E. The owner or operator of a proposed stationary source or modification to a source of volatile organic compounds who satisfies all conditions of 40 CFR 51, Appendix S, Section IV, may provide post-approval monitoring data for ozone in lieu of providing preconstruction data as required under subsections (B), (C), and (D) above.

F. Post-construction monitoring. The owner or operator of a new major source or major modification shall, after construction of the source or modification, conduct such ambient monitoring as the Director determines is necessary to determine the effect emissions from the new source or modification may have, or are having, on air quality in any area.

G. Operations of monitoring stations. The owner or operator of a new major source or major modification shall meet the requirements of 40 CFR 58, Appendix B, during the operation of monitoring stations for purposes of satisfying subsections (B) through (F) above.

H. The requirements of subsections (B) through (G) above shall not apply to a new major source or major modification to an existing source with respect to monitoring for a particular pollutant if:

1. The emissions increase of the pollutant from the new source or the net emissions increase of the pollutant from the modification would cause, in any area, air quality impacts less than the following amounts:

Carbon Monoxide - 575 &#181;g/m

3

, eight-hour average;

Nitrogen dioxide - 14 &#181;g/m

3

, annual average:

PM

10

- 10 &#181;g/m

3

, 24-hour average;

Sulfur dioxide - 13 &#181;g/m

3

, 24-hour average;

Lead - 0.1 &#181;g/m

3

, 24-hour average;

Fluorides - 0.25 &#181;g/m

3

, 24-hour average;

Total reduced sulfur - 10 &#181;g/m

3

, one-hour average;

Hydrogen sulfide - 0.04 &#181;g/m

3

, one-hour average;

Reduced sulfur compounds - 10 &#181;g/m

3

, one-hour average;

Ozone - increased emissions of less than 100 tons per year of volatile organic compounds or oxides of nitrogen; or,

2. The concentrations of the pollutant in the area that the new source or modification would affect are less than the concentrations listed in subsection (H)(1) above.

I. Any application for permit or permit revision under this Article to construct a new major source or major modification to a source shall contain:

1. An analysis of the impairment to visibility, soils, and vegetation that would occur as a result of the new source or modification and general commercial, residential, industrial, and other growth associated with the new source or modification. The applicant need not provide an analysis of the impact on vegetation having no significant commercial or recreational value.

2. An analysis of the air quality impact projected for the area as a result of general commercial, residential, industrial, and other growth associated with the new source or modification.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-407 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-407 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-407 renumbered to R18-2-607, new Section R18-2-407 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.408" level="4" title="Innovative Control Technology">

Innovative Control Technology

A. Notwithstanding the provisions of R18-2-406(A)(1) through (3), the owner or operator of a proposed new major source or major modification may request that the Director approve a system of innovative control technology rather than the best available control technology requirements otherwise applicable to the new source or modification.

B. The Director shall approve the installation of a system of innovative control technology if the following conditions are met:

1. The owner or operator of the proposed source or modification satisfactorily demonstrates that the proposed control system would not cause or contribute to an unreasonable risk to public health, welfare, or safety in its operation or function;

2. The owner or operator agrees to achieve a level of continuous emissions reduction equivalent to that which would have been required under R18-2-406(A)(2) by a date specified in the permit or permit revision under this Article for the source. Such date shall not be later than four years from the time of start-up or seven years from the issuance of a permit or permit revision under this Article;

3. The source or modification would meet requirements equivalent to those in R18-2-406(A) based on the emissions rate that the stationary source employing the system of innovative control technology would be required to meet on the date specified in the permit or permit revision under this Article.

4. Before the date specified in the permit or permit revision under this Article, the source or modification would not:

a. Cause or contribute to any violation of an applicable state ambient air quality standard; or

b. Impact any area where an applicable increment is known to be violated.

5. All other applicable requirements including those for public participation have been met.

6. The Director receives the consent of the governors of other affected states.

7. The limits on pollutants contained in R18-2-218 for Class I areas will be met for all periods during the life of the source or modification.

C. The Director shall withdraw any approval to employ a system of innovative control technology made under this Section if:

1. The proposed system fails by the specified date to achieve the required continuous emissions reduction rate; or

2. The proposed system fails before the specified date so as to contribute to an unreasonable risk to public health, welfare, or safety; or

3. The Director decides at any time that the proposed system is unlikely to achieve the required level of control or to protect the public health, welfare, or safety.

D. If the new source or major modification fails to meet the required level of continuous emissions reduction within the specified time period, or if the approval is withdrawn in accordance with subsection (C) above, the Director may allow the owner or operator of the source or modification up to an additional three years to meet the requirement for the application of best available control technology through use of a demonstrated system of control.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Former Section R9-3-408 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-408 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-408 renumbered to R18-2-608, new Section R18-2-408 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.409" level="4" title="Air Quality Models">

Air Quality Models

A. Where the Director requires a person requesting a permit or permit revision under this Article to perform air quality impact modeling to obtain such permit or permit revision under this Article, the modeling shall be performed in a manner consistent with the Guideline specified in R18-2-406(A)(6)(a).

B. Where the person requesting a permit or permit revision under this Article can demonstrate that an air quality impact model specified in the Guideline is inappropriate, the model may be modified or another model substituted. However, before such modification or substitution can occur, the Director shall make a written finding that:

1. No model in the Guideline is appropriate for a particular permit or permit revision under this Article under consideration, or

2. The data base required for the appropriate model in the Guideline is not available, and

3. The model proposed as a substitute or modification is likely to produce results equal or superior to those obtained by models in the Guideline, and

4. The model proposed as a substitute or modification has been approved by the Administrator.

C. The substitution or modification of an air quality model under this Section shall be included in the public notice under R18-2-330(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-409 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-409 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-409 renumbered to R18-2-609, new Section R18-2-409 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.410" level="4" title="Visibility Protection">

Visibility Protection

A. For any new major source or major modification subject to the provisions of this Chapter, no permit or permit revision under this Article shall be issued to a person proposing to construct or modify the source unless the applicant has provided:

1. An analysis of the anticipated impacts of the proposed source on visibility in any Class I areas which may be affected by the emissions from that source; and

2. Results of monitoring of visibility in any area near the proposed source for such purposes and by such means as the Director determines is necessary and appropriate.

B. A determination of an adverse impact on visibility shall be made based on consideration of all of the following factors:

1. The times of visitor use of the area;

2. The frequency and timing of natural conditions in the area that reduce visibility;

3. All of the following visibility impairment characteristics:

a. Geographic extent,

b. Intensity,

c. Duration,

d. Frequency,

e. Time of day;

4. The correlation between the characteristics listed in subsection (B)(3) and the factors described in subsections (B)(1) and (2).

C. The Director shall not issue a permit or permit revision pursuant to this Article or Article 3 of this Chapter for any new major source or major modification subject to this Chapter unless the following requirements have been met:

1. The Director shall notify the individuals identified in subsection (C)(2) within 30 days of receipt of any advance notification of any such permit or permit revision under this Article.

2. Within 30 days of receipt of an application for a permit or permit revision under this Article for a source whose emissions may affect a Class I area, the Director shall provide written notification of the application to the Federal Land Manager and the federal official charged with direct responsibility for management of any lands within any such area. The notice shall:

a. Include a copy of all information relevant to the permit or permit revision under this Article,

b. Include an analysis of the anticipated impacts of the proposed source on visibility in any area which may be affected by emissions from the source, and

c. Provide for no less than a 30-day period within which written comments may be submitted.

3. The Director shall consider any analysis provided by the Federal Land Manager that is received within the comment period provided in subsection (C)(2).

a. Where the Director finds that the analysis provided by the Federal Land Manager does not demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Director that an adverse impact on visibility will result in the area, the Director shall, within the public notice required under R18-2-330, either explain the decision or specify where the explanation can be obtained.

b. When the Director finds that the analysis provided by the Federal Land Manager demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Director that an adverse impact on visibility will result in the area, the Director shall not issue a permit or permit revision under this Article for the proposed major new source or major modification.

4. When the proposed permit decision is made, pursuant to R18-2-304(J), and available for public review, the Director shall provide the individuals identified in subsection (C)(2) with a copy of the proposed permit decision and shall make available to them any materials used in making that determination.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-410 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-410 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-2-410 renumbered to R18-2-610, new Section R18-2-410 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.411" level="4" title="Special Rule for Non-operating Sources of Sulfur Dioxide in Sulfur Dioxide Nonattainment Areas">

Special Rule for Non-operating Sources of Sulfur Dioxide in Sulfur Dioxide Nonattainment Areas

A. If an emissions unit that is a major source of sulfur dioxide located in a sulfur dioxide nonattainment area has not operated for more than 24 consecutive calendar months, it may only be restarted if the owner or operator of such source does all of the following:

1. Demonstrates, according to the air quality impact analysis requirements of R18-2-406(A)(5) and (6) that emissions from that unit, including fugitive emissions, will not cause or contribute to a violation of the ambient standard for sulfur dioxide in R18-2-202;

2. Demonstrates that startup of that unit will not require reconstruction; and

3. Submits a startup plan that includes a source testing plan.

B. The demonstrations and plan shall be submitted to the Director at least 180 days prior to the expected day when the restarting of the non-operating unit will commence. The Director may request additional information, as necessary, to evaluate the submittals. The unit shall not be restarted unless the Director approves the submittal.

C. If the Director disapproves a demonstration or plan required in subsection (A), or such demonstration or plan, including additional information requested by the Director, is not submitted in a timely manner, the source shall be required to obtain a permit pursuant to the requirements for a new major source or major modification as contained in this Article.

D. The conduct of performance tests that comply with the requirements of R18-2-312 and demonstrate compliance with emission limits prescribed in a permit for that source or an applicable rule shall constitute operation of an emissions unit for the purposes of this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="GENERAL PERMITS">

GENERAL PERMITS

<regElement name="R18.2.501" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. The Director may issue general permits for a facility class that contains 10 or more facilities that are similar in nature, have substantially similar emissions, and would be subject to the same or substantially similar requirements governing operations, emissions, monitoring, reporting, or recordkeeping. "Similar in nature" refers to facility size, processes, and operating conditions.

B. The Director may issue general permits, in accordance with subsection (A), with emission limitations, controls, or other requirements that meet the requirements of R18-2-306.01. A source that seeks to vary from such a general permit, and obtain an emission limitation, control, or other requirement not contained in that general permit, shall apply for a permit pursuant to Article 3 of this Chapter.

C. General permits shall not be issued for affected sources except as provided in regulations promulgated by the Administrator under Title IV of the Act.

D. Unless otherwise stated, the provisions of Article 3 shall apply to general permits.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-501 renumbered to R18-2-502, new Section R18-2-501 adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-501 renumbered to R18-2-701; new Section adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.502" level="4" title="General Permit Development">

General Permit Development

A. The Director may issue a general permit on the Director's own initiative or in response to a petition.

B. Any person may submit a petition to the Director requesting the issuance of a general permit for a defined class of facilities. The petition shall propose a particular class of facilities, and list the approximate number of facilities in the proposed class along with their size, processes, and operating conditions, and demonstrate how the class meets the criteria for a general permit as specified in R18-2-501 and A.R.S. &#167; 49-426(H). The Director shall provide a written response to the petition within 120 days of receipt.

C. General permits shall be issued or denied for classes of facilities using the same engineering principles that applies to permits for individual sources and following the public notice requirements of R18-2-504.

D. General permits shall include all of the following:

1. All elements contained in R18-2-306(A) except (2)(b) and (6).

2. The process for individual sources to apply for coverage under the general permit.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-501 repealed, new Section R9-3-501 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (D) effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended subsections (C) and (D) effective February 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-1). Amended subsection (D) effective May 25, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-501 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-501 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-2-502 repealed, new Section R18-2-502 renumbered from R18-2-501 and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-502 renumbered to R18-2-702; new Section R18-2-502 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.503" level="4" title="Application for Coverage under General Permit">

Application for Coverage under General Permit

A. Once the Director has issued a general permit, any source which is a member of the class of facilities covered by the general permit may apply to the Director for authority to operate under the general permit. At the time the Director issues a general permit, the Director may also establish a specific application form with filing instructions for sources in the category covered by the general permit. Applicants shall complete the specific application form or, if none has been adopted, the standard application form contained in Appendix 1 to this Chapter. The specific application form shall, at a minimum, require the applicant to submit the following information:

1. Information identifying and describing the source, its processes, and operating conditions in sufficient detail to allow the Director to determine qualification for, and to assure compliance with, the general permit.

2. A compliance plan that meets the requirements of R18-2-309.

B. For sources required to obtain a permit under Title V of the Act, the Director shall provide the Administrator with a permit application summary form and any relevant portion of the permit application and compliance plan. To the extent possible, this information shall be provided in computer-readable format compatible with the Administrator's national database management system.

C. The Director shall act on the application for coverage under the general permit as expeditiously as possible, but a final decision shall be reached within 180 days. The source may operate under the terms of its application during that time. If the application for coverage is denied, the Director shall notify the source that it shall apply for an individual permit within 180 days of receipt of notice. The Director may defer acting on an application under this subsection if the Director has provided notice of intent to renew or not renew the permit.

D. The Director shall deny an application for coverage from any Class I source that is subject to case-by-case standards or requirements.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-503 repealed, new Section R9-3-503 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (C), paragraph (6) effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended subsection (C) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-503 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-503 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-503 renumbered to R18-2-703; new Section R18-2-503 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.504" level="4" title="Public Notice">

Public Notice

A. This Section applies to issuance, revision, or renewal of a general permit.

B. The Director shall provide public notice for any proposed new general permit, for any revision of an existing general permit, and for renewal of an existing general permit.

C. The Director shall publish notice of the proposed general permit once each week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in each county and shall provide at least 30 days from the date of the first notice for public comment. The notice shall describe the following:

1. The proposed permit;

2. The category of sources that would be affected;

3. The air contaminants which the Director expects to be emitted by a typical facility in the class and the class as a whole;

4. The Director's proposed actions and effective date for the actions;

5. Locations where documents relevant to the proposed permit will be available during normal business hours;

6. The name, address, and telephone number of a person within the Department who may be contacted for further information;

7. The address where any person may submit comments or request a public hearing and the date and time by which comments or a public hearing request are required to be received;

8. The process by which sources may obtain authorization to operate under the general permit.

D. For general permits under which operation may be authorized in lieu of Class I permits, the Director shall give notice of the proposed general permit to each affected state at the same time that the proposed general permit goes out for public notice. The Director shall provide the proposed final permit to the Administrator after public and affected state review. No Class I permit shall be issued if the Administrator properly objects to its issuance in writing within 45 days from receipt of the proposed final permit and any necessary supporting information from the Director.

E. Written comments to the Director shall include the name of the person and the person's agent or attorney and shall clearly set forth reasons why the general permit should or should not be issued pursuant to the criteria for issuance in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426 and 49-427 and this Chapter.

F. At the time a general permit is issued, the Director shall make available a response to all relevant comments on the proposed permit raised during the public comment period and during any requested public hearing. The response shall specify which provisions, if any, of the proposed permit have been changed and the reason for the changes. The Director shall also notify in writing any petitioner and each person who has submitted written comments on the proposed general permit or requested notice of the final permit decision.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-504 repealed, new Section R9-3-504 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-504 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-504 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-504 renumbered to R18-2-704; new Section R18-2-504 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.505" level="4" title="General Permit Renewal">

General Permit Renewal

The Director shall review and may renew general permits every five years. A source's authorization to operate under a general permit shall coincide with the term of the general permit regardless of when the authorization began during the five-year period, except as provided in R18-2-510(C). In addition to the public notice required to issue a proposed permit under R18-2-504, the Director shall notify in writing all sources who have been granted, or who have applications pending for, authorization to operate under the permit. The written notice shall describe the source's duty to reapply and may include requests for information required under the proposed permit.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1007 renumbered effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-505 repealed, new Section R9-3-505 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Editorial corrections, subsection (B), paragraph (5), and subsection (D), paragraph (1), subparagraph (d) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (B) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (B) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-505 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-505 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-505 renumbered to R18-2-705; new Section R18-2-505 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.506" level="4" title="Relationship to Individual Permits">

Relationship to Individual Permits

Any source covered under a general permit may request to be excluded from coverage by applying for an individual source permit. Coverage under the general permit shall terminate on the date the individual permit is issued.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1008 renumbered effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-506 repealed, new Section R9-3-506 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (C), paragraph (1) effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Former Section R9-3-506 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-506 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-506 renumbered to R18-2-706; new Section R18-2-506 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.507" level="4" title="General Permit Variances">

General Permit Variances

A. Where MACT (maximum achievable control technology) or HAPRACT (hazardous air pollutant reasonably available control technology) has been established in a general permit for a source category designated pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.05(A), the owner or operator of a source within that source category may apply for a variance from the standard by demonstrating compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06(D) at the time the source applies for coverage under the general permit.

B. If the owner or operator makes the showing required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06(D) and otherwise qualifies for the general permit, the Director shall, in accordance with the procedures established pursuant to this Article, approve the application and authorize operation under a variance from the standard of the general permit.

C. Except as modified by the variance, the source shall comply with all conditions of the general permit.

D. A proposed variance to a standard in a general permit shall be subject to the public notice requirements of R18-2-330.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-507 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-507 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-507 renumbered to R18-2-707; new Section R18-2-507 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.508" level="4" title="General Permit Shield">

General Permit Shield

Each general permit issued under this Article shall specifically identify all federal, state, and local air pollution control requirements applicable to the source at the time the permit is issued. The permit shall state that, as of the date authority to operate for a source is granted, compliance with the conditions of the permit shall be deemed compliance with any applicable requirement in effect on the date of permit issuance. Any permit under this Article that does not expressly state that a permit shield exists shall be presumed not to provide such a shield. Notwithstanding the above provisions, the source shall be subject to enforcement action for operation without a permit if the source is later determined not to qualify for the conditions and terms of the general permit. A permit shield provided for a general permit shall meet all the requirements of R18-2-325.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (B) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (B) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-508 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-508 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-508 renumbered to R18-2-708; new Section R18-2-508 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.509" level="4" title="General Permit Appeals">

General Permit Appeals

Any person who filed a comment on a proposed general permit as provided in R18-2-504 may appeal the terms and conditions of the general permit, as they apply to the facility class covered under a general permit, by filing an appeal with the hearing board within 30 days of issuance of the general permit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-509 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-509 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-509 renumbered to R18-2-709; new Section R18-2-509 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.510" level="4" title="Terminations of General Permits and Revocations of Authority to Operate under a General Permit">

Terminations of General Permits and Revocations of Authority to Operate under a General Permit

A. The Director may terminate a general permit at any time if:

1. The Director has determined that the emissions from the sources in the facility class cause or contribute to ambient air quality standard violations which are not adequately addressed by the requirements in the general permit, or

2. The Director has determined that the terms and conditions of the general permit no longer meet the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-426 and 49-427.

B. The Director shall provide written notice to all sources operating under a general permit prior to termination of a general permit. Such notice shall include an explanation of the basis for the proposed action. Within 180 days of receipt of the notice of the expiration, termination or cancellation of any general permit, sources notified shall submit an application to the Director for an individual permit.

C. The Director may require a source authorized to operate under a general permit to apply for and obtain an individual source permit at any time if the source is not in compliance with the terms and conditions of the general permit.

D. If the Director revokes a source's authority to operate under a general permit pursuant to subsection (C), the Director shall notify the permittee by certified mail, return receipt requested. The notice shall include a statement detailing the grounds for the revocation of authority and a statement that the permittee is entitled to a hearing. A source previously authorized to operate under a general permit may operate under the terms of the general permit until the earlier of the date it submits a complete application for an individual permit, at which time it may operate under that application, or 180 days after receipt of the notice of revocation of authority to operate under the general permit.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsections (E)(3) and (E)(4) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-510 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-510 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-510 renumbered to R18-2-710; new Section R18-2-510 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.511" level="4" title="Fees Related to General Permits">

Fees Related to General Permits

A. Permit Processing Fee. The owner or operator of a source that applies for authority to operate under a general permit shall pay to the Director $500 with the submittal of the application. This fee applies to the owner or operator of any source who intends to continue operating under the authority of a general permit that has been proposed for renewal.

B. Administrative or Inspection Fee. The owner or operator of a source with authority to operate under a general permit shall pay, for each calendar year, the applicable administrative or inspection fee from the table below, by March 31 or 60 days after the Director mails the invoice, whichever is later.

<table> General Permit Source Category Administrative Fee Class I Title V General Permits Administrative fee for category from R18-2-326(C) Class II Title V Small Source $500 Other Class II Title V General Permits $3,000 Inspection Fee Class II Non-Title V Gasoline Service Stations $500 Class II Non-Title V Crematories $1,000 Other Class II Non-Title V General Permits $2,000 </table>

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-511 renumbered to R18-2-711; new Section R18-2-511 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5670, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.512" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-512 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-512 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-712 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.513" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (A), paragraph (2) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-513 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-513 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-713 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.514" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-514 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-514 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-714 effective November 14, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.515" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Section R9-3-515 will be repealed and new Section R9-3-515 adopted effective following the adoption of Article 7. Nonferrous Smelter Orders, filed September 18, 1979 for public hearing (Supp. 79-5). Section R9-3-515 adopted effective May 14, 1979, amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Article 7. Nonferrous Smelter Orders adopted effective January 8, 1980. Section R9-3-515 filed September 18, 1979 for public hearing and effective following the adoption of Article 7 now amended and effective January 8, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended as an emergency effective March 6, 1980, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 80-2). Emergency adoption effective March 6, 1980 now adopted and amended effective July 9, 1980. Amended subsection (C), paragraph (1) effective August 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended as an emergency effective October 9, 1980, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 80-5). Former emergency adoption effective October 9, 1980, now adopted and amended effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended subsection (B), paragraph (1) effective February 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-1). Amended effective May 25, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsections ((C)(3) and (C)(5) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-515 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-515 (Supp. 87-3). Section amended and subsections (C)(1)(h) through (C)(7) renumbered to R18-2-515.01 and subsections (C)(8) through (C)(9) renumbered to R18-2-515.02 effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-715 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

R18-2-515.01. Renumbered

Historical Note

Section R18-2-515.01 renumbered from R18-2-515(C)(1)(h) through (C)(7) and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-715.01 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

R18-2-515.02. Renumbered

Historical Note

R18-2-515.02 renumbered from R18-2-515(C)(8) through (C)(9) and amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-715.02 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.516" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4) Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-4). Former Section R9-3-516 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-516 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-716 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.517" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (C), paragraph (1) (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-517 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-517 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-2). Renumbered to R18-2-717 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.518" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-4). Former Section R9-3-518 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-518 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-718 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.519" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Editorial correction, subsection (A), paragraph (1) (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-519 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-519 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-719 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.520" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Editorial correction, subsection (A), paragraph (1) (Supp. 80-2). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-520 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-520 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-720 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.521" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-521 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-521 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-721 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.522" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-522 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-522 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-722 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.523" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-523 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-523 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-2). Renumbered to R18-2-723 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.524" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended subsection (A) effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-524 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-524 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-724 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.525" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Editorial correction, subsection (B) (Supp. 79-6). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-525 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-525 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-725 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.526" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-526 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-526 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-726 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.527" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-527 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-527 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-727 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.528" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Former Section R9-3-528 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-528 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-728 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.529" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Former Section R9-3-529 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-529 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-729 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.530" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Renumbered to R18-2-730 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="EMISSIONS FROM EXISTING AND NEW NONPOINT SOURCES">

EMISSIONS FROM EXISTING AND NEW NONPOINT SOURCES

<regElement name="R18.2.601" level="4" title="General">

General

For purposes of this Article, any source of air contaminants which due to lack of an identifiable emission point or plume cannot be considered a point source, shall be classified as a nonpoint source. In applying this criteria, such items as air-curtain destructors, heater-planners, and conveyor transfer points shall be considered to have identifiable plumes. Any affected facility subject to regulation under Article 7 of this Chapter or 9 A.A.C. 3, Article 8, shall not be subject to regulation under this Article.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-601 repealed, new Section R9-3-601 adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-601 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-601 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-601 renumbered to R18-2-801, new Section R18-2-601 renumbered from R18-2-401 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.602" level="4" title="Unlawful Open Burning"> <dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="asbesto" times="1"><dwc name="cadmium" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1">

Unlawful Open Burning

A. In addition to the definitions contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-501, in this Section:

1. "Agricultural burning" means burning vegetative materials related to producing and harvesting crops and raising animals for the purpose of marketing for profit, or providing a livelihood, but does not include burning of household waste or prohibited materials. A person may conduct agricultural burns in fields, piles, ditch banks, fence rows, or canal laterals for purposes such as weed control, waste disposal, disease and pest prevention, or site preparation.

2. "Approved waste burner" means an incinerator constructed of fire resistant material with a cover or screen that is closed when in use, and has openings in the sides or top no greater than one inch in diameter.

3. "Class I Area" means any one of the Arizona mandatory federal Class I areas defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01.

4. "Construction burning" means burning wood or vegetative material from land clearing, site preparation, or fabrication, erection, installation, demolition, or modification of any buildings or other land improvements, but does not include burning household waste or prohibited material.

5. "Dangerous material" means any substance or combination of substances that is capable of causing bodily harm or property loss unless neutralized, consumed, or otherwise disposed of in a controlled and safe manner.

6. "Delegated authority" means any of the following:

a. A county, city, town, air pollution control district, or fire district that has been delegated authority to issue open burning permits by the Director under A.R.S. &#167; 49-501(E); or

b. A private fire protection service provider that has been assigned authority to issue open burning permits by one of the authorities in subsection (A)(6)(a).

7. "Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality, or designee.

8. "Emission reduction techniques" means methods for controlling emissions from open outdoor fires to minimize the amount of emissions output per unit of area burned.

9. "Flue," as used in this Section, means any duct or passage for air or combustion gases, such as a stack or chimney.

10. "Household waste" means any solid waste including garbage, rubbish, and sanitary waste from a septic tank that is generated from households including single and multiple family residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas, but does not include construction debris, landscaping rubble, or demolition debris.

11. "Independent authority to permit fires" means the authority of a county to permit fires by a rule adopted under Arizona Revised Statutes, Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 3, and includes only Maricopa, Pima, and Pinal counties.

12. "Open outdoor fire or open burning" means the combustion of material of any type, outdoors and in the open, where the products of combustion are not directed through a flue. Open outdoor fires include agricultural, residential, prescribed, and construction burning, and fires using air curtain destructors.

13. "Prohibited materials" means nonpaper garbage from the processing, storage, service, or consumption of food; chemically treated wood; lead-painted wood; linoleum flooring, and composite counter-tops; tires; explosives or ammunition; oleanders; asphalt shingles; tar paper; plastic and rubber products, including bottles for household chemicals; plastic grocery and retail bags; waste petroleum products, such as waste crankcase oil, transmission oil, and oil filters; transformer oils; asbestos; batteries; anti-freeze; aerosol spray cans; electrical wire insulation; thermal insulation; polyester products; hazardous waste products such as paints, pesticides, cleaners and solvents, stains and varnishes, and other flammable liquids; plastic pesticide bags and containers; and hazardous material containers including those that contained lead, cadmium, mercury, or arsenic compounds.

14. "Residential burning" means open burning of vegetative materials conducted by or for the occupants of residential dwellings, but does not include burning household waste or prohibited material.

15. "Prescribed burning" has the same meaning as in R18-2-1501.

B. Unlawful open burning. Notwithstanding any other rule in this Chapter, a person shall not ignite, cause to be ignited, permit to be ignited, allow, or maintain any open outdoor fire in a county without independent authority to permit fires except as provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-501 and this Section.

C. Open outdoor fires exempt from a permit. The following fires do not require an open burning permit from the Director or a delegated authority:

1. Fires used only for:

a. Cooking of food,

b. Providing warmth for human beings,

c. Recreational purposes,

d. Branding of animals,

e. Orchard heaters for the purpose of frost protection in farming or nursery operations, and

f. The proper disposal of flags under 4 U.S.C. 1, &#167; 8.

2. Any fire set or permitted by any public officer in the performance of official duty, if the fire is set or permission given for the following purpose:

a. Control of an active wildfire; or

b. Instruction in the method of fighting fires, except that the person setting these fires must comply with the reporting requirements of subsection (D)(3)(f).

3. Fire set by or permitted by the Director of Department of Agriculture for the purpose of disease and pest prevention in an organized, area-wide control of an epidemic or infestation affecting livestock or crops.

4. Prescribed burns set by or assisted by the federal government or any of its departments, agencies, or agents, or the state or any of its agencies, departments, or political subdivisions, regulated under Article 15 of this Chapter.

D. Open outdoor fires requiring a permit.

1. The following open outdoor fires are allowed with an open burning permit from the Director or a delegated authority:

a. Construction burning;

b. Agricultural burning;

c. Residential burning;

d. Prescribed burns conducted on private lands without the assistance of a federal or state land manager as defined under R18-2-1501;

e. Any fire set or permitted by a public officer in the performance of official duty, if the fire is set or permission given for the purpose of weed abatement, or the prevention of a fire hazard, unless the fire is exempt from the permit requirement under subsection (C)(3);

f. Open outdoor fires of dangerous material under subsection (E);

g. Open outdoor fires of household waste under subsection (F); and

h. Open outdoor fires that use an air curtain destructor, as defined in R18-2-101.

2. A person conducting an open outdoor fire in a county without independent authority to permit fires shall obtain a permit from the Director or a delegated authority unless exempted under subsection (C). Permits may be issued for a period not to exceed one year. A person shall obtain a permit by completing an ADEQ-approved application form.

3. Open outdoor fire permits issued under this Section shall include:

a. A list of the materials that the permittee may burn under the permit;

b. A means of contacting the permittee authorized by the permit to set an open fire in the event that an order to extinguish the open outdoor fire is issued by the Director or the delegated authority;

c. A requirement that burns be conducted during the following periods, unless otherwise waived or directed by the Director on a specific day basis:

i. Year-round: ignite fire no earlier than one hour after sunrise; and

ii. Year-round: extinguish fire no later than two hours before sunset;

d. A requirement that the permittee conduct all open burning only during atmospheric conditions that:

i. Prevent dispersion of smoke into populated areas;

ii. Prevent visibility impairment on traveled roads or at airports that result in a safety hazard;

iii. Do not create a public nuisance or adversely affect public safety;

iv. Do not cause an adverse impact to visibility in a Class I area; and

v. Do not cause uncontrollable spreading of the fire;

e. A list of the types of emission reduction techniques that the permittee shall use to minimize fire emissions.;

f. A reporting requirement that the permittee shall meet by providing the following information in a format provided by the Director for each date open burning occurred, on either a daily basis on the day of the fire, or an annual basis in a report to the Director or delegated authority due on March 31 for the previous calendar year:

i. The date of each burn;

ii. The type and quantity of fuel burned for each date open burning occurred;

iii. The fire type, such as pile or pit, for each date open burning occurred; and

iv. For each date open burning occurred, the legal location, to the nearest section, or latitude and longitude, to the nearest degree minute, or street address for residential burns;

g. A requirement that the person conducting the open burn notify the local fire-fighting agency or private fire protection service provider, if the service provider is a delegated authority, before burning. If neither is in existence, the person conducting the burn shall notify the state forester.;

h. A requirement that the permittee start each open outdoor fire using items that do not cause the production of black smoke;

i. A requirement that the permittee attend the fire at all times until it is completely extinguished;

j. A requirement that the permittee provide fire extinguishing equipment on-site for the duration of the burn;

k. A requirement that the permittee ensure that a burning pit, burning pile, or approved waste burner be at least 50 feet from any structure;

l. A requirement that the permittee have a copy of the burn permit on-site during open burning;

m. A requirement that the permittee not conduct open burning when an air stagnation advisory, as issued by the National Weather Service, is in effect in the area of the burn or during periods when smoke can be expected to accumulate to the extent that it will significantly impair visibility in Class I areas;

n. A requirement that the permittee not conduct open burning when any stage air pollution episode is declared under R18-2-220;

o. A statement that the Director, or any other public officer, may order that the burn be extinguished or prohibit burning during periods of inadequate smoke dispersion, excessive visibility impairment, or extreme fire danger; and

p. A list of the activities prohibited and the criminal penalties provided under A.R.S. &#167; 13-1706.

4. The Director or a delegated authority shall not issue an open burning permit under this Section:

a. That would allow burning prohibited materials other than under a permit for the burning of dangerous materials;

b. If the applicant has applied for a permit under this Section to burn a dangerous material which is also hazardous waste under 40 CFR 261, but does not have a permit to burn hazardous waste under 40 CFR 264, or is not an interim status facility allowed to burn hazardous waste under 40 CFR 265; or

c. If the burning would occur at a solid waste facility in violation of 40 CFR 258.24 and the Director has not issued a variance under A.R.S. &#167; 49-763.01.

E. Open outdoor fires of dangerous material. A fire set for the disposal of a dangerous material is allowed by the provisions of this Section, when the material is too dangerous to store and transport, and the Director has issued a permit for the fire. A permit issued under this subsection shall contain all provisions in subsection (D)(3) except for subsections (D)(3)(e) and (D)(3)(f). The Director shall permit fires for the disposal of dangerous materials only when no safe alternative method of disposal exists, and burning the materials does not result in the emission of hazardous or toxic substances either directly or as a product of combustion in amounts that will endanger health or safety.

F. Open outdoor fires of household waste. An open outdoor fire for the disposal of household waste is allowed by provisions of this Section when permitted in writing by the Director or a delegated authority. A permit issued under this subsection shall contain all provisions in subsection (D)(3) except for subsections (D)(3)(e) and (D)(3)(f). The permittee shall conduct open outdoor fires of household waste in an approved waste burner and shall either:

1. Burn household waste generated on-site on farms or ranches of 40 acres or more where no household waste collection or disposal service is available; or

2. Burn household waste generated on-site where no household waste collection and disposal service is available and where the nearest other dwelling unit is at least 500 feet away.

G. Permits issued by a delegated authority. The Director may delegate authority for the issuance of open burning permits to a county, city, town, air pollution control district, or fire district. A delegated authority may not issue a permit for its own open burning activity. The Director shall not delegate authority to issue permits to burn dangerous material under subsection (E). A county, city, town, air pollution control district, or fire district with delegated authority from the Director may assign that authority to one or more private fire protection service providers that perform fire protection services within the county, city, town, air pollution control district, or fire district. A private fire protection provider shall not directly or indirectly condition the issuance of open burning permits on the applicant being a customer. Permits issued under this subsection shall comply with the requirements in subsection (D)(3) and be in a format prescribed by the Director. Each delegated authority shall:

1. Maintain a copy of each permit issued for the previous five years available for inspection by the Director;

2. For each permit currently issued, have a means of contacting the person authorized by the permit to set an open fire if an order to extinguish open burning is issued; and

3. Annually submit to the Director by May 15 a record of daily burn activity, excluding household waste burn permits, on a form provided by the Director for the previous calendar year containing the information required in subsections (D)(3)(e) and (D)(3)(f).

H. The Director shall hold an annual public meeting for interested parties to review operations of the open outdoor fire program and discuss emission reduction techniques.

I. Nothing in this Section is intended to permit any practice that is a violation of any statute, ordinance, rule, or regulation.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Correction, subsection (C) repealed effective October 2, 1979, not shown (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-3-602 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-602 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-602 renumbered to R18-2-802, new Section R18-2-602 renumbered from R18-2-401 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.603" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-603 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-603 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-603 renumbered to R18-2-803, new Section R18-2-603 renumbered from R18-2-403 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Repealed effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.604" level="4" title="Open Areas, Dry Washes, or Riverbeds">

Open Areas, Dry Washes, or Riverbeds

A. No person shall cause, suffer, allow, or permit a building or its appurtenances, or a building or subdivision site, or a driveway, or a parking area, or a vacant lot or sales lot, or an urban or suburban open area to be constructed, used, altered, repaired, demolished, cleared, or leveled, or the earth to be moved or excavated, without taking reasonable precautions to limit excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne. Dust and other types of air contaminants shall be kept to a minimum by good modern practices such as using an approved dust suppressant or adhesive soil stabilizer, paving, covering, landscaping, continuous wetting, detouring, barring access, or other acceptable means.

B. No person shall cause, suffer, allow, or permit a vacant lot, or an urban or suburban open area, to be driven over or used by motor vehicles, trucks, cars, cycles, bikes, or buggies, or by animals such as horses, without taking reasonable precautions to limit excessive amounts of particulates from becoming airborne. Dust shall be kept to a minimum by using an approved dust suppressant, or adhesive soil stabilizer, or by paving, or by barring access to the property, or by other acceptable means.

C. No person shall operate a motor vehicle for recreational purposes in a dry wash, riverbed or open area in such a way as to cause or contribute to visible dust emissions which then cross property lines into a residential, recreational, institutional, educational, retail sales, hotel or business premises. For purposes of this subsection "motor vehicles" shall include, but not be limited to trucks, cars, cycles, bikes, buggies and 3-wheelers. Any person who violates the provisions of this subsection shall be subject to prosecution under A.R.S. &#167; 49-463.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-604 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-604 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-604 renumbered to R18-2-804, new Section R18-2-604 renumbered from R18-2-404 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.605" level="4" title="Roadways and Streets">

Roadways and Streets

A. No person shall cause, suffer, allow or permit the use, repair, construction or reconstruction of a roadway or alley without taking reasonable precautions to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne. Dust and other particulates shall be kept to a minimum by employing temporary paving, dust suppressants, wetting down, detouring or by other reasonable means.

B. No person shall cause, suffer, allow or permit transportation of materials likely to give rise to airborne dust without taking reasonable precautions, such as wetting, applying dust suppressants, or covering the load, to prevent particulate matter from becoming airborne. Earth or other material that is deposited by trucking or earth moving equipment shall be removed from paved streets by the person responsible for such deposits.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Former Section R9-3-605 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-605 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-605 renumbered to R18-2-805, new Section R18-2-605 renumbered from R18-2-405 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.606" level="4" title="Material Handling">

Material Handling

No person shall cause, suffer, allow or permit crushing, screening, handling, transporting or conveying of materials or other operations likely to result in significant amounts of airborne dust without taking reasonable precautions, such as the use of spray bars, wetting agents, dust suppressants, covering the load, and hoods to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-606 renumbered from R18-2-406 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.607" level="4" title="Storage Piles">

Storage Piles

A. No person shall cause, suffer, allow, or permit organic or inorganic dust producing material to be stacked, piled, or otherwise stored without taking reasonable precautions such as chemical stabilization, wetting, or covering to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne.

B. Stacking and reclaiming machinery utilized at storage piles shall be operated at all times with a minimum fall of material and in such manner, or with the use of spray bars and wetting agents, as to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-607 renumbered from R18-2-407 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.608" level="4" title="Mineral Tailings">

Mineral Tailings

No person shall cause, suffer, allow, or permit construction of mineral tailing piles without taking reasonable precautions to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne. Reasonable precautions shall mean wetting, chemical stabilization, revegetation or such other measures as are approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-608 renumbered from R18-2-408, new Section R18-2-408 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.609" level="4" title="Agricultural Practices">

Agricultural Practices

A person shall not cause, suffer, allow, or permit the performance of agricultural practices outside the Phoenix planning area, as defined in 40 CFR 81.303, which is incorporated by reference in R18-2-210, including tilling of land and application of fertilizers without taking reasonable precautions to prevent excessive amounts of particulate matter from becoming airborne.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-609 renumbered from R18-2-409 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2009, effective May 12, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.610" level="4" title="Definitions for R18-2-611">

Definitions for R18-2-611

The definitions in Article 1 of this Chapter and the following definitions apply to R18-2-611:

1. "Access restriction" means restricting or eliminating public access to noncropland with signs or physical obstruction.

2. "Aggregate cover" means gravel, concrete, recycled road base, caliche, or other similar material applied to noncropland.

3. "Artificial wind barrier" means a physical barrier to the wind.

4. "Best management practice" means a technique verified by scientific research, that on a case-by-case basis is practical, economically feasible, and effective in reducing PM

10

emissions from a regulated agricultural activity.

5. "Chemical irrigation" means applying a fertilizer, pesticide, or other agricultural chemical to cropland through an irrigation system.

6. "Combining tractor operations" means performing two or more tillage, cultivation, planting, or harvesting operations with a single tractor or harvester pass.

7. "Commercial farm" means 10 or more contiguous acres of land used for agricultural purposes within the boundary of the Maricopa PM

10

nonattainment area.

8. "Commercial farmer" means an individual, entity, or joint operation in general control of a commercial farm.

9. "Committee" means the Governor's Agricultural Best Management Practices Committee.

10. "Cover crop" means plants or a green manure crop grown for seasonal soil protection or soil improvement.

11. "Critical area planting" means using trees, shrubs, vines, grasses, or other vegetative cover on noncropland.

12. "Cropland" means land on a commercial farm that:

a. Is within the time-frame of final harvest to plant emergence;

b. Has been tilled in a prior year and is suitable for crop production, but is currently fallow; or

c. Is a turn-row.

13. "Cross-wind ridges" means soil ridges formed by a tillage operation.

14. "Cross-wind strip-cropping" means planting strips of alternating crops within the same field.

15. "Cross-wind vegetative strips" means herbaceous cover established in one or more strips within the same field.

16. "Equipment modification" means modifying agricultural equipment to prevent or reduce particulate matter generation from cropland.

17. "Limited activity during a high-wind event" means performing no tillage or soil preparation activity when the measured wind speed at 6 feet in height is more than 25 mph at the commercial farm site.

18. "Manure application" means applying animal waste or biosolids to a soil surface.

19. "Maricopa PM

10

nonattainment area" means the Phoenix planning area as defined in 40 CFR 81.303, which is incorporated by reference in R18-2-210.

20. "Mulching" means applying plant residue or other material that is not produced onsite to a soil surface.

21. "Multi-year crop" means a crop, pasture, or orchard that is grown, or will be grown, on a continuous basis for more than one year.

22. "Noncropland" means any commercial farm land that:

a. Is no longer used for agricultural production;

b. Is no longer suitable for production of crops;

c. Is subject to a restrictive easement or contract that prohibits use for the production of crops; or

d. Includes a private farm road, ditch, ditch bank, equipment yard, storage yard, or well head.

23. "Permanent cover" means a perennial vegetative cover on cropland.

24. "Planting based on soil moisture" means applying water to soil before performing planting operations.

25. "Reduce vehicle speed" means operating farm vehicles or farm equipment on unpaved private farm roads at speeds not to exceed 20 mph.

26. "Reduced harvest activity" means reducing the number of harvest passes using a mechanized method to cut and remove crops from a field.

27. "Reduced tillage system" means reducing the number of tillage operations used to produce a crop.

28. "Regulated agricultural activity" means a commercial farming practice that may produce PM

10

within the Maricopa PM

10

nonattainment area.

29. "Residue management" means managing the amount and distribution of crop and other plant residues on a soil surface.

30. "Sequential cropping" means growing crops in a sequence that minimizes the amount of time bare soil is exposed on a field.

31. "Surface roughening" means manipulating a soil surface to produce or maintain clods.

32. "Synthetic particulate suppressant" means a manufactured product such as lignosulfate, calcium chloride, magnesium chloride, an emulsion of a petroleum product, an enzyme product, and polyacrylamide that is used to control particulate matter.

33. "Tillage and harvest" means any mechanical practice that physically disturbs cropland or crops on a commercial farm.

34. "Tillage based on soil moisture" means applying water to soil before or during tillage, or delaying tillage to coincide with precipitation.

35. "Timing of a tillage operation" means performing tillage operations at a time that will minimize the soil's susceptibility to generate PM

10

.

36. "Track-out control system" means a device to remove mud or soil from a vehicle before the vehicle enters a paved public road.

37. "Tree, shrub, or windbreak planting" means providing a woody vegetative barrier to the wind.

38. "Watering" means applying water to noncropland.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-610 renumbered to R18-2-612; new Section R18-2-610 adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2009, effective May 12, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

R18-2-611. Agricultural PM

10

General Permit; Maricopa PM10 Nonattainment Area

A. A commercial farmer shall comply with this Section by December 31, 2001.

B. A commercial farmer, who begins a regulated agricultural activity after December 31, 2000, shall comply with this Section within 18 months of beginning the regulated agricultural activity.

C. A commercial farmer shall implement at least one best management practice from each of the following categories:

1. Tillage and harvest, subsection (E);

2. Noncropland, subsection (F); and

3. Cropland, subsection (G). A commercial farmer may implement more than one best management practice for one or more of the categories.

D. A commercial farmer shall ensure that the implementation of each selected best management practice does not violate any other local, state, or federal law.

E. A commercial farmer shall implement at least one of the following best management practices to reduce PM

10

emissions during tillage and harvest activities:

1. Chemical irrigation,

2. Combining tractor operations,

3. Equipment modification,

4. Limited activity during a high-wind event,

5. Multi-year crop,

6. Planting based on soil moisture,

7. Reduced harvest activity,

8. Reduced tillage system,

9. Tillage based on soil moisture, or

10. Timing of a tillage operation.

F. A commercial farmer shall implement at least one of the following best management practices to reduce PM

10

emissions from noncropland:

1. Access restriction;

2. Aggregate cover;

3. Artificial wind barrier;

4. Critical area planting;

5. Manure application;

6. Reduce vehicle speed;

7. Synthetic particulate suppressant;

8. Track-out control system;

9. Tree, shrub, or windbreak planting; or

10. Watering.

G. A commercial farmer shall implement at least one of the following best management practices to reduce PM

10

emissions from cropland:

1. Artificial wind barrier;

2. Cover crop;

3. Cross-wind ridges;

4. Cross-wind strip-cropping;

5. Cross-wind vegetative strips;

6. Manure application;

7. Mulching;

8. Multi-year crop;

9. Permanent cover;

10. Planting based on soil moisture;

11. Residue management;

12. Sequential cropping;

13. Surface roughening; or

14. Tree, shrub, or windbreak planting.

H. A person may develop different practices not contained in subsections (E), (F), or (G) that reduce PM

10

. A person may submit practices that are proven effective through on-farm demonstration trials to the Committee. The Committee may meet to review the submitted practices.

I. A commercial farmer shall maintain a record demonstrating compliance with this Section. The record shall be provided to the Director within two business days of notice to the commercial farmer. The record shall contain:

1. The name of the commercial farmer,

2. The mailing address or physical address of the commercial farm, and

3. The best management practices selected for tillage and harvest, noncropland, and cropland.

J. The Director shall not assess a fee to a commercial farmer for coverage under the agricultural PM

10

general permit.

K. The Director shall document noncompliance with this Section before issuing a compliance order.

L. A commercial farmer who is not in compliance with this Section is subject to the provisions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-457 (I), (J), and (K).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2009, effective May 12, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.612" level="4" title="Evaluation of Nonpoint Source Emissions">

Evaluation of Nonpoint Source Emissions

Opacity of an emission from any nonpoint source shall not be greater than 40% measured in accordance with the Arizona Testing Manual, Reference Method 9. Open fires permitted under R18-2-602 and R18-2-603 are exempt from this requirement.

Historical Note

New Section R18-2-612 renumbered from R18-2-610 at 6 A.A.R. 2009, effective May 12, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="EXISTING STATIONARY SOURCE PERFORMANCE STANDARDS">

EXISTING STATIONARY SOURCE PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

<regElement name="R18.2.701" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="copper" times="13"><dwc name="lead" times="1">

Definitions

For purposes of this Article:

1. "Acid mist" means sulfuric acid mist as measured in the Arizona Testing Manual and 40 CFR 60, Appendix A.

2. "Architectural coating" means a coating used commercially or industrially for residential, commercial or industrial buildings and their appurtenances, structural steel, and other fabrications such as storage tanks, bridges, beams and girders.

3. "Asphalt concrete plant" means any facility used to manufacture asphalt concrete by heating and drying aggregate and mixing with asphalt cements. This is limited to facilities, including drum dryer plants that introduce asphalt into the dryer, which employ two or more of the following processes:

a. A dryer.

b. Systems for screening, handling, storing, and weighing hot aggregate.

c. Systems for loading, transferring, and storing mineral filler.

d. Systems for mixing asphalt concrete.

e. The loading, transferring, and storage systems associated with emission control systems.

4. "Black liquor" means waste liquor from the brown stock washer and spent cooking liquor which have been concentrated in the multiple-effect evaporator system.

5. "Calcine" means the solid materials produced by a lime plant.

6. "Concentrate" means enriched copper ore recovered from the froth flotation process.

7. "Concentrate dryer" means any facility in which a copper sulfide ore concentrate charge is heated in the presence of air to eliminate a portion of the moisture from the charge, provided less than 5% of the sulfur contained in the charge is eliminated in the facility.

8. "Concentrate roaster" means any facility in which a copper sulfide ore concentrate is heated in the presence of air to eliminate 5% or more of the sulfur contained in the charge.

9. "Condensate stripper system" means a column, and associated condensers, used to strip, with air or steam, TRS compounds from condensate streams from various processes within a kraft pulp mill.

10. "Control device" means the air pollution control equipment used to remove particulate matter or gases generated by a process source from the effluent gas stream.

11. "Converter" means any vessel to which copper matte is charged and oxidized to copper.

12. "Facility" means an identifiable piece of stationary process equipment along with all associated air pollution equipment.

13. "Fugitive dust" means fugitive emissions of particulate matter.

14. "High sulfur oil" means fuel oil containing 0.90% or more by weight of sulfur.

15. "Lime kiln" means a unit used to calcinate lime rock or kraft pulp mill lime mud, which consists primarily of calcium carbonate, into quicklime, which is calcium oxide.

16. "Low sulfur oil" means fuel oil containing less than 0.90% by weight of sulfur.

17. "Matte" means a metallic sulfide made by smelting copper sulfide ore concentrate or the roasted product of copper sulfide ores.

18. "Miscellaneous metal parts and products" for purposes of industrial coating include all of the following:

a. Large farm machinery, such as harvesting, fertilizing and planting machines, tractors, and combines;

b. "Small farm machinery, such as lawn and garden tractors, lawn mowers, and rototillers;

c. Small appliances, such as fans, mixers, blenders, crock pots, dehumidifiers, and vacuum cleaners;

d. Commercial machinery, such as office equipment, computers and auxiliary equipment, typewriters, calculators, and vending machines;

e. Industrial machinery, such as pumps, compressors, conveyor components, fans, blowers, and transformers;

f. Fabricated metal products, such as metal-covered doors and frames;

g. Any other industrial category which coats metal parts or products under the Code in the "Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987" of Major Group 33 (primary metal industries), Major Group 34 (fabricated metal products), Major Group 35 (non-electric machinery), Major Group 36 (electrical machinery), Major Group 37 (transportation equipment), Major Group 38 (miscellaneous instruments), and Major Group 39 (miscellaneous manufacturing industries), except all of the following:

i. Automobiles and light-duty trucks;

ii. Metal cans;

iii. Flat metal sheets and strips in the form of rolls or coils;

iv. Magnet wire for use in electrical machinery;

v. Metal furniture;

vi. Large appliances;

vii. Exterior of airplanes;

viii. Automobile refinishing;

ix. Customized top coating of automobiles and trucks, if production is less than 35 vehicles per day;

x. Exterior of marine vessels.

19. "Multiple-effect evaporator system" means the multiple-effect evaporators and associated condenser and hotwell used to concentrate the spent cooking liquid that is separated from the pulp.

20. "Neutral sulfite semichemical pulping" means any operation in which pulp is produced from wood by cooking or digesting wood chips in a solution of sodium sulfite and sodium bicarbonate, followed by mechanical defibrating or grinding.

21. "Petroleum liquids" means petroleum, condensate, and any finished or intermediate products manufactured in a petroleum refinery but does not mean Number 2 through Number 6 fuel oils as specified in ASTM D-396-90a (Specification for Fuel Oils), gas turbine fuel oils Numbers 2-GT through 4-GT as specified in ASTM D-2880-90a (Specification for Gas Turbine Fuel Oils), or diesel fuel oils Numbers 2-D and 4-D as specified in ASTM D-975-90 (Specification for Diesel Fuel Oils).

22. "Process source" means the last operation or process which produces an air contaminant resulting from either:

a. The separation of the air contaminants from the process material, or

b. The conversion of constituents of the process materials into air contaminants which is not an air pollution abatement operation.

23. "Process weight" means the total weight of all materials introduced into a process source, including fuels, where these contribute to pollution generated by the process.

24. "Process weight rate" means a rate established pursuant to R18-2-702(E).

25. "Recovery furnace" means the unit, including the direct-contact evaporator for a conventional furnace, used for burning black liquor to recover chemicals consisting primarily of sodium carbonate and sodium sulfide.

26. "Reid vapor pressure" means the absolute vapor pressure of volatile crude oil and volatile non-viscous petroleum liquids, except liquified petroleum gases, as determined by ASTM D-323-90 (Test Method for Vapor Pressure of Petroleum Products) (Reid Method).

27. "Reverbatory smelting furnace" means any vessel in which the smelting of copper sulfide ore concentrates or calcines is performed and in which the heat necessary for smelting is provided primarily by combustion of a fossil fuel.

28. "Rotary lime kiln" means a unit with an included rotary drum which is used to produce a lime product from limestone by calcination.

29. "Slag" means fused and vitrified matter separated during the reduction of a metal from its ore.

30. "Smelt dissolving tank" means a vessel used for dissolving the smelt collected from the kraft mill recovery furnace.

31. "Smelter feed" means all materials utilized in the operation of a copper smelter, including metals or concentrates, fuels and chemical reagents, calculated as the aggregate sulfur content of all fuels and other feed materials whose products of combustion and gaseous by-products are emitted to the atmosphere.

32. "Smelting" means processing techniques for the smelting of a copper sulfide ore concentrate or calcine charge leading to the formation of separate layers of molten slag, molten copper, or copper matte.

33. "Smelting furnace" means any vessel in which the smelting of copper sulfide ore concentrates or calcines is performed and in which the heat necessary for smelting is provided by an electric current, rapid oxidation of a portion of the sulfur contained in the concentrate as it passes through an oxidizing atmosphere, or the combustion of a fossil fuel.

34. "Standard conditions" means a temperature of 293K (68&#176; F or 20&#176; C) and a pressure of 101.3 kilopascals (29.92 in. Hg or 1013.25 mb).

35. "Supplementary control system" (SCS) means a system by which sulfur dioxide emissions are curtailed during periods when meteorological conditions conducive to ground-level concentrations in excess of ambient air quality standards for sulfur dioxide either exist or are anticipated.

36. "Vapor pressure" means the pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance in equilibrium with its liquid or solid form.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-701 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-701 renumbered from R18-2-501 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.702" level="4" title="General Provisions">

General Provisions

A. The provisions of this Article shall only apply to a source that is all of the following:

1. An existing source, as defined in R18-2-101;

2. A point source. For the purposes of this Section, "point source" means a source of air contaminants that has an identifiable plume or emissions point; and

3. A stationary source, as defined in R18-2-101.

B. Except as otherwise provided in this Chapter relating to specific types of sources, the opacity of any plume or effluent, from a source described in subsection (A), as determined by Reference Method 9 in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A, shall not be:

1. Greater than 20% in an area that is nonattainment or maintenance for any particulate matter standard, unless an alternative opacity limit is approved by the Director and the Administrator as provided in subsections (D) and (E), after February 2, 2004;

2. Greater than 40% in an area that is attainment or unclassifiable for each particulate matter standard; and

3. After April 23, 2006, greater than 20% in any area that is attainment or unclassifiable for each particulate matter standard except as provided in subsections (D) and (E).

C. If the presence of uncombined water is the only reason for an exceedance of any visible emissions requirement in this Article, the exceedance shall not constitute a violation of the applicable opacity limit.

D. A person owning or operating a source may petition the Director for an alternative applicable opacity limit. The petition shall be submitted to ADEQ by May 15, 2004.

1. The petition shall contain:

a. Documentation that the affected facility and any associated air pollution control equipment are incapable of being adjusted or operated to meet the applicable opacity standard. This includes:

i. Relevant information on the process operating conditions and the control devices operating conditions during the opacity or stack tests;

ii. A detailed statement or report demonstrating that the source investigated all practicable means of reducing opacity and utilized control technology that is reasonably available considering technical and economic feasibility; and

iii. An explanation why the source cannot meet the present opacity limit although it is in compliance with the applicable particulate mass emission rule.

b. If there is an opacity monitor, any certification and audit reports required by all applicable subparts in 40 CFR 60 and in Appendix B, Performance Specification 1.

c. A verification by a responsible official of the source of the truth, accuracy, and completeness of the petition. This certification shall state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete.

2. If the unit for which the alternative opacity standard is being applied is subject to a stack test, the petition shall also include:

a. Documentation that the source conducted concurrent EPA Reference Method stack testing and visible emissions readings or is utilizing a continuous opacity monitor. The particulate mass emission test results shall clearly demonstrate compliance with the applicable particulate mass emission limitation by being at least 10% below that limit. For multiple units that are normally operated together and whose emissions vent through a single stack, the source shall conduct simultaneous particulate testing of each unit. Each control device shall be in good operating condition and operated consistent with good practices for minimizing emissions.

b. Evidence that the source conducted the stack tests according to R18-2-312, and that they were witnessed by the Director or the Director's agent or representative.

c. Evidence that the affected facility and any associated air pollution control equipment were operated and maintained to the maximum extent practicable to minimize the opacity of emissions during the stack tests.

3. If the source for which the alternative opacity standard is being applied is located in a nonattainment area, the petitioner shall include all the information listed in subsections (D)(1) and (D)(2), and in addition:

a. In subsection (D)(1)(a)(ii), the detailed statement or report shall demonstrate that the alternative opacity limit fulfills the Clean Air Act requirement for reasonably available control technology; and

b. In subsection (D)(2)(b), the stack tests shall be conducted with an opportunity for the Administrator or the Administrator's agent or representative to be present.

E. If the Director receives a petition under subsection (D) the Director shall approve or deny the petition as provided below by October 15, 2004:

1. If the petition is approved under subsection (D)(1) or (D)(2), the Director shall include an alternative opacity limit in a proposed significant permit revision for the source under R18-2-320 and R18-2-330. The proposed alternative opacity limit shall be set at a value that has been demonstrated during, and not extrapolated from, testing, except that an alternative opacity limit under this Section shall not be greater than 40%. For multiple units that are normally operated together and whose emissions vent through a single stack, any new alternative opacity limit shall reflect the opacity level at the common stack exit, and not individual in-duct opacity levels.

2. If the petition is approved under subsection (D)(3), the Director shall include an alternative opacity limit in a proposed revision to the applicable implementation plan, and submit the proposed revision to EPA for review and approval. The proposed alternative opacity limit shall be set at a value that has been demonstrated during, and not extrapolated from, testing, except that the alternative opacity limit shall not be greater than 40%.

3. If the petition is denied, the source shall either comply with the 20% opacity limit or apply for a significant permit revision to incorporate a compliance schedule under R18-2-309(5)(c)(iii) by April 23, 2006.

4. A source does not have to petition for an alternative opacity limit under subsection (D) to enter into a revised compliance schedule under R18-2-309(5)(c).

F. The Director, Administrator, source owner or operator, inspector or other interested party shall determine the process weight rate, as used in this Article, as follows:

1. For continuous or long run, steady-state process sources, the process weight rate is the total process weight for the entire period of continuous operation, or for a typical portion of that period, divided by the number of hours of the period, or portion of hours of that period.

2. For cyclical or batch process sources, the process weight rate is the total process weight for a period which covers a complete operation or an integral number of cycles, divided by the hours of actual process operation during the period.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-702 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-702 renumbered from R18-2-502 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5550, effective February 3, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.703" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Fossil-fuel Fired Steam Generators and General Fuel-burning Equipment">

Standards of Performance for Existing Fossil-fuel Fired Steam Generators and General Fuel-burning Equipment

A. This Section applies to the following:

1. Installations in which fuel is burned for the primary purpose of producing power, steam, hot water, hot air or other liquids, gases or solids and in the course of doing so the products of combustion do not come into direct contact with process materials. When any products or by-products of a manufacturing process are burned for the same purpose or in conjunction with any fuel, the same maximum emission limitation shall apply, except for wood waste burners as regulated under R18-2-704.

2. All fossil-fuel fired steam generating units or general fuel burning equipment which are greater than or equal to 73 megawatts capacity.

B. For purposes of this Section, the heat input shall be the aggregate heat content of all fuels whose products of combustion pass through a stack or other outlet. The heat content of solid fuel shall be determined in accordance with R18-2-311. Compliance tests shall be conducted during operation at the nominal rated capacity of each unit.

C. No person shall cause, allow or permit the emission of particulate matter in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For equipment having a heat input rate of 4200 million Btu per hour or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 1.02Q

0.769

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

Q = the heat input in million Btu per hour.

2. For equipment having a heat input rate greater than 4200 million Btu/hr, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 17.0Q

0.432

where "E" and "Q" have the same meaning as in subsection (C)(1).

D. For reference purposes only, the two equations in subsection (C) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 1. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the heat input rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

E. When low sulfur oil is fired:

1. Existing fuel-burning equipment or steam-power generating installations which commenced construction or a major modification prior to May 30, 1972, shall not emit more than 1.0 pounds sulfur dioxide maximum three-hour average, per million Btu (430 nanograms per joule) heat input.

2. Existing fuel-burning equipment or steam-power generating installations which commenced construction or a major modification after May 30, 1972, shall not emit more than 0.80 pounds of sulfur dioxide maximum three-hour average per million Btu (340 nanograms per joule) heat input.

F. When high sulfur oil is fired, all existing steam-power generating and general fuel-burning installations which are subject to the provisions of this Section shall not emit more than 2.2 pounds of sulfur dioxide maximum three-hour average per million Btu (946 nanograms per joule) heat input.

G. When solid fuel is fired:

1. Existing general fuel-burning equipment and steam-power generating installations which commenced construction or a major modification prior to May 30, 1972, shall not emit more than 1.0 pounds of sulfur dioxide maximum three-hour average, per million Btu (430 nanograms per joule) heat input.

2. Existing general fuel-burning equipment and steam-power generating installations which commenced construction or a major modification after May 30, 1972, shall not emit more than 0.80 pounds, maximum three-hour average, per million Btu (340 nanograms per joule) heat input.

H. Any permit issued for the operation of an existing source, or any renewal or modification of such a permit, shall include a condition prohibiting the use of high sulfur oil by the permittee, unless the applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Director that sufficient quantities of low sulfur oil are not available for use by the source and that it has adequate facilities and contingency plans to ensure that the sulfur dioxide ambient air quality standards set forth in R18-2-202 will not be violated.

1. The terms of the permit may authorize the use of high sulfur oil under such conditions as are justified.

2. In cases where the permittee is authorized to use high sulfur oil, it shall submit to the Department monthly reports detailing its efforts to obtain low sulfur oil.

3. When the conditions justifying the use of high sulfur oil no longer exists, the permit shall be modified accordingly.

4. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as allowing the use of a supplementary control system or other form of dispersion technology.

I. Existing steam-power generating installations which commenced construction or a major modification after May 30, 1972, shall not emit nitrogen oxides in excess of the following amounts:

1. 0.20 pounds of nitrogen oxides, maximum three-hour average, calculated as nitrogen dioxide, per million Btu heat input when gaseous fossil fuel is fired.

2. 0.30 pounds of nitrogen oxides, maximum three-hour average, calculated as nitrogen dioxide, per million Btu heat input when liquid fossil fuel is fired.

3. 0.70 pounds of nitrogen oxides, maximum three-hour average, calculated as nitrogen dioxide, per million Btu heat input when solid fossil fuel is fired.

J. Emission and fuel monitoring systems, where deemed necessary by the Director for sources subject to the provisions of this Section shall, conform to the requirements of R18-2-313.

K. The applicable reference methods given in the Appendices to 40 CFR 60 shall be used to determine compliance with the standards as prescribed in subsections (C) through (G) and (I). All tests shall be run at the heat input calculated under subsection (B).

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-703 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-703 renumbered from R18-2-503 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.704" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Incinerators">

Standards of Performance for Incinerators

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere, from any type of incinerator, smoke, fumes, gases, particulate matter or other gas-borne material which exceeds 20% opacity except during the times specified in subsection (D).

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any incinerator, in excess of the following limits:

1. For multiple chamber incinerators, controlled atmosphere incinerators, fume incinerators, afterburners or other unspecified types of incinerators, emissions shall not exceed 0.1 grain per cubic foot, based on dry flue gas at standard conditions, corrected to 12% carbon dioxide.

2. For wood waste burners other than air curtain destructors, emissions discharged from the stack or burner top opening shall not exceed 0.2 grain per cubic foot, based on dry flue gas at standard conditions, corrected to 12% carbon dioxide.

C. Air curtain destructors shall not be used within 500 feet of the dearest dwelling.

D. Incinerators shall be exempt from the opacity and emission requirements described in subsections (A) and (B) as follows:

1. For multiple chamber incinerators, controlled atmosphere incinerators, fume incinerators, afterburners or other unspecified types of incinerators, such exemption shall be for not more than 30 seconds in any 60-minute period.

2. Wood waste burners shall be exempt both:

a. For a period once each day for the purpose of building a new fire but not to exceed 60 minutes, and

b. For an upset of operations not to exceed three minutes in any 60-minute period.

E. The owner or operator of any incinerator subject to the provisions of this Section shall record the daily charging rates and hours of operation.

F. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A, shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (B) as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis and calculation of excess air, using the integrated sampling technique.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sample volume shall be 0.85 dscm (30.0 dscf) except that smaller sampling times or sample volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-704 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-704 renumbered from R18-2-504 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.705" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Portland Cement Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Portland Cement Plants

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities in portland cement plants: kiln, clinker cooler, raw mill system, finish mill system, raw mill dryer, raw material storage, clinker storage, finished product storage, conveyor transfer points, bagging and bulk loading and unloading systems.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter from any identifiable process source within any existing cement plant subject to the provisions of this Section which exceeds the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. No process source within any portland cement plant shall exceed 20% opacity.

D. No person shall cause, allow or permit discharge into the atmosphere of an amount in excess of 6 pounds of sulfur oxides, calculated as sulfur dioxide, per ton cement kiln feed from cement plants subject to the provisions of this Section.

E. The owner or operator of any portland cement plant subject to the provisions of this Section shall record the daily production rates and the kiln feed rates.

F. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A, except as provided for in R18-2-312 shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (B) as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the minimum sampling time and minimum sample volume for each run except when process variables or other factors justifying otherwise to the satisfaction of the Director, shall be as follows:

a. 60 minutes and 0.85 dscm (30.0 dscf) for the kiln,

b. 60 minutes and 1.15 dscm (40.6 dscf) for the clinker cooler.

3. Total kiln feed rate, except fuels, expressed in metric tons per hour on a dry basis, shall be both:

a. Determined during each testing period by suitable methods; and

b. Confirmed by a material balance over the production system.

4. For each run, particulate matter emissions, expressed in g/metric ton of kiln feed, shall be determined by dividing the emission rate in g/hr by the kiln feed rate. The emission rate shall be determined by the equation, g/hr = Qs x c, where Qs = volumetric flow rate of the total effluent in dscm/hr as determined in accordance with subsection (F)(1)(c), and c = particulate concentration in g/dscm as determined in accordance with subsection (F)(1)(a).

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-705 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-705 renumbered from R18-2-505 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.706" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Nitric Acid Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Nitric Acid Plants

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit discharge from any nitric acid plant producing weak nitric acid, which is either:

1. 30 to 70% in strength by either the increased pressure or atmospheric pressure process, or

2. More than 1.5 kg of total oxides of nitrogen per metric ton (3.0 lbs/ton) of acid produced expressed as nitrogen dioxide.

B. The opacity of any plume subject to the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 10%.

C. A continuous monitoring system for the measurement of nitrogen oxides shall be installed, calibrated, maintained and operated by the owner or operator, in accordance with Section R18-2-313.

D. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standard prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 7 for the concentration of NOx;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 7, the sample site shall be selected according to Method 1 and the sampling point shall be the centroid of the stack or duct or at a point no closer to the walls than 1 m (3.28 ft.). Each run shall consist of at least four grab samples taken at approximately 15-minute intervals. The arithmetic mean of the samples shall constitute the run value. A velocity traverse shall be performed once per run.

3. Acid production rate, expressed in metric tons per hour of 100% nitric acid, shall be both:

a. Determined during each testing period by suitable methods, and

b. Confirmed by a material balance over the production system.

4. For each run, nitrogen oxides, expressed in g/metric ton of 100% nitric acid, shall be determined by dividing the emission rate in g/hr by the acid production rate. The emission rate shall be determined by the equation:

g/hr = Q

s

x c

where Q

s

= volumetric flow rate of the effluent in dscm/hr, as determined in accordance with subsection (D)(1)(c), and c = NOx concentration in g/dscm, as determined in accordance with subsection (D)(1)(a).

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-706 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-706 renumbered from R18-2-506 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.707" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Sulfuric Acid Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Sulfuric Acid Plants

A. Facilities that produce sulfuric acid by the contact process by burning elemental sulfur, alkylation acid, hydrogen sulfide, organic sulfide and mercaptans or acid sludge shall not discharge into the atmosphere:

1. Greater than 2 kg of sulfur dioxide per metric ton (4 lbs/ton) of sulfuric acid produced (calculated as 100% H

2

SO

4

), or

2. Greater than 0.075 kg of sulfuric acid mist per metric ton (0.15 lbs/ton) or sulfuric acid produced (calculated as 100% H

2

SO

4

).

B. This Section shall not apply to metallurgical plants or other facilities where conversion to sulfuric acid is utilized as a means of controlling emissions to the atmosphere of sulfur dioxide or other sulfur compounds.

C. A continuous monitoring system for the measurement of sulfur dioxide shall be installed, calibrated, maintained and operated by the owner or operator, in accordance with R18-2-313.

D. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with standards prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 8 for concentration of SO

2

and acid mist;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. The moisture content can be considered to be zero. For Method 8 the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sample volume shall be 1.15 dscm (40.6 dscf) except that smaller sampling times or sample volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

3. Acid production rate, expressed in metric tons per hour of 100% H

2

SO

4

, shall be both:

a. Determined during each testing period by suitable methods, and

b. Confirmed by a material balance over the production system.

4. Acid mist and sulfur dioxide emissions, expressed in g/metric ton of 100% H

2

SO

4

, shall be determined by dividing the emission rate in g/hr by the acid production rate. The emission rate shall be determined by the equation, g/hr-Q

s

x c, where Q

s

= volumetric flow rate of the effluent in dscm/hr as determined in accordance with subsection (D)(1)(c), and c = acid mist and SO

2

concentrations in g/dscm as determined in accordance with subsection (D)(1)(a).

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-707 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-707 renumbered from R18-2-507 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.708" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Asphalt Concrete Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Asphalt Concrete Plants

A. Fixed asphalt concrete plants and portable asphalt concrete plants shall meet the standards set forth in this Section.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any existing asphalt concrete plant in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emission rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations given above are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

E. Liquid fuel containing greater than 0.9% sulfur by weight shall not be utilized for asphalt concrete plants subject to this Section.

F. Solid fuel containing greater than 0.5% sulfur by weight shall not be utilized for asphalt concrete plants subject to this Section.

G. The test methods and procedures required under this Section are:

1. The referenced methods given in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (B).

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.9 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min) except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

3. Percent sulfur in liquid fuel shall be determined by ASTM method D-129-91 (Test Method for Sulfur in Petroleum Products) (General Bomb Method), and the percent sulfur in solid fuel shall be determined by ASTM method D-3177-89 (Test Method for Total Sulfur in the Analysis Sample of Coal and Coke).

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-708 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-708 renumbered from R18-2-508 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.709" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Petroleum Refineries">

Standards of Performance for Existing Petroleum Refineries

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities in petroleum refineries: fluid catalytic cracking unit catalyst regenerators, fluid catalytic cracking unit incinerator-waste heat boilers, and fuel gas combustion devices.

B. Except as provided in subsection (G), all petroleum refineries subject to this Section are also subject to the provisions of R18-2-901(12).

C. The owner or operator of a petroleum refinery complex subject to this Section shall develop and conduct a leak monitoring program in accordance with Appendix H of the EPA Petroleum Refinery Enforcement Manual (EPA 340/1-80-008), amended as of March 1980 (and no future editions), which is incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State.

D. Upon detection of a leaking component, which has a volatile organic compound concentration exceeding 10,000 ppm when tested in the manner described in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A, the owner shall both:

1. Include the leaking component on a written list of scheduled repairs within 24 hours; and

2. Repair and retest the component within 15 days.

E. Except for safety pressure relief valves, no owner or operator of a petroleum refinery shall install a valve at the end of a pipe or line containing volatile organic compounds unless the pipe or line is sealed with a second valve, a blind flange, a plug, or a cap. The sealing device may be removed only when the line is in use, as when a sample is being taken.

F. No owner or operator of a petroleum refinery shall operate a pipeline valve or pressure relief valve in gaseous volatile organic compound service unless it is marked in some manner that is clearly visible.

G. Existing petroleum refineries of a capacity of 7,000 barrels per day or less shall be exempt from the emissions monitoring requirements of 40 CFR 60.105 provided the owner or operator of such a refinery complies with all of the following:

1. All process gases or fuel gases shall be treated in an afterburner, flare or other combustion device to ensure complete combustion of carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulfide, and unburned hydrocarbons.

2. Ambient concentrations of SO

2

in the vicinity of the refinery shall be calculated using a suitable model approved by the Director and shall not exceed the Class II maximum allowable increases given in R18-2-218.

3. A continuous SO

2

ambient air monitor approved by the Director shall be placed in a location selected by the Director and shall be maintained in accordance with R18-2-215, and SO

2

concentrations shall not exceed Class II maximum allowable increases.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-709 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-709 renumbered from R18-2-509 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.710" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids"> <dwc name="organ contamin" times="1">

Standards of Performance for Existing Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids

A. No person shall place, store or hold in any reservoir, stationary tank or other container having a capacity of 40,000 (151,400 liters) or more gallons any petroleum liquid having a vapor pressure of 1.5 pounds per square inch absolute or greater under actual storage conditions, unless such tank, reservoir or other container is a pressure tank maintaining working pressure sufficient at all times to prevent hydrocarbon vapor or gas loss to the atmosphere, or is equipped with one of the following vapor loss control devices, properly installed, in good working order and in operation:

1. A floating roof consisting of a pontoon type double-deck type roof resting on the surface of the liquid contents and equipped with a closure seal to close the space between the roof eave and tank wall and a vapor balloon or vapor dome, designed in accordance with accepted standards of the petroleum industry. The control equipment shall not be used if the petroleum liquid has a vapor pressure of 12 pounds per square inch absolute or greater under actual storage conditions.

a. All tank gauging and sampling devices shall be gas-tight except when gauging or sampling is taking place.

b. There shall be no visible holes, tears, or other openings in the seal or any seal fabric. Where applicable, all openings except drains shall be equipped with a cover, seal, or lid. The cover, seal, or lid shall be in a closed position at all times, except when the device is in actual use.

c. Automatic bleeder vents shall be closed at all times, except when the roof is floated off or landed on the roof leg supports.

d. Rim vents, if provided, shall be set to open when the roof is being floated off the roof leg supports, or at the manufacturer's recommended setting.

2. Other equipment proven to be of equal efficiency for preventing discharge of hydrocarbon gases and vapors to the atmosphere.

B. Any other petroleum liquid storage tank shall be equipped with a submerged filling device, or acceptable equivalent, for the control of hydrocarbon emissions.

C. All facilities for dock loading of petroleum products, having a vapor pressure of 1.5 pounds per square inch absolute or greater at loading pressure, shall provide for submerged filling or acceptable equivalent for control of hydrocarbon emissions.

D. All pumps and compressors which handle volatile organic compounds shall be equipped with mechanical seals or other equipment of equal efficiency to prevent the release of organic contaminants into the atmosphere.

E. The monitoring of operations required by this Section is as follows:

1. The owner or operator of any petroleum liquid storage vessel to which this Section applies shall for each such storage vessel maintain a file of each type of petroleum liquid stored, of the typical Reid vapor pressure of each type of petroleum liquid stored and of dates of storage. Dates on which the storage vessel is empty shall be shown.

2. The owner or operator of any petroleum liquid storage vessel to which this Section applies shall for such storage vessel determine and record the average monthly storage temperature and true vapor pressure of the petroleum liquid stored at such temperature if either:

a. The petroleum liquid has a true vapor pressure, as stored, greater than 26 mm Hg (0.5 psia) but less than 78 mm Hg (1.5 psia) and is stored in a storage vessel other than one equipped with a floating roof, a vapor recovery system or their equivalents; or

b. The petroleum liquid has a true vapor pressure, as stored, greater than 470 mm Hg (9.1 psia) and is stored in a storage vessel other than one equipped with a vapor recovery system or its equivalent.

3. The average monthly storage temperature shall be an arithmetic average calculated for each calendar month, or portion thereof, if storage is for less than a month, from bulk liquid storage temperatures determined at least once every seven days.

4. The true vapor pressure shall be determined by the procedures in American Petroleum Institute Bulletin 2517, amended as of February 1980 (and no future editions), which is incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State. This procedure is dependent upon determination of the storage temperature and the Reid vapor pressure, which requires sampling of the petroleum liquids in the storage vessels. Unless the Director requires in specific cases that the stored petroleum liquid be sampled, the true vapor pressure may be determined by using the average monthly storage temperature and the typical Reid vapor pressure. For those liquids for which certified specifications limiting the Reid vapor pressure exist, the Reid vapor pressure may be used. For other liquids, supporting analytical data must be made available upon request to the Director when typical Reid vapor pressure is used.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-710 renumbered from R18-2-510 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.711" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Secondary Lead Smelters"> <dwc name="lead" times="2">

Standards of Performance for Existing Secondary Lead Smelters

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any existing secondary lead smelter in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum, allowable emission rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1).

B. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (A) are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

C. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

D. The opacity of emissions subject to the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 20%.

E. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods set forth in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.9 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. Particulate sampling shall be conducted during representative periods of furnace operation including charging and tapping.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-711 renumbered from R18-2-511 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.712" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Secondary Brass and Bronze Ingot Production Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Secondary Brass and Bronze Ingot Production Plants

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any secondary brass or bronze ingot production plant in total quantities in excess of the amount calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1).

B. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (A) are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

C. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

D. The opacity of emissions subject to the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 20%.

E. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods set forth in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 120 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.9 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. Particulate matter sampling shall be conducted during representative periods of charging and refining but not during pouring of the heat.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-712 renumbered from R18-2-512 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.713" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Iron and Steel Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Iron and Steel Plants

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any basic oxygen process furnace in total quantities in excess of the amount calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1).

B. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (A) are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

C. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

D. The opacity of emissions subject to the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 20%.

E. Monitoring of operations under this Section is as follows:

1. The owner or operator of an affected facility shall maintain daily records of the time and duration of each steel production cycle.

2. The owner or operator of any affected facility that uses Venturi scrubber emission control equipment shall install, calibrate, maintain and continuously operate the following monitoring devices:

a. A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the pressure loss through the Venturi constriction of the control equipment. The monitoring device shall be certified by the manufacturer to be accurate within &#177; 250 pascals (&#177;1 inch water).

b. A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the water supply pressure to the control equipment. The monitoring device is to be certified by the manufacturer to be accurate within &#177;5% of the design water supply pressure. The pressure sensor or tap shall be located close to the water discharge point.

3. All monitoring devices required in subsection (F)(2) shall be recalibrated annually and at other times as the Director may require, in accordance with the procedures in Appendix 9.

F. The test methods and procedures required under this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods set forth in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling for each run shall continue for an integral number of cycles with total duration of at least 60 minutes. The sampling rate shall be at least 0.9 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. A cycle shall start at the beginning of either the scrap preheat or the oxygen blow and shall terminate immediately prior to tapping.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-713 renumbered from R18-2-513 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.714" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Sewage Treatment Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Sewage Treatment Plants

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere, from any municipal sewage treatment plant sludge incinerator:

1. Smoke, fumes, gases, particulate matter or other gas-borne material which exceeds 20% opacity for more than 30 seconds in any 60-minute period.

2. Particulate matter in concentrations in excess of 0.1 grain per cubic foot, based on dry flue gas at standard conditions, corrected to 12% carbon dioxide.

B. The owner or operator of any sludge incinerator subject to the provisions of this Section shall monitor operations by doing all of the following:

1. Install, calibrate, maintain and operate a flow measuring device which can be used to determine either the mass or volume of sludge charged to the incinerator. The flow measuring device shall have an accuracy of &#177; 5% over its operating range.

2. Provide access to the sludge charged so that a well-mixed representative grab sample of the sludge can be obtained.

3. Install, calibrate, maintain and operate a weighing device for determining the mass of any municipal solid waste charged to the incinerator when sewage sludge and municipal solid wastes are incinerated together. The weighing device shall have an accuracy of &#177; 5% over its operating range.

C. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods set forth in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for volumetric flow rate; and

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.015 dscm/min (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-714 renumbered from R18-2-514 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.715" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Primary Copper Smelters; Site-specific Requirements"> <dwc name="copper" times="13">

Standards of Performance for Existing Primary Copper Smelters; Site-specific Requirements

A. No owner or operator of a primary copper smelter shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere from any process in total quantities in excess of the amount calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1).

B. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (A) are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

C. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter for that process.

D. The opacity of emissions subject to the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 20%.

E. The reference methods set forth in the Arizona Testing Manual and 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in this Section as follows:

1. Method A1 or Reference Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and associated moisture content;

2. Reference Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

3. Reference Method 2 for volumetric flow rate;

4. Reference Method 3 for gas analysis.

F. Except as provided in a consent decree or a delayed compliance order, the owner or operator of any primary copper smelter shall not discharge or cause the discharge of sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere from any stack required to be monitored by R18-2-715.01(K) in excess of the following:

1. For the copper smelter located near San Manuel, Arizona at latitude 32&#176;36'58"N and longitude 110&#176;37'19"W:

a. Annual average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed 1,742 pounds per hour.

b. The number of three-hour average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed n cumulative occurrences in excess of E, the emission level, shown in the following table in any compliance period as defined in R18-2-715.01(J):

<table> n, E, Cumulative Occurrences (lb/hr) 0 9803 1 8253 2 7619 4 6072 7 5660 12 4922 20 4515 32 4272 48 3945 68 3727 94 3568 130 3419 180 3253 245 3101 330 2958 435 2831 560 2712 710 2615 890 2525 1100 2440 1340 2366 1610 2290 1910 2216 2240 2142 </table>

2. For the copper smelter located near Hayden, Arizona at latitude 33&#176;0'29"N and longitude 110&#176;47'17" W:

a. Annual average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed 6,882 pounds per hour.

b. The number of three-hour average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed n cumulative occurrences in excess of E, the emission level, shown in the following table in any compliance period as defined in R18-2-715.01(J):

<table> n, E, Cumulative Occurrences (lb/hr) 0 24,641 1 22,971 2 21,705 4 20,322 7 19,387 12 18,739 20 17,656 32 16,988 48 16,358 68 15,808 94 15,090 130 14,423 180 13,777 245 13,212 330 12,664 435 12,129 560 11,621 710 11,165 890 10,660 1100 10,205 1340 9,748 1610 9,319 1910 8,953 2240 8,556 </table>

3. For the copper smelter located near Miami, Arizona at latitude 33&#176;24'50"N and longitude 110&#176;51'25"W:

a. Annual average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed 604 pounds per hour.

b. The number of three-hour average emissions, as calculated under R18-2-715.01(C), shall not exceed n cumulative occurrences in excess of E, the emission level, shown in the following table in any compliance period as defined in R18-2-715.01(J):

<table> n, E, Cumulative Occurrences (lb/hr) 0 8678 1 7158 2 5903 4 4575 7 4074 12 3479 20 3017 32 2573 48 2111 68 1703 94 1461 130 1274 180 1145 245 1064 330 1015 435 968 560 933 710 896 890 862 1100 828 1340 797 1610 765 1910 739 2240 712 </table>

G. Except as provided in a consent decree or a delayed compliance order, the owner or operator of the copper smelters listed below shall not discharge or cause the discharge of fugitive sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere in excess of the following:

1. For the copper smelter located near San Manuel, Arizona at latitude 32&#176;36'58"N and longitude 110&#176;37'19"W:

a. Annual average emissions calculated under R18-2-715.01(R) shall not exceed 715 pounds per hour for converter roof fugitive emissions; and

b. The number of three-hour average emissions for converter roof fugitive emissions, calculated under R18-2-715.01(R) shall not exceed n cumulative occurrences in excess of E

f

, the emission level, shown in the following table in any compliance period as defined in R18-2-715.01(R)(8):

<table> n, E f , Cumulative Occurrences (lb/hr) 0 4462 1 4299 2 4222 4 4017 7 3867 12 3460 20 3179 32 3000 48 2827 68 2649 94 2523 130 2361 180 2218 245 2072 330 1923 435 1785 560 1644 710 1517 890 1402 1100 1300 1340 1208 1610 1121 1910 1039 2240 957 </table>

2. For the copper smelter located near Hayden, Arizona at latitude 33&#176;0'29"N and longitude 110&#176;47'17"W, annual average fugitive emissions calculated under R18-2-715.01(T) shall not exceed 295 pounds per hour.

H. In addition to the limits in subsection (F)(3), except as provided in a consent decree or a delayed compliance order, the owner or operator of the copper smelter located near Miami, Arizona at latitude 33&#176;24'50"N and longitude 110&#176;51'25"W shall not discharge or cause the discharge of sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere from combined stack and fugitive emissions units in excess of the 2420 pounds per hour annual average calculated under R18-2-715.01(U).

Historical Note

Section R18-2-715 renumbered from R18-2-515 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 575, effective January 15, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3365, effective July 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-2-715.01. Standards of Performance for Existing Primary Copper Smelters; Compliance and Monitoring

A. The cumulative occurrence and emission limits in R18-2-715(F) apply to the total of sulfur dioxide emissions from the smelter processing units and sulfur dioxide control and removal equipment, but not uncaptured fugitive emissions or emissions due solely to the use of fuel for space heating or steam generation.

B. The owner or operator shall include periods of malfunction, startup, shutdown or other upset conditions when determining compliance with the cumulative occurrence or annual average emission limits in R18-2-715(F), (G), or (H).

C. The owner or operator shall determine compliance with the cumulative occurrence and emission limits contained in R18-2-715(F) as follows:

1. The owner or operator shall calculate annual average emissions at the end of each day by averaging the emissions for all hours measured during the compliance period defined in subsection (J) ending on that day. An annual emissions average in excess of the allowable annual average emission limit is a violation of R18-2-715(F) if either:

a. The annual average is greater than the annual average computed for the preceding day; or

b. The annual averages computed for the five preceding days all exceed the allowable annual average emission limit.

2. The owner or operator shall calculate a three-hour emissions average at the end of each clock hour by averaging the hourly emissions for the preceding three consecutive hours provided each hour was measured according to the requirements in subsection (K).

D. For purposes of this Section, the compliance date, unless otherwise provided in a consent decree or a delayed compliance order, shall be January 14, 1986, except that:

1. The compliance date for the cumulative occurrence and emissions limits in R18-2-715(F)(1) and R18-2-715(G)(1) is January 15, 2002, and

2. The compliance date for the cumulative occurrence and emissions limits in R18-2-715(F)(2), (F)(3), (G)(2), and (H) is the effective date of this rule.

E. For purposes of subsection (C), a three-hour emissions average in excess of an emission level E violates the associated cumulative occurrence limit n listed in R18-2-715(F) if:

1. The number of all three-hour emissions averages calculated during the compliance period in excess of that emission level exceeds the cumulative occurrence limit associated with the emission level; and

2. The average is calculated during the last operating day of the compliance period being reported.

F. A three-hour emissions average only violates the cumulative occurrence limit n of an emission level E on the day containing the last hour in the average.

G. Multiple violations of the same cumulative occurrence limit on the same day and violations of different cumulative occurrence limits on the same day constitute a single violation of R18-2-715(F).

H. The violation of any cumulative occurrence limit and an annual average emission limit on the same day constitutes only a single violation of the requirements of R18-2-715(F).

I. Multiple violations of a cumulative occurrence limit by different three-hour emissions averages containing any common hour constitutes a single violation of R18-2-715(F).

J. To determine compliance with subsections (C) through (I), the compliance period consists of the 365 calendar days immediately preceding the end of each day of the month being reported unless that period includes less than 300 operating days, in which case the number of days preceding the last day of the compliance period shall be increased until the compliance period contains 300 operating days. For purposes of this Section, an operating day is any day on which sulfur-containing feed is introduced into the smelting process.

K. To determine compliance with R18-2-715(F) or (H), the owner or operator of any smelter subject to R18-2-715(F) or (H) shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a measurement system for continuously monitoring sulfur dioxide concentrations and stack gas volumetric flow rates in each stack that could emit five percent or more of the allowable annual average sulfur dioxide emissions from the smelter.

1. The owner or operator shall continuously monitor sulfur dioxide concentrations and stack gas volumetric flow rates in the outlet of each piece of sulfur dioxide control equipment.

2. The owner or operator shall continuously monitor captured fugitive emissions for sulfur dioxide concentrations and stack gas volumetric flow rates and include these emissions as part of total plant emissions when determining compliance with the cumulative occurrence and emission limits in R18-2-715(F) and (H).

3. If the owner or operator demonstrates to the Director that measurement of stack gas volumetric flow in the outlet of any particular piece of sulfur dioxide control equipment would yield inaccurate results once operational or would be technologically infeasible, then the Director may allow measurement of the flow rate at an alternative sampling point.

4. For purposes of this subsection, continuous monitoring means the taking and recording of at least one measurement of sulfur dioxide concentration and stack gas flow rate reading from the effluent of each affected stack, outlet, or other approved measurement location in each 15-minute period. Fifteen-minute periods start at the beginning of each clock hour, and run consecutively. An hour of smelter emissions is considered continuously monitored if the emissions from all monitored stacks, outlets, or other approved measurement locations are measured for at least 45 minutes of any hour according to the requirements of this subsection.

5. The owner or operator shall demonstrate that the continuous monitoring system meets all of the following requirements:

a. The sulfur dioxide continuous emission monitoring system installed and operated under this Section meets the requirements of 40 CFR 60, Appendix B, Performance Specification 6.

b. The sulfur dioxide continuous emission monitoring system installed and operated under this Section meets the quality assurance requirements of 40 CFR 60, Appendix F.

c. The owner or operator shall notify the Director in writing at least 30 days in advance of the start of relative accuracy test audit (RATA) procedures performed on the continuous monitoring system.

d. The Director shall approve the location of all sampling points for monitoring sulfur dioxide concentrations and stack gas volumetric flow rates in writing before installation and operation of measurement instruments.

e. The measurement system installed and used under this subsection is subject to the manufacturer's recommended zero adjustment and calibration procedures at least once per 24-hour operating period unless the manufacturer specifies or recommends calibration at shorter intervals, in which case specifications or recommendations shall be followed. The owner or operator shall make available a record of these procedures that clearly shows instrument readings before and after zero adjustment and calibration.

L. The owner or operator of a smelter subject to this Section shall measure at least 95 percent of the hours during which emissions occurred in any month.

M. Failure of the owner or operator of a smelter subject to this Section to measure any 12 consecutive hours of emissions according to the requirements of subsection (K) or (S) is a violation of this Section.

N. The owner or operator of any smelter subject to this Section shall maintain on hand and ready for immediate installation sufficient spare parts or duplicate systems for the continuous monitoring equipment required by this Section to allow for the replacement within six hours of any monitoring equipment part that fails or malfunctions during operation.

O. To determine total overall emissions, the owner or operator of any smelter subject to this Section shall perform material balances for sulfur according to the procedures prescribed by Appendix 8 of this Chapter.

P. The owner or operator of any smelter subject to this Section shall maintain a record of all average hourly emissions measurements and all calculated average monthly emissions required by this Section. The record of the emissions shall be retained for at least five years following the date of measurement or calculation. The owner or operator shall record the measurement or calculation results as pounds per hour of sulfur dioxide. The owner or operator shall summarize the following data monthly and submit the summary to the Director within 20 days after the end of each month:

1. For all periods described in subsection (C) and (R), the annual average emissions as calculated at the end of each day of the month;

2. The total number of hourly periods during the month in which measurements were not taken and the reason for loss of measurement for each period;

3. The number of three-hour emissions averages that exceeded each of the applicable emissions levels listed in R18-2-715(F) and (G)(1)(b) for the compliance periods ending on each day of the month being reported;

4. The date on which a cumulative occurrence limit listed in R18-2-715(F) or (G)(1)(b) was exceeded if the exceedance occurred during the month being reported; and

5. For all periods described in subsection (T) and (U), the annual average emissions as calculated at the end of the last day of each month.

Q. An owner or operator shall install instrumentation to monitor each point in the smelter facility where a means exists to bypass the sulfur removal equipment, to detect and record all periods that the bypass is in operation. An owner or operator of a copper smelter shall report to the Director, not later than the 15th day of each month, the recorded information required by this Section, including an explanation for the necessity of the use of the bypass.

R. The owner or operator shall determine compliance with the cumulative occurrence and fugitive emission limits contained in R18-2-715(G)(1) as follows:

1. The owner or operator shall calculate annual average emissions at the end of each day by averaging the emissions for all hours measured during the compliance period, as defined in subsection (R)(8), ending on that day. An annual emissions average in excess of the allowable annual average emission limit is a violation of R18-2-715(G)(1)(a) if either:

a. The annual average is greater than the annual average computed for the preceding day; or

b. The annual averages computed for the five preceding days all exceed the allowable annual average emission limit.

2. The owner or operator shall calculate a three-hour emissions average at the end of each clock hour by averaging the hourly emissions for the preceding three consecutive hours provided each hour was measured according to the requirements contained in subsection (S).

3. For purposes of subsection (R)(2), a three-hour emissions average in excess of an emission level E

f

violates the associated cumulative occurrence limit n listed in R18-2-715(G)(1)(b) if:

a. The number of all three-hour emissions averages calculated during the compliance period in excess of that emission level exceeds the cumulative occurrence limit associated with the emission level; and

b. The average is calculated during the last operating day of the compliance period being reported.

4. A three-hour emissions average only violates the cumulative occurrence limit n of an emission level E

f

on the day containing the last hour in the average.

5. Multiple violations of the same cumulative occurrence limit on the same day and violations of different cumulative occurrence limits on the same day constitute a single violation of R18-2-715(G)(1)(b).

6. The violation of any cumulative occurrence limit and an annual average emission limit on the same day constitutes only a single violation of the requirements of R18-2-715(G)(1).

7. Multiple violations of a cumulative occurrence limit by different three-hour emissions averages containing any common hour constitutes a single violation of R18-2-715(G)(1)(b).

8. To determine compliance with subsections (R)(1) through (7), the compliance period consists of the 365 calendar days immediately preceding the end of each day of the month being reported unless that period includes less than 300 operating days, in which case the number of days preceding the last day of the compliance period shall be increased until the compliance period contains 300 operating days. For purposes of this Section, an operating day is any day on which sulfur-containing feed is introduced into the smelting process.

S. To determine compliance with R18-2-715(G)(1), the owner or operator of the smelter subject to R18-2-715(G)(1) shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a measurement system for continuously monitoring sulfur dioxide concentrations of the converter roof fugitive emissions.

1. For purposes of this subsection, continuous monitoring means the taking and recording of at least one measurement of sulfur dioxide concentration from an approved measurement location in each 15-minute period. Fifteen-minute periods start at the beginning of each clock hour, and run consecutively. An hour of smelter emissions is considered continuously monitored if the emissions from all approved measurement locations are measured for at least 45 minutes of any hour according to the requirements of this subsection.

2. The owner or operator of a smelter subject to the requirements of this subsection shall conduct quality assurance procedures on the continuous monitoring system according to the methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix F, except that an annual relative accuracy test audit (RATA) is not required.

T. The emission limit in R18-2-715(G)(2) applies to the total of uncaptured fugitive sulfur dioxide emissions from the smelter processing units and sulfur dioxide control and removal equipment, but not emissions due solely to the use of fuel for space heating or steam generation. The owner or operator shall determine compliance with the emission limit contained in R18-2-715(G)(2) as follows:

1. The owner or operator shall calculate annual average fugitive emissions at the end of the last day of each month by averaging the monthly emissions for the previous 12-month period ending on that day. To determine monthly fugitive emissions, the owner or operator shall perform material balances for sulfur according to the sulfur balance procedures prescribed in Appendix 8 of this Chapter.

2. An annual emissions average in excess of the allowable annual average emission limit violates R18-2-715(G)(2) if the fugitive annual average computed at the end of each month exceeds the allowable annual average emission limit.

U. The emission limit in R18-2-715(H) applies to the total of stack and uncaptured fugitive sulfur dioxide emissions from the smelter processing units and sulfur dioxide control and removal equipment, but not emissions due solely to the use of fuel for space heating or steam generation. The owner or operator shall determine compliance with the emission limit contained in R18-2-715(H) as follows:

1. The owner or operator shall calculate annual average stack emissions at the end of the last day of each month by averaging the emissions for all hours measured during the previous 12-month period ending on that day according to the requirements contained in subsection (K).

2. The owner or operator shall calculate annual average fugitive emissions at the end of the last day of each month by averaging the monthly emissions for the previous 12-month period ending on that day. To determine monthly fugitive emissions, the owner or operator shall perform material balances for sulfur according to the sulfur balance procedures prescribed in Appendix 8 of this Chapter.

3. An annual emissions average in excess of the allowable annual average emission limit violates R18-2-715(H) if the total of the stack and fugitive annual averages computed at the end of each month exceeds the allowable annual average emission limit.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-715.01 renumbered from R18-2-515.01 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 575, effective January 15, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3365, effective July 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-2-715.02. Standards of Performance for Existing Primary Copper Smelters; Fugitive Emissions

A. For purposes of this Section, the compliance date, unless otherwise provided in a consent decree or a delayed compliance order, shall be January 14, 1986.

B. No later than 24 months before the compliance date, the owner or operator of a smelter subject to R18-2-715 shall submit to the Director the results of an evaluation of the fugitive emissions from the smelter. The evaluation results shall contain all of the following information:

1. A measurement or accurate estimate of total fugitive emissions from the smelter during typical operations, including planned start-up and shutdown. The measurement or estimate shall contain the amount of both average short-term (24 hours) and average long-term (monthly) fugitive emissions from the smelter. The evaluation plan shall be approved in advance by the Department and shall specify the method used to determine the fugitive emission amounts, including the conditions determined to be "typical operations" for the smelter.

2. A measurement or accurate estimate of the relative proportion, expressed as a percentage, of total fugitive emissions during typical operations, including planned start-up and shutdown, produced by any of the following smelter processes:

a. Roaster or dryer operation;

b. Calcine or dried concentrate transfer;

c. Reverberatory furnace operations, including feeding, slag return, matte and slag tapping;

d. Matte transfer; and

e. Converter operations.

3. The measurement technique or method of estimation used to fulfill the requirement in subsection (B)(2) shall be approved in advance by the Department.

4. The results of at least a six-month fugitive emission impact analysis conducted during that part of the year when fugitive emissions are expected to have the greatest ambient air quality impact. The study shall utilize sufficient measurements of fugitive emissions, meteorological conditions and ambient sulfur dioxide concentrations to associate fugitive emissions with specific measured ambient concentrations of sulfur dioxide. The study shall describe in detail the techniques used to make the required determinations. The design of the study shall be approved in advance by the Department.

C. On the basis of the results of the evaluation as well as other data and information contained in the records of the Department, the Director shall determine whether fugitive emissions from a particular smelter have the potential to cause or significantly contribute to violations of the ambient sulfur dioxide standards in the vicinity of the smelter. If the Director finds that fugitive emissions from a particular smelter have the potential to cause or significantly contribute to violations of ambient sulfur dioxide standards in the vicinity of a smelter, then the Director shall adopt rules specifying the emission limits and undertake other appropriate measures necessary to maintain ambient sulfur dioxide standards.

D. The requirements of subsection (B) shall not apply to a smelter subject to this Section if the owner or operator of that smelter can demonstrate to the Director both that:

1. Compliance with the applicable cumulative occurrence and emission limits listed in R18-2-715(F) will require the smelter to undergo major modifications to its physical configuration or work practices prior to the compliance date, and

2. That the modification will reduce fugitive emissions to such an extent that such emissions will not cause or significantly contribute to violations of ambient sulfur dioxide standards in the vicinity of the smelter.

E. In order to assess the sufficiency of the cumulative occurrence and emission limits contained in R18-2-715(F) to maintain the ambient air quality standards for sulfur dioxide set forth in R18-2-202, an owner or operator of a smelter subject to this Section shall continue to calibrate, maintain and operate any ambient sulfur dioxide monitoring equipment owned by the smelter owner or operator and in operation within the area of the smelter enclosed by a circle with 10-mile radius as calculated from a center point which shall be the point of the smelter's greatest sulfur dioxide emissions, for a period of at least three years after the compliance date.

1. Such monitors shall be operated and maintained in accordance with 40 CFR 50 and 58 and such other conditions as the Director deems necessary.

2. The location of ambient sulfur dioxide monitors and length of time such monitors remain at a location shall be determined by the Director.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-715.02 renumbered from R18-2-515.02 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.716" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Coal Preparation Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Coal Preparation Plants

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to any of the following affected facilities in coal preparation plants: thermal dryers, pneumatic coal-cleaning equipment, coal processing and conveying equipment including breakers and crushers, coal storage systems, and coal transfer and loading systems. For purposes of this Section, the definitions contained in 40 CFR 60.251 are adopted by reference and incorporated herein.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any existing coal preparation plant in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (B) are plotted in Figure 2, Appendix 11. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

E. Fugitive emissions from coal preparation plants shall be controlled in accordance with R18-2-604 through R18-2-607.

F. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in the 40 CFR 60, Appendix A are used to determine compliance with standards prescribed in subsection (B) as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sample volume is 0.85 dscm (30 dscf) except that short sampling times or smaller volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. Sampling shall not be started until 30 minutes after start-up and shall be terminated before shutdown procedures commence. The owner or operator of the affected facility shall eliminate cyclonic flow during performance tests in a manner acceptable to the Director.

3. The owner or operator shall construct the facility so that particulate emissions from thermal dryers or pneumatic coal cleaning equipment can be accurately determined by applicable test methods and procedures under subsection (F)(1).

Historical Note

Section R18-2-716 renumbered from R18-2-516 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.717" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Steel Plants: Existing Electric Arc Furnaces (EAF)">

Standards of Performance for Steel Plants: Existing Electric Arc Furnaces (EAF)

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from electric arc furnaces or dust-handling equipment which are affected facilities in any steel plant in total quantities in excess of the amount calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1).

B. For reference purposes only, the equations given above are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

C. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

D. An opacity standard of 40% shall not be exceeded by existing steel plant electric arc furnaces and their appurtenances for more than an aggregate of three minutes in any 45-minute period.

E. A continuous monitoring system for the measurement of the opacity of emissions discharged into the atmosphere from the control device shall be installed, calibrated, maintained, and operated by the owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Section.

F. The test methods and procedures required under this Section are as follows:

1. Reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed under subsection (A) as follows:

a. Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and associated moisture content.

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity and volumetric flow rate;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least four hours. When a single EAF is sampled, the sampling time for each run shall also include an integral number of heats. Shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. The minimum sample volume shall be 4.5 dscm (160 dscf).

Historical Note

Section R18-2-717 renumbered from R18-2-517 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.718" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Kraft Pulp Mills">

Standards of Performance for Existing Kraft Pulp Mills

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities in kraft pulp mills: digester system, brown stock washer system, multiple-effect evaporator system, black liquor oxidation system, recovery furnace, smelt dissolving tank, lime kiln, and condensate stripper system. In pulp mills in which kraft pulping is combined with neutral sulfite semichemical pulping, the provisions of this Section are applicable when any portion of the material charged to an affected facility is produced by the kraft pulping operation.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any kraft pulp mill process source in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations set forth in subsection (B) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

E. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of total reduced sulfur measured as hydrogen sulfide (H

2

S) in excess of the following amounts:

1. From any recovery furnace, any gases which contain H

2

S in excess of 20 ppm by volume corrected to 8% oxygen.

2. From any lime kiln, any gases which contain H

2

S in excess of 40 ppm by volume corrected to 10% oxygen.

F. Any owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Section shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate the following continuous monitoring systems:

1. A continuous monitoring system to monitor and record the opacity of the gases discharged into the atmosphere from any recovery furnace. The span of this system shall be set at 70% opacity.

2. A continuous monitoring system, to monitor and record the concentration of H

2

S emissions discharged into the atmosphere from any recovery furnace or lime kiln. The span shall be set at H

2

S concentration of 50 ppm.

3. A continuous monitoring system to monitor and record the percent of oxygen by volume in the gases discharged from any recovery furnace or lime kiln. The continuous monitoring system shall be located downstream of the control device for the recovery furnace or lime kiln, and all measurements shall be made on a dry basis. The span of this system shall be set at 20% oxygen.

4. For any lime kiln or smelter dissolving tank using a scrubber emission control device:

a. A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the pressure loss of the gas stream through the control equipment. The monitoring device shall be certified to the manufacturer to be accurate within a gage pressure of &#177;500 pascals (ca. &#177;2 inches of water gage pressure).

b. A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the scrubbing liquid supply pressure to the control equipment. The monitoring device shall be certified by the manufacturer to be accurate within &#177;15% of design scrubbing liquid supply pressure. The pressure sensor or tap shall be located close to the scrubber liquid discharge point, although the Director may be consulted for approval of alternative locations.

G. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. Reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A except as provided under R18-2-312 shall be used to determine compliance with this Section as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 3 for gas analysis;

d. Method 9 for visible emissions;

e. Method 11 for total reduced sulfur as hydrogen sulfide.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.85 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. Water shall be used as the cleanup solvent instead of acetone in the sample recovery procedure outlined in Method 5. For determination of compliance with this Section, particulate measurements shall at least be made on the recovery furnace, smelt dissolving tank, and lime kiln. All concentrations of particulate matter from the lime kiln and recovery furnace shall be corrected to 10 volume percent oxygen and 8 volume percent oxygen, respectively, when the oxygen concentrations exceed these values.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-718 renumbered from R18-2-518 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.719" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Stationary Rotating Machinery">

Standards of Performance for Existing Stationary Rotating Machinery

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities: all stationary gas turbines, oil-fired turbines, or internal combustion engines. This Section also applies to an installation operated for the purpose of producing electric or mechanical power with a resulting discharge of sulfur dioxide in the installation's effluent gases.

B. For purposes of this Section, the heat input shall be the aggregate heat content of all fuels whose products of combustion pass through a stack or other outlet. Compliance tests shall be conducted during operation at the normal rated capacity of each unit. The total heat input of all operating fuel-burning units on a plant or premises shall be used for determining the maximum allowable amount of particulate matter which may be emitted.

C. No person shall cause, allow or permit the emission of particulate matter, caused by combustion of fuel, from any stationary rotating machinery in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For equipment having a heat input rate of 4200 million Btu per hour or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 1.02Q

0.769

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

Q = the heat input in million Btu per hour.

2. For equipment having a heat input rate greater than 4200 million Btu/hr., the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 17.0Q

0.432

where "E" and "Q" have the same meaning as in subsection (C)(1).

D. For reference purposes only, the two equations in subsection (C) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 1. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the heat input rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

E. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any stationary rotating machinery, smoke for any period greater than 10 consecutive seconds which exceeds 40% opacity. Visible emissions when starting cold equipment shall be exempt from this requirement for the first 10 minutes.

F. When low sulfur oil is fires, stationary rotating machinery installations shall burn fuel which limits the emission of sulfur dioxide to 1.0 pound per million Btu heat input.

G. When high sulfur oil is fired, stationary rotating machinery installations shall not emit more than 2.2 pounds of sulfur dioxide per million Btu heat input.

H. Any permit issued for the operation of an existing source, or any renewal or modification of such a permit, shall include a condition prohibiting the use of high sulfur oil by the permittee. This condition may not be included in the permit if the applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Director both that sufficient quantities of low sulfur oil are not available for use by the source and that it has adequate facilities and contingency plans to ensure that the sulfur dioxide ambient air quality standards set forth in R18-2-202 will not be violated.

1. The terms of the permit may authorize the use of high sulfur oil under such conditions as are justified.

2. In cases where the permittee is authorized to use high sulfur oil, it shall submit to the Department monthly reports detailing its efforts to obtain low sulfur oil.

3. When the conditions justifying the use of high sulfur oil no longer exist, the permit shall be modified accordingly.

4. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as allowing the use of a supplementary control system or other form of dispersion technology.

I. The owner or operator of any stationary rotating machinery subject to the provisions of this Section shall record daily the sulfur content and lower heating value of the fuel being fired in the machine.

J. The owner or operator of any stationary rotating machinery subject to the provisions of this Section shall report to the Director any daily period during which the sulfur content of the fuel being fired in the machine exceeds 0.8%.

K. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. To determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsections (C) through (H), the following reference methods shall be used:

a. Reference Method 20 in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A for the concentration of sulfur dioxide and oxygen.

b. ASTM Method D-129-91 (Test Method for Sulfur in Petroleum Products) (General Bomb Method) for the sulfur content of liquid fuels.

c. ASTM Method D-1072-90 (Test Method for Total Sulfur in Fuel Gases for the sulfur content of gaseous fuels.

2. To determine compliance with the standards prescribed in subsection (J), the following reference methods in the Arizona Testing Manual shall be used:

a. ASTM Method D-129-91 (Test Method for Sulfur in Petroleum Products) (General Bomb Method) for the sulfur content of liquid fuels.

b. ASTM Method D-1072-90 (Test Method for Total Sulfur in Fuel Gases) for the sulfur content of gaseous fuels.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-719 renumbered from R18-2-519 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.720" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Lime Manufacturing Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Lime Manufacturing Plants

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities used in the manufacture of lime: rotary lime kilns, vertical lime kilns, lime hydrators, and limestone crushing facilities. This Section is also applicable to limestone crushing equipment which exists apart from other lime manufacturing facilities.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any lime manufacturing or limestone crushing facility in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (B) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

E. Fugitive emissions from lime plants shall be controlled in accordance with R18-2-604 through R18-2-607.

F. The owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Section shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a continuous monitoring system, except as provided in subsection (G), to monitor and record the opacity of the gases discharged into the atmosphere from any rotary lime kiln. The span of this system shall be set at 70% opacity.

G. The owner or operator of any rotary lime kiln using a wet scrubbing emission control device subject to the provisions of this Section shall not be required to monitor the opacity of the gases discharged as required in subsection (F).

H. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with this Section as follows:

a. Method 5 for the measurement of particulate matter;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis;

e. Method 4 for stack gas moisture;

f. Method 9 for visible emissions.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.85 dscm/hr (0.53 dscf/min), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

3. Because of the high moisture content of the exhaust gases from the hydrators, in the range of 40 to 85% by volume, the Method 5 sample train may be modified to include a calibrated orifice immediately following the sample nozzle when testing lime hydrators. In this configuration, the sampling rate necessary for maintaining isokinetic conditions can be directly related to exhaust gas velocity without a correction for moisture content.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-720 renumbered from R18-2-520 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.721" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Nonferrous Metals Industry Sources">

Standards of Performance for Existing Nonferrous Metals Industry Sources

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities: mines, mills, concentrators, crushers, screens, material handling facilities, fine ore storage, dryers, roasters, and loaders.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any process source subject to the provisions of this Section in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (B) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

E. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be discharged into the atmosphere from any dryer or roaster the operating temperature of which exceeds 700&#176; F, reduced sulfur in excess of 10% of the sulfur entering the process as feed. Reduced sulfur includes sulfur equivalent from all sulfur emissions including sulfur dioxide, sulfur trioxide, and sulfuric acid.

F. The owner or operator of any mining property subject to the provisions of this Section shall record the daily process rates and hours of operation of all material handling facilities.

G. A continuous monitoring system for measuring sulfur dioxide emissions shall be installed, calibrated, maintained and operated by the owner or operator where dryers or roasters are not expected to achieve compliance with the standard under subsection (E).

H. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standard prescribed in this Section as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis and calculation of excess air, using the integrated sample technique;

e. Method 6 for concentration of SO

2

.

2. For Method 5, Method 1 shall be used to select the sampling site and the number of traverse sampling points. The sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sampling volume shall be 0.85 dscm (30 dscf), except that smaller sampling times or volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. The probe and filter holder heating systems in the sampling train shall be set to provide a gas temperature no greater than 160&#176;C. (320&#176;F.).

3. For Method 6, the sampling site shall be the same as that selected for Method 5. The sampling point in the duct shall be at the centroid of the cross section or at a point no closer to the walls than 1 m (3.28 ft.). For Method 6, the sample shall be extracted at a rate proportional to the gas velocity at the sampling point.

4. For Method 6, the minimum sampling time shall be 20 minutes and the minimum sampling volume 0.02 dscm (0.71 dscf) for each sample. The arithmetic mean of two samples shall constitute one run. Samples shall be taken at approximately 30-minute intervals.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-721 renumbered from R18-2-521 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.722" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Gravel or Crushed Stone Processing Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Gravel or Crushed Stone Processing Plants

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities: primary rock crushers, secondary rock crushers, tertiary rock crushers, screens, conveyors and conveyor transfer points, stackers, reclaimers, and all gravel or crushed stone processing plants and rock storage piles.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere except as fugitive emissions in any one hour from any gravel or crushed stone processing plant in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (B)(1).

C. For reference purposes only, the equations in subsection (B) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. Spray bar pollution controls shall be utilized in accordance with "EPA Control of Air Emissions From Process Operations In The Rock Crushing Industry" (EPA 340/1-79-002), "Wet Suppression System" (pages 15-34, amended as of January 1979 (and no future amendments or editions)), as incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State, with placement of spray bars and nozzles as required by the Director to minimize air pollution.

E. Fugitive emissions from gravel or crushed stone processing plants shall be controlled in accordance with R18-2-604 through R18-2-607.

F. The owner or operator of any affected facility subject to the provisions of this Section shall install, calibrate, maintain, and operate monitoring devices which can be used to determine daily the process weight of gravel or crushed stone produced. The weighing devices shall have an accuracy of &#177; 5% over their operating range.

G. The owner or operator of any affected facility shall maintain a record of daily production rates of gravel or crushed stone produced.

H. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in this Section as follows:

a. Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sample volume is 0.85 dscm (30 dscf), except that shorter sampling times or smaller volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. Sampling shall not be started until 30 minutes after start-up and shall be terminated before shutdown procedures commence. The owner or operator of the affected facility shall eliminate cyclonic flow during performance tests in a manner acceptable to the Director.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-722 renumbered from R18-2-522 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.723" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Concrete Batch Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Concrete Batch Plants

Fugitive dust emitted from concrete batch plants shall be controlled in accordance with R18-2-604 through R18-2-607.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-723 renumbered from R18-2-523 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.724" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Fossil-fuel Fired Industrial and Commercial Equipment">

Standards of Performance for Fossil-fuel Fired Industrial and Commercial Equipment

A. This Section applies to industrial and commercial installations which are less than 73 megawatts capacity (250 million British thermal units per hour), but in the aggregate on any premises are rated at greater than 500,000 British thermal units per hour (0.146 megawatts), and in which fuel is burned for the primary purpose of producing steam, hot water, hot air or other liquids, gases or solids and in the course of doing so the products of combustion do not come into direct contact with process materials. When any products or by-products of a manufacturing process are burned for the same purpose or in conjunction with any fuel, the same maximum emission limitations shall apply.

B. For purposes of this Section, the heat input shall be the aggregate heat content of all fuels whose products of combustion pass through a stack or other outlet. The heat content of solid fuel shall be determined in accordance with R18-2-311. Compliance tests shall be conducted during operation at the nominal rated capacity of each unit. The total heat input of all fuel-burning units on a plant or premises shall be used for determining the maximum allowable amount of particulate matter which may be emitted.

C. No person shall cause, allow or permit the emission of particulate matter, caused by combustion of fuel, from any fuel-burning operation in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For equipment having a heat input rate of 4200 million Btu per hour or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 1.02Q

0.769

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

Q = the heat input in million Btu per hour.

2. For equipment having a heat input rate greater than 4200 million Btu/hr, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 17.0Q

0.432

where "E" and "Q" have the same meanings as in subsection (C)(1).

D. For reference purposes only, the two equations in subsection (C) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 1. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the heat input rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

E. Fossil-fuel fired industrial and commercial equipment installations shall not emit more than 1.0 pounds of sulfur dioxide per million Btu heat input when low sulfur oil is fired.

F. Fossil-fuel fired industrial and commercial equipment installations shall not emit more than 2.2 pounds of sulfur dioxide per million Btu heat input when high sulfur oil is fired.

G. Any permit issued for the operation of an existing source, or any renewal or modification of such a permit, shall include a condition prohibiting the use of high sulfur oil by the permittee. This condition may be omitted from the permit if the applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Director both that sufficient quantities of low sulfur oil are not available for use by the source and that it has adequate facilities and contingency plans to ensure that the sulfur dioxide ambient air quality standards set forth in R18-2-202 will not be violated.

1. The terms of the permit may authorize the use of high sulfur oil under such conditions as are justified.

2. In cases where the permittee is authorized to use high sulfur oil, it shall submit to the Department monthly reports detailing its efforts to obtain low sulfur oil.

3. When the conditions justifying the use of high sulfur oil no longer exist, the permit shall be modified accordingly.

4. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as allowing the use of a supplementary control system or other form of dispersion technology.

H. When coal is fired, fossil-fuel fired industrial and commercial equipment installations shall not emit more than 1.0 pounds of sulfur dioxide per million Btu heat input.

I. The owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Section shall install, calibrate, maintain and operate a continuous monitoring system for measurement of the opacity of emissions discharged into the atmosphere from the control device.

J. For the purpose of reports required under excess emissions reporting required by R18-2-310.01, the owner or operator shall report all six-minute periods in which the opacity of any plume or effluent exceeds 15%.

K. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards as prescribed in this Section.

a. Method 1 for selection of sampling site and sample traverses;

b. Method 3 for gas analysis to be used when applying Reference Methods 5 and 6;

c. Method 5 for concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

d. Method 6 for concentration of SO

2

.

2. For Method 5, Method 1 shall be used to select the sampling site and the number of traverse sampling points. The sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sampling volume shall be 0.85 dscm (30 dscf), except that smaller sampling times or volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director. The probe and filter holder heating systems in the sampling train shall be set to provide a gas temperature no greater than 160&#176;C. (320&#176;F.).

3. For Method 6, the sampling site shall be the same as that selected for Method 5. The sampling point in the duct shall be at the centroid of the cross section or at a point no closer to the walls than 1 m (3.28 ft). For Method 6, the sample shall be extracted at a rate proportional to the gas velocity at the sampling point.

4. For Method 6, the minimum sampling time shall be 20 minutes and the minimum sampling volume 0.02 dscm (0.71 dscf) for each sample. The arithmetic mean of two samples shall constitute one run. Samples shall be taken at approximately 30-minute intervals.

5. Gross calorific value shall be determined in accordance with the applicable ASTM methods: D-2015-91 (Test for Gross Calorific Value of Solid Fuel by the Adiabatic Bomb Calorimeter) for solid fuels; D-240-87 (Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Liquid Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter) for liquid fuels; and D-1826-88 (Test Method for Calorific Value of Gases in Natural Gas Range by Continuous Recording Calorimeter) for gaseous fuels. The rate of fuels burned during each testing period shall be determined by suitable methods and shall be confirmed by a material balance over the fossil-fuel fired system.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-724 renumbered from R18-2-524 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1164, effective February 15, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.725" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Dry Cleaning Plants"> <dwc name="chlorin" times="1"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="2"><dwc name="toluen" times="1">

Standards of Performance for Existing Dry Cleaning Plants

A. No person shall conduct any dry cleaning operation using chlorinated synthetic solvents without minimizing organic solvent emissions by good modern practices including but not limited to the use of an adequately sized and properly maintained activated carbon absorber or other equally effective control device.

B. No person shall operate any dry cleaning establishment using petroleum solvents other than non-photochemically reactive solvents without reducing solvent emissions by at least 90%. For purposes of this subsection, a photochemically reactive solvent shall be any solvent with an aggregate of more than 20% of its total volume composed of the chemical compounds classified in subsections (B)(1) through (3), or which exceeds any of the following percentage composition limitations, referred to the total volume of solvent:

1. A combination of the following types of compounds having an olefinic or cyclo-olefinic type of unsaturation -- hydrocarbons, alcohols, aldehydes, esters, ethers, or ketones: 5%.

2. A combination of aromatic compounds with 8 or more carbon atoms to the molecule except ethylbenzene: 8%.

3. A combination of ethylbenzene, ketones having branched hydrocarbon structures, trichlorethylene or toluene: 20%.

C. Where a stack, vent or other outlet is at such a level that fumes, gas mist, odor, smoke, vapor or any combination thereof constituting air pollution is discharged to adjoining property, the Director may require the installation of abatement equipment or the alteration of such stack, vent, or other outlet by the owner or operator thereof to a degree that will adequately dilute, reduce or eliminate the discharge of air pollution to the adjoining property.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-725 renumbered from R18-2-525 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.726" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Sandblasting Operations">

Standards of Performance for Sandblasting Operations

No person shall cause or permit sandblasting or other abrasive blasting without minimizing dust emissions to the atmosphere through the use of good modern practices. Examples of good modern practices include wet blasting and the use of effective enclosures with necessary dust collecting equipment.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-726 renumbered from R18-2-526 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.727" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Spray Painting Operations"> <dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="2"><dwc name="toluen" times="1">

Standards of Performance for Spray Painting Operations

A. No person shall conduct any spray paint operation without minimizing organic solvent emissions. Such operations other than architectural coating and spot painting, shall be conducted in an enclosed area equipped with controls containing no less than 96% of the overspray.

B. No person shall either:

1. Employ, apply, evaporate or dry any architectural coating containing photochemically reactive solvents for industrial or commercial purposes; or

2. Thin or dilute any architectural coating with a photochemically reactive solvent.

C. For purposes of subsection (B), a photochemically reactive solvent shall be any solvent with an aggregate of more than 20% of its total volume composed of the chemical compounds classified in subsections (1) through (3), or which exceeds any of the following percentage composition limitations, referred to the total volume of solvent:

1. A combination of the following types of compounds having an olefinic or cyclo-olefinic type of unsaturation -- hydrocarbons, alcohols, aldehydes, esters, ethers, or ketones: 5%.

2. A combination of aromatic compounds with 8 or more carbon atoms to the molecule except ethylbenzene: 8%.

3. A combination of ethylbenzene, ketones having branched hydrocarbon structures, trichlorethylene or toluene: 20%.

D. Whenever any organic solvent or any constituent of an organic solvent may be classified from its chemical structure into more than one of the groups or organic compounds described in subsection (C)(1) through (3), it shall be considered to be a member of the group having the least allowable percent of the total volume of solvents.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-727 renumbered from R18-2-527 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.728" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Ammonium Sulfide Manufacturing Plants">

Standards of Performance for Existing Ammonium Sulfide Manufacturing Plants

A. The provisions of this Section are applicable to the following affected facilities in ammonium sulfide manufacturing plants: sulfide unloading facilities, reactor-absorbers, bubble cap scrubbers, and fume incinerators.

B. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere, from any type of incinerator or other outlet smoke, fumes, gases, particulate matter or other gas-borne material, the opacity of which exceeds 20%.

C. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any emission point from any incinerator, or to pass a convenient measuring point near such emission point, particulate matter of concentrations in excess of 0.1 grain per cubic foot, based on dry flue gas at standard conditions, corrected to 12% carbon dioxide.

D. No person shall allow hydrogen sulfide to be emitted from any location in such manner and amount that the concentration of such emissions into the ambient air at any occupied place beyond the premises on which the source is located exceeds 0.03 parts per million by volume for any averaging period of 30 minutes or more.

E. Where a stack, vent or other outlet is at such a level that fumes, gas mist, odor, smoke, vapor or any combination thereof constituting air pollution are discharged to adjoining property, the Director may require the installation of abatement equipment or the alteration of such stack, vent, or other outlet by the owner or operator thereof to a degree that will adequately dilute, reduce or eliminate the discharge of air pollution to adjoining property.

F. The owner or operator of any ammonium sulfide tailgas incinerator subject to the provisions of this Section shall do both of the following:

1. Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a flow measuring device which can be used to determine either the mass or volume of tailgas charged to the incinerator. The flow measuring device shall have an accuracy of &#177; 5% over its operating range.

2. Provide access to the tailgas charged so that a well-mixed representative grab sample can be obtained.

G. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with the standards prescribed in this Section as follows:

a. Method 5 for the concentration of particulate matter and the associated moisture content;

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverse;

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate;

d. Method 3 for gas analysis and calculation of excess air, using the integrated sample technique;

e. Method 11 shall be used to determine the concentration of H

2

S and Method 6 shall be used to determine the concentration of SO

2

.

2. For Method 5, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the minimum sample volume shall be 0.85 dscm (30.0 dscf) except that shorter sampling times and smaller sample volumes, when necessitated by process variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

3. Particulate matter emissions, expressed in g/dscm, shall be corrected to 12% CO

2

by using the following formula:

C

12

= 12c

%CO

2

where:

C

12

= the concentration of particulate matter corrected to 12% CO

2

,

c = the concentration of particulate matter as measured by Method 5, and

%CO

2

= the percentage of CO

2

as measured by Method 3, or, when applicable, the adjusted outlet CO

2

percentage.

4. If Method 11 is used, the gases sampled shall be introduced into the sampling train at approximately atmospheric pressure. Where fuel gas lines are operating at pressures substantially above atmosphere, this may be accomplished with a flow control valve. If the line pressure is high enough to operate the sampling train without a vacuum pump, the pump may be eliminated from the sampling train. The sample shall be drawn from a point near the centroid of the fuel gas line. The minimum sampling time shall be 10 minutes and the minimum sampling volume 0.01 dscm (0.35 dscf) for each sample. The arithmetic average of two samples of equal sampling time shall constitute one run. Samples shall be taken at approximately one-hour intervals. For most fuel gases, sample times exceeding 20 minutes may result in depletion of the collecting solution, although fuel gases containing low concentrations of hydrogen sulfide may necessitate sampling for longer periods of time.

5. If Method 5 is used, Method 1 shall be used for velocity traverses and Method 2 for determining velocity and volumetric flow rate. The sampling site for determining CO

2

concentration by Method 3 shall be the same as for determining volumetric flow rate by Method 2. The sampling point in the duct for determining SO

2

concentration by Method 3 shall be at the centroid of the cross section if the cross sectional area is less than 5 m

2

(54 ft

2

) or at a point no closer to the walls than 1 m (3.28 feet) if the cross sectional area is 5 m

2

or more and the centroid is more than 1 meter from the wall. The sample shall be extracted at a rate proportional to the gas velocity at the sampling point. The minimum sampling time shall be 10 minutes and the minimum sampling volume 0.01 dscm (0.36 dscf) for each sample. The arithmetic average of two samples of equal sampling time shall constitute one run. Samples shall be taken at approximately one-hour intervals.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-728 renumbered from R18-2-528 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.729" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Cotton Gins">

Standards of Performance for Cotton Gins

A. Fugitive dust, lint, bolls, cotton seed or other material emitted from a cotton gin or lying loose in a yard shall be collected and disposed of in an efficient manner or shall be treated in accordance with R18-2-604 through R18-2-607.

B. An opacity of 40% or less shall exempt the source from mass emissions testing. In the event that the cotton gin does not comply with the 40% opacity standard, the owner or operator may request the permission of the Director to perform a mass emissions test observed by a representative of the Department. Successful completion of this test will result in an adjustment to the simultaneous opacity standard in accordance with Section R18-2-702(D).

C. No person shall cause, allow, or permit the discharge of particulate matter into the atmosphere in any one hour from any cotton gin in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

1. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

2. For process sources having a process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (C)(1).

D. The test methods and procedures required by this Section are as follows:

1. The reference methods in the Arizona Testing Manual and 40 CFR 60, Appendix A shall be used to determine compliance with this Section as follows:

a. Method A-2 for the measurement of particulate matter,

b. Method 1 for sample and velocity traverses,

c. Method 2 for velocity and volumetric flow rate,

d. Method 3 for gas analysis,

e. Method 9 for visible emissions.

2. For Method A-2, the sampling time for each run shall be at least 60 minutes and the sampling rate shall be at least 0.85 dry standard cubic meters per hour (0.53 dry standard cubic feet per minute), except that shorter sampling times, when necessitated by progress variables or other factors, may be approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Section R18-2-729 renumbered from R18-2-529 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.730" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Unclassified Sources"> <dwc name="cyanid" times="3">

Standards of Performance for Unclassified Sources

A. No existing source which is not otherwise subject to standards of performance under this Article or Article 9 or 11 shall cause or permit the emission of pollutants at rates greater than the following:

1. For particulate matter discharged into the atmosphere in any one hour from any unclassified process source in total quantities in excess of the amounts calculated by one of the following equations:

a. For process sources having a process weight rate of 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour) or less, the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 4.10P

0.67

where:

E = the maximum allowable particulate emissions rate in pounds-mass per hour.

P = the process weight rate in tons-mass per hour.

b. For process weight rate greater than 60,000 pounds per hour (30 tons per hour), the maximum allowable emissions shall be determined by the following equation:

E = 55.0P

0.11

-40

where "E" and "P" are defined as indicated in subsection (A)(1)(a).

2. Sulfur dioxide -- 600 parts per million.

3. Nitrogen oxides expressed as NO

2

-- 500 parts per million.

B. For purposes of this Section, the total process weight from all similar units employing a similar type process shall be used in determining the maximum allowable emission of particulate matter.

C. For reference purposes only, the two equations in subsection (A)(1) are plotted in Appendix 11, Figure 2. The emission values obtained from the graph are approximately correct for the process weight rates shown. However, the actual values shall be calculated from the applicable equations and rounded off to two decimal places.

D. No person shall emit gaseous or odorous materials from equipment, operations or premises under his control in such quantities or concentrations as to cause air pollution.

E. No person shall operate or use any machine, equipment, or other contrivance for the treatment or processing of animal or vegetable matter, separately or in combination, unless all gaseous vapors and gas entrained effluents from such operations, equipment, or contrivance have been either:

1. Incinerated to destruction, as indicated by a temperature measuring device, at not less than 1,200 degrees Fahrenheit if constructed or reconstructed prior to January 1, 1989, or 1,600 degrees Fahrenheit with a minimum residence time of 0.5 seconds if constructed or reconstructed thereafter; or

2. Passed through such other device which is designed, installed and maintained to prevent the emission of odors or other air contaminants and which is approved by the Director.

F. Materials including solvents or other volatile compounds, paints, acids, alkalies, pesticides, fertilizers and manure shall be processed, stored, used and transported in such a manner and by such means that they will not evaporate, leak, escape or be otherwise discharged into the ambient air so as to cause or contribute to air pollution. Where means are available to reduce effectively the contribution to air pollution from evaporation, leakage or discharge, the installation and use of such control methods, devices, or equipment shall be mandatory.

G. Where a stack, vent or other outlet is at such a level that fumes, gas mist, odor, smoke, vapor or any combination thereof constituting air pollution is discharged to adjoining property, the Director may require the installation of abatement equipment or the alteration of such stack, vent, or other outlet by the owner or operator thereof to a degree that will adequately dilute, reduce or eliminate the discharge of air pollution to adjoining property.

H. No person shall allow hydrogen sulfide to be emitted from any location in such manner and amount that the concentration of such emissions into the ambient air at any occupied place beyond the premises on which the source is located exceeds 0.03 parts per million by volume for any averaging period of 30 minutes or more.

I. No person shall cause, allow or permit discharge from any stationary source carbon monoxide emissions without the use of complete secondary combustion of waste gases generated by any process source.

J. No person shall allow hydrogen cyanide to be emitted from any location in such manner and amount that the concentration of such emissions into the ambient air at any occupied place beyond the premises on which the source is located exceeds 0.3 parts per million by volume for any averaging period of eight hours.

K. No person shall allow sodium cyanide dust or dust from any other solid cyanide to be emitted from any location in such manner and amount that the concentration of such emissions into the ambient air at any occupied place beyond the premises on which the source is located exceeds 140 micrograms per cubic meter for any averaging period of eight hours.

L. No owner or operator of a facility engaged in the surface coating of miscellaneous metal parts and products may operate a coating application system subject to this Section that emits volatile organic compounds in excess of any of the following:

1. 4.3 pounds per gallon (0.5 kilograms per liter) of coating, excluding water, delivered to a coating applicator that applies clear coatings.

2. 3.5 pounds per gallon (0.42 kilograms per liter) of coating, excluding water delivered to a coating applicator in a coating application system that is air dried or forced warm air dried at temperatures up to 194&#176;F (90&#176;C).

3. 3.5 pounds per gallon (0.42 kilograms per liter) of coating, excluding water, delivered to a coating applicator that applies extreme performance coatings.

4. 3.0 pounds per gallon (0.36 kilograms per liter) of coating, excluding water, delivered to a coating applicator for all other coatings and application systems.

M. If more than one emission limitation in subsection (L) applies to a specific coating, then the least stringent emission limitation shall be applied.

N. All VOC emissions from solvent washings shall be considered in the emission limitations in subsection (L), unless the solvent is directed into containers that prevent evaporation into the atmosphere.

Historical Note

Renumbered from R18-2-530 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.731" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Municipal Solid Waste Landfills">

Standards of Performance for Existing Municipal Solid Waste Landfills

A. This Section applies to each municipal solid waste landfill (MSW landfill) at which:

1. Construction, reconstruction, or modification began before May 30, 1991; and

2. Waste was accepted at any time since November 8, 1987, or additional design capacity is available for future waste deposition.

B. For the purposes of this Section, "Municipal solid waste landfill or MSW landfill" means an entire disposal facility in a contiguous geographical space where household waste is placed in or on land. An MSW landfill may also receive other types of RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act) Subtitle D wastes such as commercial solid waste, nonhazardous sludge, conditionally exempt small quantity generator waste, and industrial solid waste. Portions of an MSW landfill may be separated by access roads. An MSW landfill may be publicly or privately owned.

C. MSW landfills covered by this Section shall comply with 40 CFR 60, Subpart WWW, as modified by this subsection. 40 CFR 60, Subpart WWW, "Standards of Performance for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills," is incorporated by reference in R18-2-901.

1. Definitions. In addition to the definitions in 40 CFR 60.751, "Administrator" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality.

2. Reporting. Each MSW landfill shall comply with the reporting requirements of 40 CFR 60.757. The initial design capacity report and initial NMOC emission rate report shall be due 90 days after the effective date of this rule.

3. Design plan. An MSW landfill that is required to install a collection and control system shall submit a design plan for the system to the Director with a Standard Permit Application Form not later than 12 months after it submitted or should have submitted a NMOC emission rate report indicating emissions greater than 50 Mg per year. The design plan shall be prepared by a professional engineer registered in Arizona. The Director shall not approve the design plan if it does not meet the requirements of 40 CFR 60.752(b)(2)(ii).

4. System installation. An MSW landfill that is required to install a collection and control system shall complete installation of the system not later than 30 months after the effective date of this rule.

5. An MSW landfill that first becomes subject to the collection and control system requirement after the effective date of this rule shall submit a design plan for the system to the Director not later than 12 months after it submitted or should have submitted an NMOC emission rate report indicating emissions greater than 50 Mg per year.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 4, 1997; filed with the Office of the Secretary of State March 14, 1997 (Supp. 97-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.732" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Existing Hospital/Medical/Infectious Waste Incinerators"> <dwc name="cadmium" times="2"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="dioxin" times="5"><dwc name="radioact" times="2">

Standards of Performance for Existing Hospital/Medical/Infectious Waste Incinerators

A. This Section applies to any hospital/medical/infectious waste incinerator (HMIWI) for which construction was commenced on or before June 20, 1996. All federal regulations cited within this Section are incorporated by reference in R18-2-901. An incinerator subject to this Section is not subject to R18-2-704. The following types of incinerators are not subject to this Section:

1. An incinerator during periods when only pathological waste, low-level radioactive waste, or chemotherapeutic waste is burned, if the owner or operator of the incinerator does both of the following:

a. Notifies the Director of an exemption claim.

b. Keeps records on a calendar quarter basis of the periods of time when only pathological waste, low-level radioactive waste, or chemotherapeutic waste is burned.

2. Any co-fired incinerator if the owner or operator of the incinerator does all of the following:

a. Notifies the Director of an exemption claim.

b. Provides an estimate of the relative weight of hospital waste, medical/infectious waste, and other fuels or wastes to be burned.

c. Keeps records on a calendar quarter basis of the weight of hospital waste and medical/infectious waste burned, and the weight of all other fuels and wastes burned at the co-fired incinerator.

3. Any incinerator required to have a permit under Section 3005 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act.

4. Any incinerator subject to 40 CFR 60, Subparts Cb, Ea, or Eb (standards or guidelines for certain municipal waste incinerators).

5. Any pyrolysis unit, as defined in 40 CFR 60.51c.

6. Cement kilns firing hospital waste or medical/infectious waste.

B. A physical or operational change made to an existing HMIWI unit solely for the purpose of complying with emission limitations under this Section is not considered a modification and does not result in an existing HMIWI unit becoming subject to the provisions of R18-2-901(9).

C. In addition to the definitions provided in 40 CFR 60.51c, the following definitions apply to this Section:

1. "Rural HMIWI" means any small HMIWI that is located more than 50 miles from the boundary of the nearest Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area and that burns less than 2,000 pounds per week of hospital waste and medical/infectious waste. The 2,000 pounds per week limitation does not apply during performance tests.

2. "Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area" or "SMSA" means any area listed in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Bulletin 93-17 entitled "Revised Statistical Definitions for Metropolitan Areas" dated June 30, 1993 which is incorporated by reference. This incorporation by reference does not include any later amendments or editions. A copy of the bulletin is on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

3. "State Plan" means the plan that 40 CFR 60 subpart Ce requires states to develop to regulate existing HMIWI built on or before June 20, 1996.

D. Beginning September 15, 2000, an HMIWI shall operate under a Class I permit.

E. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall comply with the following emissions limitations:

1. The emissions limitations in Table 1 unless the HMIWI is a rural HMIWI.

2. The emissions limitations in Table 2, if the HMIWI is a rural HMIWI.

3. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall not cause to be discharged into the atmosphere from the stack of that HMIWI any gases that exhibit greater than 10% opacity (6-minute block average).

4. An owner or operator of a large existing HMIWI shall comply with the opacity requirements in 40 CFR 60.52c (c), (d), and (e).

F. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall comply with the operator training requirements found in 40 CFR 60.53c within one year following approval of the State Plan.

G. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall comply with the waste management requirements found in 40 CFR 60.55c.

H. An owner or operator of a rural HMIWI shall comply with the following inspection requirements:

1. The owner or operator shall conduct or hire another party to conduct an initial equipment inspection within one year following approval of the State Plan.

2. At a minimum, an inspection shall include the following:

a. Inspect all burners, pilot assemblies, and pilot sensing devices for proper operation. Clean pilot flame sensor, as necessary.

b. Inspect adjustment of primary and secondary chamber combustion air, and adjust as necessary.

c. Inspect hinges and door latches, and lubricate as necessary.

d. Inspect dampers, fans, and blowers for proper operation.

e. Inspect HMIWI door and door gaskets for proper sealing.

f. Inspect motors for proper operation.

g. Inspect primary chamber refractory lining. Clean and repair or replace lining as necessary.

h. Inspect incinerator shell for corrosion and hot spots.

i. Inspect secondary/tertiary chamber and stack, clean as necessary.

j. Inspect mechanical loader, including limit switches, for proper operation, if applicable.

k. Visually inspect waste bed (grates), and repair or seal, as appropriate.

l. For the burn cycle that follows the inspection, document that the incinerator is operating properly and make any necessary adjustments.

m. Inspect each air pollution control device for proper operation, if applicable.

n. Inspect waste heat boiler systems to ensure proper operation, if applicable.

o. Inspect bypass stack components.

p. Ensure proper calibration of thermocouples, sorbent feed systems and any other monitoring equipment.

q. Generally observe that the equipment is maintained in good operating condition.

3. Within 10 operating days following an equipment inspection, the owner or operator shall complete all necessary repairs unless the owner or operator obtains written approval from the Director establishing a date by which all necessary repairs of the facility shall be completed.

4. The owner or operator of any rural HMIWI shall conduct or hire another party to conduct an equipment inspection annually (no more than 12 months following the previous annual equipment inspection), as outlined in subsections (2) and (3).

I. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall comply with the following compliance, performance testing, and monitoring requirements:

1. Except as provided in subsection (2), an existing HMIWI shall meet the requirements for compliance and performance testing in 40 CFR 60.56c, excluding the fugitive emissions testing requirements under 40 CFR 60.56c(b)(12) and (c)(3).

2. A rural HMIWI shall meet the following compliance and performance testing requirements:

a. Conduct the performance testing requirements in 40 CFR 60.56c(a), (b)(1) through (b)(9), (b)(11) (Hg only), and (c)(1). The 2,000 lb/week limitation under 40 CFR 60.33e(b) does not apply during performance tests.

b. Establish maximum charge rate and minimum secondary chamber temperature as site-specific operating parameters during the initial performance test to determine compliance with applicable emission limitations.

c. Ensure that the facility does not operate above the maximum charge rate or below the minimum secondary chamber temperature measured as three-hour rolling averages (calculated each hour as the average of the previous three operating hours) at all times except during periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction. Operating parameter limits do not apply during performance tests. Operation above the maximum charge rate or below the minimum secondary chamber temperature is a violation of the established operating parameter.

d. Except as provided in subsection (I)(2)(e), operating the facility above the maximum charge rate and below the minimum secondary chamber temperature (each measured on a three-hour rolling average) simultaneously is a violation of the PM, CO, and dioxin/furan emission limitations.

e. The owner or operator may conduct a repeat performance test within 30 days after violation of any applicable operating parameter to demonstrate that the facility is not in violation of any applicable emission limit. Repeat performance tests conducted under this subsection shall be conducted using the identical operating parameters that indicated a violation under subsection (I)(2)(d).

3. The owner or operator shall comply with the monitoring requirements listed in 40 CFR 60.57c of subpart Ec, except as provided in subsection (I)(4).

4. A rural HMIWI shall meet the following monitoring requirements:

a. Install, calibrate (to manufacturer's specifications), maintain, and operate a device for measuring and recording the temperature of the secondary chamber on a continuous basis, the output of which shall be recorded, at a minimum, once every minute throughout operation.

b. Install, calibrate (to manufacturer's specifications), maintain, and operate a device that automatically measures and records the date, time, and weight of each charge fed into the HMIWI.

c. Obtain monitoring data at all times during HMIWI operation except during periods of monitoring equipment malfunction, calibration, or repair. At a minimum, valid monitoring data shall be obtained for 75% of the operating hours per day and for 90% of the operating hours per calendar quarter that the facility is incinerating hospital waste or medical/infectious waste.

J. An owner or operator of an HMIWI shall comply with the following reporting and recordkeeping requirements:

1. An owner or operator of each HMIWI shall comply with the requirements listed in 40 CFR 60.58c(b), (c), (d), (e), and (f), excluding 40 CFR 60.58c(b)(2)(ii) (fugitive emissions) and (b)(7) (siting).

2. An owner or operator of each rural HMIWI shall perform all the following:

a. Maintain records of the annual equipment inspections, any required maintenance, and any repairs not completed within 10 days after an inspection or the time-frame established by the Director.

b. Submit an annual report to ADEQ, Air Quality Division, (T5109B), 3003 North Central Avenue, Phoenix, Arizona 85012. The report shall contain information recorded under subsection (2)(a) and be submitted no later than 60 days following the year in which data were collected. The owner or operator shall send subsequent reports no later than 12 calendar months following the previous report (after receiving a Class I permit, the owner or operator shall submit these reports semiannually). The facility's manager shall sign the report.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3058, effective August 10, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 1. Emission Limitations for Small, Medium, and Large HMIWI

<table> Pollutant Particulate matter Carbon monoxide Dioxin/furans Hydrogen chloride Sulfur dioxide Nitrogen oxides Lead Cadmium Mercury Units (7% oxygen, dry basis) Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per dry standard cubic foot). Parts per million by volume Nanograms per dry standard cubic meter total dioxin/furans (grains per billion dry standard cubic feet) or nanograms per dry standard cubic meter toxic equivalent quantity (grains per billion dry standard cubic feet). Parts per million by volume or percent reduction. Parts per million by volume Parts per million by volume Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) or percent reduction Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) or percent reduction Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) or percent reduction Emission Limitation Small HMIWI 115 (0.05) 40 125 (55) or 2.3 (1.0) 100 or 93% 55 250 1.2 (0.52) or 70% 0.16 (0.07) or 65% 0.55 (0.24) or 85% Medium HMIWI 69 (0.03) 40 125 (55) 2.3 (1.0) 100 or 93% 55 250 1.2 (0.52) or 70% 0.16 (0.07) or 65% 0.55 (0.24) or 85% Large HMIWI 34 (0.015) 40 125 (55) or 2.3 (1.0) 100 or 93% 55 250 1.2 (0.52) or 70% 0.16 (0.07) or 65% 0.55 (0.24) or 85% </table>

Historical Note

Table 1 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3058, effective August 10, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

Table 2. Emissions Limitations for Rural HMIWI

<table> Pollutant Particulate matter Carbon monoxide Dioxin/furans Hydrogen chloride Sulfur dioxide Nitrogen oxides Lead Cadmium Mercury Units (7% oxygen, dry basis) Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per dry standard cubic foot) Parts per million by volume Nanograms per dry standard cubic meter total dioxin/furans (grains per billion dry standard cubic feet) or nanograms per dry standard cubic meter toxic equivalent quantity (grains per billion dry standard cubic feet) Parts per million by volume Parts per million by volume Parts per million by volume Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) Milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (grains per thousand dry standard cubic feet) Emission Limitation 197 (0.086) 40 800 (350) or 15 (6.6) 3100 (1.0) 55 250 10 (4.4) 4 (1.7) 7.5 (3.3) </table>

Historical Note

Table 2 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3058, effective August 10, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="EMISSIONS FROM MOBILE SOURCES (NEW AND EXISTING)">

EMISSIONS FROM MOBILE SOURCES (NEW AND EXISTING)

<regElement name="R18.2.801" level="4" title="Classification of Mobile Sources">

Classification of Mobile Sources

A. This Article is applicable to mobile sources which either move while emitting air contaminants or are frequently moved during the course of their utilization but are not classified as motor vehicles, agricultural vehicles, or agricultural equipment used in normal farm operations.

B. Unless otherwise specified, no mobile source shall emit smoke or dust the opacity of which exceeds 40%.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective February 3, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Former Section R18-2-801 renumbered to Section R18-2-901, new Section R18-2-801 renumbered from R18-2-601 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.802" level="4" title="Off-road Machinery">

Off-road Machinery

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any off-road machinery, smoke for any period greater than 10 consecutive seconds, the opacity of which exceeds 40%. Visible emissions when starting cold equipment shall be exempt from this requirement for the first 10 minutes.

B. Off-road machinery shall include trucks, graders, scrapers, rollers, locomotives and other construction and mining machinery not normally driven on a completed public roadway.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-802 renumbered to Section R18-2-902, new Section R18-2-802 renumbered from R18-2-602 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.803" level="4" title="Heater-planer Units">

Heater-planer Units

No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any heater-planer operated for the purpose of reconstructing asphalt pavements smoke the opacity of which exceeds 20%. However three minutes' upset time in any one hour shall not constitute a violation of this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-803 renumbered to Section R18-2-903, new Section R18-2-803 renumbered from R18-2-603 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.804" level="4" title="Roadway and Site Cleaning Machinery">

Roadway and Site Cleaning Machinery

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any roadway and site cleaning machinery smoke or dust for any period greater than 10 consecutive seconds, the opacity of which exceeds 40%. Visible emissions when starting cold equipment shall be exempt from this requirement for the first 10 minutes.

B. In addition to complying with subsection (A), no person shall cause, allow or permit the cleaning of any site, roadway, or alley without taking reasonable precautions to prevent particulate matter from becoming airborne. Reasonable precautions may include applying dust suppressants. Earth or other material shall be removed from paved streets onto which earth or other material has been transported by trucking or earth moving equipment, erosion by water or by other means.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective February 3, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Former Section R18-2-804 renumbered to Section R18-2-904, new Section R18-2-804 renumbered from R18-2-604 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.805" level="4" title="Asphalt or Tar Kettles">

Asphalt or Tar Kettles

A. No person shall cause, allow or permit to be emitted into the atmosphere from any asphalt or tar kettle smoke for any period greater than 10 consecutive seconds, the opacity of which exceeds 40%.

B. In addition to complying with subsection (A), no person shall cause, allow or permit the operation of an asphalt or tar kettle without minimizing air contaminant emissions by utilizing all of the following control measures:

1. The control of temperature recommended by the asphalt or tar manufacturer;

2. The operation of the kettle with lid closed except when charging;

3. The pumping of asphalt from the kettle or the drawing of asphalt through cocks with no dipping;

4. The dipping of tar in an approved manner;

5. The maintaining of the kettle in clean, properly adjusted, and good operating condition;

6. The firing of the kettle with liquid petroleum gas or other fuels acceptable to the Director.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Former Section R18-2-805 renumbered to Section R18-2-905, new Section R18-2-805 renumbered from R18-2-605 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 9" level="3" title="NEW SOURCE PERFORMANCE STANDARDS">

NEW SOURCE PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

<regElement name="R18.2.901" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources"> <dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="3">

Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources

Except as provided in R18-2-902 through R18-2-905, the following subparts of 40 CFR 60, New Source Performance Standards (NSPS), and all accompanying appendices, adopted as of July 1, 2003, and no future editions or amendments, are incorporated by reference. These standards are on file with the Department and shall be applied by the Department. These standards can be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington D.C. 20402-9328.

1. Subpart A - General Provisions.

2. Subpart D - Standards of Performance for Fossil-Fuel-Fired Steam Generators for Which Construction is Commenced After August 17, 1971.

3. Subpart Da - Standards of Performance for Electric Utility Steam Generating Units for Which Construction is Commenced After September 18, 1978.

4. Subpart Db - Standards of Performance for Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam Generating Units.

5. Subpart Dc - Standards of Performance for Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam Generating Units.

6. Subpart E - Standards of Performance for Incinerators.

7. Subpart Ea - Standards of Performance for Municipal Waste Combustors for Which Construction is Commenced after December 20, 1989 and on or Before September 20, 1994.

8. Subpart Eb - Standards of Performance for Large Municipal Waste Combustors for Which Construction is Commenced after September 20, 1994 or for Which Modification or Reconstruction is Commenced After June 19, 1996.

9. Subpart Ec - Standards of Performance for Standards of Performance for Hospital/Medical/Infectious Waste Incinerators for Which Construction is Commenced After June 20, 1996.

10. Subpart F - Standards of Performance for Portland Cement Plants.

11. Subpart G - Standards of Performance for Nitric Acid Plants.

12. Subpart H - Standards of Performance for Sulfuric Acid Plants.

13. Subpart I - Standards of Performance for Hot Mix Asphalt Facilities.

14. Subpart J - Standards of Performance for Petroleum Refineries.

15. Subpart K - Standards of Performance for Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for Which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced After June 11, 1973, and Prior to May 19, 1978.

16. Subpart Ka - Standards of Performance for Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for Which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced After May 18, 1978, and Prior to July 23, 1984.

17. Subpart Kb - Standards of Performance for Volatile Organic Liquid Storage Vessels (Including Petroleum Liquid Storage Vessels) for Which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after July 23, 1984.

18. Subpart L - Standards of Performance for Secondary Lead Smelters.

19. Subpart M - Standards of Performance for Secondary Brass and Bronze Production Plants.

20. Subpart N - Standards of Performance for Primary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process Furnaces for Which Construction is Commenced After June 11, 1973.

21. Subpart Na - Standards of Performance for Secondary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process Steelmaking Facilities for Which Construction is Commenced After January 20, 1983.

22. Subpart O - Standards of Performance for Sewage Treatment Plants.

23. Subpart P - Standards of Performance for Primary Copper Smelters.

24. Subpart Q - Standards of Performance for Primary Zinc Smelters.

25. Subpart R - Standards of Performance for Primary Lead Smelters.

26. Subpart S - Standards of Performance for Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.

27. Subpart T - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Wet-Process Phosphoric Acid Plants.

28. Subpart U - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Superphosphoric Acid Plants.

29. Subpart V - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Diammonium Phosphate Plants.

30. Subpart W - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Triple Superphosphate Plants.

31. Subpart X - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Granular Triple Superphosphate Storage Facilities.

32. Subpart Y - Standards of Performance for Coal Preparation Plants.

33. Subpart Z - Standards of Performance for Ferroalloy Production Facilities.

34. Subpart AA - Standards of Performance for Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces Constructed After October 21, 1974, and On or Before August 17, 1983.

35. Subpart AAa - Standards of Performance for Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces and Argon-Oxygen Decarburization Vessels Constructed After August 7, 1983.

36. Subpart BB - Standards of Performance for Kraft Pulp Mills.

37. Subpart CC - Standards of Performance for Glass Manufacturing Plants.

38. Subpart DD - Standards of Performance for Grain Elevators.

39. Subpart EE - Standards of Performance for Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.

40. Subpart GG - Standards of Performance for Stationary Gas Turbines.

41. Subpart HH - Standards of Performance for Lime Manufacturing Plants.

42. Subpart KK - Standards of Performance for Lead-Acid Battery Manufacturing Plants.

43. Subpart LL - Standards of Performance for Metallic Mineral Processing Plants.

44. Subpart MM - Standards of Performance for Automobile and Light Duty Truck Surface Coating Operations.

45. Subpart NN - Standards of Performance for Phosphate Rock Plants.

46. Subpart PP - Standards of Performance for Ammonium Sulfate Manufacture.

47. Subpart QQ - Standards of Performance for Graphic Arts Industry: Publication Rotogravure Printing.

48. Subpart RR - Standards of Performance for Pressure Sensitive Tape and Label Surface Coating Operations.

49. Subpart SS - Standards of Performance for Industrial Surface Coating: Large Appliances.

50. Subpart TT - Standards of Performance for Metal Coil Surface Coating.

51. Subpart UU - Standards of Performance for Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing Manufacture.

52. Subpart VV - Standards of Performance for Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic Chemicals Manufacturing Industry.

53. Subpart WW - Standards of Performance for Beverage Can Surface Coating Industry.

54. Subpart XX - Standards of Performance for Bulk Gasoline Terminals.

55. Subpart AAA - Standards of Performance for New Residential Wood Heaters.

56. Subpart BBB - Standards of Performance for Rubber Tire Manufacturing Industry.

57. Subpart DDD - Standards of Performance for Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from the Polymer Manufacturing Industry.

58. Subpart FFF - Standards of Performance for Flexible Vinyl and Urethane Coating and Printing.

59. Subpart GGG - Standards of Performance for Equipment Leaks of VOC in Petroleum Refineries.

60. Subpart HHH - Standards of Performance for Synthetic Fiber Production Facilities.

61. Subpart III - Standards of Performance for Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Air Oxidation Unit Processes.

62. Subpart JJJ - Standards of Performance for Petroleum Dry Cleaners.

63. Subpart KKK - Standards of Performance for Equipment Leaks of VOC from Onshore Natural Gas Processing Plants.

64. Subpart LLL - Standards of Performance for Onshore Natural Gas Processing; SO2 Emissions.

65. Subpart NNN - Standards of Performance for Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions From Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Distillation Operations.

66. Subpart OOO - Standards of Performance for Nonmetallic Mineral Processing Plants.

67. Subpart PPP - Standards of Performance for Wool Fiberglass Insulation Manufacturing Plants.

68. Subpart QQQ - Standards of Performance for VOC Emissions From Petroleum Refinery Wastewater Systems.

69. Subpart RRR - Standards of Performance for Volatile Organic Compound Emissions From Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Reactor Processes.

70. Subpart SSS - Standards of Performance for Magnetic Tape Coating Facilities.

71. Subpart TTT - Standards of Performance for Industrial Surface Coating: Surface Coating of Plastic Parts for Business Machines.

72. Subpart UUU - Standards of Performance for Calciners and Dryers in Mineral Industries.

73. Subpart VVV - Standards of Performance for Polymeric Coating of Supporting Substrates Facilities.

74. Subpart WWW - Standards of Performance for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.

75. Subpart AAAA - Standards of Performance for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units for Which Construction Is Commenced after August 30, 1999, or for Which Modification or Reconstruction Is Commenced after June 6, 2001.

76. Subpart CCCC - Standards of Performance for Commercial and Industrial Solid Waste Incineration Units for Which Construction Is Commenced after November 30, 1999, or for Which Modification or Reconstruction Is Commenced on or after June 1, 2001.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective February 3, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Section R18-2-901 renumbered to R18-2-1101, new Section R18-2-901 renumbered from R18-2-801 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective

May 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective April 4, 1997; filed with the Office of the Secretary of State March 14, 1997 (Supp. 97-1). Amended effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3058, effective August 10, 1999, and at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 4170, effective October 11, 2000 (Supp. 00-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 3281, effective September 27, 2004 (Supp. 04-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.902" level="4" title="General Provisions">

General Provisions

A. As used in 40 CFR 60: "Administrator" means the Director of the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, except that the Director shall not be authorized to approve alternate or equivalent test methods or alternative standards or work practices.

B. From the general standards identified in R18-2-901, delete the following:

1. 40 CFR 60.4. All requests, reports, applications, submittals, and other communications to the Director pursuant to this Article shall be submitted to the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, 3033 North Central Avenue, Phoenix, Arizona 85012.

2. 40 CFR 60.5 and 60.6.

C. The Director shall not be delegated authority to deal with equivalency determinations or innovative technology waivers as covered in Sections 111(h)(3) and 111(j) of the Act.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section R18-2-902 renumbered to R18-2-1102, new Section R18-2-902 renumbered from R18-2-802 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.903" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Fossil-fuel Fired Steam Generators">

Standards of Performance for Fossil-fuel Fired Steam Generators

As EXCEPTION to 40 CFR 60.40 through 60.47:

1. In place of 40 CFR 60.43(a)(2), the following language shall be substituted: 340 nanograms per joule heat input (0.8 pounds per million Btu) derived from solid fossil fuel or solid fossil fuel and wood residue.

2. Delete 40 CFR 60.43(b).

3. For those persons who obtained an installation permit prior to May 14, 1979, for two or more fuel burning equipment or steam power generating installations, which permitted such persons to comply with the sulfur dioxide emission standards specified in R18-2-901 and this Section as if such equipment or installations constituted one emission discharge point:

a. Those persons shall comply with the applicable sulfur dioxide emission standards in the manner specified in their installation permit.

b. The Department shall incorporate such emission standards into each person's operating permit as an enforceable permit condition.

c. In no event shall any one fuel burning equipment or steam power generating installation emit sulfur dioxide in excess of:

i. 520 nanograms per joule heat input (1.2 pounds per million BTU) for solid fossil fuel or solid fossil fuel and wood residue.

ii. 340 nanograms per joule heat input (0.8 pounds per million BTU) for liquid fossil fuel or liquid fossil fuel and wood residue.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-903 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-903 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). New Section R18-2-903 renumbered from R18-2-803 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.904" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Incinerators">

Standards of Performance for Incinerators

A. Incinerators with a charging rate of more than 45 metric tons or 49.6 tons per day shall conform to the requirements of 40 CFR 60.50 through 60.54.

B. Incinerators with a charging rate of 45 metric tons or 49.6 tons per day or less that commence construction or modification after May 14, 1979, shall conform to the requirements of 40 CFR 60.52 through 60.54 and of R18-2-704(A).

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-904 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-904 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). New Section R18-2-904 renumbered from R18-2-804 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.905" level="4" title="Standards of Performance for Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids"> <dwc name="organ contamin" times="1">

Standards of Performance for Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids

In addition to 40 CFR 60.110 - 60.113:

1. Any petroleum liquid storage tank of less than 40,000 gallons (151,412 liters) capacity shall be equipped with a submerged filling device or acceptable equivalent as determined by the Director for the control of hydrocarbon emissions.

2. All facilities for dock loading of petroleum products having a vapor pressure of 2.0 pounds per square inch absolute, or greater, at loading pressure shall provide for submerged filling or other acceptable equivalent for control of hydrocarbon emissions.

3. All pumps and compressors which handle volatile organic compounds shall be equipped with mechanical seals or other equipment of equal efficiency to prevent the release of organic contaminants into the atmosphere.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-905 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-905 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1). New Section R18-2-905 renumbered from R18-2-805 effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.906" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Former Section R9-3-906 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-906 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.907" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.908" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.909" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.910" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 9, 1985 (Supp. 85-4). Former Section R9-3-910 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-910 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.911" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.912" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.913" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 9, 1985 (Supp. 85-4). Former Section R9-3-913 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-913 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.914" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.915" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.916" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.917" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.918" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.919" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.920" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.921" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.922" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 9, 1985 (Supp. 85-4). Former Section R9-3-922 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-922 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective February 26, 1988 (Supp. 88-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 10" level="3" title="MOTOR VEHICLES; INSPECTIONS AND MAINTENANCE">

MOTOR VEHICLES; INSPECTIONS AND MAINTENANCE

<regElement name="R18.2.1001" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. Abbreviations and symbols are as follows:

a. "A/F" means air/fuel,

b. "CO" means carbon monoxide.

c. "CO

2

" means carbon dioxide.

d. "EGR" means exhaust gas recirculation.

e. "GVWR" means gross vehicle weight rating.

f. "HC" means hydrocarbon.

g. "HP" means horsepower.

h. "LNG" means liquefied natural gas.

i. "LPG" means liquid petroleum gas.

j. "MIL" means Malfunction Indicator Lamp.

k. "MPH" means miles per hour.

l. "MVD" means the Motor Vehicle Division of the Arizona Department of Transportation.

m. "NDIR" means nondispersive infrared.

n. "NOx" means the sum of nitrogen oxide and nitrogen dioxide.

o. "%" means percent.

p. "OEM" means original equipment manufacturer.

q. "OBD" means On-Board Diagnostics.

r. "PCV" means positive crankcase ventilation.

s. "PPM" means parts per million by volume.

t. "RPM" means revolutions per minute.

u. "VIN" means vehicle identification number.

2. "Annual test" means any vehicle emissions test that is not a biennial test.

3. "Apportioned vehicle" means a vehicle that is subject to the proportional registration provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 28-2233.

4. "Area A" has the meaning in A.R.S. &#167; 49-541.

5. "Area A vehicle" means a motor vehicle subject to emissions inspection and that is:

a. Registered or to be registered within area A;

b. Owned by or leased to a person having a valid fleet permit and customarily kept in area A;

c. A government vehicle customarily kept in area A;

d. Used to commute to the driver's principal place of employment located in area A; or

e. Parked, will be parked, or is the subject of a parking permit application at an institution located in area A and subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 15-1444(C) or 15-1627(G).

6. "Area B" has the meaning in A.R.S. &#167; 49-541.

7. "Area B vehicle" means a motor vehicle subject to emissions inspection and that is:

a. Registered or to be registered within area B;

b. Owned by or leased to a person having a valid fleet permit and customarily kept in area B;

c. A government vehicle customarily kept in area B;

d. Used to commute to the driver's principal place of employment located in area B; or

e. Parked, will be parked, or is the subject of a parking permit application at an institution located in area B and subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 15-1444(C) or 15-1627(G).

8. "Biennial test" means the transient loaded emissions test and evaporative system tests required under R18-2-1006(E)(2), or the OBD test for area A vehicles under R18-1006(E)(3).

9. "Calibration gas" means a gas with assigned concentrations of CO, hexane, or CO

2

that is used by a state inspector to check the accuracy of emissions analyzers.

10. "Certificate of compliance" means a serially numbered document issued by a state station at the time of a vehicle inspection indicating that the vehicle has met the emissions standards.

11. "Certificate of exemption" means a serially numbered document issued by the Director exempting a vehicle from inspection that is not available within the state for an inspection during the 90 days before the emissions compliance expiration date.

12. "Certificate of inspection" means a serially numbered document issued by the Director indicating that a vehicle has been inspected under A.R.S. &#167; 49-546 and has passed inspection.

13. "Certificate of waiver" means a serially numbered document issued by the Department or a fleet inspector other than an auto dealer licensed to sell used motor vehicles under A.R.S. Title 28, indicating that the requirement of passing reinspection has been waived for a vehicle under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.

14. "Conditioning mode" means either a fast idle condition or a loaded condition as defined in this Section.

15. "Constant 4-wheel drive vehicle" means any 4-wheel drive vehicle that cannot be converted to 2-wheel drive except by disconnecting one of the vehicle's drive shafts.

16. "Constant volume sampler" means a system that dilutes engine exhaust to be sampled with ambient air so that the total combined flow rate of exhaust and dilution air mix is nearly constant for all engine operating conditions.

17. "Contractor" means a person, business, firm, partnership, or corporation with whom the Director has a contract that provides for the operation of one or more official emissions inspection stations.

18. "Curb idle test" means an exhaust emissions test conducted with the engine of the vehicle running at the manufacturer's idle speed &#177; 100 RPM but without pressure exerted on the accelerator.

19. "Curb weight" means a vehicle's unloaded weight without fuel and oil plus 300 pounds.

20. "Dealer" means a person or organization licensed by the Arizona Department of Transportation as a new motor vehicle dealer, used motor vehicle dealer, or motorcycle dealer.

21. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

22. "Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality.

23. "Director's certificate" means a serially numbered document issued by the Director in certain circumstances for the vehicle to show evidence of meeting the minimum standards for registration or reregistration under R18-2-1019 or R18-2-1022.

24. "Electrically-powered vehicle" means a vehicle that uses electricity as the means of propulsion and does not require the combustion of fossil fuel within the confines of the vehicle to generate electricity.

25. "Emissions compliance expiration date" means:

a. Each registration expiration date for a vehicle subject to an annual test; and

b. The registration expiration date in the second year after the initial biennial test required under this Article or R18-2-1005(B) for a vehicle subject to a biennial test.

26. "Emissions inspection station permit" means a certificate issued by the Director authorizing the holder to perform vehicle emissions inspections under this Article.

27. "Exhaust emissions" means products of combustion emitted into the atmosphere from any opening in the exhaust system downstream of the exhaust ports of a motor vehicle engine.

28. "Exhaust pipe" means the pipe that attaches to the muffler and exits the vehicle.

29. "Fast idle condition" means to operate a vehicle by running the engine at 2,500 RPM, &#177; 300 RPM, for up to 30 seconds, with the transmission in neutral, to prepare the vehicle for a subsequent curb idle test.

30. "Fast pass or fast fail algorithm" means a procedure in a vehicle emissions testing system that logically determines whether a vehicle will pass or fail the transient loaded emissions test under R18-2-1006(E)(2) before the test is over.

31. "Fleet emissions inspection station" or "fleet station" means any vehicle emissions inspection facility operated under a permit issued under A.R.S. &#167; 49-546.

32. "Fuel" means any material that is burned within the confines of a vehicle to propel the vehicle.

33. "Four-stroke vehicle" means a vehicle equipped with an engine that requires two revolutions of the crankshaft for each piston power stroke.

34. "Golf cart" means a motor vehicle that has not less than three wheels in contact with the ground, has an unladen weight less than 1,300 pounds, is designed to be and is operated at not more than 15 MPH, and is designed to carry golf equipment and persons.

35. "Government vehicle" means a registered motor vehicle exempt from the payment of a registration fee, or a federally owned or leased vehicle.

36. "Gross vehicle weight rating" (GVWR) means the maximum vehicle weight that a vehicle is designed for as established by the manufacturer.

37. "Inspection" means the mandatory vehicle emissions inspection including the tampering inspection.

38. "Inspection sticker" means a self-adhesive, serially numbered rectangular sticker indicating a government vehicle has met Arizona emissions inspection requirements.

39. "Loaded condition" means to condition a vehicle by running the vehicle on a chassis dynamometer at a specified speed and load for no more than 30 seconds to prepare the vehicle for a subsequent curb idle test.

40. "Loaded cruise test" means an exhaust emissions test conducted on a chassis dynamometer under R18-2-1006(E)(1)(a) and (F)(2)(a).

41. "Mass emissions measurement" means measurement of a vehicle's exhaust in mass units such as grams.

42. "Model year" means the date of manufacture of the original vehicle within the annual production period of the vehicle as designated by the manufacturer or, if a reconstructed vehicle, the first year of titling.

43. "MOL percent" means the percent, by volume, that a particular gas occupies in a mixture of gases at a uniform temperature.

44. "Motorcycle" means a motor vehicle, other than a tractor, having a seat or saddle for use of the rider and designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground.

45. "Motorhome" means a vehicle built on a truck or bus chassis and equipped as a self-contained traveling home.

46. "New aftermarket catalytic converter" or "new aftermarket converter" means a catalytic converter, except for an OEM, that meets the standards under 40 CFR 86.

47. "Official emissions inspection station" means an inspection facility, other than a fleet emissions inspection station, whether placed in a permanent structure or in a mobile unit for conveyance to various locations within the state, for the purpose of conducting inspections under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.

48. "On-board diagnostics test" means a method of emissions testing using the on-board computer systems of a 1996 or newer vehicle, to diagnose and report on the status of the engine's emissions systems by connecting a scan tool to the vehicle's data link connector.

49. "Opacity" means the degree of absorption of transmitted light.

50. "Operational air pump" means an air injection system to supply additional air into the exhaust system to promote further oxidation of HC and CO gases and to assist in catalytic reaction.

51. "Person" means the federal government, state, or any federal or state agency or institution, any municipality, political subdivision, public or private corporation, individual, partnership, association, or other entity, and includes any officer or governing or managing body of any municipality, political subdivision, or public or private corporation.

52. "Reconditioned OEM catalytic converter" or "reconditioned OEM converter" means a used OEM reconditioned equivalent or an OEM converter that has had the pellets replaced with new or used OEM equivalent pellets and that also meets the standards under 40 CFR 86.

53. "Recognized repair facility" means a business with an Arizona transaction privilege tax license whose primary purpose is vehicle repair, and who has at least one employee with a nationally recognized certification for emissions-related diagnosis and repair.

54. "Reconstructed vehicle" means:

a. A reconstructed special as identified by the code letters "SP" on the section of the vehicle's Arizona registration card or Arizona certificate of title reserved for identification of the vehicle's style; or

b. A vehicle in which the vehicle style is not shown on the Arizona registration card or certificate of title, and the original manufacturer of the complete vehicle cannot be identified from the body.

55. "Standard gases" means gases maintained as a primary standard for determining the composition of working gases, calibration gases, or the accuracy of an emissions analyzer.

56. "State inspector" means an employee of the Department designated to perform quality assurance or waiver functions under this Article.

57. "State station" means an official emissions inspection station operated by a contractor.

58. "Tampering" means removing, defeating, or altering an emissions control device that was installed on a vehicle at the time the vehicle was manufactured. For the purposes of this Article, defeating includes failure to repair any malfunctioning emission control system or device.

59. "Two-stroke vehicle" means a vehicle equipped with an engine that requires one revolution of the crankshaft for each power stroke.

60. "Unloaded fast idle test" means an exhaust emissions test conducted with the engine of the vehicle running at 2,500 RPM.

61. "Vehicle" means any automobile, truck, truck tractor, motor bus, or self-propelled or motor-driven vehicle registered or to be registered in this state and used upon the public highways of this state for the purpose of transporting persons or property, except implements of husbandry, roadrollers, or road machinery temporarily operated upon the highway.

62. "Vehicle emissions inspector" means an individual who is licensed by the Director to perform vehicle emissions inspections under this Article.

63. "Working gases" means gases maintained to perform periodic calibration of an emissions analyzer.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1001 repealed, new Section R9-3-1001 adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1001 repealed, former Section R9-3-1002 renumbered and amended as Section R9-3-1001 effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1001 renumbered as Section R18-2-1001 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1002" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.1003" level="4" title="Vehicles to be Inspected by the Mandatory Vehicle Emissions Inspection Program">

Vehicles to be Inspected by the Mandatory Vehicle Emissions Inspection Program

A. The following vehicles shall be inspected according to this Article at a state station or a fleet station unless exempted by subsection (B):

1. A vehicle to be registered or reregistered within area A or area B for highway use. For the purposes of this Article, registration or reregistration within area A or area B shall be determined by the vehicle owner's permanent and actual residence. The permanent address in the MVD database shall be presumed to be the owner's permanent and actual residence. A post office box address listed on a title or registration document under A.R.S. &#167; 28-2051(C) is not evidence of the owner's permanent and actual residence;

2. Each vehicle delivered to a retail purchaser by a dealer licensed to sell used motor vehicles for highway use under A.R.S. Title 28 and whose place of business is located in area A or area B;

3. Each vehicle registered outside area A and area B but used to commute to the driver's principal place of employment located within area A or area B;

4. Each vehicle owned by a person who is subject to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 15-1444(C) or 15-1627(G); and

5. An area A or area B vehicle located out-of-state for more than 90 days before vehicle registration expiration shall be emissions tested at an official emissions inspection testing center in the area where it is located. If no official emissions testing program is available in the area for that vehicle, the vehicle shall meet the testing requirements under this Article within 15 calendar days of returning to Arizona.

B. The following vehicles are exempt from the inspection requirements of this Article:

1. A vehicle manufactured in or before the 1966 model year;

2. A vehicle leased to a person residing outside area A and area B by a leasing company whose place of business is in area A or area B, except as provided in subsection (A)(3);

3. A vehicle sold between motor vehicle dealers;

4. An electrically-powered vehicle;

5. An apportioned vehicle;

6. A golf cart;

7. A vehicle with an engine displacement of less than 90 cubic centimeters;

8. A vehicle registered at the time of change of name of ownership except when:

a. The change in registration is accompanied by the required fee for the year following expiration of the prior registration, or

b. The change results from the sale by a dealership whose place of business is located in area A or area B;

9. A vehicle for which a current certificate of exemption or Director's certificate is issued;

10. A vehicle of a model year the same as, or newer than, the current calendar year and a vehicle of the prior four model years, except:

a. A reconstructed vehicle;

b. An alternative fuel vehicle, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 43-1086, and

c. A vehicle failing an emissions inspection the owner chooses to have under A.R.S. &#167; 49-543.

11. A vehicle designed to operate exclusively on hydrogen, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 1-215.

C. Government vehicles operated in area A or area B and not exempted by this Article shall be emissions inspected according to R18-2-1017.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1003 repealed, new Section R9-3-1003 adopted effective January 13, 1976; Amended as an emergency effective January 19, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1003 as amended effective January 3, 1979 and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsection (A) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1003 renumbered as Section R18-2-1003 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective October 15, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2722, effective June 28, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1004" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1004 repealed, new Section R9-3-1004 adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Former Section R9-3-1004 renumbered as Section R18-2-1004 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1005" level="4" title="Time of Inspection">

Time of Inspection

A. Area A vehicles subject to an annual test, all area B vehicles, and vehicles sold or offered for sale by dealers required to be inspected under R18-2-1003, shall be inspected at the following times:

1. For a vehicle not covered by a fleet station permit, within 90 days before each registration expiration date;

2. For a vehicle sold by a dealer licensed to sell used motor vehicles under A.R.S. Title 28, whose place of business is located in area A or area B, before delivery of the vehicle to the retail purchaser;

3. For a consignment vehicle offered for sale by a dealer licensed to sell used motor vehicles under A.R.S. Title 28 whose place of business is located in area A or area B, before delivery of the vehicle to the retail purchaser. The consignment vehicle shall be inspected at a state station according to R18-2-1006;

4. For government vehicles:

a. For a vehicle not exempt under R18-2-1003(B)(10), within 12 months after acquisition by the operating entity and then annually on or before the anniversary date of the previous inspection;

b. For a vehicle exempt under R18-2-1003(B)(10), within 90 days after the vehicle becomes subject to testing, and then annually on or before the anniversary date of the previous inspection and;

c. A vehicle is subject to testing on the anniversary of its date of acquisition;

5. For a vehicle owned by or leased to a person having a valid fleet station permit, at least once within each 12-month period following any original registration or reregistration;

6. For a vehicle to be registered in area A or area B under conditions not specified in subsection (1) through (5), within 90 days before registration;

7. For a vehicle registered outside area A and area B and used to commute to the driver's principal place of work located in area A or area B, upon vehicle registration or reregistration;

8. For a vehicle owned by a person subject to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 15-1444(C) or 15-1627(G), within 30 calendar days following the date of initial registration at the institution located in area A or area B and annually thereafter; and

9. For a vehicle issued a certificate of exemption under R18-2-1023, within 15 calendar days after returning to Arizona, unless an official emissions inspection document from the out-of-state emissions inspection station is submitted with the request for exemption.

B. An area A vehicle subject to a biennial test shall be inspected at the following times:

1. For a vehicle not covered by a fleet station permit, within 90 days before the vehicle's emissions compliance expiration date.

2. For a government vehicle;

a. For a vehicle not exempt under R18-2-1003(B)(10), within 12 months after acquisition by the operating entity, and biennially thereafter, on or before the anniversary date of the previous inspection;

b. For a vehicle exempt under R18-2-1003(B)(10), within 90 days after the vehicle becomes subject to testing, and biennially thereafter, on or before the anniversary date of the previous inspection; and

c. The vehicle becomes subject to testing on the anniversary of its date of acquisition;

3. For a vehicle owned by or leased to a person having a valid fleet station permit, at least once within each successive 24-month period following original registration;

4. For a vehicle registered outside area A but used to commute to the driver's principal place of work located in area A, upon vehicle registration and biennially thereafter;

5. For a vehicle owned by a person subject to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 15-1444(C) or 15-1627(G), within 30 days following the date of initial registration at the institution located in area A and biennially thereafter;

6. For a vehicle to be registered as area A vehicles under conditions not specified in subsections (1) through (5), upon initial registration and within 90 days before the vehicle's emissions compliance expiration date thereafter and;

7. For a vehicle issued a certificate of exemption under R18-2-1023, within 15 calendar days after returning to Arizona, unless an official emissions inspection document indicating compliance with the emissions requirements from the out-of-state emissions inspection station is submitted with the request for exemption.

C. A used vehicle not registered as an area A or area B vehicle shall be inspected according to this Article before registration as an area A or area B vehicle unless exempted by R18-2-1003(B).

D. An area B vehicle being registered in area A is subject to the appropriate annual or biennial test from area A before registration even if the emissions compliance period for area B has not yet expired.

E. A new vehicle that is exempt from emissions testing under R18-2-1003(B)(10), and subject to either an annual or biennial test, shall be tested before registration in the calendar year that exceeds the vehicle's model year by five years.

F. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to waive a late registration fee because of failure to meet inspection requirements by the registration deadline, except that a motor vehicle that fails the initial or subsequent test shall not be subject to a penalty fee for late registration renewal if:

1. The initial test is accomplished before the emissions compliance expiration date, and

2. The registration renewal is received by MVD within 30 days of the initial test.

G. An owner of a vehicle subject to subsection (A)(1), (A)(6), (B)(1), or (B)(6) may submit the vehicle for emissions inspection more than 90 days before the emissions compliance expiration date but the inspection does not satisfy the registration or reregistration testing requirement under R18-2-1003.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1005 repealed, new Section R9-3-1005 adopted effective January 31, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-2). Former Section R9-3-1005 as amended effective February 20, 1980 and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1005 renumbered as Section R18-2-1005 and subsections (A) and (C) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1006" level="4" title="Emissions Test Procedures">

Emissions Test Procedures

A. Each vehicle inspected at a state station shall be visually inspected before the emissions test for the following unsafe or untestable conditions:

1. A fuel leak that causes wetness or pooling of fuel;

2. A continuous engine or transmission oil leak onto the floor;

3. A continuous engine coolant leak onto the floor such that the engine is overheating or may overheat within a short time;

4. A vehicle with a tire on a driving wheel with less than 2/32-inch tread, with metal protuberances, unmatched tire size, with obviously low tire pressure as determined by visual inspection, or any other condition that precludes a loaded test for reasons of personnel, equipment, or vehicle safety;

5. An exhaust pipe that does not exit the rear or side of the vehicle to allow for safe exhaust probe insertion;

6. An exhaust pipe on a diesel-powered vehicle that does not allow for safe exhaust probe insertion and attachment of opacity meter sensor units;

7. Improperly operating brakes;

8. Any vehicle modification or mechanical condition that prevents dynamometer operation; and

9. Any other condition deemed unsafe or untestable by the inspector, including loud internal engine noise or an obvious exhaust leak.

B. A vehicle emissions inspection shall not be performed by an official emissions inspection station on any vehicle towing a heavily loaded trailer, carrying a heavy load, loaded with explosives, or loaded with any hazardous material not used as fuel for the vehicle.

C. Any vehicle unsafe or otherwise untestable as determined by the visual inspection shall be rejected without an emissions test. The inspector shall notify the vehicle owner or operator of all unsafe conditions found on rejected vehicles. The state station shall not charge a fee if the vehicle is rejected. The contractor shall not conduct an emissions test on a vehicle rejected for a safety reason or any other untestable condition until the cause for rejection is repaired.

D. When conducting the emissions test required by this Section, the vehicle emissions inspector shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. The vehicle shall be tested in the condition presented, unless rejected under subsection (A), (B), or (C). The vehicle's engine shall be operating at normal temperature and not be overheating as indicated by a gauge, warning light, or boiling radiator. All of the vehicle's accessories shall be turned off during testing.

2. A vehicle designed to operate with more than one fuel shall be tested on the fuel in use when the vehicle is presented for inspection, except alternative fuel vehicles, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 43-1086. The inspector shall test the alternative fuel vehicle on each fuel for which it is intended to operate, using the appropriate emissions test procedure and standards for that vehicle. The alternative fuel vehicle shall:

a. Be operated a minimum of 30 seconds before testing, after switching fuels;

b. Be rejected if it is not able to operate on both fuels; and

c. Be rejected if the vehicle operator cannot switch fuels.

3. A vehicle operated exclusively on propane or natural gas, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 1-215, shall be exempt from the gas cap and evaporative pressure testing described in subsection (E)(5)(b)(ii), (E)(6)(a), and (F)(6)(a).

E. In area A, the inspection test procedures for a vehicle other than a diesel-powered vehicle or a vehicle held for resale by a fleet-licensed motor vehicle dealer shall consist of the following:

1. A vehicle manufactured with a model year of 1967 through 1980, a nonexempt vehicle with a GVWR greater than 8,500 pounds, and a reconstructed vehicle, except a motorcycle and a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, is required to annually take and pass a loaded cruise test and a curb idle test, as follows:

a. Loaded cruise test. The vehicle's drive wheels shall be placed on a dynamometer and the vehicle shall be operated according to Table 1 of this Article, in drive for automatic transmission or second or higher gear for manual transmission. Overdrive shall not be used for testing. All vehicles shall be driven by the inspector during testing. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 90 seconds, whichever occurs first. After exhaust emissions are recorded, engine speed shall be returned to idle for a curb idle test.

b. Curb idle test. The test shall be performed with the vehicle in neutral for 1981 and newer vehicles. For 1980 and older vehicles, the test shall be performed in neutral, except that if the vehicle has an automatic transmission, drive shall be used. Engine RPM shall be within &#177; 100 RPM of the manufacturer's specified idle RPM. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 90 seconds, whichever occurs first. A CO

2

plus CO reading of 6% or greater shall be registered to establish test validity. A CO

2

plus CO reading of less than 6% shall be proof of exhaust sample dilution and the vehicle shall be rejected from further emissions inspection until repaired, except when tested at a fleet emissions inspection station.

c. Exhaust sampling for a vehicle required to take an annual emissions test under subsection (E)(1) shall comply with subsection (F)(7).

2. A vehicle with a 1981 or newer model year and a GVWR of 8,500 pounds or less, except a motorcycle, a reconstructed vehicle, a 1996 or newer OBD-equipped vehicle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, is required to biennially take and pass a transient loaded emissions test and an evaporative system pressure test as follows:

a. The transient loaded emissions test shall consist of 147 seconds of mass emissions measurement using a constant volume sampler while the vehicle is driven by an inspector through a computer-monitored driving cycle on a dynamometer with inertial weight settings appropriate for the weight of the vehicle. The driving cycle shall include the acceleration, deceleration, and idle operating modes described in Table 4. The 147 second sequence may be ended earlier using a fast pass or fast fail algorithm. A retest algorithm shall be used to determine if a test failure is due to insufficient vehicle preconditioning. As determined by the retest algorithm, up to two additional tests may be performed on a failing vehicle. Drive shall be used for automatic transmissions and first gear shall be used to begin for manual transmissions. Exhaust emissions concentrations in grams per mile for HC, CO, NOx and CO

2

shall be recorded continuously beginning with the first second. The inspector shall reject a vehicle with an audible or visible exhaust leak from emissions testing.

b. The evaporative system pressure test shall consist of the following steps in sequence:

i. Connect the test equipment to either the fuel tank vent hose at the canister or the fuel tank filler neck. The gas cap shall be checked to determine that cap leakage does not exceed 60 cubic centimeters of air per minute at a pressure of 30 inches of water gauge;

ii. Pressurize the system to 14 &#177; 0.5 inches of water without exceeding 26 inches of water system pressure;

iii. Close off the pressure source, seal the evaporative system, and monitor pressure decay for no more than two minutes.

c. For a vehicle requiring a transient loaded emissions test under subsection (a), all testing and test equipment shall conform to "IM240 &amp; Evap Technical Guidance," EPA420-R-98-010, EPA, August 1998, incorporated by reference, and no future editions or amendments, except that the transient driving cycle in Table 4 of this Article shall be used. A copy of the incorporated material is on file with the Department and the Secretary of State, and may be obtained at EPA's National Vehicle and Fuel Emissions Laboratory, 2565 Plymouth Road, Ann Arbor, MI 48105-2498.

3. A vehicle with a 1996 or newer model year and a GVWR of 8500 pounds or less, except a motorcycle or a reconstructed vehicle, is required to biennially take and pass an OBD test and a functional gas cap test as follows:

a. The OBD test shall consist of:

i. A visual inspection of the MIL function; and

ii. An electronic examination of the OBD computer by connecting a scan tool to the data link connector and interrogating the OBD system to determine vehicle readiness status, MIL status, and presence of diagnostic trouble codes.

b. The OBD test and test equipment shall conform to "Performing Onboard Diagnostic System Checks as Part of a Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program," EPA420-R-01-015, EPA, June 2001, incorporated by reference, and no future editions or amendments. A copy of this incorporated material is on file with the Department and the Secretary of State, and may be obtained at the EPA's National Vehicle and Fuel Emissions Laboratory, 2565 Plymouth Road, Ann Arbor, MI, 48105-2498; and

c. The functional gas cap test shall comply with subsection (E)(6)(a).

4. A motorcycle, or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle except one requiring an OBD emissions test under subsection (E)(3), shall take and pass only a curb idle test according to subsection (F)(1). An all-terrain vehicle (ATV), as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 28-101, shall be tested as a motorcycle.

5. The emissions pass-fail determination for a vehicle tested under subsection (E) shall be made as follows:

a. A vehicle tested under subsection (E)(1), that does not exceed the loaded cruise mode or curb idle mode HC and CO emissions standards listed in Table 2 for the vehicle, comply complies with the emissions standards in Table 2. The loaded cruise test standards in Table 2 apply to a fleet vehicle tested with the 2,500 RPM unloaded fast idle test under R18-2-1019(E).

b. A vehicle tested under subsection (E)(2) shall meet the standards in Table 3 and pass the evaporative system pressure test as follows:

i. Table 3 Standards. A vehicle shall meet either the composite standard for the whole test or the phase 2 standard for seconds 65 to 146. The Department may implement a testing algorithm for fast pass, fast fail, or both, provided that the algorithm is reliable in accurately predicting the final outcome of the entire cycle. A vehicle not meeting either the composite or phase 2 standard shall fail the emissions test.

ii. Evaporative System Pressure Test. A vehicle fails the emissions test if the evaporative system cannot maintain a system pressure above eight inches of water for at least two minutes after being pressurized to 14 &#177; 0.5 inches of water. Additionally, a vehicle fails the evaporative test if the canister is missing or damaged, if a hose or electrical connection is missing, routed incorrectly, or disconnected, according to the vehicle emissions control information label, or if the gas cap is missing.

c. A vehicle that operates on natural gas complies with HC emissions standards if the HC emissions value does not exceed the applicable standard in subsection (E)(5)(a) or (b), if:

i. Multiplied by 0.19, when using an analyzer with a flame ionization detector, or

ii. Multiplied by 0.61, when using an NDIR analyzer.

d. A motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, except one requiring an OBD emissions test under subsection (E)(3), that does not exceed the curb idle mode HC and CO emissions standards listed in Table 2 on either the first curb idle test or the second curb idle test passes the emissions test.

e. A vehicle tested under subsection (E)(3) shall:

i. Fail if the data link connector is missing, tampered, or otherwise inoperable during any OBD test;

ii. Fail if the MIL does not illuminate at all when the ignition key is turned to the key on, engine off position, or does not illuminate briefly during engine start during any OBD test;

iii. Fail if the MIL illuminates continuously or flashes after the engine has been started during any OBD test;

iv. Fail if a diagnostic trouble code is present and the MIL status, as indicated by the scan tool, is commanded on during any OBD test.

v. Be rejected from an initial OBD test and required to take and pass a transient loaded test under subsection (E)(2) if the number of unset readiness indicators, excluding continuous indicators, is three or more for a model year 1996-2000 vehicle, or two or more for a model year 2001 and newer vehicle.

vi. Be rejected from an OBD retest if the number of unset readiness indicators, excluding continuous indicators, exceeds the number allowed in subsection (v).

vii. Fail the functional gas cap test if the gas cap does not comply with subsection (E)(6)(a).

f. A vehicle that exceeds the applicable emissions standards for the tests described in subsections (E)(1) and (E)(2)(a), or fails the OBD test described in subsection (E)(3), fails the emissions test and shall not be reinspected until a low-emissions tune-up is performed as described in R18-2-1010. A vehicle that fails the evaporative system pressure test described in subsection (E)(2)(b) shall not be reinspected until repaired as required in R18-2-1010(D)(1) and (2). A vehicle that fails the functional gas cap test described in subsection (E)(6)(a) shall not be reinspected until repaired as required in R18-2-1009(B).

6. A vehicle required to take an annual emissions test in area A shall, at the time of the test, undergo a tampering inspection based on the original configuration of the vehicle as manufactured. The applicable emissions system requirements shall be verified by the "VEHICLE EMISSION CONTROL INFORMATION" label. A vehicle that fails any portion of the tampering inspection shall be repaired according to R18-2-1009 before reinspection unless the owner provides the written statement required in R18-2-1008(B). "Original configuration" for a foreign- manufactured vehicle means the design and construction of a vehicle produced by the manufacturer for original entry and sale in the United States. The tampering inspection shall consist of the following:

a. Any vehicle emissions tested, except one with a vented fuel system, shall have a functional test of the gas cap to determine that cap leakage does not exceed 60 cubic centimeters of air per minute at a pressure of 30 inches of water gauge. A vehicle with a vented fuel system shall be checked for the presence of a properly fitting fuel cap.

b. For a 1975 and newer model year vehicle:

i. A visual inspection to determine the presence and proper installation of each required catalytic converter, if applicable;

ii. An examination to determine the presence of an operational air pump, if applicable; and

iii. A visual inspection to determine the presence of an operational positive crankcase ventilation system and evaporative control system, if applicable.

F. In area B, the inspection test procedures for a vehicle other than a diesel-powered vehicle shall consist of the following:

1. An area B vehicle with a model year of 1967 through 1980 shall take and pass only a curb idle test. The curb idle test shall be performed with the vehicle in drive for automatic transmissions or in neutral for manual transmissions. Engine RPM shall be within &#177; 100 RPM of the manufacturer's specified idle RPM. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 30 seconds, whichever occurs first. A CO

2

plus CO reading of 6% or greater shall be registered to establish test validity. A CO

2

plus CO reading less than 6% shall be proof of exhaust sample dilution and the vehicle shall be rejected from further emissions inspection until repaired, except when tested at a fleet emissions inspection station. If the vehicle fails the curb idle test, and if permitted by the vehicle operator, the vehicle shall be conditioned according to one of the following conditioning procedures:

a. Fast-idle conditioning procedure. The vehicle shall be conditioned by increasing engine speed to 2,500, &#177; 300 RPM, for up to 30 seconds with the transmission in neutral. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 30 seconds, whichever occurs first. The conditioning procedure standards in Table 2 are for diagnostic and advisory information only. After exhaust emissions are recorded, the engine speed shall be returned to curb idle for a second idle test. The fast-idle conditioning procedure may be used on a vehicle at a state station instead of the loaded conditioning procedure if any of the following occurs:

i. The vehicle has a tire on a driving wheel with less than 2/32-inch tread, with metal protuberances, with visibly low tire pressure as determined by visual inspection, or any other condition that precludes loaded conditioning for reasons of personnel, equipment, or vehicle safety;

ii. The vehicle is driven by a person who, because of physical incapacity, is unable to yield the driver's seat to the vehicle emissions inspector;

iii. The driver refuses to yield the driver's seat to the vehicle emissions inspector; or

iv. The vehicle cannot be tested according to Table 1 because of the vehicle's inability to attain the speeds specified.

b. Loaded conditioning procedure. For a vehicle other than a motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, the vehicle's drive wheels shall be placed on a dynamometer and the vehicle shall be operated according to Table 1, in drive for automatic transmission, or second or higher gear for manual transmission. All front wheel drive vehicles shall be driven by the inspector. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 30 seconds, whichever occurs first. The conditioning procedure standards in Table 2 are for diagnostic and advisory information only. After exhaust emissions are recorded, engine speed shall be returned to curb idle for a second idle test.

c. Following one of the conditioning procedures in subsection (a) or (b), the vehicle shall be retested according to the curb idle test procedure in subsection (1).

2. An area B vehicle with a 1981 or newer model year, except a motorcycle, a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, or a 1996 and newer vehicle equipped with OBD, shall take and pass a loaded cruise test and curb idle test, as follows:

a. Loaded Cruise Test. The vehicle's drive wheels shall be placed on a dynamometer and the vehicle shall be operated according to Table 1, in drive for automatic transmission or second or higher gear for manual transmission. Overdrive shall not be used. All front wheel drive vehicles shall be driven by the inspector. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 90 seconds, whichever occurs first. After exhaust emissions are recorded, engine speed shall be returned to idle for a curb idle test.

b. Curb Idle Test. The test shall be performed with the vehicle in neutral. Engine RPM shall be within &#177; 100 RPM of the manufacturer's specified idle RPM. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized, or at the end of 90 seconds, whichever occurs first. A CO

2

plus CO reading of 6% or greater shall be registered to establish test validity, except when tested at a fleet inspection station. A CO

2

plus CO reading less than 6% shall be proof of exhaust sample dilution and the vehicle shall be rejected from further emissions inspection until repaired.

3. A vehicle with a model year of 1996 or newer and a GVWR of 8500 pounds or less, except a motorcycle or a reconstructed vehicle, is required to annually take and pass an OBD test and a functional gas cap test as follows:

a. The OBD test shall consist of:

i. A visual inspection of the MIL function; and

ii. An electronic examination of the OBD computer by connecting a scan tool to the data link connector and interrogating the OBD system to determine vehicle readiness status, MIL status, and presence of diagnostic trouble codes;

b. The OBD test and test equipment shall conform to "Performing Onboard Diagnostic System Checks as Part of a Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program," EPA420-R-01-015, EPA, June 2001, incorporated by reference, and no future editions or amendments. A copy of this incorporated material is on file with the Department and the Secretary of State and may be obtained at the EPA's National Vehicle and Fuel Emissions Laboratory, 2565 Plymouth Road, Ann Arbor, MI, 48105-2498; and

c. The functional gas cap test shall comply with subsection (F)(6)(a).

4. A motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, except one requiring an OBD emissions test under subsection (F)(3), shall take and pass only a curb idle test according to subsection (1). An all-terrain vehicle (ATV), as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 28-101, shall be tested as a motorcycle. If the vehicle fails the curb idle test, and if permitted by the vehicle operator, the vehicle shall be conditioned according to the fast idle conditioning procedure required in subsection (1)(a). Following conditioning, the vehicle shall be retested according to the curb idle test procedure in subsection (1).

5. The emissions pass-fail determination shall be made as follows:

a. A vehicle with a model year of 1967 through 1980, except a motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, that does not exceed the curb idle mode HC and CO emissions standards in Table 2 on either the first or second curb idle test, complies with the minimum emissions standards contained in Table 2.

b. A vehicle with a 1981 or newer model year, except a motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, that does not exceed the loaded cruise mode or curb idle mode HC and CO emissions standards listed in Table 2, complies with the minimum emissions standards in Table 2. The loaded cruise test standards specified in Table 2 shall apply to fleet vehicles tested with the 2,500 RPM unloaded fast idle test.

c. A vehicle that operates on natural gas complies with HC emissions standards if the HC emissions value, as determined by an NDIR analyzer, multiplied by 0.61 does not exceed the applicable standard in subsection (F)(5)(a) or (b).

d. A motorcycle or a constant 4-wheel drive vehicle, except one requiring an OBD emissions test under subsection (F)(3), that does not exceed the curb idle mode HC and CO emissions standards in Table 2 on either the first or second curb idle test complies with the minimum emissions standards in Table 2.

e. A vehicle that exceeds the applicable emissions standards, or fails the OBD test described in subsection (F)(3), fails the emissions test and shall have a low emissions tune-up as described in R18-2-1010 before reinspection. A vehicle that fails the functional gas cap test described in subsection (F)(3)(c) shall not be reinspected until repaired as required in R18-2-1009(B).

f. A vehicle tested under subsection (F)(3) shall:

i. Fail if the data link connector is missing, tampered, or otherwise inoperable during any OBD test;

ii. Fail if the MIL does not illuminate at all when the ignition key is turned to the key on, engine off position, or does not illuminate briefly during engine start during any OBD test;

iii. Fail if the MIL illuminates continuously or flashes after the engine has been started during any OBD test;

iv. Fail if a diagnostic trouble code is present and the MIL status, as indicated by the scan tool, is commanded on during any OBD test;

v. Be rejected from an initial OBD test and required to take and pass a loaded cruise test and curb idle test under subsection (F)(2) if the number of unset readiness indicators, excluding continuous indicators, is three or more for a model year 1996-2000 vehicle, or two or more for a model year 2001 and newer vehicle;

vi. Be rejected from an OBD retest if the number of unset readiness indicators, excluding continuous indicators, exceeds the number allowed in subsection (v); and

vii. Fail the functional gas cap test if the gas cap does not comply with subsection (F)(6)(a).

6. A vehicle required to take an emissions test in area B, except a vehicle required to take an OBD test as described in subsection (F)(3), shall at the time of the test, undergo a tampering inspection based on the original configuration of the vehicle as manufactured The applicable emissions system requirements shall be verified by the "VEHICLE EMISSION CONTROL INFORMATION" label. A vehicle that fails any portion of the tampering inspection shall be repaired according to R18-2-1009 before reinspection unless the owner provides the written statement required in R18-2-1008(B). "Original configuration" for a foreign manufactured vehicle means the design and construction of a vehicle produced by the manufacturer for original entry and sale in the United States. The tampering inspection shall consist of the following:

a. Any vehicle emissions tested, except one with a vented fuel system, shall have a functional test of the gas cap to determine that cap leakage does not exceed 60 cubic centimeters of air per minute at a pressure of 30 inches of water gauge. A vehicle with a non-sealing gas cap shall be checked for the presence of a properly fitting gas cap.

b. For a 1975 or newer model year vehicle:

i. A visual inspection to determine the presence and proper installation of each required catalytic converter, if applicable; and

ii. An examination to determine the presence of an operational air pump, if applicable.

7. Exhaust sampling in area B shall comply with the following:

a. All CO and HC emissions analyzers shall have water traps incorporated in the sampling lines. Sampling probes shall be capable of taking undiluted exhaust samples from a vehicle exhaust system.

b. A vehicle, other than a diesel-powered vehicle, shall be inspected with a NDIR analyzer capable of determining concentrations of CO and HC within the ranges and tolerances specified in Table 5.

c. A vehicle with multiple exhaust pipes shall be inspected by collecting and averaging samples by one of the following methods:

i. Collect separate samples from each exhaust pipe and use the average concentration to determine the test result;

ii. Use manifold exhaust probes to simultaneously sample approximately equal volumes from each pipe; or

iii. Use manifold exhaust pipe adapters to collect approximately equal volume samples from each pipe.

G. The following apply to all testing under subsection (E) or (F):

1. A rotary piston engine shall be inspected as a 4-stroke engine with four cylinders or less;

2. A turbine engine shall be inspected as a 4-stroke engine with more than four cylinders; and

3. A vehicle in which a diesel engine has been replaced with a gas engine shall be inspected as a gas-powered vehicle of the same vehicle model year. The vehicle shall not pass the inspection unless each catalytic converter, air pump, gas cap, and other emissions control device applicable to the vehicle model year and the same or more recent year engine configuration is properly installed and in operating condition.

H. In area A, the inspection test procedure for a diesel-powered vehicle is as follows:

1. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 8,500 pounds shall be tested with a procedure that conforms to Society of Automotive Engineers standard J1667, February 1996, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Secretary of State. This incorporation by reference contains no future editions or amendments. A copy of this referenced material may be obtained at Society of Automotive Engineers, 400 Commonwealth Dr., Warrendale, PA 15096-0001. The procedure shall utilize the corrections for ambient test conditions in Appendix B of J1667 for all tests. The test results shall be reported as the percentage of smoke opacity. Emissions pass-fail determinations are as follows:

a. A vehicle powered by a 1991 or later model year diesel engine fails if the J1667 final test result is greater than 40%, unless the engine family is exempted from the 40% standard under subsection (e);

b. A vehicle powered by a pre-1991 model year diesel engine fails if the J1667 final test result is greater than 55%, unless the engine family is exempted from the 55% standard under subsection (e);

c. The engine model year is determined by the emission control label. If the emission control label is missing, illegible, or incorrect, the test standard shall be 40%, unless a correct, legible, emission control label replacement is attached to the vehicle within 30 days of the inspection;

d. A vehicle that exceeds the opacity standard in subsection (a) or (b) fails the emissions test. Before reinspection, the vehicle shall have a low emissions tune-up as described in R18-2-1010(G);

e. The Director shall exempt any engine family from the standards in subsections (a) or (b) if the engine manufacturer demonstrates either of the following:

i. The engine family exhibits smoke opacity greater than the standard when in good operating condition and adjusted to the manufacturer's specifications. The Director shall identify a technologically appropriate less stringent standard based on a review of data obtained from engines in good operating condition and adjusted to manufacturer's specifications; or

ii. The engine family is exempted from an equivalent standard based on J1667 by the executive officer of the California Air Resources Board (CARB). The Director shall allow the engine family to comply with any technologically appropriate less stringent standard identified by the executive officer of CARB; and

f. A demonstration under subsection (e)(i) shall be based on data from at least three vehicles. Data from official inspections under subsection (H)(1) showing that vehicles in the engine family meet the standard may be used to rebut the demonstration. The Director shall implement any new standard resulting from each exemption as soon as practicable for all subsequent tests and provide notice at all affected test stations and fleets.

2. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 4,000 pounds and less than or equal to 8,500 pounds shall be tested by a loaded dynamometer test by applying a single load of 30 HP, &#177; 2 HP, while operated at 50 MPH. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR of 4,000 pounds or less shall be tested by a loaded dynamometer test by applying a single load of between 6.4 - 8.4 HP while operated at 30 MPH. For all diesel-powered vehicles with a GVWR less than or equal to 8,500 pounds:

a. The emissions pass-fail determination shall be made as follows:

i. The opacity reading for a period of ten consecutive seconds with the engine under applicable loading shall be compared to the opacity standard in R18-2-1030(B). A vehicle that does not exceed the applicable opacity standard in R18-2-1030(B) complies with the minimum emissions standards.

ii. A vehicle that exceeds the applicable opacity standard fails the emissions test. Before reinspection, the vehicle shall have a low emissions tune-up as described in R18-2-1010.

b. Exhaust sampling shall comply with the following:

i. For a diesel-powered vehicle equipped with multiple pipes, separate measurements shall be made on each exhaust pipe. The reading taken from the exhaust pipe that has the highest opacity reading shall be used for comparison with the applicable emissions standard.

ii. A vehicle shall be inspected with either a full-flow or sampling-type opacity meter. The opacity meter shall be a direct reading, continuous reading light extinction-type using a collimated light source and photo-electric cell, accurate to a value within &#177; 5% of filter value.

I. In area B, the inspection test procedure for a diesel-powered vehicle is as follows:

1. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 26,000 pounds or having tandem axles shall be tested according to one of the following methods:

a. The vehicle shall be tested on a chassis dynamometer beginning with no power absorption by selecting a gear ratio that produces a maximum vehicle speed of 30-35 MPH at governed or maximum rated RPM. If the vehicle has a manual transmission or an automatic transmission with individual gear selection, the engine shall be operated at governed or maximum rated engine RPM, at normal operating temperature under a power absorption load applied to the dynamometer until the loading reduces the engine RPM to 80% of the governed speed at wide-open throttle position. If the vehicle has an automatic transmission and automatic gear kickdown, the engine shall be loaded to a speed just above the kickdown speed or 80% of the governed speed, whichever is greater. If the chassis dynamometer does not have enough horsepower absorption capability to lug the engine down to these speeds, the vehicle's brakes may be used to assist the dynamometer.

b. If a chassis dynamometer is not available, the vehicle shall be tested by being lugged by its own brakes by selecting a gear ratio that produces a maximum speed of 10-15 MPH at governed engine RPM or maximum rated RPM and then loading the engine by applying the brakes until the engine RPM is lugged down to 80% of the governed or maximum rated RPM at wide-open throttle position. If the vehicle does not have a tachometer, the vehicle may be loaded to 80% of governed or maximum rated speed.

2. A diesel-powered vehicle without tandem axles and having a GVWR greater than 10,500 pounds and less than or equal to 26,000 pounds shall be tested according to one of the following methods:

a. The vehicle shall be tested on a chassis dynamometer beginning with no power absorption by selecting a gear ratio that produces a maximum vehicle speed of 30-35 MPH at governed or maximum rated RPM. If the vehicle has a manual transmission or an automatic transmission with individual gear selection, the engine shall be operated at governed or maximum rated engine RPM, at normal operating temperature under a power absorption load applied to the dynamometer until such loading reduces the engine RPM to 80% of the governed speed at wide-open throttle position. If the vehicle has an automatic transmission and automatic gear kickdown, the engine shall be loaded to a speed just above the kickdown speed or 80% of governed speed, whichever is greater. If the chassis dynamometer does not have enough horsepower absorption capability to lug the engine down to these speeds, the vehicle's brakes may be used to assist the dynamometer;

b. The vehicle shall be tested by applying a single load of 30 HP, &#177; 2 HP, while operated at 50 MPH; or

c. The vehicle shall be tested by being lugged by its own brakes by selecting a gear ratio that produces a maximum speed of 10-15 MPH at governed engine RPM or maximum rated RPM and then loading the engine by applying the brakes until the engine RPM is lugged down to 80% of the governed or maximum rated RPM at wide-open throttle position. If the vehicle does not have a tachometer, the vehicle may be loaded to 80% of governed or maximum rated speed.

3. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR of greater than 4,000 pounds and less than or equal to 10,500 pounds shall be tested by a loaded dynamometer test by applying a single load of 30 HP, &#177; 2 HP, while operated at 50 MPH.

4. A diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR of 4,000 pounds or less shall be tested by a loaded dynamometer test by applying a single load of between 6.4 - 8.4 HP while operated at 30 MPH.

5. The emissions pass-fail determination shall be performed:

a. The opacity reading during a period of ten consecutive seconds with the engine under applicable loading specified in subsections (1) through (4) shall be compared to the opacity standard specified in R18-2-1030(B). A vehicle that does not exceed the opacity standard in R18-2-1030(B) complies with the minimum emissions standards.

b. A vehicle that exceeds the standard in R18-2-1030(B) fails the emissions test. Before reinspection, the vehicle shall have a low emissions tune-up as described in R18-2-1010.

6. Exhaust sampling shall comply with the following:

a. For a diesel-powered vehicle equipped with multiple exhaust pipes, separate measurements shall be made on each exhaust pipe. The reading taken from the exhaust pipe that has the highest opacity reading shall be used for comparison with the standard in R18-2-1030(B).

b. A vehicle shall be inspected with either a full-flow or sampling-type opacity meter. The opacity meter shall be a direct reading, continuous reading light extinction-type using a collimated light source and photo-electric cell, accurate to a value within &#177; 5% of filter value.

J. All diesel-powered vehicles shall undergo a tampering inspection under subsection (E)(6).

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1006 repealed, new Section R9-3-1006 adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective November 1, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-3-1006 repealed, new Section R9-3-1006 adopted as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1006 as amended effective February 20, 1980 repealed and a new Section R9-3-1006 adopted as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 now adopted and amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1006 renumbered as Section R18-2-1006 and subsections (A), (C) and (D) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective October 15, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2722, effective June 28, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1007" level="4" title="Evidence of Meeting State Inspection Requirements">

Evidence of Meeting State Inspection Requirements

A. Vehicles required to be inspected under this Article shall pass inspection before registration by meeting the requirements of R18-2-1006, unless waived under R18-2-1008.

B. The MVD or its agent may use the MVD motor vehicles emissions database, if available, as evidence that a vehicle complies with the requirements of this Article.

C. If the MVD motor vehicles emissions database is not available, the MVD or its agent shall accept any of the following documents, when complete, unaltered, and dated no more than 90 days before registration expiration date, as evidence that a vehicle complies with the requirements of this Article unless the MVD or its agent has reason to believe it is false. Documents accompanying a late registration may be dated subsequent to the registration expiration date:

1. Certificate of compliance,

2. Certificate of waiver (except from auto dealers licensed to sell used motor vehicles under Title 28),

3. Certificate of exemption, or

4. Director's certificate,

5. The upper section of the vehicle inspection report with "PASS" in the final results block.

D. A complete certificate of inspection dated within 12 months of registration for an annually tested vehicle and 24 months for a biennially tested vehicle shall be accepted by the MVD or its agent as evidence that a vehicle is in compliance with the requirements of this Article unless the MVD or its agent has reason to believe it is false. A certificate corrected according to R18-2-1019(F)(1)(a) shall be accepted by the MVD or its agent.

E. Documents listed in subsection (C) and originating in area B are not acceptable for meeting the inspection requirements in area A.

F. Government vehicles for which only weight fees are paid shall be registered without evidence of inspection.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1007 repealed, new Section R9-3-1007 adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1007 repealed, new Section R9-3-1007 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Former Section R9-3-1007 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-1007 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1008" level="4" title="Procedure for Issuing Certificates of Waiver">

Procedure for Issuing Certificates of Waiver

A. Unless prohibited under subsection (C), (D), or (E), a certificate of waiver shall be issued subsequent to reinspection by a state inspector at a state or Department station to a vehicle that failed the emissions inspection or the emissions and tampering inspections when it is determined by repair receipts, emissions test results, evidence of repairs performed, underhood verification, or similar evidence that the requirements of R18-2-1009 and R18-2-1010 have been met, or for emissions failures only, any further repairs within the repair cost limit would be ineffective. A waiver may be denied if a waiver request is based upon repair estimates and the state inspector demonstrates that a recognized repair facility can repair or improve the vehicle's test readings within the repair cost limit.

B. A certificate of waiver may be issued to a vehicle failing the tampering inspection if the vehicle owner provides to the Director a written statement from an automobile parts or repair business that an emission control device necessary to repair the tampering is not available and cannot be obtained from any usual source of supply, and if all requirements of R18-2-1008(A) have been met. All written statements are subject to verification for authenticity and accuracy by the Department. The Department may deny a certificate of waiver if the state inspector has any reason to believe the written statement is false or a usual source of supply exists and the device necessary to repair the tampering is available. Certificates of waiver for tampered vehicles may be issued conditionally for a specified period, not to exceed 90 days, that allows sufficient time for the procurement and installation of a proper emissions control device. A receipt or bill from a vehicle repair facility or automobile parts store shall be an acceptable proof of purchase. Before the end of the specified time period, the vehicle owner shall present to the Director proof of purchase and installation of the device. The Department shall track all issued conditional certificates of waiver and if no proof of purchase and installation is received before the end of the specified time period, the Director shall forward to the Department of Motor Vehicles an order to cancel the vehicle's registration.

C. The Director shall not issue a waiver to a vehicle that has failed the emissions test due to the catalytic converter system. A vehicle shall have failed the emissions test due to the catalytic converter system if:

1. The converter's oxidation efficiency, as measured by the Catalyst Efficiency Test Procedure in R18-2-1031(A), is less than 75%; and

2. No engine or fuel system malfunctions exist that would prevent the proper operation of a catalytic converter.

D. The Director shall not issue a waiver to a vehicle failing the emission test with an HC, CO, NOx, or opacity emission level greater than two times the pass-fail standard in R18-2-1006, unless the vehicle is repaired so that each emission level is less than two times the pass-fail standard.

E. After January 1, 1997, the Director shall not issue a certificate of waiver to the same vehicle more than once.

F. The fee for a certificate of waiver under this Section shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated costs to the state for administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article for issuance of certificates of waiver under this Section. The fee shall be payable directly to the Department of Environmental Quality at the time the certificate of waiver is issued.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-3-1008 repealed, new Section R9-3-1008 adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former R9-3-1008 repealed, new Section R9-3-1008 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1008 as amended effective January 3, 1979, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsection (A) and added subsection (D) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1008 renumbered as Section R18-2-1008 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1009" level="4" title="Tampering Repair Requirements">

Tampering Repair Requirements

A. If a vehicle fails the visual inspection for properly installed catalytic converters, the converters shall be replaced with new or reconditioned OEM converters or equivalent new aftermarket converters. The Department shall provide names of acceptable aftermarket converters at the time of inspection on the repair requirement list.

B. If a vehicle fails the functional gas cap pressure test described in R18-2-1006(E)(6)(a) or (F)(6)(a), the gas cap shall be replaced with one that meets those specifications. If a vehicle designed with a vented system fails a visual inspection for the presence of a gas cap, a properly fitting gas cap shall be installed on the vehicle.

C. If a vehicle fails the visual inspection for the presence of an operational air pump, a new, used, or reconditioned, operational air pump shall be properly installed on the vehicle.

D. If a vehicle fails the visual inspection for the presence or malfunction of the positive crankcase ventilation system, the system shall be repaired or replaced with OEM or equivalent aftermarket parts.

E. If a vehicle fails the visual inspection for the presence or malfunction of the evaporative control system, the system shall be repaired or replaced with OEM or equivalent aftermarket parts.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Repealed effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). New Section R9-3-1009 adopted effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1009 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-1009 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1010" level="4" title="Low Emissions Tune-up, Emissions and Evaporative System Repair">

Low Emissions Tune-up, Emissions and Evaporative System Repair

A. A low emissions tune-up on a nondiesel-powered vehicle consists of the following procedures:

1. Emissions Failure Diagnosis. For a computer-controlled vehicle, the on-board-diagnostics shall be accessed and any stored trouble codes recorded. For a model year 1996 or newer vehicle equipped with an OBD system, a compatible scan tool shall be used to access and record diagnostic trouble codes. The following instruments or equipment are required to complete a low emissions tune-up:

a. Tachometer;

b. Timing light;

c. Engine analyzer or oscilloscope, and

d. A HC/CO NDIR analyzer to make final A/F adjustments, if specified by the manufacturer,

2. Adjustment. All adjustments shall be made according to the manufacturer's specifications and procedures. Final adjustment shall be made on the vehicle engine only after the engine is at normal operating temperature.

3. Inspection of Air Cleaner, Choke, and Air Intake System. A dirty or plugged air cleaner, stuck choke, or restricted air intake system shall be replaced or repaired as required.

4. Dwell and Basic Timing Check. Dwell and basic engine timing shall be checked and adjusted, if necessary, according to manufacturer's specifications.

5. Inspection of PCV Valve. The PCV valve shall be checked to ensure that it is the type recommended by the manufacturer and is correctly operating. Free flow through the PCV system passages and hoses shall be verified. Repair or replace as required.

6. Inspection of Vacuum Hoses. The vacuum hoses shall be inspected for leaks, obstruction, and proper routing and connection. Repair or replace as required.

7. Perform a visual inspection for leaking fuel lines or system components. Repair or replace as required.

8. Idle Speed and A/F Mixture Check. The idle speed and A/F mixture shall be checked and adjusted according to manufacturer's specifications and procedures. If the vehicle is equipped with a fuel injection system or an alternate fuel (LPG or LNG), the manufacturer's recommended adjustment procedure shall be followed.

B. A vehicle that fails reinspection does not qualify for a waiver unless a low emissions tune-up and diagnosis is performed on the vehicle.

C. If the maximum required repair cost in subsection (E) or (F) is not exceeded after a low emissions tune-up described in subsection (A), then the following procedures apply:

1. CO failure.

a. If a vehicle fails CO only, the vehicle shall be checked for:

i. Proper canister purge system operation,

ii. High float setting,

iii. Leaky power valve, and

iv. Faulty or worn needles, seats, jets or improper jet size.

b. If applicable, the following shall also be checked:

i. Computer,

ii. Engine and computer sensors,

iii. Engine solenoids,

iv. Engine thermostats,

v. Engine switches,

vi. Coolant switches,

vii. Throttle body or port fuel injection system,

viii. Fuel injectors,

ix. Fuel line routing and integrity,

x. Air in fuel system including line and pump,

xi. Fuel return system,

xii. Injection pump,

xiii. Fuel injection timing,

xiv. Routing of vacuum hoses, and

xv. Electrical connections.

c. The items in subsections (a) and (b) shall be repaired or replaced as required.

2. HC, or HC and CO failure.

a. If a vehicle fails HC, or HC and CO, the vehicle shall be checked for:

i. Faulty spark plugs and faulty, open, crossed, or disconnected plug wires;

ii. Distributor module;

iii. Vacuum hose routing and electrical connections;

iv. Distributor component malfunctions including vacuum advance;

v. Faulty points or condenser;

vi. Distributor cap crossfire;

vii. Catalytic converter efficiency air supply;

viii. Vacuum leaks at intake manifold, carburetor base gasket, EGR, and vacuum-operated components.

b. The items in subsection (a) shall be repaired or replaced as required.

3. NOx failure.

a. If a vehicle fails NOx, the vehicle shall be checked for:

i. Removed, plugged, or malfunctioning EGR valve, exhaust gas ports, lines, and passages;

ii. EGR valve electrical and vacuum control circuitry, components, and computer control, as applicable;

iii. Above normal engine operating temperature;

iv. Proper air management;

v. Lean A/F mixture;

vi. Catalytic converter efficiency; and

vii. Over-advanced off-idle timing.

b. The items in subsection (a) shall be repaired or replaced as required.

4. OBD failure. If the vehicle fails the OBD test, the vehicle shall be repaired for the items indicated on the Vehicle Emissions Report as causing the failure. If the failure results from Diagnostic Trouble Codes (DTCs) that caused the Malfunction Indicator Lamp (MIL) to be illuminated, the components or systems causing the DTCs shall be repaired or replaced. After repair of a DTC failure, and before reinspection, the vehicle shall be operated under conditions recommended by the vehicle manufacturer for the OBD computer to evaluate the repaired system.

D. For Evaporative System Failures, the following procedures apply:

1. If a vehicle fails the evaporative system pressure test, the vehicle shall be checked for leaking or disconnected vapor hoses, line, gas cap, and fuel tank.

2. If a vehicle fails a visual inspection of the evaporative system, the vehicle shall be checked for a missing or damaged canister, canister electrical and vacuum control circuits and components, disconnected, damaged, mis-routed or plugged hoses, and damaged or missing purge valves. Repair or replace as necessary.

E. The maximum required repair cost for a vehicle in area A, not including cost to repair the vehicle for failing an evaporative system pressure test due to tampering, or other tampering repair cost, is:

1. For a diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 26,000 pounds or a diesel-powered vehicle with tandem axles, $500; and

2. For a vehicle that is not a diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 26,000 pounds and is not a diesel-powered vehicle with tandem axles:

a. Two hundred dollars for a vehicle manufactured in or before the 1974 model year;

b. Three hundred dollars for a vehicle manufactured in the 1975 through 1979 model years; and

c. Four hundred fifty dollars for a vehicle manufactured in or after the 1980 model year.

Subsection (E) does not prevent a vehicle owner from authorizing or performing more than the required repairs. A vehicle operator who has a vehicle reinspected shall have the repair receipts available when requesting a certificate of waiver.

F. The maximum required repair cost for vehicles in area B, not including tampering repair cost, is:

1. For a diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 26,000 pounds or a diesel-powered vehicle with tandem axles, $300; and

2. For a vehicle that is not a diesel-powered vehicle with a GVWR greater than 26,000 pounds and is not a diesel-powered vehicle with tandem axles:

a. Fifty dollars for a vehicle manufactured in or before the 1974 model year;

b. Two hundred dollars for a vehicle manufactured in the 1975 through 1979 model years; and

c. Three hundred dollars for a vehicle manufactured in or after the 1980 model year.

Subsection (F) does not prevent a vehicle owner from authorizing or performing more than the required repairs. A vehicle operator who has a vehicle reinspected shall have the repair receipts available when requesting a certificate of waiver.

G. A low emissions tune-up on a diesel-powered vehicle consists of the following procedures:

1. Inspect for dirty or plugged air cleaner, or restricted air intake system. Repair or replace as required.

2. Check fuel injection system timing according to manufacturer's specifications. Adjust as required.

3. Check for fuel injector fouling, leaking, or mismatch. Repair or replace as required.

4. Check fuel pump and A/F ratio control according to manufacturer's specifications. Adjust as required.

5. If the vehicle fails the J1667 procedure, check smoke-limiting devices, if any, including the aneroid valve and puff limiter. Repair or replace as required.

H. Any available warranty coverage for a vehicle shall be used to obtain needed repairs before an expenditure can be counted toward the cost limits in subsection (E) and (F). If the operator of a vehicle within the age and mileage coverage of section 207(b) of the Clean Air Act presents a written denial of warranty coverage from the manufacturer or authorized dealer, warranty coverage is not considered available under this subsection.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1010 repealed, new Section R9-3-1010 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1010 as amended effective February 20, 1980, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1010 renumbered as Section R18-2-1010 and subsection (D) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994

(Supp. 94-4). Amended effective October 15, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1011" level="4" title="Vehicle Inspection Report">

Vehicle Inspection Report

A. A vehicle inspected at a state station shall be provided a uniquely numbered vehicle inspection report of a design approved by the Director that contains, at a minimum, the following information:

1. License plate number;

2. Vehicle identification number;

3. Model year of vehicle;

4. Make of vehicle;

5. Style of vehicle;

6. Type of fuel;

7. Odometer reading to the nearest 1000 miles, truncated;

8. Emissions standards for idle and loaded cruise modes, if applicable;

9. Emissions measurements during idle and loaded cruise modes, if applicable;

10. Opacity measurements and standards, if applicable;

11. Emissions standards and measurements for the transient loaded test, and the evaporative system pressure test, if applicable;

12. Results of OBD test including all diagnostic trouble codes that commanded the illumination of the malfunction indicator lamp;

13. Tampering inspection results;

14. Repair requirements;

15. Final test results;

16. Repairs performed;

17. Cost of emissions-related repairs;

18. Cost of tampering-related repairs;

19. Name, address, and telephone number of the business or person making repairs;

20. Signature and certification number of person certifying repairs;

21. Date of inspection;

22. Test results of the previous inspection if the inspection is a reinspection;

23. Inspection station, lane locators; and

24. Test number and time of test.

B. A vehicle failing the initial inspection shall receive an inspection report supplement approved by the Department containing, at a minimum, the following:

1. Diagnostic and tampering information including acceptable replacement units, and

2. Applicable maximum repair costs.

C. The inspection report shall provide a 3-inch by 5-inch tear-out section that may be used as a certificate of compliance for vehicles passing the inspection or as a certificate of waiver, if applicable.

1. The tear-out section shall be a certificate of compliance when the word "compliance" appears in the appropriate location on the printout.

2. The tear-out section shall be a certificate of waiver when the word "waiver" appears in the appropriate location on the printout.

3. The tear-out section shall contain all of the following information:

a. License plate number,

b. Vehicle identification number,

c. Final results,

d. Serial number of the inspection report,

e. Date of inspection,

f. Model year,

g. Make,

h. Date of initial inspection, and

i. Inspection fee.

D. At the time of registration or reregistration, the certificate of compliance or certificate of waiver may be submitted to the Arizona Department of Transportation Motor Vehicle Division as evidence of meeting the requirements of this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1011 repealed, new Section R9-3-1011 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1011 as amended effective January 3, 1979, and as amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsections (A) and (B) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1011 renumbered as Section R18-2-1011 and amended by removing subsection (E) effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1012" level="4" title="Inspection Procedures and Fee">

Inspection Procedures and Fee

A. A vehicle that is inspected by a state station must be accompanied by a document such as a registration renewal notice, registration, certificate of title, or bill of sale that identifies the vehicle by make, model year, identification number, and license plate if applicable.

B. If the vehicle inspection report from the previous test is used, it shall be retained by the test lane inspector.

C. The fees for emissions inspections at a state station shall be specified in the contract between the contractor and the state of Arizona according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall include the full cost of the vehicle emissions inspection program including administration, implementation, and enforcement. Each fee is payable directly to the contractor at the time and place of inspection in cash or by check approved by the contractor. The amount collected by the contractor to defray the cost of the inspection shall be retained by the contractor. The amount collected to defray the cost of the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the vehicle emissions inspection program shall be remitted to the Department. Amounts collected shall be recorded and reported to the Department monthly. The contractor shall submit to the state of Arizona on a monthly basis, by the 10th day of each month, a report showing the number of inspections performed and the amount of fees collected.

D. Each subsequent inspection, if needed, shall be treated by the state and the contractor in the same manner as an initial inspection and reinspection, providing for a free reinspection according to R18-2-1013, if needed, following a paid inspection. The fee for each paid reinspection shall be the full fee as provided for in the contract with the contractor.

E. A state station emissions inspector shall not recommend repairs or repair facilities.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1012 repealed, new Section R9-3-1012 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1012 as amended effective January 3, 1979, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended subsections (A) and (D) effective November 9, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Former Section R9-3-1012 renumbered as Section R18-2-1012 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1013" level="4" title="Reinspections">

Reinspections

A. A vehicle failing the initial inspection or any subsequent paid inspection is entitled to one reinspection at no additional charge under the following conditions:

1. The vehicle is presented for inspection within 60 calendar days of the initial or any subsequent paid inspection, if the vehicle operator presents the vehicle inspection report from the previous inspection, indicating the itemization of the repairs performed.

2. Emissions-related repairs or adjustments and any tampering repairs have been made.

3. The vehicle is accompanied by the entire vehicle inspection report from the initial or subsequent inspection with the following information filled in on the reverse side:

a. Emissions-related and tampering-related repairs made;

b. Cost of emissions related and tampering related repairs as reflected by receipts or bills;

c. Name, address, telephone number, and type of facility making repairs;

d. Signature of person certifying the repairs;

e. Date of repairs; and

f. The state certification number of the technician making repairs, if applicable.

B. A vehicle shall be retested after repair for any portion of the inspection the vehicle failed on the previous test to determine if the repairs are effective. To the extent that repair to correct a previous failure could cause failure of another portion of the test, that portion shall also be retested. Evaporative system repairs shall trigger an exhaust emissions retest.

C. A vehicle failing the reinspection shall be provided a vehicle inspection report and a vehicle inspection report supplement.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Former Section R9-3-1013 repealed, new Section R9-3-1013 adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1013 adopted effective January 3, 1977, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1013 renumbered as Section R18-2-1013 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1014" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1015" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1016" level="4" title="Licensing of Inspectors">

Licensing of Inspectors

A. The Department shall license a person as a vehicle emissions inspector if the applicant passes a practical and a written examination with a score equal to or greater than 80% in the following areas:

1. For nondiesel-powered fleet vehicle emissions inspectors:

a. Equipment used in the inspection and the control of emissions;

b. Types of emission inspection failures;

c. Corrective procedures for excessive HC emissions;

d. Corrective procedures for excessive CO emissions;

e. Corrective procedures for excessive NOx emissions, for inspectors in area A;

f. Proper fuel system adjustment procedures;

g. Computerized engine control systems; and

h. Regulations governing fleet stations;

2. For diesel-powered fleet vehicle emissions inspectors:

a. Equipment used in the inspection and the control of opacity and emissions;

b. Corrective procedures for excessive opacity;

c. Proper fuel injection system adjustment procedures;

d. Proper use of tools required by the vehicle manufacturer for field setting of fuel injectors, inlet and exhaust valve clearance, governors, and throttle controls;

e. Computerized engine control systems; and

f. Regulations governing fleet stations;

3. For state station vehicle emission inspectors:

a. Air pollution causes and effects;

b. Purpose, function, and goals of the inspection program;

c. State inspection regulations;

d. Test procedures and rationale for their design;

e. Emission control devices, configuration, and inspection;

f. Test equipment operation, calibration, and maintenance;

g. Proficiency in driving the transient test cycle in Table 4;

h. Quality control procedures;

i. Public relations; and

j. Safety and health issues related to the inspection process.

4. For the practical portion of the examination an applicant shall demonstrate the ability to conduct a proper emissions inspection, including proper use of equipment and procedures, to pass. If an inspector fails to demonstrate such ability in an audit, either covert or overt, the inspector's license shall be suspended. The suspended licensee shall demonstrate to the Department the skills required by this subsection within 30 days of suspension or such license shall be revoked.

B. If an applicant for a nondiesel-powered vehicle emissions inspector license fails the written examination, the applicant shall successfully complete the vehicle emissions inspector state training program before reexamination for licensure.

C. Applications may be obtained from the Department. The application shall contain the following:

1. The type of license requested;

2. The applicant's name;

3. The applicant's home address;

4. The applicant's phone number;

5. The name of the applicant's employer;

6. The phone number of the applicant's employer;

7. The applicant's signature; and

8. The date of the license request.

D. All completed applications shall be returned to the Department.

E. Licenses issued to vehicle emissions inspectors shall be renewed annually on or before the expiration date. An inspector whose license has expired may not inspect vehicles.

F. Applications for renewal of vehicle emissions fleet inspector's licenses shall be submitted within 30 days before the current license expiration date.

G. The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a license if the licensee has violated any provision of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 5 or any provision of this Article or fails to continue to demonstrate proficiency to the Department as required in subsection (A).

H. A vehicle emissions inspector shall notify the Department of any change in employment status, due to retirement, resignation or termination, within seven days of the change. The notification shall include the name and license number of the emissions inspector, a statement declaring the employment change, and the effective date of the employment change.

I. The Department shall assign a single, unique, nontransferable inspector's number to each vehicle emissions inspector.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1016 as amended effective March 2, 1978, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1016 renumbered as Section R18-2-1016 and subsection (G) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1017" level="4" title="Inspection of Government Vehicles">

Inspection of Government Vehicles

A. Inspection of government vehicles operated in areas A and B shall be conducted as follows:

1. At a licensed fleet station operated by the government entity;

2. At a state station upon payment of the fee;

3. At a state station upon payment of the contracted fee, either singly or in combination with other government fleet operators.

B. A government vehicle except a federally owned vehicle that is excluded from the definition of motor vehicle under 40 CFR 85.1703, shall be inspected according to this Article and shall have a Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection affixed to the vehicle if in compliance with state inspection requirements.

1. The vehicle emissions inspector performing the inspection shall punch out the appropriate year and month on the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection to designate date of the vehicle's next annual or biennial inspection. The vehicle emissions inspector, at the time of inspection, shall record the serial number of the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection on the vehicle inspection report. If the vehicle emissions inspection is performed at a fleet station, the emissions inspector, at the time of inspection, shall record the serial number in the block labeled "Certificate of Inspection No." on the "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary." Each Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection shall be used in serial number order. Presence of a current Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection indicates a government vehicle has met the state of Arizona emissions inspection requirements.

2. A government vehicle, with the exception of a motorcycle or an undercover law enforcement vehicle, shall have the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection affixed to the lower left side of the rear window as determined from a position facing the window, from outside the vehicle. If a vehicle does not have a rear window, the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection shall be affixed to the lower left corner of the windshield as determined from the driver's position.

3. A government motorcycle shall have the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection affixed to the lower left-hand corner of the windscreen as determined from the driver's position. If the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection cannot be affixed to the lower left-hand corner of the windscreen, the Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection may be affixed to a visible position on the front or left side of the left front fork of the motorcycle. The fork shall be determined from the driver's position.

C. The Government Vehicle Certificate of Inspection shall be purchased from the Department in lots of 25.

1. The fee for a certificate of inspection shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated costs to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of certificates of inspections. Payment for certificates shall be included with an application for certificates. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality.

2. Only the Department may sell or otherwise transfer certificates of inspection.

D. All Government Vehicle Certificates of Inspection shall be designed, issued, and administered to ensure compliance with this Article. The Department shall be the only source of supply for Government Vehicle Certificates of Inspection.

E. Government entity fleet stations shall inspect the fleet vehicles according to R18-2-1019 except that a government vehicle certificate of inspection shall only be used for government vehicles.

F. A government entity fleet station shall send a quarterly statement identifying vehicles and test results to the Department within 10 business days following the end of the quarter.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Former Section R9-3-1017 renumbered as Section R18-2-1017 and subsection (E) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1018" level="4" title="Certificate of Inspection">

Certificate of Inspection

A. A fleet station other than a government entity fleet station shall use completed certificates of inspection as evidence that its vehicles meet the requirements of this Article unless inspection data is electronically transmitted to MVD under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542(Q). If a fleet vehicle is inspected at a state station, the vehicle inspection report provided under R18-2-1011 shall be used.

B. A certificate of inspection shall contain the following information:

1. VIN,

2. Model year,

3. License number,

4. If applicable, a statement that the inspection meets area A requirements,

5. Owner of vehicle,

6. Date of expiration, according to R18-2-1019(F)(1)(b),

7. Fleet station permit number, and

8. Inspector's signature and license number.

C. A certificate of inspection issued to a fleet vehicle is transferable to an auctioneer licensed as a used motor vehicle dealer to sell the vehicle. The certificate of inspection is valid for a period not to exceed 180 days after the transfer unless the vehicle is reregistered with a new owner, in which case the vehicle shall be inspected according to this Article before the reregistration.

D. A certificate of inspection, complete or incomplete, is not transferable except as provided in subsection (C) or except when submitted to MVD for the purpose of vehicle registration.

E. Only a person who meets the requirements of R18-2-1019(D)(4) is authorized to purchase certificates of inspection, certificates of waiver, or Government Vehicle Certificates of Inspection.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended subsection (A) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1018 renumbered as Section R18-2-1018 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1019" level="4" title="Fleet Station Procedures and Permits">

Fleet Station Procedures and Permits

A. The following requirements apply to issuance of fleet station permits:

1. An owner or lessee of a fleet of 25 or more nonexempt vehicles whose place of business is located in area A or B may apply to the Director for a permit to establish a fleet station. A dealer's business inventory of vehicles held for resale, counted cumulatively over the previous 12 months at the time of application review by the Department shall be used to determine compliance with this subsection. A newly established dealer shall certify that it will comply with the 25 nonexempt vehicles requirement.

2. An application form for a fleet station permit shall be obtained from the Department. All completed applications shall be submitted to the Department. An application shall be considered administratively complete when:

a. The Department receives a completed application form and fleet agent designation form;

b. The applicant or designated employee successfully completes the fleet agent examination; and

c. The Department conducts a site inspection.

3. Before an application for a fleet station permit may be approved, a state inspector shall inspect the premises to determine compliance with subsections (B) and (C).

4. A fleet station permit shall not expire.

5. A fleet station permit shall only be applicable to the fleet's inspection facility located at the address shown on the fleet station permit. If a fleet owner or lessee requests a permit for inspection facilities at more than one address, the fleet owner or lessee shall apply for a permit for each facility.

6. A fleet station permit issued by the Director is non-transferable.

7. If the name or address of the permitted fleet facility changes and the name or address change does not involve a change of ownership, the permit shall be returned to the Department for cancellation and a new permit application shall be submitted. The Director shall cancel the returned permit and issue a new permit.

8. In the event of loss, destruction, or mutilation of the permit, the person to whom it was issued may obtain a duplicate upon furnishing satisfactory proof of loss, destruction, or mutilation. If a fleet owner or lessee obtains a duplicate permit and then finds the original, the fleet owner or lessee shall immediately surrender the original permit to the Department.

B. A fleet station permit applicant or fleet station permit holder, or its employees, shall own or lease the following equipment for testing and repair of a fleet vehicle, and maintain the equipment in good working condition:

1. If the permit is for the inspection of a vehicle required to take an idle only, or an idle plus 2500 RPM unloaded test:

a. An NDIR CO and HC emissions analyzer that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(F)(7) to conduct the emissions inspection;

b. Pressure test equipment for the functional gas cap test that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(E)(6)(a); and

c. An ignition-operated tachometer.

2. If the permit is for the inspection of a vehicle required to take a steady-state loaded test:

a. An NDIR CO and HC emissions analyzer that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(F)(7) to conduct the emissions inspection;

b. Pressure test equipment for the functional gas cap test that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(E)(6)(a);

c. A dynamometer to operate the vehicle under load; and

d. An ignition-operated tachometer.

3. If the permit is for the inspection of a vehicle required to take a transient loaded test:

a. Equipment to perform a transient loaded emissions test as required in R18-2-1006(E)(2);

b. Equipment to perform the evaporative system pressure test as required in R18-2-1006(E)(2)(b);

c. Equipment to perform the maintenance and quality control requirements of R18-2-1006(E)(2) and "IM240 and Evap Technical Guidance;" and

d. Pressure test equipment for the functional gas cap test that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(E)(6)(a).

4. If the permit is for the inspection of a vehicle required to take an OBD test:

a. A scan tool used to perform the OBD test that complies with the Society of Automotive Engineers Recommended Practice J1979, September 1997, incorporated by reference and no future editions or amendments. A copy of this referenced material is on file with the Department and the Secretary of State and may be obtained at Society of Automotive Engineers, 400 Commonwealth Dr., Warrendale, PA 15096-0001; and

b. Pressure test equipment for the functional gas cap test that complies with the requirements of R18-2-1006(E)(6)(a).

5. If the permit is for the inspection of a vehicle required to take a diesel test:

a. Opacity meter: A meter used in area A shall comply with the requirements of R18-2-1006(H) for the applicable test procedure. A meter used in area B shall comply with the requirements of R18-2-1006(I)(6)(b); and

b. A dynamometer for testing any light-duty diesel vehicle in area A or for testing any diesel vehicle in area B.

C. A fleet's inspection facility shall comply with the following requirements:

1. The facility shall include space devoted principally to maintaining or repairing the fleet's motor vehicles. The space shall be large enough to conduct maintenance or repair of at least one fleet motor vehicle.

2. The facility shall be exclusively rented, leased, or owned by the permit applicant or permit holder.

D. A fleet owner or lessee shall employ the following personnel:

1. If the facility is for the repair of nondiesel-powered vehicles, at least one person to perform tune-ups of engines and replacement or repair of fuel system and ignition components.

2. If the facility is for the repair of diesel-powered vehicles, at least one person to perform tune-ups and replacement or repair of diesel fuel systems in the vehicle fleet.

3. A licensed vehicle emissions inspector who will perform the necessary inspections. This inspector may be the same person required by subsection (1) or (2).

4. A fleet agent, who shall be in charge of the day-to-day operation of the fleet and who demonstrates proficiency by passing a Department-administered examination annually, with a score equal to or greater than 80%, on the statutes and rules governing the operation and administration of a fleet emissions inspection station. The fleet owner or lessee shall designate the fleet agent on a form obtained from the Department.

E. Unless inspected at a state station, a vehicle owned by or leased to a holder of a fleet emissions inspection station permit shall be inspected according to R18-2-1006(D) through (I), except as follows:

1. A dealer fleet vehicle in area A held for resale and an area B fleet vehicle, with a model year of 1981 or newer, and other than diesel-powered, shall be required to take and pass both the curb idle test specified in R18-2-1006(F)(2)(b) and a 2,500 RPM unloaded fast idle test as follows:

a. The vehicle's engine shall be operated at 2,500, &#177; 300 RPM, for no more than 30 seconds with the transmission in neutral.

b. HC and CO exhaust emissions concentrations shall be recorded after readings have stabilized or at the end of 30 seconds, whichever occurs first, and compared to the loaded cruise standards in Table 2. The curb idle test standards in Table 2 shall apply for the idle test.

2. A dealer fleet vehicle in area A held for resale, and an area B vehicle, with a model year of 1980 or older and other than diesel-powered, shall be required to take and pass a curb idle test as specified in R18-2-1006(F)(1). The curb idle test standards in Table 2 shall apply.

3. A dealer fleet vehicle in area A held for resale with a model year of 1975 or newer and other than diesel-powered, shall be required to take and pass a tampering inspection as specified in R18-2-1006(E)(6).

4. A dealer fleet vehicle in area B held for resale with a model year of 1975 or newer and other than diesel-powered, shall be required to take and pass a tampering inspection as specified in R18-2-1006(F)(6).

5. A consignment vehicle shall be tested at a state inspection station according to R18-2-1005(A)(3).

F. The vehicle emissions inspector shall complete and process the forms for vehicle inspection as follows, except a government entity fleet shall issue and process each government vehicle certificate of inspection under R18-2-1017:

1. A certificate of inspection shall be processed as follows:

a. A certificate of inspection shall be completed and signed by the vehicle emissions inspector performing the inspection at the time the vehicle passes inspection. The vehicle emissions inspector who performed the inspection may correct a certificate by drawing a single line through the mistake, writing the correct information directly above the mistake, and initialing and dating the correction. Each certificate shall be issued in numerical order;

b. For an inspection that does not include a biennial test, the expiration date shall be one year from the date the vehicle passes the mandatory vehicle emissions inspection. For a vehicle required to pass a biennial test, the expiration date shall be two years after the pass date;

c. All copies of a certificate of inspection shall be legible;

d. Unless inspection data is electronically transmitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542(Q), the original completed certificate shall be presented to MVD for processing the vehicle's application for title and registration or the Arizona registration card. MVD may accept a signed certificate of inspection as evidence that the vehicle is a fleet-inspected vehicle and meets the inspection requirements of this Article;

e. The vehicle emissions inspector shall forward the second copy of each completed certificate of inspection, along with the second copy of the "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary," to the Department monthly, not later than two weeks after the last day of the month in which the inspection is conducted;

f. The third copy of each completed certificate of inspection, along with the original "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary," shall be retained for two years from the date of inspection;

g. Vehicle emissions certificates shall be purchased from the Department in lots of 25. Excess certificates may be returned to the Department for refund or may be used in subsequent years;

h. The fee for a certificate of inspection shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated costs to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of a certificate of inspection. Payment for certificates shall be included with an application for certificates. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality.

i. Only the Department shall sell or otherwise transfer a certificate of inspection. This subsection does not apply to the submission of a certificate of inspection to MVD for the purpose of vehicle registration;

j. The fleet station owner shall be responsible for the security and accountability of the fleet's certificates and fleet vehicle emissions inspection records. Certificates and fleet vehicle emissions inspection records shall be maintained at the fleet station and shall be made available for review by a state inspector during normal business hours of the fleet station;

k. If any certificate is discovered lost or stolen, the fleet station owner shall notify the Department in writing within 24 hours, indicating the number of certificates lost or stolen and each serial number. The Department may revoke a fleet station permit for refusal or failure to report a lost or stolen certificate within 24 hours;

l. In the event of loss, destruction, or mutilation of an original completed certificate of inspection, a Director's certificate may be obtained from the Department by hand-delivery of the following:

i. The second or third copy of the lost, destroyed, or mutilated certificate of inspection;

ii. The original of the "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary;"

iii. A cover letter from the fleet agent explaining the situation that caused the loss, destruction, or mutilation of the original certificate of inspection; and

iv. Payment of a fee to cover the cost of issuance of the Director's certificate. The fee for a Director's certificate shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated cost to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of a Director's certificate. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality; and

m. If an original certificate of inspection is voided by a fleet station, the original of the voided certificate shall be matched to the corresponding third copy of the certificate and retained at the fleet station for two years from the date of inspection.

2. The fleet agent or vehicle emissions inspector shall obtain the "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary" form from the Department. The vehicle emissions inspector performing the inspection shall record the following information on the form at the time of inspection:

a. The VIN of the vehicle passing inspection;

b. The vehicle's license number, if applicable;

c. The HC content of the undiluted exhaust recorded at idle, if applicable;

d. The CO content of the undiluted exhaust recorded at idle, if applicable;

e. The HC content of the undiluted exhaust recorded at 2,500 rpm, if applicable;

f. The CO content of the undiluted exhaust recorded at 2,500 rpm, if applicable;

g. Results of a tampering check, if applicable;

h. The vehicle model year;

i. The vehicle make;

j. The GVWR for a vehicle certified under federal truck standards;

k. The date of inspection;

l. The license number of the vehicle emissions inspector conducting the inspection;

m. The signature of the inspector making the entry;

n. The serial number of the certificate of inspection, recorded in numerical order;

o. For a vehicle required to take the transient loaded emissions test, the inspector shall record the total HC, CO, CO

2

and NOx measured in grams/mile, and the evaporative system pressure test result, if applicable;

p. The registration number of the registered analyzer or opacity meter used to perform the inspection;

q. For a light-duty diesel vehicle, the inspector shall record opacity rather than undiluted HC and CO;

r. For a heavy-duty diesel vehicle, instead of undiluted HC and CO:

i. The time of the inspection;

ii. The ambient temperature;

iii. The corrected barometric pressure;

iv. The relative humidity at the time of inspection;

v. The engine year and cubic inch or liter displacement;

vi. The GVWR;

vii. The diameter of the exhaust stack; and

viii. The corrected opacity reading.

s. For a vehicle required to take an OBD test, the inspector shall record the OBD results rather than HC, CO, and NOx.

3. A certificate of waiver may be issued by a fleet vehicle emissions inspector unless the fleet owner or lessee is an auto dealer licensed to sell used motor vehicles under Title 28 of the Arizona Revised Statutes. The certificate of waiver may be issued according to the following procedure if the requirements of R18-2-1008(A), R18-2-1009, and R18-2-1010 are met:

a. A certificate of waiver shall be completed and signed by the vehicle emissions inspector performing the inspection after completion of a fleet inspection waiver report. The report shall be forwarded to the Department within three business days from the date of issuance of the certificate of waiver. A fleet inspection waiver report shall be provided by the Department with the purchase of each certificate of waiver. The report shall contain a description of the vehicle, test results, and repairs performed.

b. The expiration date of the certificate of waiver shall be two years from the date that the waiver is issued for a vehicle required to take the transient loaded emissions test, and one year for all other vehicles.

c. All information required on the certificate of waiver shall be legible.

d. The vehicle emissions inspector issuing the certificate of waiver shall initial all corrections.

e. Only the vehicle emissions inspector performing the inspection may sign or initial a certificate of waiver.

f. Unless inspection data is electronically transmitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542(Q), the original completed certificate shall be presented to MVD for processing of either the vehicle's application for title and registration or the Arizona registration card. MVD may accept the signed certificate of waiver as evidence that the vehicle is a fleet inspected vehicle and meets the inspection requirements of this Article if the certificate is complete and the expiration date has not passed.

g. The second copy of each completed certificate of waiver shall accompany the completed fleet inspection waiver report.

h. The third copy of each completed certificate of waiver, along with a copy of the fleet inspection waiver report, shall be retained by the fleet station owner for two years from the date of inspection.

i. The fee for a certificate of waiver shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated cost to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of a certificate of waiver. Payment for certificates shall be included with an application for certificates. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality.

j. Only the Department shall sell or otherwise transfer a certificate of waiver. This subsection does not apply to the submission of a certificate of waiver to MVD for the purpose of vehicle registration.

k. The fleet station owner shall be responsible for the security and accountability of the fleet's certificates.

l. If a certificate is discovered lost or stolen, the fleet station owner shall notify the Department in writing within 24 hours and indicate the number of certificates lost or stolen and each serial number. The Department may revoke a fleet station permit for refusal or failure to report a lost or stolen certificate within 24 hours of discovery.

m. In the event of loss, destruction, or mutilation of an original completed certificate of waiver, a Director's certificate may be obtained from the Department by hand delivery of the following:

i. The second or third copy of the lost, destroyed, or mutilated certificate of waiver;

ii. The original of the "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary;"

iii. A cover letter from the fleet agent explaining the situation that caused the loss, destruction, or mutilation of the original certificate of waiver; and

iv. Payment of a fee to cover the cost of issuance of the Director's certificate. The fee for a Director's certificate shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543, and shall be based upon the Director's estimated cost to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of a Director's certificate. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality.

n. In the event an original certificate of waiver is voided by a fleet station, the original of the voided certificate shall be matched to the corresponding third copy of the certificate and retained by the fleet for two years from the date of inspection.

4. Upon request, a state inspector shall be allowed access to and shall be permitted to photocopy, on or off the premises, any original "Fleet Vehicle Inspection Report/Monthly Summary," the second copy of a certificate of inspection, and any other related documents.

G. The fleet shall comply with the following general operating requirements:

1. The fleet station permit and the licenses of all inspectors employed at the station shall be prominently displayed at the fleet's inspection facility.

2. A fleet station shall only certify a vehicle owned by or leased to the holder of the fleet station permit.

3. The inspection equipment shall be operated, calibrated, and maintained as follows:

a. All test equipment and instrumentation shall be maintained in accurate working condition as required by the manufacturer. An instrument requiring periodic calibration shall be calibrated according to instructions and recommendations of the instrument or equipment manufacturer. An NDIR emissions analyzer shall be registered and calibrated according to R18-2-1027. Calibration records for each instrument, except an NDIR emissions analyzer, shall be maintained by the fleet station. The calibration records shall be signed and dated by the technician performing each calibration.

b. The instrument calibration records shall be available for review by the Department.

c. Working gases used by the fleet station shall be subject to analysis and comparison to the Department's standard gases at any time.

d. Fleet station equipment shall be subject to both scheduled and unscheduled checks for accuracy and condition by the Department.

4. A fleet emissions inspection station that is unable to test at least 25 vehicles according to R18-2-1006 and subsection (A) shall surrender its permit.

5. A motor vehicle dealer with a fleet station permit shall comply with A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.03.

6. If a fleet station fails to meet any requirement of subsection (B), (C), or (D), it shall immediately cease operating as a fleet station until the requirement is met. If the fleet is cited for failure to have the necessary equipment under subsection (B), it shall not resume operation as a fleet emissions inspection station until compliance is verified by the Department.

7. A fleet station shall notify the Department in writing within seven days of the end or start of employment of any vehicle emissions inspector. The written notification shall include the name and license number of the vehicle emissions inspector, a statement declaring the employment change, and the effective date of the employment change. A fleet station that does not employ a vehicle emissions inspector shall immediately cease operating as a fleet station and notify the Department immediately by telephone and within seven days in writing. All unused vehicle certificates of inspection shall be returned to the Department for a refund within seven days after operations cease.

8. A fleet station that does not employ a fleet agent, as described in subsection (D)(4), shall immediately cease operating as a fleet station and shall notify the Department immediately by telephone and within seven days in writing. The written notification shall include the name and license number of the fleet agent, a statement declaring the employment change, and the effective date of the employment change. The fleet station may resume fleet station operation after the permit applicant or other designated employee takes and passes the examination required in subsection (D)(4), if the responsibility of the day-to-day operation of the fleet station and a fleet agent designation form has been filed with the Department.

H. A fleet's activities shall be governed by the following compliance and enforcement rules:

1. Subsections (B) through (G) apply at all times after the issuance of a fleet station permit. In addition, subsections (B), (C), and (D) apply before a permit can be issued or removed from suspension.

2. The Director may suspend or revoke a fleet station permit according to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-546(F) and A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, if the permittee, or any person employed by the permittee:

a. Violates any provision of Title 49, Chapter 3, Article 5 of the Arizona Revised Statutes or any provision of this Article;

b. Misrepresents a material fact in obtaining a permit;

c. Fails to make, keep, and submit to the Department records for a vehicle tested as a permittee; or

d. Does not provide a state inspector access to the information required by this Article.

3. If a fleet station permit is surrendered, suspended or revoked, all unused vehicle certificates of inspection shall be returned to the Department for a refund.

4. A fleet vehicle is subject to inspection by a state inspector.

5. Surrender of a permit under subsection (A)(8) or (G)(4) shall not prevent the Department from carrying out an investigative or disciplinary proceeding against the permit holder for a violation before surrender.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1019 as amended effective February 20, 1980, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1019 renumbered as Section R18-2-1019 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective February 4, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective October 15, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1020" level="4" title="Licensing of Third Party Agents; Issuing Alternative Fuel Certificates">

Licensing of Third Party Agents; Issuing Alternative Fuel Certificates

A. Licensing of Third Party Agents. The Department shall accept an application for a third party agent license to issue Alternative Fuel Certificates from any person who demonstrates all of the following:

1. The applicant has knowledge of all laws and rules governing the inspection of alternative fuel vehicles;

2. The applicant has training or experience in inspecting alternative fuel vehicles; and

3. The applicant agrees to conduct inspections in accordance with the laws and rules for the inspection of alternative fuel vehicles.

B. A third party agent license is valid for a period of five years.

C. Issuing Alternative Fuel Certificates. The Department or its agent shall issue an Alternative Fuel Certificate according to A.R.S. &#167; 28-2416 if the vehicle is currently powered by an alternative fuel as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 1-215(4).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1021" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.1022" level="4" title="Procedure for Waiving Inspections Due to Technical Difficulties">

Procedure for Waiving Inspections Due to Technical Difficulties

A vehicle emissions station manager employed by an official emissions inspection station may issue a Director's certificate for a vehicle that cannot be inspected as required by this Article because of technical difficulties inherent in the manufacturer's design or construction of the vehicle.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6).

Former Section R9-3-1022 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-1022 (Supp. 88-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1023" level="4" title="Certificate of Exemption for Out-of-State Vehicles">

Certificate of Exemption for Out-of-State Vehicles

A. If a vehicle being registered or reregistered in area A or area B requires an emission test and will not be available for inspection within the state during the 90-day period before the emissions compliance expiration date, and an emissions inspection is not available for that class of vehicle at an official inspection station in the area where the vehicle is located, the owner or owner's agent may apply in writing to the Department for a certificate of exemption.

B. The owner or owner's agent shall complete the owner portion of the certificate of exemption form, and a law enforcement official shall complete the vehicle verification portion. The owner or owner's agent shall submit the completed form to the Department.

C. The Department shall issue a certificate of exemption:

1. For a vehicle that meets the requirements of subsection (A) as indicated by the form completed under subsection (B).

2. For a vehicle that has passed an official emissions inspection in another state during the 90 days before emissions compliance expiration upon submission of the inspection compliance document issued by the government entity conducting the inspection program.

D. The fee for a certificate of exemption shall be fixed by the Director according to A.R.S. &#167; 49-543 and shall be based upon the Director's estimated costs to the state of administering and enforcing the provisions of this Article as they apply to issuance of certificates of exemption. The payment for the certificates shall be included with the application for certificates. Checks shall be made payable to the Department of Environmental Quality.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 13, 1976 (Supp. 76-1). Amended effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1023 as amended effective January 3, 1979 and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981 now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Former Section R9-3-1023 renumbered without change as Section R18-2-1023 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective February 4, 1993 (Supp. 93-1). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1024" level="4" title="Pilot Program for Roadside Diesel Testing">

Pilot Program for Roadside Diesel Testing

A. Purpose. This rule:

1. Establishes criteria for the pilot program required by Laws 2001, Chapter 371, Section 19;

2. Allows an interested contractor the opportunity to demonstrate testing procedures and technology to the Department over a minimum three-week period; and

3. Provides for the collection of data and information to enable the Department to submit a report to the diesel vehicle emissions testing study committee on roadside diesel testing.

B. Authority and Definitions. The Department or any person may contract with any local or state law enforcement agency, to perform roadside diesel tests under this Section to determine excessive smoke under A.R.S. &#167; 28-955(C), or to assist in other services related to testing. For the purposes of this Section:

1. "Excessive smoke" means smoke with an opacity that exceeds the applicable standard in R18-2-1006(H)(1);

2. "Interested contractor" means a person, business, firm, partnership, or corporation that receive a notice to proceed for the roadside diesel testing pilot program under subsection (C)(2);

3. "Responsible official" has the meaning at R18-2-301; and

4. "Three week period" means a time interval containing at least 21days of testing by an interested contractor according to this Section.

C. A pilot program is established to evaluate methods of determining excessive smoke under A.R.S. &#167; 28-955. A person may participate in the pilot program if:

1. The person submits a letter of intent to the Department within 30 days after the effective date of this rule, demonstrating how the person will comply with subsection (D). The letter of intent shall contain all of the following:

a. Identification of the person, including a statement of qualifications describing technical capability, key personnel, experience, and any other information the person believes is relevant to implement the pilot program;

b. Identification of any subcontractor the person plans to use, including a statement of the subcontractor's qualifications described in subsection (a);

c. The proposed methods, locations, and dates of testing, including an evaluation of how the methods, locations, and dates allow for trucks to be identified, stopped, and tested safely, without creating traffic congestion, or exposing drivers, enforcement and testing personnel, or the public to dangerous traffic or other harmful conditions;

d. Each proposed method of visually screening a vehicle for excessive smoke;

e. A copy of any agreement with an enforcement agency;

f. Each proposed method for communicating the nature and purpose of the pilot program and the right of a vehicle operator to refuse testing;

g. A statement by a responsible official, that the person, with any subcontractor, has the equipment, personnel, and experience necessary to conduct testing and produce a report as required by this Section;

h. The following language: "To the extent permitted by A.R.S. &#167; 41-621 and &#167; 35-154, [name of person] agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the state of Arizona for its vicarious liability for incidents arising out of implementation of this letter of intent";

i. Evidence of financial responsibility including evidence of an insurance policy that covers any incident arising out of participation in the pilot program;

j. A description of a proposed system for data collection; and

k. A description of how the proposed pilot program will demonstrate a testing system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-542.06 and 49-542.07; and

2. The person receives a notice to proceed from the Department. The Department shall issue a notice to proceed to any person who submits a letter of intent that complies with subsection (1). The Department, with the consent of the person receiving the notice to proceed, may add conditions to the notice to proceed not contained in the letter of intent to enhance the pilot program.

D. Pilot program requirements.

1. An interested contractor participating in the pilot program retains ownership of any intellectual property rights it has or develops in the process of participating in the pilot program.

2. An interested contractor participating in the pilot program shall:

a. Not be paid a fee by the Department or by the operator of the vehicle;

b. Conduct the pilot program consistent with the letter of intent and notice to proceed, except that the interested contractor may vary from the terms of the letter of intent and notice with the advance written approval of the Department;

c. Employ procedures and equipment conforming to Society of Automotive Engineers standard J1667, as incorporated by reference in R18-2-1006(H)(1);

d. Not issue any citation for excessive smoke if a vehicle is stopped and tested;

e. Provide motorist advisory information at the time of testing;

f. Test a sufficient number and variety of vehicles, including apportioned vehicles, with a GVWR greater than 10,000 pounds operated in area A or B, to justify the evaluations in the report required under subsection (E); and

g. Conduct testing for at least a three week period.

E. Pilot program report. An interested contractor that participates in the pilot program, shall submit a report to the Department by April 15, 2002, that contains the following:

1. A general description of the testing;

2. Any deviation from the letter of intent and notice to proceed, and any known instance of the interested contractor's noncompliance with state or local law;

3. A demonstration that the procedures and technology used are effective for screening potential polluters;

4. A demonstration of the actual test time and testing volume capabilities of a roadside diesel testing system based on the pilot program that could be used to implement a program under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-542.06 and 49-542.07;

5. An evaluation of the use of various screening cut points, database management and recordkeeping procedures, including any cooperation that may be necessary with the Arizona Department of Transportation;

6. An evaluation of maximum allowable opacity cut points for each model year of vehicle to be tested; and

7. An evaluation of the feasibility of a civil penalty system complying with A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.07, including an enforcement database that tracks all citations, penalties, and payments by vehicle and driver.

F. A person may not participate in the procurement process for the roadside diesel testing program under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.06 unless the person participates in the pilot program. Participating in the pilot program for the purpose of participating in the procurement process for the roadside diesel testing program under A.R.S. &#167; 49-542.06, means the person:

1. Receives a notice to proceed under subsection (C)(2), and

2. Submits the report required under subsection (E).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 84, effective December 14, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1025" level="4" title="Inspection of Contractor's Equipment and Personnel">

Inspection of Contractor's Equipment and Personnel

A. State stations shall be inspected by state inspectors as follows:

1. In Area A:

a. Automated emission analyzers, calibrated and maintained according to "IM240 and Evap Technical Guidance," shall be inspected using state station field calibration gases at least once every other month.

b. Opacity meters shall be inspected for accuracy using a neutral density filter at least once each month.

c. During audits, a check shall be made for equipment tampering, worn instrumentation, blocked filters, and other conditions that would impair accurate sampling.

2. In Area B:

a. Automated emission analyzers shall be inspected using state station field calibration gases at least two times each month.

b. Opacity meters shall be inspected for accuracy using a neutral density filter at least two times each month.

c. During audits, a check shall be made for tampering, worn instrumentation, blocked filters, and other conditions that would impair accurate sampling.

d. Functional checks of dynamometer accuracy including roll speed and power absorption shall be performed at least quarterly.

B. Equipment used to perform a transient loaded emissions test, shall be audited at least twice a year for all of the following:

1. Constant volume sampler critical flow and calibration;

2. Optimization of the flame ionization detector fuel to air ratio using methane;

3. Proper dynamometer coast down, roll distance, and inertia weight;

4. Ability to detect background pollutant concentrations;

5. Evaporative pressure test system for accuracy, response time, and other criteria consistent with "IM240 and Evap Technical Guidance;" and

6. Functional gas cap analysis equipment.

C. If an equipment audit of an inspection lane in either area A or area B indicates that a state station analyzer is not operating within contractually specified tolerance, the state inspector shall immediately re-audit the failing equipment. If the equipment fails the second audit, the inspector shall immediately notify the station manager. The station manager shall either replace or repair the failing equipment or close the affected lane until the equipment is repaired and its accuracy verified. The state inspector shall provide a copy of the analyzer's failing results to the station manager.

D. A state station analyzer removed by the contractor may be returned to service upon its repair and written verification of a passing calibration audit. The contractor shall immediately notify the Department in writing of the analyzer's return to service. The contractor's calibration audit of the analyzer shall be provided to the Department within seven calendar days after the analyzer's return to service.

E. State inspectors shall conduct performance audits to determine whether vehicle emissions inspectors are correctly performing all inspections and functions related to inspections as follows:

1. Overt audits at least two times each year for each inspection lane:

a. Check for proper document security;

b. Check for required recordkeeping including vehicle emissions inspector licenses; and

c. Observation and written evaluation of each vehicle emissions inspector's ability to perform an inspection.

2. State station and vehicle emissions inspector records shall be reviewed at least monthly to assess station performance and identify any problems, potential fraud, or incompetence.

3. If a vehicle emissions inspector fails an audit under subsection (E)(1) or (E)(2), the vehicle emissions inspector's license may be suspended or revoked according to R18-2-1016(A)(4).

F. On-road emissions analyzers shall be inspected by a state inspector at least monthly using dry-gas analysis equipment.

G. If an equipment audit indicates that an on-road emissions analyzer is not operating within contractually specified tolerance, the state inspector shall immediately re-audit the failing equipment. If the equipment fails the second audit, the inspector shall immediately notify the contractor and the contractor shall repair or replace the equipment according to subsections (C) and (D).

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1025 as amended effective March 2, 1978, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsection (A) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1025 renumbered as Section R18-2-1025 and subsection (C) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1026" level="4" title="Inspection of Fleet Stations">

Inspection of Fleet Stations

A. Equipment used by fleet stations shall be inspected by state inspectors for accuracy as follows:

1. Emission analyzers shall be inspected using field calibration gases at least quarterly.

2. Opacity meters shall be inspected using a neutral density filter at least quarterly.

3. Equipment for transient loaded emissions tests shall be inspected according to R18-2-1025(A) and (B).

B. A fleet station's emissions analyzer shall not be used for an official emissions inspection if:

1. The state's field calibration gases are not read within the tolerances prescribed by subsection (J);

2. There is a leak in the sampling systems or the calibration port; or

3. The sample handling system is restricted.

C. The fleet station is responsible for calibration of the fleet station emission analyzer.

D. A state inspector may, at the inspector's discretion, allow a fleet station employee, or someone authorized by the fleet station, to calibrate the analyzer utilizing the state's field calibration gases.

E. The Department shall assign HC and CO concentrations to a calibration gas submitted by a fleet station emission analyzer technician and purchased from a private source.

F. A state inspector shall tag a fleet station emission analyzer if the analyzer does not meet the requirements of this Section. The fleet vehicle emissions inspector shall not use the analyzer for inspection until the tag is removed by a state inspector or an analyzer repair person certified under R18-2-1028. The tag shall be in the form of a U.S. postcard and contain the information listed in R18-2-1027(E).

G. An analyzer tagged under subsection (F) shall not be returned to service until its accuracy is verified by a state inspector or an emissions analyzer repair person certified under R18-2-1028.

H. A fleet station is responsible for periodic maintenance and calibrations of its emissions analyzers. Repair and maintenance requirements are prescribed in R18-2-1019.

I. If a state inspector has approved its use, a fleet station may lease or borrow an emission analyzer for official inspections for up to six months while the station's approved analyzer is being repaired.

J. Fleet station analyzers used for transient loaded tests shall comply with and be quality control checked according to "IM240 and Evap Technical Guidance." All other fleet station emission analyzers used for emissions inspections are required to read the calibration gases within the following tolerances:

1. Within plus 0.50% CO to minus 0.25% CO in the range from 0 to 2% CO;

2. Within plus 1.00% CO to minus 0.50% CO in the range from 2% to 10% CO;

3. Within plus 60 PPM HC to minus 30 PPM HC in the range from 0 to 500 PPM HC when read as N-HEXANE; and

4. Within plus 200 PPM HC to minus 100 PPM HC in the range from 500 to 2,000 PPM HC when read as N-HEXANE.

K. A fleet station opacity meter used for emission inspections is required to read the equivalent opacity value of neutral density filter within &#177; 5% opacity at any point in the range of the meter.

L. A state inspector shall conduct performance audits to determine whether a vehicle emissions inspector is correctly performing inspections and functions related to inspections as follows:

1. Overt audits at least two times each year for each facility:

a. Check for proper document security;

b. Check for required recordkeeping including vehicle emissions inspector licenses; and

c. Observe and make a written evaluation of each vehicle emissions inspector's ability to perform an inspection.

2. Fleet station and vehicle emissions inspector records shall be reviewed at least monthly to assess fleet performance and identify any problems, potential fraud, or incompetence.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsections (A) and (J) and added subsection (K) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1026 renumbered as Section R18-2-1026 and subsections (B), (F), (G) and (H) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1027" level="4" title="Registration and Inspection of Emissions Analyzers and Opacity Meters">

Registration and Inspection of Emissions Analyzers and Opacity Meters

A. An automotive repair facility may apply to the Department at no charge for registration of NDIR HC and CO analyzers, and opacity meters. NDIR emission analyzers and opacity meters used by fleet inspection stations shall be registered for the fleet station permit approval. Application forms for analyzer or opacity meter registration are available from the Department. Completed application forms shall be submitted to the Department. For purposes of Chapter 1 of this Title, the application components for registration of an analyzer or opacity meter are:

1. The Department receives a completed application form;

2. The applicant or employee successfully completes the "Certified Technician" examination described in R18-2-1028(A)(2); and

3. The Department inspects the analyzer.

B. A registered analyzer shall be calibrated at least monthly, by a certified technician, with calibration gases approved by the Department. A registered opacity meter shall be calibrated according to manufacturer's specifications before performing the first vehicle emissions inspection in any month.

C. A registered analyzer shall meet the requirements of R18-2-1006(F)(7)(a). Calibration shall be verified by a state inspector before the analyzer is registered. The analyzer shall read the value of the calibration gases within the following tolerances:

1. Plus 0.50% CO to minus 0.25% CO in the range from 0 to 2% CO;

2. Plus 1.00% CO to minus 0.50% CO in the range from 2% to 10% CO;

3. Plus 60 PPM HC to minus 30 PPM HC in the range from 0 to 500 PPM HC when read as N-HEXANE; and

4. Plus 200 PPM HC to minus 100 PPM HC in the range from 500 to 2,000 PPM HC when read as N-HEXANE.

D. Each registered opacity meter and analyzer shall have a unique registration number assigned by the Department. The technician shall maintain a repair and calibration log for each registered opacity meter and analyzer on a form provided by the Department. The log shall be made available to a state inspector on request.

E. A state inspector shall tag a registered opacity meter or analyzer if the opacity meter or analyzer does not meet the requirements of this Section. A tagged opacity meter or analyzer shall not be used for the purposes of R18-2-1010 or R18-2-1019 until the tag is removed by a state inspector or an emission analyzer repair person certified under R18-2-1028 after accuracy is verified.

1. The tag shall be in the form of a U.S. postcard and contain the following information:

a. Analyzer registration number or opacity meter registration number;

b. Brief statement that the analyzer does not meet state operating requirements for registered analyzers;

c. Reason for tagging;

d. Date the analyzer was tagged and the signature of state inspector issuing the tag;

e. Details of repairs performed to correct the failure;

f. CO and HC concentrations of calibration gases used to verify analyzer accuracy;

g. Analyzer readings when gases were introduced into the analyzer sampling probe; and

h. Repair person's certificate number and signature or signature of state inspector removing the tag and date accuracy is verified.

2. The tag shall be returned to the Department within two business days after accuracy is verified.

F. An owner of a registered emission analyzer or opacity meter shall notify the Department within seven business days of the retirement, resignation, or termination of any licensed vehicle emissions inspector or certified technician. The Department shall revoke the registration of an emission analyzer or opacity meter if the owner of the analyzer or meter does not employ an inspector licensed under R18-2-1019 or a technician certified under R18-2-1028.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended effective March 2, 1978 (Supp. 78-2). Amended effective January 3, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1027 as amended effective January 3, 1979, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1027 renumbered as Section R18-2-1027 and subsections (B), (D), (F) and (G) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1028" level="4" title="Certification of Users of Registered Analyzers and Analyzer Repair Persons">

Certification of Users of Registered Analyzers and Analyzer Repair Persons

A. A person may be certified to use a registered analyzer and opacity meter if:

1. The person completes the application form and submits it to the Department; and

2. The person demonstrates proficiency by scoring 80% or higher on a Department-administered examination in the following areas:

a. Equipment used in the inspection and control of emissions;

b. Types of emissions inspection failures;

c. Correction procedures for excessive HC emissions;

d. Correction procedures for excessive CO emissions;

e. Proper carburetor adjustment procedures; and

f. Diesel fuel injection systems.

B. Certification under subsection (A) shall be valid for one year from date of issue and may be renewed, under the conditions of subsection (A), by submitting a renewal application to the Department 30 days before the current certification expiration date.

C. A person certified under subsection (A) shall notify the Department within seven business days of the person's retirement, resignation, or termination from employment.

D. A person may be certified to repair and remove tags from an emission analyzer under R18-2-1027 if:

1. Application is made to the Department;

2. The person demonstrates proficiency by scoring 80% or higher on a Department-administered examination in the following areas:

a. State and federal regulations governing emissions analyzers,

b. Fundamentals of emission analyzer operation, repair and preventive maintenance,

c. Theory of operation of vehicle emissions control devices.

E. Certification under subsection (D) shall be valid for one year from date of issue and may be renewed, under the conditions of subsection (D), by submitting a renewal application to the Department 30 days before the current certification expiration date.

F. Each person certified under this Section shall receive a unique nontransferable certification number.

G. The Department may suspend, revoke or refuse to renew the certification issued under subsection (A) if:

1. The person's actions demonstrate a lack of proficiency in the areas listed under subsection (A)(2); or

2. The person has willfully violated any provision of this Article.

H. The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the certification issued under subsection (D) if:

1. The person's actions demonstrate a lack of proficiency in the areas listed under subsection (D)(2); or

2. The person has willfully violated any provision of this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsections (A) and (F) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1028 renumbered as Section R18-2-1028 and subsection (D) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994

(Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1029" level="4" title="Vehicle Emission Control Devices">

Vehicle Emission Control Devices

For the purposes of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 28-955 and 49-447, a registered motor vehicle shall have in operating condition all emission control devices installed by the vehicle manufacturer to comply with federal requirements for motor vehicle emissions or equivalent aftermarket replacement parts or devices.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Former Section R9-3-1029 renumbered as Section R18-2-1029 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1030" level="4" title="Visible Emissions; Mobile Sources">

Visible Emissions; Mobile Sources

A. A vehicle other than a diesel-powered vehicle or 2-stroke vehicle that emits any visible emissions for 10 consecutive seconds or more is "excessive" for the purposes of A.R.S. &#167; 28-955(C).

B. A diesel-powered vehicle shall not emit any visible emissions in excess of:

1. Twenty percent visual opacity for 10 consecutive seconds or more at or below 2,000 feet elevation;

2. Thirty percent visual opacity for 10 consecutive seconds or more above 2,000 feet and at or below 4,000 feet elevation; and

3. Forty percent visual opacity for 10 consecutive seconds above 4,000 feet elevation.

C. A vehicle that exceeds the standards in subsection (B) fails the inspection under R18-2-1006 and is considered to have "excessive" emissions under A.R.S. &#167; 28-955(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 3, 1977 (Supp. 77-1). Amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 81-1). Former Section R9-3-1030 as adopted effective January 3, 1977, and amended as an emergency effective January 2, 1981, now amended effective April 15, 1981 (Supp. 81-2). Amended effective January 1, 1986 (Supp. 85-6). Amended subsection (C) effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1030 renumbered as Section R18-2-1030 and subsection (C) amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective September 19, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 562, effective January 14, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1031" level="4" title="Standards for Evaluating the Oxidation Efficiency of a Catalytic Converter">

Standards for Evaluating the Oxidation Efficiency of a Catalytic Converter

A. Except for a vehicle requiring an Idle-Only Inspection, a gasoline-powered vehicle requiring a catalytic converter test under R18-2-1008(C) shall be tested using the following Catalyst Efficiency Test Procedure:

1. Immediately after a vehicle completes an Inspection and Maintenance (I/M) test in the waiver lane, the exhaust sampling cone shall be removed from the tailpipe. The vehicle shall remain on the dynamometer with the engine idling and the transmission in neutral. The vehicle engine must be at normal operating temperature.

2. For the catalyst test, the dynamometer and the constant volume sampler shall remain at the settings used for the vehicle's I/M test.

3. The inspector shall insert the sampling tube for the A/F analyzer into the tailpipe of the vehicle.

4. The inspector shall accelerate the vehicle to 40 &#177; 2.5 MPH and maintain a steady-state operating mode for the duration of the test. Once the vehicle obtains the test speed, the test shall begin.

5. Once the test begins, a two-minute stabilization period shall take place, during which the inspector shall monitor the A/F analyzer to ensure that the A/F is 14.0 or greater. If the mean A/F is less than 14.0, the inspector shall abort the test.

6. If the A/F is 14.0 or greater, the exhaust sampling cone shall be repositioned for exhaust sampling.

7. After the stabilization period ends, the total hydrocarbon and methane concentrations and the A/F ratio shall be continuously recorded for two minutes.

8. At the end of the two-minute sampling period, the inspector shall stop the vehicle, remove the exhaust sampling cone and the A/F analyzer sampling probe from the tailpipe, and remove the vehicle from the dynamometer.

9. The mean total hydrocarbon concentration shall be divided by the mean methane concentration for the recorded values of the test, to produce a ratio (R) of total hydrocarbon to methane. The ratio, R, shall be applied to the formula: Catalyst Efficiency (%) = -3 (R) +100.

10. A vehicle passes the test if the Catalyst Efficiency (%) is 75% or greater.

11. The test result for a non-passing vehicle with a mean A/F equal to, or less than, 14.3 shall be inconclusive.

12. A vehicle fails the Catalyst Efficiency Test Procedure if the A/F is greater than 14.3 and the Catalyst Efficiency (%) is less than 75%. The failing vehicle cannot be granted a waiver according to R18-2-1008(C)(1).

B. Analytical equipment required to perform the Catalyst Efficiency Test Procedure shall meet the following requirements:

1. Analyzer Specifications:

a. An analyzer shall meet performance specifications of 40 CFR 86 subparts B, D, and N with respect to accuracy, precision, drift, interference, and noise. 40 CFR, subparts B, D, and N, adopted as of July 1, 1998, are incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Secretary of State. This incorporation contains no future editions or amendments. A copy of this referenced material may be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington D.C. 20402-9328.

b. Total hydrocarbon analysis shall be determined by a flame ionization detector. The analyzer shall be single range with a calibration curve covering at least 0 to 300 ppm carbon.

c. Methane analysis shall be determined by a flame ionization detector equipped with a non-methane cutter capable of oxidizing 98% of the hydrocarbons (except methane) while more than 90% of the methane remains unchanged. The analyzer shall be single range with a calibration curve covering at least 0 to 30 ppm.

d. Engine A/F mixture analysis shall be determined by a Universal Exhaust Gas Oxygen Sensor. The range shall be 8.0 to 25.5 A/F for gasoline with an accuracy of &#177;2% of point and a response time of less than 150 milliseconds.

2. Analyzer Performance Verification and Calibration:

a. The operator of an analyzer under this Section shall verify analyzer performance according to manufacturer recommendations.

b. Upon initial installation, and monthly thereafter, the operator of an analyzer under this Section shall generate a 10-point calibration curve for each total hydrocarbon and methane analyzer. A gas divider employing equally spaced points may be used to generate the calibration curve.

i. Each calibration curve generated shall fit the data within &#177; 2.0% at each calibration point.

ii. Each calibration curve shall be verified for each analyzer with a confirming calibration standard between 15-80% of full scale that is not used for curve generation. Each confirming standard shall be measured by the curve within &#177; 2.5%.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 1, 1987, filed December 31, 1986 (Supp. 86-6). Former Section R9-3-1031 renumbered as Section R18-2-1031 and amended effective August 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-3). Amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Table 1. Dynamometer Loading Table - Annual Tests

<table> Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (Pounds) Engine Size Speed (MPH) Load (HP) 8500 or less 4 cyl. or less 22-25 2.8-4.1 8500 or less 5 or 6 cyl. 29-32 6.4-8.4 8500 or less 8 cyl. or more 32-35 8.4-10.8 8501 or more All 37-40 12.7-15.8 </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4).

Table 2. Emissions Standards - Annual Tests

MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE

Motorcycles

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 2-Stroke All All 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 N/A N/A 4-Stroke All All 500 5.00 1,800 5.50 N/A N/A </table>

Reconstructed Vehicles

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 4-Stroke 1967-1980 All 700 5.25 1,200 7.50 1,200 5.60 4-Stroke 1980 &amp; Newer All 700 5.25 1,200 7.50 700 5.25 </table>

Light-Duty Vehicles

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 2-Stroke All All 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 4-Stroke 1967-1971 4 or less 450 3.75 500 5.50 500 4.20 4-Stroke 1967-1971 more than 4 380 3.00 450 5.00 450 3.75 4-Stroke 1972-1974 4 or less 380 3.50 400 5.50 400 4.20 4-Stroke 1972-1974 more than 4 300 3.00 400 5.00 400 3.75 4-Stroke 1975-1978 4 or less 120 1.00 250 2.20 250 1.65 4-Stroke 1975-1978 more than 4 120 1.00 250 2.00 250 1.50 4-Stroke 1979 4 or less 120 1.00 220 2.20 220 1.65 4-Stroke 1979 more than 4 120 1.00 220 2.00 220 1.50 4-Stroke 1980 &amp; newer All 100 0.50 220 1.20 220 1.20 </table>

Light-Duty Truck 1 (0-6000 lbs GVWR)

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 2-Stroke All All 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 4-Stroke 1967-1971 4 or less 450 3.75 500 5.50 500 4.20 4-Stroke 1967-1971 more than 4 380 3.00 450 5.00 450 3.75 4-Stroke 1972-1974 4 or less 380 3.50 400 5.50 400 4.20 4-Stroke 1972-1974 more than 4 300 3.00 400 5.00 400 3.75 4-Stroke 1975-1978 4 or less 120 1.00 250 2.20 250 1.65 4-Stroke 1975-1978 more than 4 120 1.00 250 2.00 250 1.50 4-Stroke 1979 4 or less 120 1.00 220 2.20 220 1.65 4-Stroke 1979 more than 4 120 1.00 220 2.00 220 1.50 4-Stroke 1980 &amp; newer All 100 0.50 220 1.20 220 1.20 </table>

Light-Duty Truck 2 (6001 - 8500 lbs GVWR)

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 2-Stroke All All 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 4-Stroke 1967-1971 4 or less 450 3.75 500 5.50 500 4.20 4-Stroke 1967-1971 more than 4 380 3.00 450 5.00 450 3.75 4-Stroke 1972-1974 4 or less 380 3.50 400 5.50 400 4.20 4-Stroke 1972-1974 more than 4 300 3.00 400 5.00 400 3.75 4-Stroke 1975-1978 All 300 3.00 350 4.00 350 3.00 4-Stroke 1979 4 or less 120 1.00 220 2.20 220 1.65 4-Stroke 1979 more than 4 120 1.00 220 2.00 220 1.50 4-Stroke 1980 &amp; newer All 100 0.50 220 1.20 220 1.20 </table>

Heavy-Duty Truck (8501 lbs or greater GVWR)

<table> Vehicle Engine Type Vehicle Model Year Number of Cylinders Conditioning Mode Curb Idle Mode Test Loaded Cruise Mode Test HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % HC PPM CO % 2-Stroke All All 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 18,000 5.00 4-Stroke 1967-1971 4 or less 450 3.75 500 5.50 500 4.20 4-Stroke 1967-1971 more than 4 380 3.00 450 5.00 450 3.75 4-Stroke 1972-1974 4 or less 380 3.50 400 5.50 400 4.20 4-Stroke 1972-1974 more than 4 300 3.00 400 5.00 400 3.75 4-Stroke 1975-1978 All 300 3.00 350 4.00 350 3.00 4-Stroke 1979 &amp; newer All 300 3.00 300 4.00 300 3.00 </table>

Historical Note

Renumbererd from R18-2-1006 and amended effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). See emergency amendment below (Supp. 94-4). Emergency amendment adopted effective December 23, 1994, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for 180 days (Supp. 95-2). Emergency amendment expired, previous text placed back into effect effective June 21, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

Table 3. Emissions Standards - Transient Loaded Emissions Tests

FINAL STANDARDS (Standards are in grams per mile)

(i) Light Duty Vehicles

<table> Model Years Hydrocarbons Carbon Monoxide Oxides of Nitrogen Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 1981-1982 3.0 2.5 25.0 21.8 3.5 3.4 1983-1985 2.4 2.0 20.0 17.3 3.5 3.4 1986-1989 1.6 1.4 15.0 12.8 2.5 2.4 1990-1993 1.0 0.8 12.0 10.1 2.5 2.4 1994+ 0.8 0.7 12.0 10.1 2.0 1.9 </table>

(ii) Light Duty Trucks 1 (less than 6000 pounds GVWR)

<table> Model Years Hydrocarbons Carbon Monoxide Oxides of Nitrogen Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 1981-1985 4.0 3.4 40.0 35.3 5.5 5.4 1986-1989 3.0 2.5 25.0 21.8 4.5 4.4 1990-1993 2.0 1.7 20.0 17.3 4.0 3.9 1994+ 1.6 1.4 20.0 17.3 3.0 2.9 </table>

(iii) Light Duty Trucks 2 (greater than 6000 pounds GVWR)

<table> Model Years Hydrocarbons Carbon Monoxide Oxides of Nitrogen Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 Composite Phase 2 1981-1985 4.4 3.7 48.0 42.5 7.0 6.9 1986-1987 4.0 3.4 40.0 35.3 5.5 5.4 1988-1989 3.0 2.5 25.0 21.8 5.5 5.4 1990-1993 3.0 2.5 25.0 21.8 5.0 4.9 1994+ 2.4 2.0 25.0 21.8 4.0 3.9 </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Table heading amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

Table 4. Transient Driving Cycle

<table> Time second Speed mph Time second Speed mph Time second Speed mph Time second Speed mph Time second Speed mph 0 0 30 20.7 60 26 90 51.5 120 54.9 1 0 31 21.7 61 26 91 52.2 121 55.4 2 0 32 22.4 62 25.7 92 53.2 122 55.6 3 0 33 22.5 63 26.1 93 54.1 123 56 4 0 34 22.1 64 26.5 94 54.6 124 56 5 3.3 35 21.5 65 27.3 95 54.9 125 55.8 6 6.6 36 20.9 66 30.5 96 55 126 55.2 7 9.9 37 20.4 67 33.5 97 54.9 127 54.5 8 13.2 38 19.8 68 36.2 98 54.6 128 53.6 9 16.5 39 17 69 37.3 99 54.6 129 52.5 10 19.8 40 17.1 70 39.3 100 54.8 130 51.5 11 22.2 41 15.8 71 40.5 101 55.1 131 50.8 12 24.3 42 15.8 72 42.1 102 55.5 132 48 13 25.8 43 17.7 73 43.5 103 55.7 133 44.5 14 26.4 44 19.8 74 45.1 104 56.1 134 41 15 25.7 45 21.6 75 46 105 56.3 135 37.5 16 25.1 46 22.2 76 46.8 106 56.6 136 34 17 24.7 47 24.5 77 47.5 107 56.7 137 30.5 18 25.2 48 24.7 78 47.5 108 56.7 138 27 19 25.4 49 24.8 79 47.3 109 56.3 139 23.5 20 27.2 50 24.7 80 47.2 110 56 140 20 21 26.5 51 24.6 81 47.2 111 55 141 16.5 22 24 52 24.6 82 47.4 112 53.4 142 13 23 22.7 53 25.1 83 47.9 113 51.6 143 9.5 24 19.4 54 25.6 84 48.5 114 51.8 144 6 25 17.7 55 25.7 85 49.1 115 52.1 145 2.5 26 17.2 56 25.4 86 49.5 116 52.5 146 0 27 18.1 57 24.9 87 50 117 53 28 18.6 58 25 88 50.6 118 53.5 29 20 59 25.4 89 51 119 54 </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Table 5. Tolerances

<table> Range State Station Fleet Station -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 4 &amp; 2 stroke vehicles: CO in MOL percent 0 to 2.0% &#177;0.1% &#177;0.25% 2 to 10.0% &#177;0.25% &#177;0.5% 4-stroke vehicles: HC as N-hexane in PPM 0 to 500 PPM &#177;15 PPM &#177;30 PPM 500 to 2000 PPM &#177;50 PPM &#177;100 PPM 2-stroke vehicles: HC as propane in PPM 0 to 25,000 PPM &#177;1250 PPM &#177;1250 PPM </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4).

Table 6. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 14, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). See emergency amendment below (Supp. 94-4). Emergency amendment adopted effective December 23, 1994, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for 180 days (Supp. 95-2). Emergency amendment expired, previous text placed back into effect effective June 21, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 382, effective December 20, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Table 6 repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 90, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 11" level="3" title="FEDERAL HAZARDOUS AIR POLLUTANTS">

FEDERAL HAZARDOUS AIR POLLUTANTS

<regElement name="R18.2.1101" level="4" title="National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)"> <dwc name="arsen" times="5"><dwc name="asbesto" times="1"><dwc name="beryllium" times="2"><dwc name="chromium" times="3"><dwc name="copper" times="2"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="benzen" times="7"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="1">

National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)

A. Except as provided in R18-2-1102, the following subparts of 40 CFR 61, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs), and all accompanying appendices, adopted as of July 1, 2002, and no future editions or amendments, are incorporated by reference. These standards are on file with the Department and shall be applied by the Department. These standards can be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington D.C. 20402-9328.

1. Subpart A - General Provisions.

2. Subpart C - Beryllium.

3. Subpart D - Beryllium Rocket Motor Firing.

4. Subpart E - Mercury.

5. Subpart F - Vinyl Chloride.

6. Subpart J - Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources) of Benzene.

7. Subpart L - Benzene Emissions from Coke By-Product Recovery Plants.

8. Subpart M - Asbestos.

9. Subpart N - Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Glass Manufacturing Plants.

10. Subpart O - Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Primary Copper Smelters.

11. Subpart P - Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Arsenic Trioxide and Metallic Arsenic Production.

12. Subpart V - Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources).

13. Subpart Y - Benzene Emissions From Benzene Storage Vessels.

14. Subpart BB - Benzene Emissions from Benzene Transfer Operations.

15. Subpart FF - Benzene Waste Operations.

B. Except as provided in R18-2-1102, the following subparts of 40 CFR 63, NESHAPs for Source Categories, and all accompanying appendices, adopted as of July 1, 2003, and no future editions or amendments, are incorporated by reference. These standards are on file with the Department and shall be applied by the Department. These standards can be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington D.C. 20402-9328.

1. Subpart A - General Provisions.

2. Subpart B - Requirements for Control Technology Determinations for Major Sources in Accordance with Clean Air Act Sections, Sections 112(g) and 112(j).

3. Subpart D - Regulations Governing Compliance Extensions for Early Reductions of Hazardous Air Pollutants.

4. Subpart F - National Emission Standards for Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants from the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry.

5. Subpart G - National Emission Standards for Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants from the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry for Process Vents, Storage Vessels, Transfer Operations, and Wastewater.

6. Subpart H - National Emission Standards for Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Equipment Leaks.

7. Subpart I - National Emission Standards for Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Certain Processes Subject to the Negotiated Regulation for Equipment Leaks.

8. Subpart J - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production.

9. Subpart L - National Emission Standards for Coke Oven Batteries.

10. Subpart M - National Perchloroethylene Air Emission Standards for Dry Cleaning Facilities.

11. Subpart N - National Emission Standards for Chromium Emissions From Hard and Decorative Chromium Electroplating and Chromium Anodizing Tanks.

12. Subpart O - Ethylene Oxide Emissions Standards for Sterilization Facilities.

13. Subpart Q - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Industrial Process Cooling Towers.

14. Subpart R - National Emission Standards for Gasoline Distribution Facilities (Bulk Gasoline Terminals and Pipeline Breakout Stations).

15. Subpart S - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from the Pulp and Paper Industry.

16. Subpart T - National Emission Standards for Halogenated Solvent Cleaning.

17. Subpart U - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutant Emissions: Group I Polymers and Resins.

18. Subpart W - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Epoxy Resins Production and Non-Nylon Polyamides Production.

19. Subpart X - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Secondary Lead Smelting.

20. Subpart AA - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Plants.

21. Subpart BB - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Phosphate Fertilizers Production Plants.

22. Subpart CC - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Petroleum Refineries.

23. Subpart DD - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Off-Site Waste and Recovery Operations.

24. Subpart EE - National Emission Standards for Magnetic Tape Manufacturing Operations.

25. Subpart GG - National Emission Standards for Aerospace Manufacturing and Rework Facilities.

26. Subpart HH - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Oil and Natural Gas Production Facilities.

27. Subpart JJ - National Emission Standards for Wood Furniture Manufacturing Operations.

28. Subpart KK - National Emission Standards for the Printing and Publishing Industry.

29. Subpart LL - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.

30. Subpart MM - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft, Soda, Sulfite, and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills.

31. Subpart OO - National Emission Standards for Tanks--Level 1.

32. Subpart PP - National Emission Standards for Containers.

33. Subpart QQ - National Emission Standards for Surface Impoundments.

34. Subpart RR - National Emission Standards for Individual Drain Systems.

35. Subpart SS - National Emission Standards for Closed Vent Systems, Control Devices, Recovery Devices and Routing to a Fuel Gas System or a Process.

36. Subpart TT - National Emission Standards for Equipment Leaks - Control Level 1.

37. Subpart UU - National Emission Standards for Equipment Leaks - Control Level 2 Standards.

38. Subpart VV - National Emission Standards for Oil-Water Separators and Organic-Water Separators.

39. Subpart WW - National Emission Standards for Storage Vessels (Tanks) - Control Level 2.

40. Subpart XX - National Emission Standards for Ethylene Manufacturing Process Units: Heat Exchange Systems and Waste Operations

41. Subpart YY - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories: Generic Maximum Achievable Control Technology Standards.

42. Subpart CCC - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Steel Pickling - HCl Process Facilities and Hydrochloric Acid Regeneration Plants.

43. Subpart DDD - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Mineral Wool Production.

44. Subpart EEE - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Hazardous Waste Combustors.

45. Subpart GGG - National Emission Standards for Pharmaceuticals Production.

46. Subpart HHH - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Natural Gas Transmission and Storage Facilities.

47. Subpart III - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Flexible Polyurethane Foam Production.

48. Subpart JJJ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutant Emissions: Group IV Polymers and Resins.

49. Subpart LLL - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry.

50. Subpart MMM - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Pesticide Active Ingredient Production.

51. Subpart NNN - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing.

52. Subpart OOO - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutant Emissions: Manufacture of Amino/Phenolic Resins.

53. Subpart PPP - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutant Emissions for Polyether Polyols Production.

54. Subpart QQQ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Primary Copper Smelting.

55. Subpart RRR - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Secondary Aluminum Production.

56. Subpart TTT - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Primary Lead Smelting.

57. Subpart UUU - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Petroleum Refineries: Catalytic Cracking Units, Catalytic Reforming Units, and Sulfur Recovery Units.

58. Subpart VVV - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Publicly Owned Treatment Works.

59. Subpart XXX - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Ferroalloys Production: Ferromanganese and Silicomanganese.

60. Subpart AAAA - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.

61. Subpart CCCC - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Manufacture of Nutritional Yeast.

62. Subpart GGGG - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Solvent Extraction for Vegetable Oil Production.

63. Subpart HHHH--National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Wet-Formed Fiberglass Mat Production.

64. Subpart JJJJ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Paper and Other Web Coating.

65. Subpart NNNN - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of Large Appliances.

66. Subpart OOOO - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Printing, Coating, and Dyeing of Fabrics and Other Textiles.

67. Subpart QQQQ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of Wood Building Products.

68. Subpart RRRR - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.

69. Subpart SSSS--National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of Metal Coil.

70. Subpart TTTT--National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Leather Finishing Operations.

71. Subpart UUUU--National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Cellulose Products Manufacturing.

72. Subpart VVVV--National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Boat Manufacturing.

73. Subpart WWWW - National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Reinforced Plastic Composites Production.

74. Subpart XXXX - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Rubber Tire Manufacturing.

75. Subpart BBBBB - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Semiconductor Manufacturing.

76. Subpart CCCCC - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Coke Ovens: Pushing, Quenching, and Battery Stacks.

77. Subpart FFFFF - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Integrated Iron and Steel Manufacturing.

78. Subpart JJJJJ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Brick and Structural Clay Products Manufacturing.

79. Subpart KKKKK - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Clay Ceramics Manufacturing.

80. Subpart LLLLL - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing Manufacturing.

81. Subpart MMMMM - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Flexible Polyurethane Foam Fabrication Operations.

82. Subpart NNNNN - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Hydrochloric Acid Production.

83. Subpart PPPPP - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Engine Test Cells/Stands.

84. Subpart QQQQQ - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Friction Materials Manufacturing Facilities.

85. Subpart SSSSS - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Refractory Products Manufacturing.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-1101 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-1101 renumbered from R18-2-901 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2). Amended effective February 17, 1995 (Supp. 95-1). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective May 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective April 4, 1997; filed with the Office of the Secretary of State March 14, 1997 (Supp. 97-1). Amended effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 4170, effective October 11, 2000 (Supp. 00-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 3281, effective September 27, 2004 (Supp. 04-3).

<regElement name="R18.2.1102" level="4" title="General Provisions">

General Provisions

A. When used in 40 CFR 61 or 63, "Administrator" means the Director of the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality except that the Director shall not be authorized to approve alternate or equivalent test methods or alternate standards or work practices, except as specifically provided in Part 63, Subpart B.

B. From the general standards identified in R18-2-1101(A), delete 40 CFR 61.04. All requests, reports, applications, submittals, and other communications to the Director pursuant to this Article shall be submitted to the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, 3033 North Central Avenue, Phoenix, Arizona 85012.

C. The Director shall not be delegated authority to deal with equivalency determinations that are nontransferable through Section 112(e)(3) of the Act.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-2-1102 repealed effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). New Section R18-2-1102 renumbered from R18-2-902 and amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective June 10, 1994 (Supp. 94-2). Amended effective February 17, 1995 (Supp. 95-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 12" level="3" title="EMISSIONS BANK">

EMISSIONS BANK

<regElement name="R18.2.1201" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in Article 1 of this Chapter, and A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01, the following definitions apply to this Article:

1. "Certified credit" means an emission reduction credit that meets the criteria under R18-2-1205.

2. "Conditional credit" means an emission reduction credit that is in the review process before qualifying for certification under R18-2-1205.

3. "Credit generation" means the process by which a source obtains emission reduction credits for eventual listing in the registry.

4. "Credit retirement" means a person's purchase of a banked emission reduction credit for the purpose of permanent removal from the emissions bank.

5. "Credit utilization" means the use of a certified emission reduction credit.

6. "Credit withdrawal" means the removal of an emission reduction credit from the bank by the source originally depositing the emission reduction credit.

7. "Emission reduction credit" or "credit" means a certified unit that may be banked, sold, transferred, withdrawn, or retired.

8. "Permitting authority" means the state or county that has jurisdiction over a source under A.R.S. &#167; 49-402 and may review, issue, revise, administer, and enforce a permit; and certify a credit under this Article.

9. "Registry" means the location where emission reduction credits are posted for the purpose of public notice, allowing a person to determine the availability of credits for related market transactions.

10. "Surplus" means the amount of a permitted source's emission reduction that is not required by federal, state, or local law.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1202" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

The provisions of this Article apply to permitted sources emitting particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, or volatile organic compounds. The provisions of this Article shall not apply to sources granted authority to operate under 18 A.A.C. 2, Article 5.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1203" level="4" title="Emissions Bank Administration">

Emissions Bank Administration

A. The Director shall place an emission reduction credit in the emissions bank credit registry upon conditional certification, certification, pending use, and final disposition. For each credit, the Director shall place in the registry:

1. Source's contact name and information;

2. Source name and information;

3. Amount and type of pollutant;

4. Date of emission reduction and credit status.

B. The Director shall issue a certificate of deposit to the reducing source for each certified credit deposited in the bank, and issue a certificate of retirement to a person for each certified credit permanently retired.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1204" level="4" title="Credit Generation">

Credit Generation

A. A source wanting to generate an emission reduction for deposit into the bank shall submit a Credit Generation Application (CGA) to the Director on a form prescribed by the Director. The CGA shall contain:

1. The company name;

2. The company mailing address;

3. The owner, co-owner, or partner;

4. The contact person name, title, and telephone number;

5. The permitted source name, location, permit number, and industry code;

6. The pollutant;

7. The attainment status of the area where the source is located;

8. The amount of actual emissions reduced;

9. The date of emission reduction to be credited;

10. The description of emission reduction credit generation activity;

11. The signature of and verification of truthfulness and accuracy by a responsible official as defined in R18-2-301(17);

12. The name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official.

The source shall submit a copy of the CGA to the permitting authority with an application to revise the permit or request to terminate the permit.

B. Upon receipt by the Director of the CGA with a check for the administrative fee specified in R18-2-1208(A), the Director shall list each conditional credit in the registry.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1205" level="4" title="Credit Certification">

Credit Certification

A. A permitting authority may certify an emission credit if the permitting authority verifies the credit is based on:

1. A reduction in actual emissions that occurred after August 17, 1999;

2. A quantifiable reduction in actual emissions;

3. A permanent reduction in actual emissions;

4. An enforceable reduction in actual emissions; and

5. A surplus reduction in actual emissions occurring in addition to any other required emission reduction.

B. The source must notify the permitting authority when the reduction occurs.

C. In order for an emission reduction to be quantifiable under this Section:

1. The emission reduction must be quantifiable under R18-2-301(14); and

2. The reducing source shall submit documentation of any testing or monitoring that demonstrates an emission reduction.

D. The permitting authority shall certify one emission reduction credit for each ton per year of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, or volatile organic compound actually reduced.

E. At the time of deposit in the emissions bank, the Director shall discount by 10 percent the certified credit total. The 10 percent of certified credit total shall be permanently retired to the bank.

F. A banked credit does not expire.

G. The permitting authority shall notify the source and the Director that a credit is certified. Upon receipt of the notice, the Director shall issue a certificate for each certified credit to the applicant identified in R18-2-1204, and list the certified credit in the registry.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1206" level="4" title="Credit Utilization">

Credit Utilization

A. A source may use a certified emission reduction credit in the same nonattainment area, maintenance area, or modeling domain in which the emission reduction occurred by submitting a Credit Utilization Application (CUA) to the Director on a form prescribed by the Director. The CUA shall contain:

1. The name and mailing address of the source that generated the credit;

2. The owner, co-owner, or partner of the source that generated the credit;

3. The contact person name, title, telephone number of the source that generated the credit;

4. The name and mailing address of the source utilizing the credit;

5. The owner, co-owner, or partner of the source utilizing the credit;

6. The contact person name, title, telephone number of the source utilizing the credit;

7. The purpose of the utilization;

8. The pollutant;

9. The amount of emission reduction credit to be utilized;

10. Each emission reduction credit certificate number;

11. The signature of and verification of truthfulness and accuracy by a responsible official as defined in R18-2-301(17); and

12. The name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official.

The source shall submit a copy of the CUA to the permitting authority at the time the source submits an application for a permit or permit revision.

B. Upon receipt by the Director of the CUA with a check for the administrative fee specified in R18-2-1208(B), the Director shall list the pending sale in the registry.

C. The Director shall not list the final sale in the registry until:

1. The permitting authority evaluates and verifies the authenticity of the credit with the emissions bank;

2. The permitting authority determines that there will be no adverse impact on air quality; and

3. The permitting authority completes the permitting action and submits the credit certificate to the Director.

D. After the permitting authority notifies the Director that the requirements of this Section have been met, the Director shall delist the credits in the registry.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1207" level="4" title="Credit Withdrawal">

Credit Withdrawal

Any party purchasing certified credits listed in the emissions bank for the purpose of credit retirement, or any source withdrawing its own credits from the emissions bank, shall submit a CUA specified in R18-2-1204(A) with the surrendered certificates to the Director. Upon receipt of the CUA and surrendered certificates, the Director shall delist the credits in the registry.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1208" level="4" title="Fees">

Fees

A. A source generating a credit shall pay a non-refundable administrative fee of $200.00 to the Director when submitting the CGA. This fee is in addition to the fees specified in R18-2-326.

B. A source utilizing a credit shall pay a non-refundable administrative fee of $200.00 to the Director when submitting the CUA. This fee is in addition to the fees specified in R18-2-326.

C. The Director shall not assess an administrative fee to a person:

1. Purchasing a credit for retirement;

2. Amending ownership information contained in the registry; or

3. Withdrawing a credit from the bank.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1815, effective March 18, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 13" level="3" title="DIESEL CONVERSION GRANT PROGRAM">

DIESEL CONVERSION GRANT PROGRAM

Article 13, consisting of Sections R18-2-1301 through R18-2-1307, made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1301" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The following definitions apply in this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. "Alternative fuel" has the meaning in A.R.S. &#167; 1-215.

2. "Alternative fuel vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle that is registered and titled in this state for operation on the highways and that is propelled by an alternative fuel.

3. "Application" means the application submitted to the Department as specified in R18-2-1304.

4. "Application priority list" means the list specified in R18-2-1305.

5. "Conversion" means modification of a diesel vehicle to operate on an alternative fuel.

6. "Cost of conversion" means the actual cost of conversion, including the parts and materials used, the hours required for conversion, and the hourly rate for labor of this type, as shown by receipts or other evidence.

7. "Diesel vehicle" means a vehicle that operates only on diesel fuel.

8. "Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality or designee.

9. "GVWR" means the gross vehicle weight rating, the maximum loaded weight for which the vehicle is designed, as specified by the vehicle manufacturer.

10. "MVD Alternative Fuel Certificate" means a form issued by the Arizona Department of Transportation Motor Vehicle Division certifying that the vehicle has been inspected and is equipped to operate on alternative fuel. An applicant shall obtain this Certificate from an:

a. Arizona Department of Environmental Quality waiver station, or

b. Arizona Department of Environmental Quality licensed third-party inspector.

11. "Pre-approval letter" means a letter issued by the Department as specified in R18-2-1304.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1302" level="4" title="Available Funds">

Available Funds

Funds are available only as appropriated by the legislature. Once all available funds have been encumbered, the Department shall notify all applicants who have not been placed on the application priority list.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1303" level="4" title="Eligibility">

Eligibility

A person may submit an application for a grant under this Article if the person has a purchase order or contract that is dated on or after January 1, 2000, to convert a diesel vehicle and the vehicle:

1. Has not previously been the subject of a grant under this program;

2. Has a GVWR of at least 19,500 lbs;

3. Is not a recreational vehicle as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 28-3102;

4. Is registered in this state;

5. Will be registered in this state for at least three years from the date the vehicle is registered as an alternative fuel vehicle;

6. Will be operated more than 50 percent of the time in area A or area B as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-541; and

7. Is subject to A.R.S. &#167; 28-4032(A), is a school bus, or a municipal vehicle.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1304" level="4" title="Application Process">

Application Process

A. An applicant shall submit an application to the Department for each vehicle for which the applicant is claiming a grant, before 5:00 p.m., June 30, 2003, on a form provided by the Department. The application shall contain:

1. The application form prescribed by the Department with the following information included:

a. Applicant's status as an individual or a business;

b. Applicant's name, address, and telephone number;

c. If the applicant is a business, school district, or municipality, the applicant's:

i. Federal Taxpayer Identification Number, and

ii. Authorized representative's name and title;

d. The vehicle's:

i. Vehicle identification number (VIN),

ii. Model year,

iii. Make,

iv. Model, and

v. GVWR;

e. From whom the applicant purchased or leased the vehicle and the seller or lessor's telephone number;

f. The Arizona registration date of the vehicle;

g. For the converted or to-be-converted vehicle:

i. The conversion vendor's name and business address, contact person, and the contact's telephone number,

ii. The conversion kit manufacturer and kit serial number, and

iii. The conversion date or expected conversion date;

h. The type of alternative fuel the converted vehicle uses or will use:

i. Compressed natural gas-CNG,

ii. Liquid natural gas-LNG,

iii. Liquefied petroleum gas-LPG,

iv. Electric,

v. Solar, or

vi. Hydrogen.

2. A signed and dated "Statement of Assurances" on a form prescribed by the Department that includes:

a. A statement signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury, that the applicant intends:

i. To keep the vehicle registered in this state for at least three years from the date the vehicle is registered as an alternative fuel vehicle;

ii. To operate the vehicle more than 50 percent of the time in area A or area B as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-541;

b. An additional statement that:

i. The applicant owns or leases the vehicle;

ii. The applicant has the vehicle titled, registered, and insured in Arizona;

iii. The vehicle is not a recreational vehicle as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 28-3102;

iv. The vehicle is a diesel vehicle over 19,500 pounds GVWR that has been or will be converted to operate on alternative fuel; and

v. The vehicle is subject to A.R.S. &#167; 28-4032(A), is a school bus, or a municipal vehicle.

c. An additional statement that applicant agrees that, if the Statement of Assurances and the application are not truthful, correct, and complete, the Department may seek recourse in the Superior Court of Maricopa County, Arizona, with the applicant paying all costs of collection of any monies due the Department, including reasonable attorneys' fees.

d. A notarized statement as specified in A.R.S. &#167; 41-311(6), under penalty of perjury, that the information contained in the application is truthful, correct, and complete.

3. A current and complete W-9 Federal tax form (Request for Taxpayer Identification Number and Certification);

4. A copy of the validated Arizona registration and Arizona title for the vehicle (for a new vehicle, these copies shall be submitted within 15 days of receipt from the State);

5. A copy of the contract, or purchase order entered into by the applicant, for conversion of the vehicle for which applicant requests a grant;

6. If the vehicle is not a school bus or a municipal vehicle, a copy of the declarations page from the current liability policy for the vehicle, or other evidence of compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 28-4032(A);

7. If the conversion has been completed, copies of:

a. The MVD Alternative Fuel Certificate issued according to A.R.S. &#167; 28-2416; and

b. The invoice or other evidence of the cost of conversion, including:

i. The conversion date;

ii. A list of all parts used by the conversion vendor;

iii. A list of all tasks completed by the conversion vendor, specifying the hours spent on each task and the hourly rate charged; and

iv. The conversion kit manufacturer and kit serial number or serial number of conversion parts.

B. The Department may require verification of information provided, including original documents.

C. The Department shall review an application for completeness and eligibility for a grant.

D. If the Department determines that the application is complete through subsection (A)(7), funds are available as specified in R18-2-1302, and the vehicle meets the eligibility requirements in R18-2-1303:

1. The Department shall provide a pre-approval letter to the applicant, stating that the applicant is eligible for a grant under the program when the vehicle is converted as specified in the application and the information specified in subsection (A)(7) is submitted to the Department. The letter shall state the amount of the grant.

2. After the Department provides the letter under subsection (D)(1), the Department shall list the vehicle in the application priority list specified in R18-2-1305 and encumber the grant funds.

3. The applicant shall complete the vehicle conversion and submit all requested information to the Department by the deadline date specified in the pre-approval letter. The deadline date shall be 180 days from the date of the letter. For good cause shown, the Department may grant one extension of the deadline date of up to 45 days.

4. If the applicant fails to comply with the requirements of the pre-approval letter, the Department shall remove the vehicle from the application priority list and unencumber the grant funds.

5. If the Department determines that the applicant has complied with all the requirements of the pre-approval letter, the Department shall notify the applicant in writing that a grant award will be paid to the applicant in the amount according to R18-2-1306.

6. If the conversion is completed before the application is submitted and the vehicle meets the eligibility requirements, the Department shall list the vehicle in the application priority list specified in R18-2-1305 and encumber the grant funds. The Department shall notify the applicant in writing of the grant award determined under R18-2-1306.

E. If an application is not complete, the Department shall notify applicant in writing that the application:

1. Cannot be processed because:

a. A specified item is missing, or

b. The Department requires additional specified action; and

2. Shall be processed after the applicant submits the additional required information and performs any required action specified in the Department's notification to the applicant.

3. If the applicant completes the application, and the Department approves it, the Department shall place the applicant on the application priority list described in R18-2-1305.

F. If the Department determines that the vehicle specified in the application is not eligible for a grant under R18-2-1303, the Department shall notify the applicant in writing of the determination, including each reason for ineligibility.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1305" level="4" title="Application Priority List">

Application Priority List

A. The Department shall maintain for public inspection an application priority list for approved applications, where grant priority is determined by the date of the contract or purchase order entered into by the applicant.

B. If two or more vehicles have the same priority and insufficient funds exist to provide grants for each vehicle, the Department shall use the following computer-based, random-number process to determine the order in which these vehicles are eligible for grant funds:

1. Applications for each vehicle with the same priority shall arranged in a stack, in any order, by the Director.

2. A sequence of random numbers equal in length to the number of applications shall be generated using the random number generator at www.random.org/sform.html. One random number shall be assigned to each of the applications, with the top application receiving the first number in the sequence, continuing down through the stack until the bottom application has been assigned the last random number in the sequence.

3. The applications shall then be ranked, with lower random numbers indicating higher priority.

4. The Director shall notify each of the equal priority applicants of the random number process, to afford them the opportunity to be present when the random numbers are assigned.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1306" level="4" title="Grant Amount">

Grant Amount

The Department shall award grants to qualified applicants within 30 days of the date it notifies the applicant in writing that it will pay applicant a grant award. The Department shall award grants for the lesser of the cost of conversion or $30,000.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1307" level="4" title="Review of Grant Determination">

Review of Grant Determination

A. Any interested party may request a review of:

1. A determination of eligibility for a grant under this Article;

2. An applicant's priority in the awarding of the grants; or

3. The amount of a grant under this Article.

B. If a request for review is made, the funds requested for conversion shall be reserved until the Director's decision after the review under subsection (C).

C. A request under subsection (A) shall be made in writing, and received by the Director within 10 business days of the date of the determination. Unless the Director and the interested party agree otherwise, the review shall take place within 10 business days after the Director's receipt of the request. The Director shall arrange the date and location of the review with the interested party at least five business days before the review. The Director shall mail his or her review decision to the interested party within five business days after the review date. The Director's decision after review becomes final unless, within 30 days after applicant's receipt of the review decision, the interested party requests a hearing under R18-1-202.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1295, effective April 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 14" level="3" title="CONFORMITY DETERMINATIONS">

CONFORMITY DETERMINATIONS

<regElement name="R18.2.1401" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

Terms used in this Article but not defined in this Article, Article 1 of this Chapter, or A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01 shall have the meaning given them by the CAA, Titles 23 and 40 U.S.C., other EPA regulations, or other USDOT regulations, in that order of priority. The following definitions and the definitions contained in Article 1 of this Chapter and in A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01 shall apply to this Article:

1. "ADEQ" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

2. "ADOT" means the Arizona Department of Transportation.

3. "Applicable implementation plan" is defined in &#167; 302(q) of the CAA and means the portion (or portions) of the implementation plan, or most recent revision thereof, which has been approved under &#167; 110, or promulgated under &#167; 110(c), or promulgated or approved pursuant to regulations promulgated under &#167; 301(d) and which implements the relevant requirements of the CAA.

4. "CAA" means the Clean Air Act, as amended.

5. "Cause or contribute to a new violation" for a project means either of the following:

a. To cause or contribute to a new violation of a standard in the area substantially affected by the project or over a region which would otherwise not be in violation of the standard during the future period in question, if the project were not implemented.

b. To contribute to a new violation in a manner that would increase the frequency or severity of a new violation of a standard in such area.

6. "Consultation" means that one party confers with another identified party, provides access to all appropriate information to that party needed for meaningful input, and, prior to taking any action, considers the views of that party and responds in accordance with the procedures established in R18-2-1405.

7. "Control strategy implementation plan revision" is the applicable implementation plan which contains specific strategies for controlling the emissions of and reducing ambient levels of pollutants in order to satisfy CAA requirements for demonstrations of reasonable further progress and attainment (CAA &#167;&#167; 182(b)(1), 182(c)(2)(A), 182(c)(2)(B), 187(a)(7), 189(a)(1)(B), and 189(b)(1)(A); and &#167;&#167; 192(a) and 192(b), for nitrogen dioxide).

8. "Control strategy period" with respect to particulate matter less than 10 microns in diameter (PM

10

), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen dioxide (NO

2

), or ozone precursors (volatile organic compounds (VOC) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx)), means that period of time after EPA approves control strategy implementation plan revisions containing strategies for controlling PM

10

, NO

2

, CO, or ozone, as appropriate. This period ends when the state submits and EPA approves a request under &#167; 107(d) of the CAA for redesignation to an attainment area.

9. "Design concept" means the type of facility identified by the project, e.g., freeway, expressway, arterial highway, grade-separated highway, reserved right-of-way rail transit, mixed traffic rail transit, exclusive busway, etc.

10. "Design scope" means the design aspects of a facility which will affect the proposed facility's impact on regional emissions, usually as they relate to vehicle or person carrying capacity and control, e.g., number of lanes or tracks to be constructed or added, length of project, signalization, access control including approximate number and location of interchanges, preferential treatment for high-occupancy vehicles, etc.

11. "EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

12. "FHWA" means the Federal Highway Administration of USDOT.

13. "FHWA or FTA project" means any highway or transit project which is proposed to receive funding assistance and approval through the Federal-Aid Highway program or the federal mass transit program, or requires Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) approval for some aspect of the project, such as connection to an interstate highway or deviation from applicable design standards on the interstate system.

14. "FTA" means the Federal Transit Administration of USDOT.

15. "Forecast period" with respect to a transportation plan means the period covered by the transportation plan pursuant to 23 CFR 450.

16. "Highway project" means an undertaking to implement or modify a highway facility or highway-related program. Such an undertaking consists of all required phases necessary for implementation. For analytical purposes, it shall be defined sufficiently to:

a. Connect logical termini and be of sufficient length to address environmental matters on a broad scope.

b. Have independent utility or significance, i.e., be usable and be a reasonable expenditure even if no additional transportation improvements in the area are made.

c. Not restrict consideration of alternatives for other reasonably foreseeable transportation improvements.

17. "Horizon year" means a year for which the transportation plan describes the envisioned transportation system in accordance with R18-2-1406.

18. "Hot-spot analysis" means an estimation of likely future localized CO and PM

10

pollutant concentrations and a comparison of those concentrations to the national ambient air quality standards. Pollutant concentrations to be estimated should be based on the total emissions burden which may result from the implementation of a single, specific project, summed together with future background concentrations (which can be estimated using the ratio of future to current traffic multiplied by the ratio of future to current emission factors) expected in the area. The total concentration shall be estimated and analyzed at appropriate receptor locations in the area substantially affected by the project. Hot-spot analysis assesses impacts on a scale smaller than the entire nonattainment or maintenance area, including, for example, congested roadway intersections and highways or transit terminals, and uses an air quality dispersion model to determine the effects of emissions on air quality.

19. "Incomplete data area" means any ozone nonattainment area which EPA has classified, in 40 CFR 81, as an incomplete data area.

20. "Increase the frequency or severity of a violation" means to cause a location or region to exceed a standard more often or to cause a violation at a greater concentration than previously existed or would otherwise exist during the future period in question, if the project were not implemented.

21. "ISTEA" means the Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act of 1991.

22. "Local transportation agency" means a city, town, or county.

23. "Maintenance area" means any geographic region of the United States previously designated nonattainment pursuant to the CAA Amendments of 1990 and subsequently redesignated to attainment subject to the requirement to develop a maintenance plan under &#167; 175A of the CAA.

24. "Maintenance period" with respect to a pollutant or pollutant precursor means that period of time beginning when a state submits and EPA approves a request under &#167; 107(d) of the CAA for redesignation to an attainment area, and lasting for 20 years, unless the applicable implementation plan specifies that the maintenance period shall last for more than 20 years.

25. "Metropolitan planning organization (MPO)" means the organization designated as being responsible, together with the state, for conducting the continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive planning process under 23 U.S.C. 134 and 49 U.S.C. 1607.

26. "Milestone" means an emissions level and the date on which it is required to be achieved as described in &#167; 182(g)(1) and &#167; 189(c) of the CAA.

27. "Motor vehicle emissions budget" means that portion of the total allowable emissions defined in a revision to the applicable implementation plan (or in an implementation plan revision which was endorsed by the Governor or Director of ADEQ, subject to a public hearing, and submitted to EPA, but not yet approved by EPA) for a certain date for the purpose of meeting reasonable further progress milestones or attainment or maintenance demonstrations, for any criteria pollutant or its precursors, allocated by the applicable implementation plan to highway and transit vehicles. The applicable implementation plan for an ozone nonattainment area may also designate a motor vehicle emissions budget for oxides of nitrogen (NOx) for a reasonable further progress milestone year if the applicable implementation plan demonstrates that this NOx budget will be achieved with measures in the implementation plan (as an implementation plan must do for VOC milestone requirements). The applicable implementation plan for an ozone nonattainment area includes a NOx budget if NOx reductions are being substituted for reductions in volatile organic compounds in milestone years required for reasonable further progress.

28. "National ambient air quality standards (NAAQS)" means those standards established pursuant to &#167; 109 of the CAA.

29. "NEPA" means the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.).

30. "NEPA process completion" with respect to FHWA or FTA, means the point at which there is a specific action to do any of the following:

a. Make a formal final determination that a project is categorically excluded.

b. Make a Finding of No Significant Impact.

c. Issue a record of decision on a Final Environmental Impact Statement under NEPA.

31. "Nonattainment area" means any geographic region of the United States which has been designated as nonattainment under &#167; 107 of the CAA for any pollutant for which a national ambient air quality standard exists.

32. "Not classified area" means any carbon monoxide nonattainment area which EPA has not classified as either moderate or serious.

33. "Phase II of the interim period" with respect to a pollutant or pollutant precursor means that period of time after December 27, 1993, lasting until the earlier of the following:

1. Submission to EPA of the relevant control strategy implementation plan revisions which have been endorsed by the Governor or the Director of ADEQ and have been subject to a public hearing.

2. The date that the CAA requires relevant control strategy implementation plans to be submitted to EPA, provided EPA has made a finding of the state's failure to submit any such plans and the state, MPO, and USDOT have received notice of such finding of the state's failure to submit any such plans.

34. "Project" means a highway project or transit project.

35. "Recipient of funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act" means any agency at any level of state, county, or city government, including any political subdivision or MPO, that routinely receives 23 U.S.C. or Federal Transit Act funds to construct FHWA or FTA projects, operate FHWA or FTA projects or equipment, purchase equipment, or undertake other services or operations via contracts or agreements. This definition does not include private landowners or developers, or contractors or entities that are only paid for services or products created by their own employees.

36. "Regional transportation agency" means a regional transit authority established pursuant to A.R.S. Title 28, Chapter 20 or Chapter 24, or a formal association of political subdivisions involved in regional transportation issues.

37. "Regionally significant transportation project" means a transportation project (other than an exempt project) that is on a facility which serves regional transportation needs (such as access to and from the area outside of the region, major activity centers in the region, major planned developments such as new retail malls, sports complexes, etc., or transportation terminals, as well as most terminals themselves) and would normally be included in the modeling of a metropolitan area's transportation network, including at a minimum all principal arterial highways and all fixed guideway transit facilities that offer an alternative to regional highway travel.

38. "Rural transport ozone nonattainment area" means an ozone nonattainment area that does not include, and is not adjacent to, any part of a Metropolitan Statistical Area or, where one exists, a Consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Area (as defined by the United States Bureau of the Census) and is classified under CAA &#167; 182(h) as a rural transport area.

39. "Standard" means a national ambient air quality standard.

40. "Statewide transportation improvement program (STIP)" means a staged, multi-year, intermodal program of transportation projects covering the state, which is consistent with the statewide transportation plan and metropolitan transportation plans, and developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450.

41. "Statewide transportation plan" means the official intermodal statewide transportation plan that is developed through the statewide planning process for the state, developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450.

42. "Submarginal area" means any ozone nonattainment area which EPA has classified as submarginal in 40 CFR 81.

43. "Transit" is mass transportation by bus, rail, or other conveyance which provides general or special service to the public on a regular and continuing basis. It does not include school buses or charter or sightseeing services.

44. "Transit project" means an undertaking to implement or modify a transit facility or transit-related program, purchase transit vehicles or equipment, or provide financial assistance for transit operations. It does not include actions that are solely within the jurisdiction of local transit agencies, such as changes in routes, schedules, or fares. It may consist of several phases. For analytical purposes, it shall be defined inclusively enough to:

a. Connect logical termini and be of sufficient length to address environmental matters on a broad scope.

b. Have independent utility or independent significance, i.e., be a reasonable expenditure even if no additional transportation improvements in the area are made.

c. Not restrict consideration of alternatives for other reasonably foreseeable transportation improvements.

45. "Transitional area" means any ozone nonattainment area which EPA has classified as transitional in 40 CFR 81.

46. "Transitional period" with respect to a pollutant or pollutant precursor means that period of time which begins after submission to EPA of the relevant control strategy implementation plan which has been endorsed by the Governor or Director of ADEQ and has been subject to a public hearing. The transitional period lasts until EPA takes final approval or disapproval action on the control strategy implementation plan submission or finds it to be incomplete. The precise beginning and end of the transitional period is defined in R18-2-1428.

47. "Transportation control measure (TCM)" means any measure that is specifically identified and committed to in the applicable implementation plan that is either one of the types listed in &#167; 108 of the CAA, or any other measure for the purpose of reducing emissions or concentrations of air pollutants from transportation sources by reducing vehicle use or changing traffic flow or congestion conditions. Notwithstanding the above, vehicle technology-based, fuel-based, and maintenance-based measures which control the emissions from vehicles under fixed traffic conditions are not TCMs for the purposes of this rule.

48. "Transportation improvement program (TIP)" means a staged, multi-year, intermodal program of transportation projects covering a metropolitan planning area which is consistent with the metropolitan transportation plan and developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450.

49. "Transportation plan" means the official intermodal metropolitan transportation plan that is developed through the metropolitan planning process for the metropolitan planning area, developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450.

50. "Transportation project" means a highway project or a transit project.

51. "USDOT" means the United States Department of Transportation.

52. "VMT" means the number of vehicle miles traveled.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1402" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. Except as provided for in subsection (F) or R18-2-1434, conformity determinations are required for all of the following:

1. The adoption, acceptance, approval, or support of transportation plans developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450 or 49 CFR 613 by an MPO or USDOT.

2. The adoption, acceptance, approval, or support of TIPs developed pursuant to 23 CFR 450 or 49 CFR 613 by an MPO or USDOT.

3. The approval, funding, or implementation of FHWA or FTA projects.

B. Conformity determinations are not required under this Article for individual projects which are not FHWA or FTA projects. However, R18-2-1429 applies to such projects if they are regionally significant.

C. The provisions of this Article shall apply in all nonattainment and maintenance areas for transportation-related criteria pollutants for which the area is designated nonattainment or has a maintenance plan.

D. The provisions of this Article apply with respect to emissions of the following criteria pollutants: ozone, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers (PM

10

).

E. The provisions of this Article apply with respect to emissions of the following precursor pollutants:

1. Volatile organic compounds and nitrogen oxides in ozone areas (unless the Administrator determines under &#167; 182(f) of the CAA that additional reductions of NOx would not contribute to attainment).

2. Nitrogen oxides in nitrogen dioxide areas.

3. Volatile organic compounds, nitrogen oxides, and PM

10

in PM

10

areas if either of the following apply:

a. During the interim period, the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding (including a finding in an applicable implementation plan or a submitted implementation plan revision) that transportation-related precursor emissions within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified ADOT or the MPO where one exists and USDOT.

b. During the transitional, control strategy, and maintenance periods, the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission establishes a budget for such emissions as part of the reasonable further progress, attainment, or maintenance strategy.

F. Projects subject to this Article for which the NEPA process and a conformity determination have been completed by FHWA or FTA may proceed toward implementation without further conformity determinations if one of the following major steps has occurred within the most recent three-year period: NEPA process completion; formal start of final design; acquisition of a significant portion of the right-of-way; or approval of the plans, specifications, and estimates. All phases of such projects which were considered in the conformity determination are also included, if those phases were for the purpose of funding, final design, right-of-way acquisition, construction, or any combination of these phases.

G. A new conformity determination for the project will be required if there is a significant change in project design concept and scope, if a supplemental environmental document for air quality purposes is initiated, or if no major steps to advance the project have occurred within the most recent three-year period.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1403" level="4" title="Priority">

Priority

When assisting or approving any action with air quality-related consequences, FHWA and FTA shall give priority to the implementation of those transportation portions of an applicable implementation plan prepared to attain and maintain the NAAQS. This priority shall be consistent with statutory requirements for allocation of funds among states or other jurisdictions.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1404" level="4" title="Frequency of Conformity Determinations">

Frequency of Conformity Determinations

A. Conformity determinations and conformity redeterminations for transportation plans, TIPs, and FHWA or FTA projects shall be made according to the requirements of this Section and the applicable implementation plan.

B. Each new transportation plan shall be found to conform before the transportation plan is approved by the MPO or accepted by USDOT.

C. All transportation plan revisions shall be found to conform before the transportation plan revisions are approved by the MPO or accepted by USDOT, unless the revision merely adds or deletes exempt projects listed in R18-2-1434 and has been made in accordance with the notification provisions contained in R18-2-1405. The conformity determination shall be based on the transportation plan and the revision taken as a whole.

D. An existing conformity determination shall lapse unless conformity of existing transportation plans is redetermined:

1. By May 25, 1995, unless previously redetermined consistent with 40 CFR 51, subpart T.

2. Within 18 months after EPA approval of an implementation plan revision which either:

a. Establishes or revises a transportation-related emissions budget (as required by CAA &#167;&#167; 175A(a), 182(b)(1), 182(c)(2)(A), 182(c)(2)(B), 187(a)(7), 189(a)(1)(B), and 189(b)(1)(A); and &#167;&#167; 192(a) and 192(b), for nitrogen dioxide); or

b. Adds, deletes, or changes TCMs.

3. Within 18 months after EPA promulgation of an implementation plan which establishes or revises a transportation-related emissions budget or adds, deletes, or changes TCMs.

E. In any case, conformity determinations shall be made no less frequently than every three years, or the existing conformity determination will lapse.

F. A new TIP shall be found to conform before the TIP is approved by the MPO or accepted by USDOT.

G. A TIP amendment requires a new conformity determination for the entire TIP before the amendment is approved by the MPO or accepted by USDOT, unless the amendment merely adds or deletes exempt projects listed in R18-2-1434 and has been made in accordance with the notification procedures under R18-2-1405.

H. After an MPO adopts a new or revised transportation plan, TIP conformity shall be redetermined by the MPO and USDOT within six months from the date of adoption of the plan, unless the new or revised plan merely adds or deletes exempt projects listed in R18-2-1434. Otherwise, the existing conformity determination for the TIP shall lapse.

I. In any case, TIP conformity determinations shall be made no less frequently than every three years or the existing TIP conformity determination shall lapse.

J. FHWA or FTA projects shall be found to conform before they are adopted, accepted, approved, or funded. Conformity shall be redetermined for any FHWA or FTA project if none of the following major steps has occurred within the most recent three-year period:

1. NEPA process completion,

2. Start of final design,

3. Acquisition of a significant portion of the right-of-way,

4. Approval of the plans, specifications, and estimates.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1405" level="4" title="Consultation"> <dwc name="lead" times="9">

Consultation

A. Consultation procedures as described in this Section shall be undertaken by all of the following entities and shall include the public and affected local and regional transportation agencies in preparing for and making conformity determinations and in developing applicable implementation plans:

1. An MPO where one exists.

2. The Arizona Department of Transportation (ADOT).

3. The United States Department of Transportation (USDOT).

4. The Arizona Department of Environmental Quality (ADEQ).

5. The county air pollution control agency established pursuant to A.R.S. Title 49 where one exists.

6. The United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

B. The following elements shall be used to implement the consultation processes under subsection (M), with the exception of subsection (M)(8), and under subsection (N), with the exception of subsections (N)(2) and (N)(3), and shall include all affected agencies and interested members of the public, and may be conducted at separate times or in combination:

1. Providing to the affected agencies and interested members of the public information describing the upcoming decision process,

2. Distributing or providing access to draft documents,

3. Providing an opportunity for informal question and answer on the draft document or proposed decision,

4. Providing an opportunity for formal written comment,

5. Writing and distributing both a response to comments and the final document or decision.

C. An MPO where one exists, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, a transit authority where one exists, and any local transportation agency shall undertake a consultation process in accordance with this Section with each other, with the local or regional offices of EPA, FHWA and FTA, with affected regional transportation agencies, and with the public on the development of the following as described in subsections (D) through (G):

1. The implementation plan, including the emission budget and list of TCMs in the applicable implementation plan;

2. The unified planning work program under 23 CFR &#167; 450.314;

3. The transportation plan and TIP;

4. The statewide transportation plan and STIP;

5. Any revisions to the preceding documents;

6. All transportation conformity determinations.

D. ADEQ, or the MPO in a county having a population greater than 250,000 persons, shall be the lead agency responsible for preparing an implementation plan, the associated emission budgets, and the list of TCMs in the plan. The lead agency shall also be responsible for assuring the adequacy of the consultation process. The concurrence of ADEQ on each implementation plan is required before ADEQ adopts the plan and transmits it to EPA for inclusion in the state implementation plan pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-406.

E. ADOT, or the MPO where one exists, shall be the lead agency responsible for preparing the final document or decision and for assuring the adequacy of the consultation process with respect to the development of the transportation plan and the TIP. The MPO shall be the lead agency responsible for preparing the final document or decision and for assuring the adequacy of the consultation process with respect to the development of the unified planning work program under 23 CFR 450.314.

F. ADOT shall be the lead agency responsible for preparing the final document or decision and for assuring the adequacy of the consultation process with respect to the development of the statewide transportation plan and the STIP.

G. ADOT, or the MPO where one exists, shall be the lead agency responsible for preparing the final document or decision and for assuring the adequacy of the consultation process with respect to determinations of transportation conformity, except that the entity authorized to adopt or approve a project shall be the lead agency responsible for project-level conformity determinations for projects outside of the transportation plan or TIP and shall assure the adequacy of the consultation process.

H. Each lead agency described in subsections (D) through (G) shall:

1. Confer with all other agencies having an interest in the document or decision to be developed;

2. Provide access to all information needed for meaningful input;

3. Solicit early and continuing input from those agencies;

4. Conduct the public consultation process described in subsection (P);

5. Assure policy-level contact with agencies;

6. With the exception of notifications pursuant to subsection (M)(8), prior to taking any action required pursuant to subsections (D) through (G), consider the views of each agency and the public and respond to significant comments in a timely, substantive written manner prior to taking any final action and assure that such views and written response are made part of the record of any action.

I. FHWA and FTA shall be responsible for assuring timely action on final findings of conformity for transportation plans, TIPs, and federally funded projects, including the basis for those findings, after consulting with other agencies as provided in this Section. FHWA and FTA shall also be responsible for providing guidance on conformity and the transportation planning process to agencies in consultation. FHWA and FTA may rely on the consultation process initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists and shall not be required to duplicate that process.

J. EPA shall be responsible for reviewing and approving updated motor vehicle emissions factors and providing guidance on conformity criteria and procedures to agencies in consultation.

K. Each lead agency subject to a consultation process under this Section, including any federal agency, shall provide or notice the availability of each final document that is the product of the consultation process, together with all supporting information, to each other agency and members of the public that have participated in the consultation process within 15 days of adopting or approving the document or making the determination. An agency may supply a checklist of available supporting information, which other participating agencies or the public may use to request all or part of the supporting information, in lieu of generally distributing all supporting information.

L. A meeting that is scheduled or required for another purpose may be used for the purposes of consultation if the conformity consultation purpose is identified in the public notice for the meeting.

M. A consultation process involving an MPO where one exists, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, a transit authority where one exists, local and regional transportation agencies, EPA, USDOT, and the public shall be undertaken for the following:

1. Evaluating and choosing each model and associated methods and assumptions to be used in hot-spot analyses and regional emissions analyses including vehicle miles traveled (VMT) forecasting. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

2. Determining whether the responsible agency identified in R18-2-1433 has demonstrated that the requirements of R18-2-1416, R18-2-1418 and R18-2-1419 are satisfied without a particular mitigation or control measure. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by the responsible agency.

3. Making a determination, as required by R18-2-1429(C)(2), whether the project is included in the regional emissions analysis supporting the currently conforming TIP's conformity determination, even if the project is not included in the TIP for the purposes of MPO project selection or endorsement, and whether the project's design concept and scope have changed significantly from those which were included in the regional emissions analysis, or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by the MPO. In nonattainment areas where no MPO exists, ADOT shall initiate the consultation process for making a determination, as required by R18-2-1429(C)(2), whether a project that is outside of a TIP is included in the regional emissions analysis, and whether the project's design concept and scope have changed significantly from those which were included in the regional emissions analysis, or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility.

4. Determining pursuant to subsection (R) which minor arterials and other transportation projects should be considered "regionally significant" for the purposes of regional emissions analysis and which projects should be considered to have a significant change in design concept and scope from the transportation plan or TIP. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by the MPO. In nonattainment areas where no MPO exists, ADOT shall initiate the consultation process for determining pursuant to subsection (R) which minor arterials and other transportation projects should be considered "regionally significant" for the purposes of regional emissions analysis.

5. Evaluating whether exempt projects as described in R18-2-1434 and R18-2-1435 should be treated as non-exempt in cases where potential adverse emissions impacts may exist for any reason. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

6. Making a determination, as required by R18-2-1413, whether past obstacles to implementation of TCMs which are behind the schedule established in the applicable implementation plan have been identified and are being overcome, and whether state and local agencies with influence over approvals or funding for TCMs are giving maximum priority to approval or funding for TCMs. This consultation process shall also consider whether delays in TCM implementation necessitate revisions to the applicable implementation plan to remove TCMs or to substitute TCMs or other emission reduction measures. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

7. Identifying, as required by R18-2-1431, projects located at sites in PM

10

nonattainment areas which have vehicle and roadway emission and dispersion characteristics which are essentially identical to those at sites which have violations verified by monitoring, and therefore require quantitative PM

10

hot-spot analysis. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

8. Notification of transportation plan or TIP revisions or amendments which merely add or delete exempt projects listed in R18-2-1434. Notice shall be provided by the MPO and need not be provided prior to final action. Notice shall be provided by ADOT for revisions and amendments affecting the state transportation plan and the state TIP. The public involvement process described in subsection (P) is not required for the purposes of this subsection.

9. Project-level conformity determinations pursuant to R18-2-1416. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by the recipient of the funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act.

N. A consultation process involving the MPO, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, appropriate political subdivisions, regional transportation agencies, if any, and the public shall be undertaken for the following:

1. Evaluating events which will trigger new conformity determinations in addition to those triggering events established in R18-2-1404 and including any changes in planning assumptions that may trigger a new conformity determination. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

2. Consulting on emissions analysis for transportation activities which cross the borders of MPOs or nonattainment areas or air basins. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists. The public involvement process described in subsection (P) is not required for the purposes of this subsection.

3. Where the metropolitan planning area does not include the entire nonattainment or maintenance area, a consultation process involving the MPO and ADOT for cooperative planning and analysis for purposes of determining conformity of all projects outside the metropolitan area and within the nonattainment or maintenance area. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT. The public involvement process described in subsection (P) is not required for the purposes of this subsection.

4. The design, schedule, and funding of research and data collection efforts and regional transportation model development. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

5. Determining that a conforming project approved with mitigation no longer requires mitigation. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

O. The following consultation processes involve recipients of funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act:

1. A consultation process involving the MPO, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, recipients of funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act and any agency created under state law that sponsors or approves transportation projects shall be undertaken to assure that plans for construction of regionally significant projects which are not FHWA or FTA projects, including projects for which alternative locations, design concept or scope, or the no-build option are still being considered, are disclosed as soon as practicable to ADOT or the MPO where one exists, so as to assure that any significant changes to the design concept or scope of those plans are disclosed as soon as practicable. The political subdivision having authority to adopt or approve a regionally significant transportation project, and any agency that becomes aware of any such project through applications for approval, permitting, funding, or otherwise shall disclose such project to ADOT or the MPO if one exists as soon as practicable. To help assure timely disclosure, the political subdivision having authority to adopt or approve any potential regionally significant transportation project shall disclose to ADOT or the MPO on a schedule prescribed by ADOT or the MPO, whichever is appropriate, each project for which alternatives have been identified through the NEPA process and, in particular, any preferred alternative that may be a regionally significant project. The consultation process shall include assuming the location, design concept, and scope of the project, where the sponsor has not yet decided these features, in sufficient detail to allow ADOT or the MPO to perform a regional emissions analysis. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

2. A consultation process involving the MPO, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, recipients of funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act, any agency created under state law that sponsors or approves transportation projects, and the public shall be undertaken for the development of procedures as described in R18-2-1429. The consultation process pursuant to this subsection shall be initiated by ADOT or the MPO where one exists.

P. Public involvement processes shall be conducted according to the requirements of this subsection.

1. ADOT or the MPO, where one exists, when making conformity determinations on transportation plans, programs, and projects shall establish and continuously implement a proactive public involvement process which provides opportunity for public review and comment prior to taking formal action on a conformity determination for all transportation plans and TIPs, that meets the following minimum requirements:

a. Includes a process that provides complete information, timely public notice, full public access to key decisions and supports early and continuing involvement of the public in developing plans and TIPs.

b. Requires a minimum public comment period of 45 days before the public involvement process is initially adopted or revised.

c. Provides timely information about transportation issues and processes to citizens, affected public agencies, representatives of transportation agency employees, private providers of transportation, other interested parties and segments of the community affected by transportation plans, programs, and projects, including but not limited to central city and other local jurisdiction concerns.

d. Provides reasonable public access to technical and policy information used in the development of plans and TIPs and open public meetings where matters related to the federal-aid highway and transit programs are being considered.

e. Requires adequate public notice of public involvement activities and time for public review and comment at key decision points, including, but not limited to, approval of plans and TIPs and approval of changes in plans and TIPs. In nonattainment areas classified as serious and above, the comment period shall be at least 30 days for the plan, TIP, and major amendments. Public notice shall include mailing of notice to a list of all persons who have requested notice of actions covered by this Article.

f. Demonstrates explicit consideration and response to public input received during the planning and program development processes.

g. Seeks out and considers the needs of those traditionally underserved by existing transportation systems, including but not limited to low-income and minority households.

h. When significant written and oral comments are received on a draft transportation plan or TIP, including the financial plan, as a result of the public involvement process or the consultation process required by this Section, a summary, analysis, and report on the disposition of comments shall be made part of the final plan and TIP.

i. If the final transportation plan or TIP differs significantly from the one which was made available for public comment by the MPO and it raises new material issues which interested parties could not reasonably have foreseen from the public involvement efforts, an additional opportunity for public comment on the revised plan or TIP shall be made available.

j. ADOT or the MPO where one exists shall specifically address in writing all public comments that known plans for a regionally significant transportation project which is not receiving FHWA or FTA funding or approval have not been properly reflected in the emissions analysis supporting a proposed conformity finding for a transportation plan or TIP.

k. Public involvement processes shall be periodically reviewed by ADOT or the MPO in terms of their effectiveness in assuring that the process provides full and open access to all.

l. These procedures will be reviewed by the FHWA and the FTA during certification reviews for TMAs, and as otherwise necessary for all MPOs, to assure that full and open access is provided to MPO decisionmaking processes.

m. Metropolitan public involvement processes shall be coordinated with statewide public involvement processes wherever possible to enhance public consideration of the issues, plans, and programs and to reduce redundancies and costs.

2. Local and regional transportation agencies when making conformity determinations on regionally significant transportation projects shall establish and implement a public involvement process which meets, at a minimum, the following requirements:

a. Provides to the affected agencies and interested members of the public information describing the upcoming decision process.

b. Distributes or provides access to draft documents and all information needed for meaningful input.

c. Solicits early and continuing input from interested agencies and the public.

d. Provides an opportunity for informal question and answer on the draft document or proposed decision.

e. Provides an opportunity for formal written comment.

f. Provides for writing and distributing both a response to comments and the final document or decision. The response to comments shall consider the views of each agency and the public. The response to comments shall be made in a timely, substantive written manner prior to taking any final action and shall be made part of the record of any action.

Q. Any conflict among state agencies or between state agencies and an MPO shall be escalated to the Governor if the conflict cannot be resolved by the directors of the involved agencies. In the first instance, such entities shall make every effort to resolve any differences, including personal meetings between the directors of such entities or their policy-level representatives, to the extent possible. Within 14 calendar days after ADOT or the MPO has notified ADEQ of its decision, ADEQ may appeal a proposed determination of conformity, or other policy decision under this Article, to the Governor. ADEQ must provide notice of any appeal under this subsection to ADOT or the MPO. If ADEQ does not appeal to the Governor within 14 days, ADOT or the MPO may proceed with the final determination or decision. If ADEQ appeals to the Governor, the final conformity determination or policy decision shall have the concurrence of the Governor. The Governor may delegate to another official or agency within the state the role of hearing any appeal under this subsection and of deciding whether to concur in the determination or decision but may not delegate these functions to the director or staff of ADEQ, to any local air quality agency, to ADOT, to any state transportation commission or board, to an MPO, or to any agency that has responsibility for any of these functions.

R. The following procedures shall govern the consultation process regarding regionally significant transportation projects as defined in R18-2-1401(37):

1. By September 1, 1995, ADOT or the MPO where one exists shall develop and make available, for each nonattainment or maintenance area, consistent with A.R.S. &#167; 49-408(A), the following:

a. A map of the highway or transit facilities in the nonattainment or maintenance area that serve regional transportation needs.

b. Guidance on which undertakings to implement or modify a highway facility are not transportation projects as defined in this Article, because they are not of sufficient length to address environmental matters on a broad scope.

c. Guidance on which types of transportation projects are normally included in the regional transportation model.

2. The map and guidance described in subsection (R)(1) shall be produced only after consultation with ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, a transit authority where one exists, local and regional transportation agencies, and the public. The map developed pursuant to subsection (R)(1) shall be updated prior to the commencement of the next TIP or STIP development cycle, unless no changes have occurred. The guidance developed pursuant to subsection (R)(3) shall be revised as necessary to reflect changes in the regional transportation model.

3. ADOT or the MPO where one exists shall develop and initiate the consultation process described in subsection (H) for a proposed list of transportation projects to be considered regionally significant. The consultation process shall include the MPO where one exists, ADEQ, a county air pollution control agency where one exists, ADOT, a transit authority where one exists, local and regional transportation agencies, EPA, USDOT, and the public. The list shall include information supporting the proposed classification.

4. In determining whether a facility serves regional transportation needs, ADOT or the MPO where one exists shall consider at a minimum whether the facility:

a. Would be classified as a principal arterial based on average daily traffic or other factors, if not for limitations that the USDOT places on the percentage of streets that can be so classified.

b. For all other roadways, whether the facility:

i. Serves regional mobility needs, as opposed to local access.

ii. Carries regional traffic from one principal arterial to another.

iii. Is a modification that expands a facility such that it would serve regional transportation needs.

5. For the purposes of this Article, a street with a lower classification than a collector street, as specified in the most recent federal classification map for the region, does not serve regional transportation needs.

6. None of the following attributes, by itself, shall require a transportation project to be included in the modeling of a metropolitan area's transportation network:

a. The connection of a facility that does not serve regional transportation needs to a facility that does serve regional transportation needs.

b. The addition or modification of a lane other than a through lane.

S. An agency having a role or responsibility under this Section may delegate that role or responsibility to another entity pursuant to the applicable state law but shall notify all other parties to the consultation process of this fact when the delegation occurs and shall also provide to the other parties the name, address, and telephone number of one or more contact persons representing the entity that is accepting the delegated role or responsibility.

T. The provisions of this Section apply only to TIP and STIP planning cycles beginning with the cycles next following the effective date of this Section. The provisions of 40 CFR 51, Subpart T, continue to apply to all TIP and STIP planning cycles in progress at the time of the effective date of this Section. The provisions of this Section apply to consultation on projects and TIP amendments as of the effective date of this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1406" level="4" title="Content of Transportation Plans">

Content of Transportation Plans

A. For transportation plans adopted after January 1, 1995, in serious, severe, or extreme ozone nonattainment areas and in serious carbon monoxide nonattainment areas, the following shall apply:

1. The transportation plan shall specifically describe the transportation system envisioned for certain future years which shall be called horizon years.

2. The agency or organization developing the transportation plan, after consultation pursuant to R18-2-1405, may choose any years to be horizon years, subject to the following restrictions:

a. Horizon years may be no more than 10 years apart.

b. The first horizon year may be no more than 10 years from the base year used to validate the transportation demand planning model.

c. If the attainment year is in the time span of the transportation plan, the attainment year shall be a horizon year.

d. The last horizon year shall be the last year of the transportation plan's forecast period.

3. For these horizon years all of the following apply:

a. The transportation plan shall quantify and document the demographic and employment factors influencing expected transportation demand, including land-use forecasts, in accordance with implementation plan provisions and R18-2-1405.

b. The highway and transit system shall be described in terms of the regionally significant additions or modifications to the existing transportation network which the transportation plan envisions to be operational in the horizon years. Additions and modifications to the highway network shall be sufficiently identified to indicate intersections with existing regionally significant facilities and to determine their effect on route options between transportation analysis zones. Each added or modified highway segment shall also be sufficiently identified in terms of its design concept and design scope to allow modeling of travel times under various traffic volumes, consistent with the modeling methods for area-wide transportation analysis in use by the MPO. Transit facilities, equipment, and services envisioned for the future shall be identified in terms of design concept, design scope, and operating policies sufficiently to allow modeling of their transit ridership. The description of additions and modifications to the transportation network shall also be sufficiently specific to show that there is a reasonable relationship between expected land use and the envisioned transportation system.

c. Other future transportation policies, requirements, services, and activities, including intermodal activities, shall be described.

B. Ozone or CO nonattainment areas which are reclassified from moderate to serious shall meet the requirements of subsection (A) within two years from the date of reclassification.

C. Transportation plans for other areas shall meet the requirements of subsection (A) at least to the extent it has been the previous practice of the MPO to prepare plans which meet those requirements. Otherwise, transportation plans shall describe the transportation system envisioned for the future specifically enough to allow determination of conformity according to the criteria and procedures of R18-2-1409 through R18-2-1427.

D. The requirements of this Section supplement other requirements of applicable law or regulation governing the format or content of transportation plans.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1407" level="4" title="Relationship of Transportation Plan and TIP Conformity with the NEPA Process">

Relationship of Transportation Plan and TIP Conformity with the NEPA Process

The degree of specificity required in the transportation plan and the specific travel network assumed for air quality modeling do not preclude the consideration of alternatives in the NEPA process or other project development studies. Should the NEPA process result in a project with design concept and scope significantly different from that in the transportation plan or TIP, the project shall meet the criteria in R18-2-1409 through R18-2-1427 for projects not from a TIP before NEPA process completion.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1408" level="4" title="Fiscal Constraints for Transportation Plans and TIPs">

Fiscal Constraints for Transportation Plans and TIPs

Transportation plans and TIPs shall demonstrate that they are fiscally constrained consistent with USDOT's metropolitan planning regulations at 23 CFR 450 in order to be found in conformity.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1409" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures for Determining Conformity of Transportation Plans, Programs, and Projects: General">

Criteria and Procedures for Determining Conformity of Transportation Plans, Programs, and Projects: General

A. In order to be found to conform, each transportation plan, program, and FHWA or FTA project shall satisfy the applicable criteria and procedures in R18-2-1410 through R18-2-1427 as listed in Table 1 of this Section and shall comply with all applicable conformity requirements of implementation plans and of court orders for the area which pertain specifically to conformity determination requirements. The criteria for making conformity determinations differ based on the action under review (transportation plans, TIPs, and FHWA or FTA projects), the time period in which the conformity determination is made, and the relevant pollutant.

B. The following table indicates the criteria and procedures in R18-2-1410 through R18-2-1427 which apply for each action in each time period:

Table 1. Conformity Criteria

DURING ALL PERIODS

<table> Action Criteria Transportation Plan R18-2-1410, R18-2-1411, R18-2-1412, R18-2-1413(B) TIP R18-2-1410, R18-2-1411, R18-2-1412, R18-2-1413(C) Project (from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1410, R18-2-1411, R18-2-1412, R18-2-1414, R18-2-1415, R18-2-1416, R18-2-1417 Project (not from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1410, R18-2-1411, R18-2-1412, R18-2-1413(D), R18-2-1414, R18-2-1416, R18-2-1417 </table>

PHASE II OF THE INTERIM PERIOD

<table> Action Criteria Transportation Plan R18-2-1422, R18-2-1425 TIP R18-2-1423, R18-2-1426 Project (from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1421 Project (not from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1421, R18-2-1424, R18-2-1427 </table>

TRANSITIONAL PERIOD

<table> Action Criteria Transportation Plan R18-2-1418, R18-2-1422, R18-2-1425 TIP R18-2-1419, R18-2-1423, R18-2-1426 Project (from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1421 Project (not from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1420, R18-2-1421, R18-2-1424, R18-2-1427 </table>

CONTROL STRATEGY AND MAINTENANCE PERIODS

<table> Action Criteria Transportation Plan R18-2-1418 TIP R18-2-1419 Project (from a conforming plan and TIP) No additional criteria Project (not from a conforming plan and TIP) R18-2-1420 </table>

<regElement name="R18.2.1410" level="4" title="The conformity determination must be based on the latest planning assumptions.">

The conformity determination must be based on the latest planning assumptions.

R18-2-1411 . The conformity determination must be based on the latest emission estimation model available.

R18-2-1412 . The MPO must make the conformity determination according to the consultation procedures of this rule and the implementation plan revision required by 40 CFR 51.396.

R18-2-1413 . The transportation plan, TIP, or FHWA or FTA project which is not from a conforming plan and TIP must provide for the timely implementation of TCMs from the applicable implementation plan.

R18-2-1414 . There must be a currently conforming transportation plan and currently conforming TIP at the time of project approval.

R18-2-1415 . The project must come from a conforming transportation plan and program.

R18-2-1416. The FHWA or FTA project must not cause or contribute to any new localized CO or PM

10

violations or increase the frequency or severity of any existing CO or PM

10

violations in CO and PM

10

nonattainment and maintenance areas.

R18-2-1417 . The FHWA or FTA project must comply with PM

10

control measures in the applicable implementation plan.

R18-2-1418 . The transportation plan must be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget(s) in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission.

R18-2-1419 . The TIP must be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget(s) in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission.

R18-2-1420 . The project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and conforming TIP must be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget(s) in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission.

R18-2-1421 . The FHWA or FTA project must eliminate or reduce the severity and number of localized CO violations in the area substantially affected by the project (in CO nonattainment areas).

<regElement name="R18.2.1422" level="4" title="The transportation plan must contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas.">

The transportation plan must contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas.

R18-2-1423 . The TIP must contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas.

R18-2-1424 . The project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP must contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas.

R18-2-1425 . The transportation plan must contribute to emission reductions or must not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas.

R18-2-1426 . The TIP must contribute to emission reductions or must not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas.

R18-2-1427 . The project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP must contribute to emission reductions or must not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1410" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Latest Planning Assumptions">

Criteria and Procedures: Latest Planning Assumptions

A. During all periods the conformity determination, with respect to all other applicable criteria in R18-2-1411 through R18-2-1427, shall be based upon the most recent complete planning assumptions in force at the time of the conformity determination. The conformity determination shall satisfy the requirements of subsections (B) through (F).

B. Assumptions, including vehicle miles traveled per capita or per household, trip generation per household, vehicle occupancy, household size, vehicle fleet mix, vehicle ownership, and the geographic distribution of population growth shall be derived from the estimates of current and future population, employment, travel, and congestion most recently used by ADOT or the MPO where one exists. Population estimates shall be consistent with the estimates developed by the Arizona Department of Economic Security pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1954(A). The conformity determination shall also be based on the latest assumptions about current and future background concentrations.

C. The conformity determination for each transportation plan and TIP shall discuss how transit operating policies (including fares and service levels) and assumed transit ridership have changed since the previous conformity determination.

D. The conformity determination shall include reasonable assumptions about transit service and increases in transit fares and road and bridge tolls over time.

E. The conformity determination shall use the latest existing information regarding the effectiveness of the TCMs which have already been implemented.

F. Key assumptions shall be specified and included in the draft documents and supporting materials used for the interagency and public consultation required by R18-2-1405.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1411" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Latest Emissions Model">

Criteria and Procedures: Latest Emissions Model

A. During all periods the conformity determination shall be based on the latest emission estimation model available. This criterion is satisfied if the most current version of the motor vehicle emissions model specified by EPA for use in the preparation or revision of implementation plans in that state or area is used for the conformity analysis. Where EMFAC is the motor vehicle emissions model used in preparing or revising the applicable implementation plan, new versions shall be approved by EPA before they are used in the conformity analysis.

B. Conformity analyses for which the emissions analysis was begun during the grace period or before the Federal Register notice of availability of the latest emission model, or during any grace period announced in such notice, may continue to use the previous version of the model for transportation plans and TIPs. The previous model may also be used for projects if the analysis was begun during the grace period or before the Federal Register notice of availability, provided no more than three years have passed since the draft environmental document was issued.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1412" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Consultation">

Criteria and Procedures: Consultation

All conformity determinations shall be made according to the consultation procedures in R18-2-1405. This criterion applies during all periods. Until the implementation plan revision required by 40 CFR 51.396 is approved by EPA, the conformity determination shall be made according to the procedures in R18-2-1405. Once the implementation plan revision has been approved by EPA, this criterion is satisfied if the conformity determination is made consistent with the implementation plan's consultation requirements.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1413" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Timely Implementation of TCMs">

Criteria and Procedures: Timely Implementation of TCMs

A. During all periods the transportation plan, TIP, or FHWA, or FTA project which is not from a conforming plan and TIP shall provide for the timely implementation of TCMs from the applicable implementation plan.

B. For transportation plans, this criterion is satisfied if the following two conditions are met:

1. The transportation plan, in describing the envisioned future transportation system, provides for the timely completion or implementation of all TCMs in the applicable implementation plan which are eligible for funding under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act, consistent with schedules included in the applicable implementation plan.

2. Nothing in the transportation plan interferes with the implementation of any TCM in the applicable implementation plan.

C. For TIPs, this criterion is satisfied if all of the following conditions are met:

1. An examination of the specific steps and funding source needed to fully implement each TCM indicates that TCMs which are eligible for funding under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act are on or ahead of the schedule established in the applicable implementation plan, or, if such TCMs are behind the schedule established in the applicable implementation plan, the MPO and USDOT have determined that past obstacles to implementation of the TCMs have been identified and have been or are being overcome, and that all state and local agencies with influence over approvals or funding for TCMs are giving maximum priority to approval or funding of TCMs over other projects within their control, including projects in locations outside the nonattainment or maintenance area. Maximum priority to approval or funding of TCMs includes demonstrations with respect to funding acceleration, commitment of staff or other agency resources, diligent efforts to seek approvals, and similar actions.

2. If federal funding intended for TCMs in the applicable implementation plan has previously been programmed but is reallocated to projects in the TIP other than TCMs, (or if there are no other TCMs in the TIP, to projects in the TIP other than projects which are eligible for federal funding under ISTEA's Congestion Mitigation and Air Quality Improvement Program), and the TCMs are behind the schedule in the implementation plan, the TIP cannot be found to conform.

3. Nothing in the TIP may interfere with the implementation of any TCM in the applicable implementation plan.

D. For FHWA or FTA projects which are not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP, this criterion is satisfied if the project does not interfere with the implementation of any TCM in the applicable implementation plan.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1414" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Currently Conforming Transportation Plan and TIP">

Criteria and Procedures: Currently Conforming Transportation Plan and TIP

During all periods there shall be a currently conforming transportation plan and currently conforming TIP at the time of project approval. This criterion is satisfied if the current transportation plan and TIP have been found to conform to the applicable implementation plan by the MPO and USDOT according to the procedures of this subpart. Only one conforming transportation plan or TIP may exist in an area at any time; conformity determinations of a previous transportation plan or TIP expire once the current plan or TIP is found to conform by USDOT. The conformity determination on a transportation plan or TIP will also lapse if conformity is not determined according to the frequency requirements of R18-2-1404.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1415" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Projects from a Plan and TIP">

Criteria and Procedures: Projects from a Plan and TIP

A. During all periods the project shall come from a conforming transportation plan and program. Otherwise, the project shall satisfy all criteria in Table 1 of R18-2-1409 for a project not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP. A project is considered to be from a conforming transportation plan if it meets the requirements of subsection (B) and from a conforming program if it meets the requirements of subsection (C).

B. A project is considered to be from a conforming transportation plan if one of the following conditions applies:

1. For projects which are required to be identified in the transportation plan in order to satisfy R18-2-1406, the project is specifically included in the conforming transportation plan and the project's design concept and scope have not changed significantly from those which were described in the transportation plan, or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility.

2. For projects which are not required to be specifically identified in the transportation plan, the project is identified in the conforming transportation plan, or is consistent with the policies and purpose of the transportation plan and will not interfere with other projects specifically included in the transportation plan.

C. A project is considered to be from a conforming program if all of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is included in the conforming TIP and the design concept and scope of the project were adequate at the time of the TIP conformity determination to determine its contribution to the TIP's regional emissions and have not changed significantly from those which were described in the TIP, or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility.

2. If the TIP describes a project design concept and scope which includes project-level emissions mitigation or control measures, enforceable written commitments to implement such measures shall be obtained from the project sponsor or operator as required by R18-2-1433 in order for the project to be considered from a conforming program. Any change in these mitigation or control measures that would significantly reduce their effectiveness constitutes a change in the design concept and scope of the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1416. Criteria and Procedures: Localized CO and PM

10

Violations (Hot Spots)

A. During all periods any FHWA or FTA project shall not cause or contribute to any new localized CO or PM

10

violations or increase the frequency or severity of any existing CO or PM

10

violations in CO and PM

10

nonattainment and maintenance areas. This criterion is satisfied if it is demonstrated that no new local violations will be created and the severity or number of existing violations will not be increased as a result of the project.

B. The demonstration shall be performed according to the requirements of R18-2-1405 and R18-2-1431.

C. For projects which are not of the type identified by R18-2-1431(A) or R18-2-1431(D), this criterion may be satisfied if consideration of local factors clearly demonstrates that no local violations presently exist and no new local violations will be created as a result of the project. Otherwise, in CO nonattainment and maintenance areas, a quantitative demonstration shall be performed according to the requirements of R18-2-1431(B).

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1417. Criteria and Procedures: Compliance with PM

10

Control Measures

During all periods any FHWA or FTA project shall comply with PM

10

control measures in the applicable implementation plan. This condition is satisfied if control measures (for the purpose of limiting PM

10

emissions from the construction activities or normal use and operation associated with the project) contained in the applicable implementation plan are included in the final plans, specifications, and estimates for the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1418" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (Transportation Plan)">

Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (Transportation Plan)

A. The transportation plan shall be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission. This criterion applies during the transitional period and the control strategy and maintenance periods, except as provided in R18-2-1436. This criterion may be satisfied if the requirements in subsections (B) and (C) are met:

B. A regional emissions analysis shall be performed as follows:

1. The regional analysis shall estimate emissions of any of the following pollutants and pollutant precursors for which the area is in nonattainment or maintenance and for which the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission establishes an emissions budget:

a. VOC as an ozone precursor.

b. NOx as an ozone precursor, unless the Administrator determines that additional reductions of NOx would not contribute to attainment.

c. CO.

d. PM

10

(and its precursors VOC or NOx if the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission identifies transportation-related precursor emissions within the nonattainment area as a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem or establishes a budget for such emissions).

e. NOx (in NO

2

nonattainment or maintenance areas).

2. The regional emissions analysis shall estimate emissions from the entire transportation system, including all regionally significant transportation projects contained in the transportation plan and all other regionally significant highway and transit projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area in the time-frame of the transportation plan.

3. The emissions analysis methodology shall meet the requirements of R18-2-1430.

4. For areas with a transportation plan that meets the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A), the emissions analysis shall be performed for each horizon year. Emissions in milestone years which are between the horizon years may be determined by interpolation.

5. For areas with a transportation plan that does not meet the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A), the emissions analysis shall be performed for all of the following:

a. The last year of the plan's forecast period.

b. The attainment year, if the attainment year is in the time span of the transportation plan.

c. Any other years in the time span of the transportation plan such that there is not a gap of more than 10 years between analysis years. Emissions in milestone years which are between these analysis years may be determined by interpolation.

C. The regional emissions analysis shall demonstrate that for each of the applicable pollutants or pollutant precursors in subsection (B)(1) the emissions are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget as established in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission as follows:

1. If the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission establishes emissions budgets for milestone years, emissions in each milestone year are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget established for that year.

2. For nonattainment areas, emissions in the attainment year are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget established in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission for that year.

3. For nonattainment areas, emissions in each analysis or horizon year after the attainment year are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget established by the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission for the attainment year. If emissions budgets are established for years after the attainment year, emissions in each analysis year or horizon year shall be less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget for that year, if any, or the motor vehicle emissions budget for the most recent budget year prior to the analysis year or horizon year.

4. For maintenance areas, emissions in each analysis or horizon year are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budget established by the maintenance plan for that year, if any, or the emissions budget for the most recent budget year prior to the analysis or horizon year.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1419" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (TIP)">

Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (TIP)

A. The TIP shall be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budgets in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission. This criterion applies during the transitional period and the control strategy and maintenance periods, except as provided in R18-2-1436. This criterion may be satisfied if the requirements in subsections (B) and (C) are met.

B. For areas with a conforming transportation plan that fully meets the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A), this criterion may be satisfied without additional regional emissions analysis if:

1. Each program year of the TIP is consistent with the federal funding which may be reasonably expected for that year, and required state or local matching funds and funds for state or local funding-only projects are consistent with the revenue sources expected over the same period; and

2. The TIP is consistent with the conforming transportation plan such that the regional emissions analysis already performed for the plan applies to the TIP also. This requires a demonstration that:

a. The TIP contains all projects which shall be started in the TIP's time-frame in order to achieve the highway and transit system envisioned by the transportation plan in each of its horizon years;

b. All TIP projects which are regionally significant are part of the specific highway or transit system envisioned in the transportation plan's horizon years; and

c. The design concept and scope of each regionally significant transportation project in the TIP is not significantly different from that described in the transportation plan.

3. If the requirements in subsections (B)(1) and (B)(2) are not met, then either:

a. The TIP may be modified to meet those requirements; or

b. The transportation plan shall be revised so that the requirements in subsections (B)(1) and (B)(2) are met. Once the revised plan has been found to conform, this criterion is met for the TIP with no additional analysis except a demonstration that the TIP meets the requirements of subsections (B)(1) and (B)(2).

C. For areas with a transportation plan that does not meet the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A), a regional emissions analysis shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. The regional emissions analysis shall estimate emissions from the entire transportation system, including all projects contained in the proposed TIP, the transportation plan, and all other regionally significant highway and transit projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area in the time-frame of the transportation plan.

2. The analysis methodology shall meet the requirements of R18-2-1430(C).

3. The regional emissions analysis shall satisfy the requirements of R18-2-1418(B)(1), R18-2-1418(B)(5), and R18-2-1418(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1420" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (Project Not from a Plan and TIP)">

Criteria and Procedures: Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget (Project Not from a Plan and TIP)

A. The project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and a conforming TIP shall be consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission. This criterion applies during the transitional period and the control strategy and maintenance periods, except as provided in R18-2-1436. It is satisfied if emissions from the implementation of the project, when considered with the emissions from the projects in the conforming transportation plan and TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the area, do not exceed the motor vehicle emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission.

B. For areas with a conforming transportation plan that meets the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A):

1. This criterion may be satisfied without additional regional analysis if the project is included in the conforming transportation plan, even if it is not specifically included in the latest conforming TIP. This requires a demonstration that all of the following apply:

a. Allocating funds to the project will not delay the implementation of projects in the transportation plan or TIP which are necessary to achieve the highway and transit system envisioned by the transportation plan in each of its horizon years.

b. The project is not regionally significant or is part of the specific highway or transit system envisioned in the transportation plan's horizon years.

c. The design concept and scope of the project is not significantly different from that described in the transportation plan.

2. If the requirements in subsection (B)(1) are not met, a regional emissions analysis shall be performed as follows:

a. The analysis methodology shall meet the requirements of R18-2-1430.

b. The analysis shall estimate emissions from the transportation system, including the proposed project and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area in the time-frame of the transportation plan. The analysis shall include emissions from all previously approved projects which were not from a transportation plan and TIP.

c. The regional emissions analysis shall meet the requirements of R18-2-1418(B)(1), R18-2-1418(B)(4) and R18-2-1418(C).

C. For areas with a transportation plan that does not meet the content requirements of R18-2-1406(A), a regional emissions analysis shall be performed for the project together with the conforming TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area. This criterion may be satisfied if all of the following apply:

1. The analysis methodology meets the requirements of R18-2-1430(C).

2. The analysis estimates emissions from the transportation system, including the proposed project, and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area in the time-frame of the transportation plan.

3. The regional emissions analysis satisfies the requirements of R18-2-1418(B)(1), R18-2-1418(B)(5), and R18-2-1418(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1421" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Localized CO Violations (Hot Spots) in the Interim and Transitional Periods">

Criteria and Procedures: Localized CO Violations (Hot Spots) in the Interim and Transitional Periods

A. Each FHWA or FTA project shall eliminate or reduce the severity and number of localized CO violations in the area substantially affected by the project (in CO nonattainment areas). This criterion applies during the interim and transitional periods only. This criterion is satisfied with respect to existing localized CO violations if it is demonstrated that existing localized CO violations will be eliminated or reduced in severity and number as a result of the project.

B. The demonstration shall be performed according to the requirements of R18-2-1405 and R18-2-1431.

C. For projects which are not of the type identified by R18-2-1431(A), this criterion may be satisfied if consideration of local factors clearly demonstrates that existing CO violations will be eliminated or reduced in severity and number. Otherwise, a quantitative demonstration shall be performed according to the requirements of R18-2-1431(B).

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1422" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Interim and Transitional Period Reductions in Ozone and CO Areas (Transportation Plan)"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Criteria and Procedures: Interim and Transitional Period Reductions in Ozone and CO Areas (Transportation Plan)

A. A transportation plan shall contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas. This criterion applies during the interim and transitional periods only, except as otherwise provided in R18-2-1436. It applies to the net effect on emissions of all projects contained in a new or revised transportation plan. This criterion may be satisfied if a regional emissions analysis is performed as described in subsections (B) through (F).

B. Determine the analysis years for which emissions are to be estimated. Analysis years shall be no more than 10 years apart. The first analysis year shall be no later than the first milestone year (1995 in CO nonattainment areas and 1996 in ozone nonattainment areas). The second analysis year shall be either the attainment year for the area or, if the attainment year is the same as the first analysis year or earlier, the second analysis year shall be at least five years beyond the first analysis year. The last year of the transportation plan's forecast period shall also be an analysis year.

C. Define the Baseline scenario for each of the analysis years to be the future transportation system that would result from current programs, composed of all of the following, except that projects listed in R18-2-1434 and R18-2-1435 need not be explicitly considered:

1. All in-place regionally significant highway and transit facilities, services and activities.

2. All ongoing travel demand management or transportation system management activities.

3. Completion of all regionally significant transportation projects, regardless of funding source, which are currently under construction or are undergoing right-of-way acquisition (except for hardship acquisition and protective buying); come from the first three years of the previously conforming transportation plan or TIP; or have completed the NEPA process. For the first conformity determination on the transportation plan after November 24, 1993, a project may not be included in the Baseline scenario and shall be included in the Action scenario as described in subsection (D), if one of the following major steps has not occurred within the most recent three-year period:

a. NEPA process completion;

b. Start of final design;

c. Acquisition of a significant portion of the right-of-way;

d. Approval of the plans, specifications and estimates.

D. Define the Action scenario for each of the analysis years as the transportation system that will result in that year from the implementation of the proposed transportation plan, TIPs adopted under it, and other expected regionally significant transportation projects in the nonattainment area. The Action scenario will include all of the following except that projects listed in R18-2-1434 and R18-2-1435 need not be explicitly considered:

1. All facilities, services, and activities in the Baseline scenario;

2. Completion of all TCMs and regionally significant transportation projects, including facilities, services, and activities, specifically identified in the proposed transportation plan which will be operational or in effect in the analysis year, except that regulatory TCMs may not be assumed to begin at a future time unless the regulation is already adopted by the enforcing jurisdiction or the TCM is identified in the applicable implementation plan;

3. All travel demand management programs and transportation system management activities known to the MPO, but not included in the applicable implementation plan or utilizing any federal funding or approval, which have been fully adopted or funded by the enforcing jurisdiction or sponsoring agency since the last conformity determination on the transportation plan;

4. The incremental effects of any travel demand management programs and transportation system management activities known to the MPO, but not included in the applicable implementation plan or utilizing any federal funding or approval, which were adopted or funded prior to the date of the last conformity determination on the transportation plan, but which have been modified since then to be more stringent or effective;

5. Completion of all expected regionally significant highway and transit projects which are not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP;

6. Completion of all expected regionally significant non-FHWA/FTA highway and transit projects that have clear funding sources and commitments leading toward their implementation and completion by the analysis year.

E. Estimate the emissions predicted to result in each analysis year from travel on the transportation systems defined by the Baseline and Action scenarios and determine the difference in regional VOC and NOx emissions (unless the Administrator determines that additional reductions of NOx would not contribute to attainment) between the two scenarios for ozone nonattainment areas and the difference in CO emissions between the two scenarios for CO nonattainment areas. The analysis shall be performed for each of the analysis years according to the requirements of R18-2-1430. Emissions in milestone years which are between the analysis years may be determined by interpolation.

F. This criterion is met if the regional VOC and NOx emissions (for ozone nonattainment areas) and CO emissions (for CO nonattainment areas) predicted in the Action scenario are less than the emissions predicted from the Baseline scenario in each analysis year, and if this can reasonably be expected to be true in the periods between the first milestone year and the analysis years. The regional analysis shall show that the Action scenario contributes to a reduction in emissions from the 1990 emissions by any nonzero amount.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1423" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions in Ozone and CO Areas (TIP)"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions in Ozone and CO Areas (TIP)

A. A TIP shall contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas. This criterion applies during the interim and transitional periods only, except as otherwise provided in R18-2-1436. It applies to the net effect on emissions of all projects contained in a new or revised TIP. This criterion may be satisfied if a regional emissions analysis is performed as described in subsections (B) through (F).

B. Determine the analysis years for which emissions are to be estimated. The first analysis year shall be no later than the first milestone year (1995 in CO nonattainment areas and 1996 in ozone nonattainment areas). The analysis years shall be no more than 10 years apart. The second analysis year shall be either the attainment year for the area or, if the attainment year is the same as the first analysis year or earlier, the second analysis year shall be at least five years beyond the first analysis year. The last year of the transportation plan's forecast period shall also be an analysis year.

C. Define the Baseline scenario as the future transportation system that would result from current programs, composed of all of the following, except that projects listed in R18-2-1434 and R18-2-1435 need not be explicitly considered:

1. All in-place regionally significant highway and transit facilities, services, and activities.

2. All ongoing travel demand management or transportation system management activities.

3. Completion of all regionally significant transportation projects, regardless of funding source, which are currently under construction or are undergoing right-of-way acquisition, except for hardship acquisition and protective buying; come from the first three years of the previously conforming TIP; or have completed the NEPA process. For the first conformity determination on the TIP after November 24, 1993, a project may not be included in the Baseline scenario if one of the following major steps has not occurred within the most recent three-year period:

a. NEPA process completion.

b. Start of final design.

c. Acquisition of a significant portion of the right-of-way.

d. Approval of the plans, specifications, and estimates. Such a project shall be included in the Action scenario, as described in subsection (D).

D. Define the Action scenario as the future transportation system that will result from the implementation of the proposed TIP and other expected regionally significant transportation projects in the nonattainment area in the time-frame of the transportation plan. It will include all of the following, except that projects listed in R18-2-1434 and R18-2-1435 need not be explicitly considered:

1. All facilities, services, and activities in the Baseline scenario;

2. Completion of all TCMs and regionally significant transportation projects, including facilities, services, and activities, included in the proposed TIP, except that regulatory TCMs may not be assumed to begin at a future time unless the regulation is already adopted by the enforcing jurisdiction or the TCM is contained in the applicable implementation plan;

3. All travel demand management programs and transportation system management activities known to the MPO, but not included in the applicable implementation plan or utilizing any federal funding or approval, which have been fully adopted or funded by the enforcing jurisdiction or sponsoring agency since the last conformity determination on the TIP;

4. The incremental effects of any travel demand management programs and transportation system management activities known to the MPO, but not included in the applicable implementation plan or utilizing any federal funding or approval, which were adopted or funded prior to the date of the last conformity determination on the TIP, but which have been modified since then to be more stringent or effective;

5. Completion of all expected regionally significant highway and transit projects which are not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP;

6. Completion of all expected regionally significant non-FHWA/FTA highway and transit projects that have clear funding sources and commitments leading toward their implementation and completion by the analysis year.

E. Estimate the emissions predicted to result in each analysis year from travel on the transportation systems defined by the Baseline and Action scenarios, and determine the difference in regional VOC and NOx emissions (unless the Administrator determines that additional reductions of NOx would not contribute to attainment) between the two scenarios for ozone nonattainment areas and the difference in CO emissions between the two scenarios for CO nonattainment areas. The analysis shall be performed for each of the analysis years according to the requirements of R18-2-1430. Emissions in milestone years which are between analysis years may be determined by interpolation.

F. This criterion is met if the regional VOC and NOx emissions in ozone nonattainment areas and CO emissions in CO nonattainment areas predicted in the Action scenario are less than the emissions predicted from the Baseline scenario in each analysis year, and if this can reasonably be expected to be true in the period between the analysis years. The regional analysis shall show that the Action scenario contributes to a reduction in emissions from the 1990 emissions by any nonzero amount.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1424" level="4" title="Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions for Ozone and CO Areas (Project Not from a Plan and TIP)">

Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions for Ozone and CO Areas (Project Not from a Plan and TIP)

A transportation project shall contribute to emissions reductions in ozone and CO nonattainment areas. This criterion applies during the interim and transitional periods only, except as otherwise provided in R18-2-1436. This criterion is satisfied if a regional emissions analysis is performed which meets the requirements of R18-2-1422 and which includes the transportation plan and project in the Action scenario. If the project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP is a modification of a project currently in the plan or TIP, the Baseline scenario shall include the project with its original design concept and scope, and the Action scenario shall include the project with its new design concept and scope.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1425. Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions for PM

10

and NO

2

Areas (Transportation Plan)

A. A transportation plan shall contribute to emission reductions or shall not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas. This criterion applies only during the interim and transitional periods. It applies to the net effect on emissions of all projects contained in a new or revised transportation plan. This criterion may be satisfied if the requirements of either subsections (B) or (C) are met.

B. Demonstrate that implementation of the plan and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment area will contribute to reductions in emissions of PM

10

in a PM

10

nonattainment area, and of each transportation-related precursor of PM

10

in PM

10

nonattainment areas if the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding that such precursor emissions from within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified the MPO and USDOT, and of NOx in an NO

2

nonattainment area, by performing a regional emissions analysis as follows:

1. Determine the analysis years for which emissions are to be estimated. Analysis years shall be no more than 10 years apart. The first analysis year shall be no later than 1996 (for NO

2

areas) or four years and six months following the date of designation (for PM

10

areas). The second analysis year shall be either the attainment year for the area or, if the attainment year is the same as the first analysis year or earlier, the second analysis year shall be at least five years beyond the first analysis year. The last year of the transportation plan's forecast period shall also be an analysis year.

2. Define for each of the analysis years the Baseline scenario, as defined in R18-2-1422(C), and the Action scenario, as defined in R18-2-1422(D).

3. Estimate the emissions predicted to result in each analysis year from travel on the transportation systems defined by the Baseline and Action scenarios and determine the difference between the two scenarios in regional PM

10

emissions in a PM

10

nonattainment area (and transportation-related precursors of PM

10

in PM

10

nonattainment areas if the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding that such precursor emissions from within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified ADOT, the MPO where one exists and USDOT) and in NOx emissions in an NO

2

nonattainment area. The analysis shall be performed for each of the analysis years according to the requirements of R18-2-1430. The analysis shall address the periods between the analysis years and the periods between 1990, the first milestone year if any, and the first of the analysis years. Emissions in milestone years which are between the analysis years may be determined by interpolation.

4. Demonstrate that the regional PM

10

emissions and PM

10

precursor emissions, where applicable, (for PM

10

nonattainment areas) and NOx emissions (for NO

2

nonattainment areas) predicted in the Action scenario are less than the emissions predicted from the Baseline scenario in each analysis year, and that this can reasonably be expected to be true in the periods between the first milestone year (if any) and the analysis years.

C. Demonstrate that when the projects in the transportation plan and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment area are implemented, the transportation system's total highway and transit emissions of PM

10

in a PM

10

nonattainment area (and transportation-related precursors of PM

10

in PM

10

nonattainment areas if the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding that such precursor emissions from within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified the MPO and USDOT) and of NOx in an NO

2

nonattainment area will not be greater than baseline levels, by performing a regional emissions analysis as follows:

1. Determine the baseline regional emissions of PM

10

and PM

10

precursors, where applicable (for PM

10

nonattainment areas) and NOx (for NO

2

nonattainment areas) from highway and transit sources. Baseline emissions are those estimated to have occurred during calendar year 1990, unless the control strategy implementation plan for that area includes a baseline emissions inventory for a different year.

2. Estimate the emissions of the applicable pollutant or pollutants from the entire transportation system, including projects in the transportation plan and TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects in the nonattainment area, according to the requirements of R18-2-1430. Emissions shall be estimated for analysis years which are no more than 10 years apart. The first analysis year shall be no later than 1996 (for NO

2

areas) or four years and six months following the date of designation (for PM

10

areas). The second analysis year shall be either the attainment year for the area or, if the attainment year is the same as the first analysis year or earlier, the second analysis year shall be at least five years beyond the first analysis year. The last year of the transportation plan's forecast period shall also be an analysis year.

3. Demonstrate that for each analysis year the emissions estimated in subsection (C)(2) are no greater than baseline emissions of PM

10

and PM

10

precursors, where applicable (for PM

10

nonattainment areas) or NOx (for NO

2

nonattainment areas) from highway and transit sources.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1426. Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions for PM

10

and NO

2

Areas (TIP)

A. A TIP shall contribute to emission reductions or shall not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas. This criterion applies only during the interim and transitional periods. It applies to the net effect on emissions of all projects contained in a new or revised TIP. This criterion may be satisfied if the requirements of either subsection (B) or subsection (C) are met.

B. Demonstrate that implementation of the plan and TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment area will contribute to reductions in emissions of PM

10

in a PM

10

nonattainment area (and transportation-related precursors of PM

10

in PM

10

nonattainment areas if the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding that such precursor emissions from within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified the MPO and USDOT) and of NOx in an NO

2

nonattainment area, by performing a regional emissions analysis as follows:

1. Determine the analysis years for which emissions are to be estimated, according to the requirements of R18-2-1425(B)(1).

2. Define for each of the analysis years the Baseline scenario, as defined in R18-2-1423(C), and the Action scenario, as defined in R18-2-1423(D).

3. Estimate the emissions predicted to result in each analysis year from travel on the transportation systems defined by the Baseline and Action scenarios as required by R18-2-1425(B)(3), and make the demonstration required by R18-2-1425(B)(4).

C. Demonstrate that when the projects in the transportation plan and TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects expected in the area are implemented, the transportation system's total highway and transit emissions of PM

10

in a PM

10

nonattainment area (and transportation-related precursors of PM

10

in PM

10

nonattainment areas if the EPA Regional Administrator or the Director of ADEQ has made a finding that such precursor emissions from within the nonattainment area are a significant contributor to the PM

10

nonattainment problem and has so notified the MPO and USDOT) and of NOx in an NO

2

nonattainment area will not be greater than baseline levels, by performing a regional emissions analysis as required by R18-2-1425(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1427. Criteria and Procedures: Interim Period Reductions for PM

10

and NO

2

Areas (Project Not from a Plan and TIP)

A transportation project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP shall contribute to emission reductions or shall not increase emissions in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas. This criterion applies during the interim and transitional periods only. This criterion is met if a regional emissions analysis is performed which meets the requirements of R18-2-1425 and which includes the transportation plan and project in the Action scenario. If the project which is not from a conforming transportation plan and TIP is a modification of a project currently in the transportation plan or TIP, and R18-2-1425(B) is used to demonstrate satisfaction of this criterion, the Baseline scenario shall include the project with its original design concept and scope, and the Action scenario shall include the project with its new design concept and scope.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1428" level="4" title="Transition from the Interim Period to the Control Strategy Period">

Transition from the Interim Period to the Control Strategy Period

A. For areas which submit a control strategy implementation plan revision after November 24, 1993:

1. The transportation plan and TIP shall be demonstrated to conform according to transitional period criteria and procedures by one year from the date the CAA requires submission of such control strategy implementation plan revision. Otherwise, the conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP will lapse, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made.

a. The conformity of new transportation plans and TIPs may be demonstrated according to Phase II interim period criteria and procedures for 90 days following submission of the control strategy implementation plan revision, provided the conformity of such transportation plans and TIPs is redetermined according to transitional period criteria and procedures as required in subsection (A)(1) and such transportation plans and TIPs are consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan or any previously submitted control strategy implementation plan revision.

b. Beginning 90 days after submission of the control strategy implementation plan revision, new transportation plans and TIPs shall demonstrate conformity according to transitional period criteria and procedures.

2. If EPA disapproves the submitted control strategy implementation plan revision and so notifies the state, the MPO where one exists, and USDOT, which initiates the sanction process under CAA &#167;&#167; 179 or 110(m), the conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse 120 days after EPA's disapproval, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made. No new transportation plan, TIP, or project may be found to conform until another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted and conformity is demonstrated according to transitional period criteria and procedures.

3. Notwithstanding subsection (A)(2), if EPA disapproves the submitted control strategy implementation plan revision but determines that the control strategy contained in the revision would have been considered approvable with respect to requirements for emission reductions if all committed measures had been submitted in enforceable form as required by CAA &#167; 110(a)(2)(A), the provisions of subsection (A)(1) shall apply for 12 months following the date of disapproval. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse 12 months following the date of disapproval unless another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted to EPA and found to be complete.

B. For areas which have not submitted a control strategy implementation plan revision:

1. For areas whose CAA deadline for submission of the control strategy implementation plan revision is after November 24, 1993, and EPA has notified the state, the MPO where one exists, and USDOT of the state's failure to submit a control strategy implementation plan revision, which initiates the sanction process under CAA &#167;&#167; 179 or 110(m) all of the following shall apply:

a. No new transportation plans or TIPs may be found to conform beginning 120 days after the CAA deadline.

b. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse one year after the CAA deadline, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made.

2. For areas whose CAA deadline for submission of the control strategy implementation plan was before November 24, 1993, and EPA has made a finding of failure to submit a control strategy implementation plan revision, which initiates the sanction process under CAA &#167;&#167; 179 or 110(m), all of the following apply unless the failure has been remedied and acknowledged by a letter from the EPA Regional Administrator:

a. No new transportation plans or TIPs may be found to conform beginning March 24, 1994.

b. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse November 25, 1994, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made.

C. For areas which have not submitted a complete control strategy implementation plan revision:

1. For areas where EPA notifies the state, the MPO where one exists, and USDOT after November 24, 1993, that the control strategy implementation plan revision submitted by the state is incomplete, which initiates the sanction process under CAA &#167;&#167; 179 or 110(m), all of the following apply unless the failure has been remedied and acknowledged by a letter from the EPA Regional Administrator:

a. No new transportation plans or TIPs may be found to conform beginning 120 days after EPA's incompleteness finding.

b. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse one year after the CAA deadline, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made.

c. Notwithstanding subsections (C)(1)(a) and (b), if EPA notes in its incompleteness finding that the submittal would have been considered complete with respect to requirements for emission reductions if all committed measures had been submitted in enforceable form as required by CAA &#167; 110(a)(2)(A), the provisions of subsection (A)(1) shall apply for a period of 12 months following the date of the incompleteness determination. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse 12 months following the date of the incompleteness determination unless another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted to EPA and found to be complete.

2. For areas where EPA has determined before November 24, 1993, that the control strategy implementation plan revision is incomplete, which initiates the sanction process under CAA &#167;&#167; 179 or 110(m), all of the following apply unless the failure has been remedied and acknowledged by a letter from the EPA Regional Administrator:

a. No new transportation plans or TIPs may be found to conform beginning March 24, 1994.

b. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse November 25, 1994, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made.

c. Notwithstanding subsections (C)(2)(a) and (b), if EPA notes in its incompleteness finding that the submittal would have been considered complete with respect to requirements for emission reductions if all committed measures had been submitted in enforceable form as required by CAA &#167; 110(a)(2)(A), the provisions of subsection (D)(1) shall apply for a period of 12 months following the date of the incompleteness determination. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse 12 months following the date of the incompleteness determination unless another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted to EPA and found to be complete.

D. For areas which submitted a control strategy implementation plan before November 24, 1993:

1. The transportation plan and TIP shall have been demonstrated to conform according to transitional period criteria and procedures by November 25, 1994. Otherwise, their conformity status will lapse, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made. From and after February 22, 1994, new transportation plans and TIPs shall demonstrate conformity according to transitional period criteria and procedures.

2. If EPA has disapproved the most recent control strategy implementation plan submission, the conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse March 24, 1994, and no new project-level conformity determinations may be made. No new transportation plans, TIPs, or projects may be found to conform until another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted and conformity is demonstrated according to transitional period criteria and procedures.

3. Notwithstanding subsection (D)(2), if EPA has disapproved the submitted control strategy implementation plan revision but determines that the control strategy contained in the revision would have been considered approvable with respect to requirements for emission reductions if all committed measures had been submitted in enforceable form as required by CAA &#167; 110(a)(2)(A), the provisions of subsection (D)(1) shall apply until November 25, 1994. The conformity status of the transportation plan and TIP shall lapse November 25, 1994, unless another control strategy implementation plan revision is submitted to EPA and found to be complete.

E. If the currently conforming transportation plan and TIP have not been demonstrated to conform according to transitional period criteria and procedures, the requirements of subsections (E)(1) and (2) shall be met.

1. Before a FHWA or FTA project which is regionally significant and increases single-occupant vehicle capacity (a new general purpose highway on a new location or adding general purpose lanes) may be found to conform, ADEQ shall be consulted on how the emissions which the existing transportation plan and TIP's conformity determination estimates for the Action scenario, as required by R18-2-1422 through R18-2-1427, compare to the motor vehicle emissions budget in the implementation plan submission or the projected motor vehicle emissions budget in the implementation plan under development.

2. In the event of unresolved disputes on such project-level conformity determinations, ADEQ may escalate the issue to the governor consistent with the procedure in R18-2-1405, which applies for ADEQ comments on a conformity determination.

F. Redetermination of conformity of the existing transportation plan and TIP according to the transitional period criteria and procedures:

1. The redetermination of the conformity of the existing transportation plan and TIP according to transitional period criteria and procedures (as required by subsections (A)(1) and (D)(1)) does not require new emissions analysis and does not have to satisfy the requirements of R18-2-1410 and R18-2-1411 if all of the following are met:

a. The control strategy implementation plan revision submitted to EPA uses the MPO's modeling of the existing transportation plan and TIP for its projections of motor vehicle emissions.

b. The control strategy implementation plan does not include any transportation projects which are not included in the transportation plan and TIP.

2. A redetermination of conformity as described in subsection (F)(1) is not considered a conformity determination for the purposes of R18-2-1404(E) or R18-2-1404(I) regarding the maximum intervals between conformity determinations. Conformity shall be determined according to all the applicable criteria and procedures of R18-2-1409 within three years of the last determination which did not rely on subsection (F)(1).

G. Ozone nonattainment areas:

1. The requirements of subsection (B)(1) apply if a serious or above ozone nonattainment area has not submitted the implementation plan revisions which CAA &#167;&#167; 182(c)(2)(A) and 182(c)(2)(B) require to be submitted to EPA November 15, 1994, even if the area has submitted the implementation plan revision which CAA &#167; 182(b)(1) requires to be submitted to EPA November 15, 1993.

2. The requirements of subsection (B)(1) apply if a moderate ozone nonattainment area which is using photochemical dispersion modeling to demonstrate the "specific annual reductions as necessary to attain" required by CAA &#167; 182(b)(1), and which has permission from EPA to delay submission of such demonstration until November 15, 1994, does not submit such demonstration by that date. The requirements of subsection (B)(1) apply in this case even if the area has submitted the 15% emission reduction demonstration required by CAA &#167; 182(b)(1).

3. The requirements of subsection (A) apply when the implementation plan revisions required by CAA &#167;&#167; 182(c)(2)(A) and 182(c)(2)(B) are submitted.

H. Nonattainment areas which are not required to demonstrate reasonable further progress and attainment. If an area listed in R18-2-1436 submits a control strategy implementation plan revision, the requirements of subsections (A) and (E) apply. Because the areas listed in R18-2-1436 are not required to demonstrate reasonable further progress and attainment and therefore have no CAA deadline, the provisions of subsection (B) do not apply to these areas at any time.

I. If a control strategy implementation plan revision is not submitted to EPA but a maintenance plan required by CAA &#167; 175A is submitted to EPA, the requirements of subsection (A) or (D) apply, with the maintenance plan submission treated as a "control strategy implementation plan revision" for the purposes of those requirements.

J. This Section does not become effective until June 1, 1996.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1429" level="4" title="Requirements for Adoption or Approval of Projects by Recipients of Funds Designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act">

Requirements for Adoption or Approval of Projects by Recipients of Funds Designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act

A. This Section shall not apply to any of the following:

1. A transportation project that is a street with a lower classification than a collector street, as specified in the most recent federal classification map for the region.

2. An exempt project listed in R18-2-1434.

B. No recipient of federal funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act shall adopt or approve a transportation project, regardless of funding source, without first determining whether the transportation project is regionally significant. In making this determination, the recipient shall not take any action that is inconsistent with the procedures developed by ADOT or the MPO pursuant to R18-2-1405(R).

C. No recipient of federal funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act shall adopt or approve a regionally significant highway or transit project, regardless of funding source, unless both of the following apply:

1. There is a currently conforming transportation plan and TIP consistent with the requirements of R18-2-1414.

2. The requirements of one of the following are met:

a. The project comes from a conforming plan and program consistent with the requirements of R18-2-1415.

b. The project is included in the regional emissions analysis supporting the currently conforming TIP's conformity determination, even if the project is not strictly "included" in the TIP for the purposes of MPO project selection or endorsement, and the project's design concept and scope have not changed significantly from those which were included in the regional emissions analysis, or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility.

c. During the control strategy or maintenance period, the project is consistent with the motor vehicle emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan consistent with the requirements of R18-2-1420.

d. During Phase II of the interim period, the project contributes to emissions reductions or does not increase emissions consistent with the requirements of R18-2-1424 (in ozone and CO nonattainment areas) or R18-2-1427 (in PM

10

and NO

2

nonattainment areas).

e. During the transitional period, the project satisfies the requirements of both subsections (1)(2)(c) and (d).

D. Pursuant to the consultation process established in R18-2-1405(O), ADOT or the MPO where one exists shall, not later than September 1, 1995, develop and make available the procedures to be used by any recipient of federal funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act to comply with subsections (B) and (C). These procedures may be revised periodically, as needed, using the same consultation process. At a minimum, such procedures shall provide for the following:

1. The minimum information required by the recipient to make determinations in compliance with subsections (B) and (C);

2. The time-frames for action to be taken by the recipient;

3. For transportation projects determined to be regionally significant, the documentation necessary to demonstrate that the requirements of 23 CFR 450.324(e), (g), and (h) have been met.

E. After a transportation project is adopted or approved, no subsequent act defined as adoption or approval under this Section or under procedures developed to implement this Section shall be subject to subsection (B) or (C), unless project's design concept or scope have changed significantly since the project was first adopted or approved.

F. A regionally significant transportation project found to be in conformity, either as a result of a TIP or a separate project analysis, shall retain such conformity finding, irrespective of subsequent analysis, unless the project fails to meet the conditions of its approval or undergoes a significant change in scope. In any event, a conformity determination shall lapse after three years in the absence of a redetermination; except that a project undergoing NEPA approval shall retain its conformity determination, unless none of the following major steps has occurred within the most recent three-year period:

1. NEPA process completion;

2. Start of final design;

3. Acquisition of a significant portion of the right-of-way;

4. Approval of the plans, specifications, and estimates.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1430" level="4" title="Procedures for Determining Regional Transportation-related Emissions">

Procedures for Determining Regional Transportation-related Emissions

A. The following are general requirements for determining regional transportation-related emissions:

1. The regional emissions analysis for the transportation plan, TIP, or project not from a conforming plan and TIP shall include all regionally significant transportation projects expected in the nonattainment or maintenance area, including FHWA or FTA projects proposed in the transportation plan and TIP and all other regionally significant transportation projects which are disclosed to ADOT or the MPO as required by R18-2-1405. Projects which are not regionally significant are not required to be explicitly modeled, but VMT from such projects shall be estimated in accordance with reasonable professional practice. The effects of TCMs and similar projects that are not regionally significant may also be estimated in accordance with reasonable professional practice.

2. The emissions analysis may not include for emissions reduction credit any TCMs which have been delayed beyond the scheduled date until such time as implementation has been assured. If the TCM has been partially implemented and it can be demonstrated that it is providing quantifiable emission reduction benefits, the emissions analysis may include that emissions reduction credit.

3. Emissions reduction credit from projects, programs, or activities which require a regulation in order to be implemented may not be included in the emissions analysis unless the regulation is already adopted by the enforcing jurisdiction. Adopted regulations are required for demand management strategies for reducing emissions which are not specifically identified in the applicable implementation plan, and for control programs which are external to the transportation system itself, such as tailpipe or evaporative emission standards, limits on gasoline volatility, inspection and maintenance programs, and oxygenated or reformulated gasoline or diesel fuel. A regulatory program may also be considered to be adopted if an opt-in to a federally enforced program has been approved by EPA, if EPA has promulgated the program (if the control program is a federal responsibility, such as tailpipe standards), or if the CAA requires the program without need for individual state action and without any discretionary authority for EPA to set its stringency, delay its effective date, or not implement the program.

4. Notwithstanding subsection (A)(3), during the transitional period, control measures or programs which are committed to in an implementation plan submission as described in R18-2-1418 through R18-2-1420, but which has not received final EPA action in the form of a finding of incompleteness, approval, or disapproval, may be assumed for emission reduction credit for the purpose of demonstrating that the requirements of R18-2-1418 through R18-2-1420 are satisfied.

5. A regional emissions analysis for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of R18-2-1422 through R18-2-1424 may account for the programs in subsection (A)(4), but the same assumptions about these programs shall be used for both the Baseline and Action scenarios.

6. Ambient temperatures shall be consistent with those used to establish the emissions budget in the applicable implementation plan. Factors other than temperatures, for example the fraction of travel in a hot stabilized engine mode, may be modified after interagency consultation according to R18-2-1405 if the newer estimates incorporate additional or more geographically specific information or represent a logically estimated trend in such factors beyond the period considered in the applicable implementation plan.

B. For serious, severe, and extreme ozone nonattainment areas and serious carbon monoxide areas after January 1, 1995, estimates of regional transportation-related emissions used to support conformity determinations shall be made according to procedures which meet the requirements in subsections (B)(1) through (5).

1. A network-based transportation demand model or models relating travel demand and transportation system performance to land-use patterns, population demographics, employment, transportation infrastructure, and transportation policies shall be used to estimate travel within the metropolitan planning area of the nonattainment area. Such a model shall possess all of the following attributes:

a. The modeling methods and the functional relationships used in the model shall in all respects be in accordance with acceptable professional practice and reasonable for purposes of emission estimation.

b. The network-based model shall be validated against ground counts for a base year that is not more than 10 years prior to the date of the conformity determination. Land use, population, and other inputs shall be based on the best available information and appropriate to the validation base year.

c. For peak-hour or peak-period traffic assignments, a capacity sensitive assignment methodology shall be used.

d. Zone-to-zone travel times used to distribute trips between origin and destination pairs shall be in reasonable agreement with the travel times which result from the process of assignment of trips to network links. Where use of transit currently is anticipated to be a significant factor in satisfying transportation demand, these times should also be used for modeling mode splits.

e. Free-flow speeds on network links shall be based on empirical observations.

f. Peak and off-peak travel demand and travel times shall be provided.

g. Trip distribution and mode choice shall be sensitive to pricing, where pricing is a significant factor, if the network model is capable of such determinations and the necessary information is available.

h. The model shall utilize and document a logical correspondence between the assumed scenario of land development and use and the future transportation system for which emissions are being estimated. Reliance on a formal land-use model is not specifically required but is encouraged.

i. A dependence of trip generation on the accessibility of destinations via the transportation system, including pricing, is strongly encouraged but not specifically required, unless the network model is capable of such determinations and the necessary information is available.

j. A dependence of regional economic and population growth on the accessibility of destinations via the transportation system is strongly encouraged but not specifically required, unless the network model is capable of such determinations and the necessary information is available.

k. Consideration of emissions increases from construction-related congestion is not specifically required.

2. Highway Performance Monitoring System (HPMS) estimates of vehicle miles traveled shall be considered the primary measure of vehicle miles traveled within the portion of the nonattainment or maintenance area and for the functional classes of roadways included in HPMS, for urban areas which are sampled on a separate urban area basis. A factor or factors shall be developed to reconcile and calibrate the network-based model estimates of vehicle miles traveled in the base year of its validation to the HPMS estimates for the same period, and these factors shall be applied to model estimates of future vehicle miles traveled. In this factoring process, consideration will be given to differences in the facility coverage of the HPMS and the modeled network description. Departure from these procedures is permitted with the concurrence of USDOT and EPA.

3. Reasonable methods shall be used to estimate nonattainment area vehicle travel on off-network roadways within the urban transportation planning area and on roadways outside the urban transportation planning area.

4. Reasonable methods in accordance with good practice shall be used to estimate traffic speeds and delays in a manner that is sensitive to the estimated volume of travel on each roadway segment represented in the network model.

C. For areas which are not serious, severe, or extreme ozone nonattainment areas or serious carbon monoxide areas, or before January 1, 1995:

1. Procedures which satisfy some or all of the requirements of subsection (A) shall be used in all areas not subject to subsection (A) in which those procedures have been the previous practice of the MPO.

2. Regional emissions may be estimated by methods which do not explicitly or comprehensively account for the influence of land use and transportation infrastructure on vehicle miles traveled and traffic speeds and congestion. Such methods shall account for VMT growth by extrapolating historical VMT or projecting future VMT by considering growth in population and historical growth trends for vehicle miles travelled per person. These methods shall also consider future economic activity, transit alternatives, and transportation system policies.

D. This subsection applies to any nonattainment or maintenance area or any portion thereof which does not have a metropolitan transportation plan or TIP and whose projects are not part of the emissions analysis of any MPO's metropolitan transportation plan or TIP (because the nonattainment or maintenance area or portion thereof does not contain a metropolitan planning area or portion of a metropolitan planning area and is not part of a Metropolitan Statistical Area or Consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Area which is or contains a nonattainment or maintenance area).

1. Conformity demonstrations for projects in these areas may satisfy the requirements of R18-2-1420, R18-2-1424, and R18-2-1427 with one regional emissions analysis which includes all the regionally significant transportation projects in the nonattainment or maintenance area or portion thereof.

2. The requirements of R18-2-1420 shall be satisfied according to the procedures in R18-2-1420(C), with references to the "transportation plan" taken to mean the statewide transportation plan.

3. The requirements of R18-2-1424 and R18-2-1427 which reference "transportation plan" or "TIP" shall be taken to mean those projects in the statewide transportation plan or statewide TIP which are in the nonattainment or maintenance area or portion thereof.

4. The requirement of R18-2-1429(A)(2) shall be satisfied if all of the following are met:

a. The project is included in the regional emissions analysis which includes all regionally significant highway and transportation projects in the nonattainment or maintenance area or portion thereof and supports the most recent conformity determination made according to the requirements of R18-2-1420, R18-2-1424 or R18-2-1427 (as modified by subsections (D)(2) and (D)(3)), as appropriate for the time period and pollutant.

b. The project's design concept and scope have not changed significantly from those which were included in the regional emissions analysis or in a manner which would significantly impact use of the facility.

E. For areas in which the implementation plan does not identify construction-related fugitive PM

10

as a contributor to the nonattainment problem, the fugitive PM

10

emissions associated with highway and transit project construction are not required to be considered in the regional emissions analysis.

F. In PM

10

nonattainment and maintenance areas with implementation plans which identify construction-related fugitive PM

10

as a contributor to the nonattainment problem, the regional PM

10

emissions analysis shall consider construction-related fugitive PM

10

and shall account for the level of construction activity, the fugitive PM

10

control measures in the applicable implementation plan, and the dust-producing capacity of the proposed activities.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

R18-2-1431. Procedures for Determining Localized CO and PM

10

Concentrations (Hot-spot Analysis)

A. In the following cases, CO hot-spot analyses shall be based on the applicable air quality models, data bases, and other requirements specified in 40 CFR 51 Appendix W ("Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised)" (1988), supplement (A) (1987) and supplement (B) (1993), EPA publication no. 450/2-78-027R, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and with the Secretary of State), unless, after the interagency consultation process described in R18-2-1405 and with the approval of the EPA Regional Administrator, these models, data bases, and other requirements are determined to be inappropriate:

1. For projects in or affecting locations, areas, or categories of sites which are identified in the applicable implementation plan as sites of current violation or possible current violation;

2. For those intersections at Level-of-Service D, E, or F, or those that will change to Level-of-Service D, E, or F because of increased traffic volumes related to a new project in the vicinity;

3. For any project involving or affecting any of the intersections which the applicable implementation plan identifies as the top three intersections in the nonattainment or maintenance area based on the highest traffic volumes;

4. For any project involving or affecting any of the intersections which the applicable implementation plan identifies as the top three intersections in the nonattainment or maintenance area based on the worst Level-of-Service;

5. Where use of the "Guideline" models is practicable and reasonable given the potential for violations.

B. In cases other than those described in subsection (A), other quantitative methods may be used if they represent reasonable and common professional practice.

C. CO hot-spot analyses shall include the entire project and may be performed only after the major design features which will significantly impact CO concentrations have been identified. The background concentration may be estimated using the ratio of future to current traffic multiplied by the ratio of future to current emission factors.

D. PM

10

hot-spot analysis shall be performed for projects which are located at sites at which violations have been verified by monitoring, and at sites which have essentially identical vehicle and roadway emission and dispersion characteristics (including sites near one at which a violation has been monitored). The projects which require PM

10

hot-spot analysis shall be determined through the interagency consultation process required in R18-2-1405. In PM

10

nonattainment and maintenance areas, new or expanded bus and rail terminals and transfer points which increase the number of diesel vehicles congregating at a single location require hot-spot analysis. USDOT may choose to make a categorical conformity determination on bus and rail terminals or transfer points based on appropriate modeling of various terminal sizes, configurations, and activity levels. The requirements of this subsection for quantitative hot-spot analysis will not take effect until EPA releases modeling guidance on this subject and announces in the Federal Register that these requirements are in effect.

E. Hot-spot analysis assumptions shall be consistent with those in the regional emissions analysis for those inputs which are required for both analyses.

F. PM

10

or CO mitigation or control measures shall be assumed in the hot-spot analysis only where there are enforceable written commitments from the project sponsor or operator to the implementation of such measures, as required by R18-2-1433(A).

G. CO and PM

10

hot-spot analyses are not required to consider construction-related activities which cause temporary increases in emissions. Each site which is affected by construction-related activities shall be considered separately, using established "Guideline" methods. Temporary increases are defined as those which occur only during the construction phase and last five years or less at any individual site.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1432" level="4" title="Using the Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget in the Applicable Implementation Plan or Implementation Plan Submission">

Using the Motor Vehicle Emissions Budget in the Applicable Implementation Plan or Implementation Plan Submission

A. In interpreting an applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission with respect to its motor vehicle emissions budget, ADOT or the MPO where one exists and USDOT may not infer additions to the budget that are not explicitly intended by the implementation plan or submission. Unless the implementation plan explicitly quantifies the amount by which motor vehicle emissions could be higher while still allowing a demonstration of compliance with the milestone, attainment, or maintenance requirement and explicitly states an intent that some or all of this additional amount should be available to ADOT or the MPO and USDOT in the emission budget for conformity purposes, ADOT or the MPO may not interpret the budget to be higher than the implementation plan's estimate of future emissions. This applies in particular to applicable implementation plans or submissions which demonstrate that after implementation of control measures in the implementation plan any of the following apply:

1. Emissions from all sources will be less than the total emissions that would be consistent with a required demonstration of an emissions reduction milestone.

2. Emissions from all sources will result in achieving attainment prior to the attainment deadline or ambient concentrations in the attainment deadline year will be lower than needed to demonstrate attainment.

3. Emissions will be lower than needed to provide for continued maintenance.

B. If an applicable implementation plan submitted before November 24, 1993, demonstrates that emissions from all sources will be less than the total emissions that would be consistent with attainment and quantifies that "safety margin," the state may submit a SIP revision which assigns some or all of this safety margin to highway and transit mobile sources for the purposes of conformity. Such a SIP revision, once it is endorsed by the governor and has been subject to a public hearing, may be used for the purposes of transportation conformity before it is approved by EPA.

C. A conformity demonstration shall not trade emissions among budgets which the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission allocates for different pollutants or precursors, or among budgets allocated to motor vehicles and other sources, without a SIP revision or a SIP which establishes mechanisms for such trades.

D. If the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission estimates future emissions by geographic subarea of the nonattainment area, ADOT or the MPO where one exists and USDOT are not required to consider this to establish subarea budgets, unless the applicable implementation plan or implementation plan submission explicitly indicates an intent to create such subarea budgets for the purposes of conformity.

E. If a nonattainment area includes more than one MPO, the SIP may establish motor vehicle emissions budgets for each MPO. Otherwise, the MPOs shall collectively make a conformity determination for the entire nonattainment area.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1433" level="4" title="Enforceability of Design Concept and Scope and Project-level Mitigation and Control Measures">

Enforceability of Design Concept and Scope and Project-level Mitigation and Control Measures

A. Prior to determining that a transportation project is in conformity, ADOT, the MPO where one exists, other recipient of funds designated under 23 U.S.C. or the Federal Transit Act, FHWA, or FTA shall obtain from the project sponsor or operator enforceable written commitments to implement in the construction of the project and operation of the resulting facility or service any project-level mitigation or control measures which are identified as conditions for NEPA process completion with respect to local PM

10

or CO impacts. Before making conformity determinations enforceable written commitments shall also be obtained for project-level mitigation or control measures which are conditions for making conformity determinations for a transportation plan or TIP and included in the project design concept and scope which is used in the regional emissions analysis required by R18-2-1418 through R18-2-1420 and R18-2-1422 through R18-2-1424 or used in the project-level hot-spot analysis required by R18-2-1416 and R18-2-1421.

B. Project sponsors voluntarily committing to mitigation measures to facilitate positive conformity determinations shall provide enforceable written commitments and comply with the obligations of such commitments.

C. Enforceable written commitments to mitigation or control measures shall be obtained prior to a positive conformity determination, and that project sponsors shall comply with such commitments.

D. During the control strategy and maintenance periods, if ADOT, the MPO, or project sponsor believes the mitigation or control measure is no longer necessary for conformity, the project sponsor or operator may be relieved of its obligation to implement the mitigation or control measure if it can demonstrate that the requirements of R18-2-1416, R18-2-1418, and R18-2-1419 are satisfied without the mitigation or control measure and so notifies the agencies involved in the interagency consultation process required under R18-2-1405. ADOT or the MPO where one exists and USDOT shall confirm that the transportation plan and TIP still satisfy the requirements of R18-2-1418 and R18-2-1419 and that the project still satisfies the requirements of R18-2-1416, and therefore that the conformity determinations for the transportation plan, TIP, and project are still valid.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1434" level="4" title="Exempt Projects"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Exempt Projects

Notwithstanding the other requirements of this subpart, highway and transit projects of the types listed in Table 2 are exempt from the requirement that a conformity determination be made. Such projects may proceed toward implementation even in the absence of a conforming transportation plan and TIP. A particular action of the type listed in Table 2 is not exempt if ADOT or the MPO where one exists in consultation with other agencies pursuant to R18-2-1405, the EPA, and the FHWA (in the case of a highway project) or the FTA (in the case of a transit project) concur that it has potentially adverse emissions impacts for any reason. States and MPOs shall ensure that exempt projects do not interfere with TCM implementation.

Table 2

Exempt Projects

SAFETY

1. Railroad or highway crossing.

2. Hazard elimination program.

3. Safer non-federal-aid system roads.

4. Shoulder improvements.

5. Increasing sight distance.

6. Safety improvement program.

7. Traffic control devices and operating assistance other than signalization projects.

8. Railroad or highway crossing warning devices.

9. Guardrails, median barriers, crash cushions.

10. Pavement resurfacing or rehabilitation.

11. Pavement marking demonstration.

12. Emergency relief (23 U.S.C. 125).

13. Fencing.

14. Skid treatments.

15. Safety roadside rest areas.

16. Adding medians.

17. Truck climbing lanes outside the urbanized area.

18. Lighting improvements.

19. Widening narrow pavements or reconstructing bridges (no additional travel lanes).

20. Emergency truck pullovers.

MASS TRANSIT

1. Operating assistance to transit agencies.

2. Purchase of support vehicles.

3. Rehabilitation of transit vehicles. (In PM

10

nonattainment or maintenance areas, such projects are exempt only if they are in compliance with control measures in the applicable implementation plan.)

4. Purchase of office, shop, and operating equipment for existing facilities.

5. Purchase of operating equipment for vehicles (e.g., radios, fareboxes, lifts, etc.).

6. Construction or renovation of power, signal, and communications systems.

7. Construction of small passenger shelters and information kiosks.

8. Reconstruction or renovation of transit buildings and structures (e.g., rail or bus buildings, storage and maintenance facilities, stations, terminals, and ancillary structures).

9. Rehabilitation or reconstruction of track structures, track, and trackbed in existing rights-of-way.

10. Purchase of new buses and rail cars to replace existing vehicles or for minor expansions of the fleet. (In PM

10

nonattainment or maintenance areas, such projects are exempt only if they are in compliance with control measures in the applicable implementation plan.)

11. Construction of new bus or rail storage or maintenance facilities categorically excluded in 23 CFR 771.

AIR QUALITY

1. Continuation of ride-sharing and van-pooling promotion activities at current levels.

2. Bicycle and pedestrian facilities.

OTHER

1. Specific activities which do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as:

a. Planning and technical studies.

b. Grants for training and research programs.

c. Planning activities conducted pursuant to Titles 23 and 49 U.S.C.

d. Federal-aid systems revisions.

2. Engineering to assess social, economic and environmental effects of the proposed action or alternatives to that action.

3. Noise attenuation.

4. Advance land acquisitions (23 CFR 712 or 23 CFR 771).

5. Acquisition of scenic easements.

6. Plantings, landscaping, etc.

7. Sign removal.

8. Directional and informational signs.

9. Transportation enhancement activities (except rehabilitation and operation of historic transportation buildings, structures, or facilities).

10. Repair of damage caused by natural disasters, civil unrest, or terrorist acts, except projects involving substantial functional, locational or capacity changes.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1435" level="4" title="Projects Exempt from Regional Emissions Analyses">

Projects Exempt from Regional Emissions Analyses

Notwithstanding the other requirements of this subpart, highway and transit projects of the types listed in Table 3 are exempt from regional emissions analysis requirements. The local effects of these projects with respect to CO or PM

10

concentrations shall be considered to determine if a hot-spot analysis is required prior to making a project-level conformity determination. These projects may then proceed to the project development process even in the absence of a conforming transportation plan and TIP. A particular action of the type listed in Table 3 is not exempt from regional emissions analysis if the MPO in consultation with other agencies pursuant to R18-2-1405, the EPA, and the FHWA (in the case of a highway project) or the FTA (in the case of a transit project) concur that it has potential regional impacts for any reason.

Table 3

Projects Exempt From Regional Emissions Analyses

1. Intersection channelization projects.

2. Intersection signalization projects at individual intersections.

3. Interchange reconfiguration projects.

4. Changes in vertical and horizontal alignment.

5. Truck size and weight inspection stations.

6. Bus terminals and transfer points.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1436" level="4" title="Special Provisions for Nonattainment Areas Which are Not Required to Demonstrate Reasonable Further Progress and Attainment">

Special Provisions for Nonattainment Areas Which are Not Required to Demonstrate Reasonable Further Progress and Attainment

A. This Section applies in the following areas:

1. Rural transport ozone nonattainment areas,

2. Marginal ozone areas,

3. Submarginal ozone areas,

4. Transitional ozone areas,

5. Incomplete data ozone areas,

6. Moderate CO areas with a design value of 12.7 ppm or less,

7. Not classified CO areas.

B. The criteria and procedures in R18-2-1422 through R18-2-1424 will remain in effect throughout the control strategy period for transportation plans, TIPs, and projects (not from a conforming plan and TIP) in lieu of the procedures in R18-2-1418 through R18-2-1420, except as otherwise provided in subsection (C).

C. The state or MPO may voluntarily develop an attainment demonstration and corresponding motor vehicle emissions budget like those required in areas with higher nonattainment classifications. In this case, the state shall submit an implementation plan revision which contains that budget and attainment demonstration. Once EPA has approved this implementation plan revision, the procedures in R18-2-1418 through R18-2-1420 apply in lieu of the procedures in R18-2-1422 through R18-2-1424.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.2.1437" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.2.1438" level="4" title="General Conformity for Federal Actions">

General Conformity for Federal Actions

The following subparts of 40 CFR 93, Determining Conformity of Federal Actions to State or Federal Implementation Plans, and all accompanying appendices, adopted as of July 1, 1994, and no future editions, are incorporated by reference. These standards are on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and with the Department and shall be applied by the Department.

Subpart B - Determining Conformity of General Federal Actions to State or Federal Implementation Plans (58 FR 63253, November 30, 1993).

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 31, 1995 (Supp. 95-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 15" level="3" title="FOREST AND RANGE MANAGEMENT BURNS">

FOREST AND RANGE MANAGEMENT BURNS

<regElement name="R18.2.1501" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-501 and R18-2-101, in this Article:

1. "Activity fuels" means those fuels created by human activities such as thinning or logging.

2. "ADEQ" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

3. "Annual emissions goal" means the annual establishment in cooperation with the F/SLMs, under R18-2-1503(G), of a planned quantifiable value of emissions reduction from prescribed fires and fuels management activities.

4. "Burn plan" means the ADEQ form that includes information on the conditions under which a burn will occur with details of the burn and smoke management prescriptions.

5. "Burn prescription" means, with regard to a burn project, the pre-determined area, fuel, and weather conditions required to attain planned resource management objectives.

6. "Burn project" means an active or planned prescribed burn, including a wildland fire use incident.

7. "Duff" means forest floor material consisting of decomposing needles and other natural materials.

8. "Emission reduction techniques (ERT)" means methods for controlling emissions from prescribed fires to minimize the amount of emission output per unit of area burned.

9. "Federal land manager (FLM)" means any department, agency, or agent of the federal government, including the following:

a. United States Forest Service,

b. United States Fish and Wildlife Service,

c. National Park Service,

d. Bureau of Land Management,

e. Bureau of Reclamation,

f. Department of Defense,

g. Bureau of Indian Affairs, and

h. Natural Resources Conservation Service.

10. "F/SLM" means a federal land manager or a state land manager.

11. "Local fire management officer" means a person designated by a F/SLM as responsible for fire management in a local district or area.

12. "Mop-up" means the act of extinguishing or removing burning material from a prescribed fire to reduce smoke impacts.

13. "National Wildfire Coordinating Group" means the national inter-agency group of federal and state land managers that shares similar wildfire suppression programs and has established standardized inter-agency training courses and qualifications for fire management positions.

14. "Non-burning alternatives to fire" means techniques that replace fire for at least five years as a means to treat activity fuels created to achieve a particular land management objective (e.g., reduction of fuel-loading, manipulation of fuels, enhancement of wildlife habitat, and ecosystem restoration). These alternatives are not used in conjunction with fire. Techniques used in conjunction with fire are referred to as emission reduction techniques (ERTs).

15. "Planned resource management objectives" means public interest goals in support of land management agency objectives including silviculture, wildlife habitat management, grazing enhancement, fire hazard reduction, wilderness management, cultural scene maintenance, weed abatement, watershed rehabilitation, vegetative manipulation, and disease and pest prevention.

16. "Prescribed burning" means the controlled application of fire to wildland fuels that are in either a natural or modified state, under certain burn and smoke management prescription conditions that have been specified by the land manager in charge of or assisting the burn, to attain planned resource management objectives. Prescribed burning does not include a fire set or permitted by a public officer to provide instruction in fire fighting methods, or construction or residential burning under R18-2-602.

17. "Prescribed fire manager" means a person designated by a F/SLM as responsible for prescribed burning for that land manager.

18. "Smoke management prescription" means the predetermined meteorological conditions that affect smoke transport and dispersion under which a burn could occur without adversely affecting public health and welfare.

19. "Smoke management techniques (SMT)" means management and dispersion practices used during a prescribed burn or wildland fire use incident which affect the direction, duration, height, or density of smoke.

20. "Smoke management unit" means any of the geographic areas defined by ADEQ whose area is based on primary watershed boundaries and whose outline is determined by diurnal windflow patterns that allow smoke to follow predictable drainage patterns. A map of the state divided into the smoke management units is on file with ADEQ.

21. "State land manager (SLM)" means any department, agency, or political subdivision of the state government including the following:

a. State Land Department,

b. Department of Transportation,

c. Department of Game and Fish, and

d. Parks Department.

22. "Wildfire" means an unplanned wildland fire subject to appropriate control measures. Wildfires include those incidents where suppression may be limited for safety, economic, or resource concerns.

23. "Wildland fire use" means a wildland fire that is ignited by natural causes, such as lightning, and is managed using the same controls and for the same planned resource management objectives as prescribed burning.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1502" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. A F/SLM that is conducting or assisting a prescribed burn shall follow the requirements of this Article.

B. A private or municipal burner with whom ADEQ has entered into a memorandum of agreement shall follow the requirements of this Article.

C. The provisions of this Article apply to all areas of the state except Indian Trust lands. All federally managed lands and all state lands, parks, and forests are under the jurisdiction of ADEQ in matters relating to air pollution from prescribed burning.

D. Notwithstanding subsection (C), ADEQ and any Indian tribe may enter into a memorandum of agreement to implement this Article.

E. ADEQ and any private or municipal prescribed burner may enter into a memorandum of agreement to implement this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1503" level="4" title="Annual Registration, Program Evaluation and Planning">

Annual Registration, Program Evaluation and Planning

A. Each F/SLM shall register annually with ADEQ on a form prescribed by ADEQ, all planned burn projects, including areas planned for wildland fire use.

B. Each planned year extends from January 1 of the registration year to December 31 of the same year. Each F/SLM shall use best efforts to register before December 31 and no later than January 31 of each year.

C. A F/SLM shall include the following information on the registration form:

1. The F/SLM's name, address, and business telephone number;

2. The name, address, and business telephone number of an air quality representative who will provide technical support to ADEQ for decisions regarding prescribed burning. The same air quality representative may be selected by more than one F/SLM;

3. All prescribed burn projects and potential wildland fire use areas planned for the next year;

4. Maximum project and annual acres to be burned, maximum daily acres to be burned, fuel types within project area, and planned use of emission reduction techniques to support the annual emissions goal for each prescribed burn project;

5. Planned use of any smoke management techniques for each prescribed burn project;

6. Maximum project and annual acres projected to be burned, maximum daily acres projected to be burned, and a map of the anticipated project area, fuel types and loading within the planned area for an area the F/SLM anticipates for wildland fire use;

7. A list of all burn projects that were completed during the previous year;

8. Project area for treatment, treatment type, fuel types to be treated, and activity fuel loading to support the annual emissions goal for areas to be treated using non-burning alternatives to fire; and

9. The area treated using non-burning alternatives to fire during the previous year including the number of acres, the specific types of alternatives utilized, and the location of these areas.

D. After consultation with the F/SLM, ADEQ may request additional information for registration of prescribed burns and wildland fire use to support regional coordination of smoke management, annual emission goal setting using ERTs, and non-burning alternatives to fire.

E. A F/SLM may amend a registration at any time with a written submission to ADEQ.

F. ADEQ accepts a facsimile or other electronic method as a means of complying with the deadline for registration. If an electronic means is used, the F/SLM shall deliver the original paper registration form to ADEQ for its records. ADEQ shall acknowledge in writing the receipt of each registration.

G. ADEQ shall hold a meeting after January 31 and before April 1 of each year between ADEQ and F/SLMs to evaluate the program and cooperatively establish the annual emission goal. The annual emission goal shall be developed to minimize prescribed fire emissions to the maximum extent feasible using emission reduction techniques and alternatives to burning subject to economic, technical, and safety feasibility criteria, and consistent with land management objectives.

H. At least once every five years, ADEQ shall request long-term projections of future prescribed fire and wildland fire use activity from the F/SLMs to support planning for visibility impairment and assessment of other air quality concerns by ADEQ.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1504" level="4" title="Prescribed Burn Plan">

Prescribed Burn Plan

Each F/SLM planning a prescribed burn shall complete and submit to ADEQ the "Burn Plan" form supplied by ADEQ no later than 14 days before the date on which the F/SLM requests permission to burn. ADEQ shall consider the information supplied on the Burn Plan Form as binding conditions under which the burn shall be conducted. A Burn Plan shall be maintained by ADEQ until notification from the F/SLM of the completion of the burn project. Revisions to the Burn Plan for a burn project shall be submitted in writing no later than 14 days before the date on which the F/SLM requests permission to burn. To facilitate the Daily Burn authorization process under R18-2-1505, the F/SLM shall include on the Burn Plan form:

1. An emergency telephone number that is answered 24 hours a day, seven days a week;

2. Burn prescription;

3. Smoke management prescription;

4. The number of acres to be burned, the quantity and type of fuel, type of burn, and the ignition technique to be used;

5. The land management objective or purpose for the burn such as restoration or maintenance of ecological function and indicators of fire resiliency;

6. A map depicting the potential impact of the smoke unless waived either orally or in writing by ADEQ. The potential impact shall be determined by mapping both the daytime and nighttime smoke path and down-drainage flow for 15 miles from the burn site, with smoke-sensitive areas delineated. The map shall use the appropriate scale to show the impacts of the smoke adequately;

7. Modeling of smoke impacts unless waived either orally or in writing by ADEQ, for burns greater than 250 acres per day, or greater than 50 acres per day if the burn is within 15 miles of a Class I Area, an area that is non-attainment for particulates, a carbon monoxide non-attainment area, or other smoke-sensitive area. In consultation with the F/SLM, ADEQ shall provide guidelines on modeling;

8. The name of the official submitting the Burn Plan on behalf of the F/SLM; and

9. After consultation with the F/SLM, any other information to support the Burn Plan needed by ADEQ to assist in the Daily Burn authorization process for smoke management purposes or assessment of contribution to visibility impairment of Class I areas.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1505" level="4" title="Prescribed Burn Requests and Authorization">

Prescribed Burn Requests and Authorization

A. Each F/SLM planning a prescribed burn, shall complete and submit to ADEQ the "Daily Burn Request" form supplied by ADEQ. The Daily Burn Request form shall include:

1. The contact information of the F/SLM conducting the burn;

2. Each day of the burn;

3. The area to be burned on the day for which the Burn Request is submitted, with reference to the Burn Plan, including size, legal location to the section, and latitude and longitude to the minute;

4. Projected smoke impacts; and

5. Any local conditions or circumstances known to the F/SLM that, if conveyed to ADEQ, could impact the Daily Burn authorization process.

B. After consultation with the F/SLM, ADEQ may request additional information related to the burn, meteorological, smoke dispersion, or air quality conditions to supplement the Daily Burn Request form and to aid in the Daily Burn authorization process.

C. The F/SLM shall submit the Daily Burn Request form to ADEQ as expeditiously as practicable, but no later than 2:00 p.m. of the business day preceding the burn. An original form, a facsimile, or an electronic information transfer are acceptable submittals.

D. An F/SLM shall not ignite a prescribed burn without receiving the approval of ADEQ, as follows:

1. ADEQ shall approve, approve with conditions, or disapprove a burn on the same business day as the Burn Request submittal.

2. If ADEQ fails to address a Burn Request by 10:00 p.m. of the business day on which the request is submitted, the Burn Request is approved by default after the burner makes a good faith effort to contact ADEQ to confirm that the Burn Request was received.

3. ADEQ may communicate its decision by verbal, written, or electronic means. ADEQ shall provide a written or electronic reply if requested by the F/SLM.

E. If weather conditions cease to conform to those in the smoke management prescription of either the Burn Plan or an Approval with Conditions, the F/SLM shall take appropriate action to reduce further smoke impacts, ensure safe and appropriate fire control, and notify the public when necessary. After consultation with ADEQ, the smoke management prescription or burn plan may be modified.

F. The F/SLM shall ensure that there is appropriate signage and notification to protect public safety on transportation corridors including roadways and airports during a prescribed fire.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1506" level="4" title="Smoke Dispersion Evaluation">

Smoke Dispersion Evaluation

ADEQ shall approve, approve with conditions, or disapprove a Daily Burn Request submitted under R18-2-1505, by using the following factors for each smoke management unit:

1. Analysis of the emissions from burns in progress and residual emissions from previous burns on a day-to-day basis;

2. Analysis of emissions from active wildland fire use incidents, and active multiple-day burns, and consideration of potential long-term emissions estimates;

3. Analysis of the emissions from wildfires greater than 100 acres and consideration of their potential long-term growth;

4. Local burn conditions;

5. Burn prescription and smoke management prescription from the applicable Burn Plan;

6. Existing and predicted local air quality;

7. Local and synoptic meteorological conditions;

8. Type and location of areas to be burned;

9. Protection of the national visibility goal for Class I Areas under &#167; 169A(a)(1) of the Act and 40 CFR 51.309;

10. Assessment of duration and intensity of smoke emissions to minimize cumulative impacts;

11. Minimization of smoke impacts in Class I Areas, areas that are non-attainment for particulate matter, carbon monoxide non-attainment areas, or other smoke-sensitive areas; and

12. Protection of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1507" level="4" title="Prescribed Burn Accomplishment; Wildfire Reporting">

Prescribed Burn Accomplishment; Wildfire Reporting

A. Each F/SLM conducting a prescribed burn shall complete and submit to ADEQ the "Burn Accomplishment" form supplied by ADEQ. For each burn approval, the F/SLM shall submit a Burn Accomplishment form to ADEQ by 2:00 p.m. of the business day following the approved burn. The F/SLM shall include the following information on the Burn Accomplishment form:

1. Any known conditions or circumstances that could impact the Daily Burn decision process;

2. The date, location, fuel type, fuel loading, and acreage accomplishments;

3. The ERTs and SMTs described in R18-2-1509 and R18-2-1510, respectively, and may include any further ERTs and SMTs that become available, that the F/SLM used to reduce emissions or manage the smoke from the burn.

B. The F/SLM shall submit the Burn Accomplishment form as an original form, a facsimile, or an electronic information transfer.

C. ADEQ shall maintain a record of Burn Requests, Burn Approvals/Conditional Approvals/Denials and Burn Accomplishments for five years.

D. The F/SLM in whose jurisdiction a wildfire occurs shall make available to ADEQ no later than the day after the activity all required information for wildfire incidents that burned more than 100 acres per day in timber or slash fuels or 300 acres per day in brush or grass fuels. For each day of a wildfire incident that exceeds the daily activity threshold, the F/SLM shall provide the location, an estimate of predominant fuel type and quantity consumed, and an estimate of the area blackened that day.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1508" level="4" title="Wildland Fire Use: Plan, Authorization, Monitoring; Inter-agency Consultation; Status Reporting">

Wildland Fire Use: Plan, Authorization, Monitoring; Inter-agency Consultation; Status Reporting

A. In order for ADEQ to participate in the wildland fire use decision-making process, the F/SLM shall notify ADEQ as soon as practicable of any wildland fire use incident projected to attain or attaining a size of 50 acres of timber fuel or 250 acres of brush or grass fuel.

B. For each wildland fire use incident that has been declared as such by the F/SLM, the F/SLM shall complete and submit to ADEQ a Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan in a format approved by ADEQ in cooperation with the F/SLM. The F/SLM shall submit the Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan to ADEQ as soon as practicable but no later than 72 hours after the wildland fire use incident is declared or under consideration for such designation. The F/SLM shall include the following information in the Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan:

1. An emergency telephone number that is answered 24 hours a day, seven days a week;

2. Anticipated burn prescription;

3. Anticipated smoke management prescription;

4. The estimated daily number of acres, quantity, and type of fuel to be burned;

5. The anticipated maximum allowable perimeter or size with map;

6. Information on the condition of the area to be burned, such as whether it is in maintenance or restoration, its ecological function, and other indicators of fire resiliency;

7. The anticipated duration of the wildland fire use incident;

8. The anticipated long-range weather trends for the site;

9. A map depicting the potential impact of the smoke. The potential impact shall be determined by mapping both the daytime and nighttime smoke path and down-drainage flow for 15 miles from the wildland fire use incident, with smoke-sensitive areas delineated. Mapping is mandatory unless waived either orally or in writing by ADEQ. The map shall use the appropriate scale to show the impacts of the smoke adequately; and

10. Modeling or monitoring of smoke impacts, if requested by ADEQ after consultation with the F/SLM.

C. ADEQ shall approve or disapprove a Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan within three hours of receipt. ADEQ shall consult directly with the requesting F/SLM before disapproving a Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan. If ADEQ fails to address the Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan within the time allotted, the Plan is approved by default under the condition that the F/SLM makes a good faith effort to contact ADEQ to confirm that the Plan was received. Approval by ADEQ of a Wildland Fire Use Burn Plan is binding upon ADEQ for the duration of the wildland fire use incident, unless smoke from the incident creates a threat to public health or welfare. If a threat to public health or welfare is created, ADEQ shall consult with the F/SLM regarding the situation and develop a joint action plan for reducing further smoke impacts.

D. The F/SLM shall submit a Daily Status Report for each wildland fire use incident to ADEQ for each day of the burn that the fire burns more than 100 acres in timber or slash fuels or 300 acres in brush or grass fuels. The F/SLM shall include a synopsis of smoke behavior, future daily anticipated growth, and location of the activity of the wildland fire use incident in the Daily Status Report.

E. The F/SLM shall consult with ADEQ prior to initiating human-made ignition on the wildland fire use incident when greater than 250 acres is anticipated to be burned by the ignition. Emergency human-made ignition on the incident for protection of public or fire-fighter safety does not require consultation with ADEQ regardless of the size of the area to be burned.

F. The F/SLM shall ensure that there is appropriate signage and notification to protect public safety on transportation corridors including roadways and airports during a wildland fire use incident.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1509" level="4" title="Emission Reduction Techniques">

Emission Reduction Techniques

A. Each F/SLM conducting a prescribed burn shall implement as many Emission Reduction Techniques as are feasible subject to economic, technical, and safety feasibility criteria, and land management objectives.

B. Emission Reduction Techniques include:

1. Reducing biomass to be burned by use of techniques such as yarding or consolidation of unmerchandisable material, multi-product timber sales, or public firewood access, when economically feasible;

2. Reducing biomass to be burned by fuel exclusion practices such as preventing the fire from consuming dead snags or dead and downed woody material through lining, application of fire-retardant foam, or water;

3. Using mass ignition techniques such as aerial ignition by helicopter to produce high intensity fires of high fuel density areas such as logging slash decks;

4. Burning only fuels essential to meet resource management objectives;

5. Minimizing consumption and smoldering by burning under conditions of high fuel moisture of duff and litter;

6. Minimizing fuel consumption and smoldering by burning under conditions of high fuel moisture of large woody fuels;

7. Minimizing soil content when slash piles are constructed by using brush blades on material-moving equipment and by constructing piles under dry soil conditions or by using hand piling methods;

8. Burning fuels in piles;

9. Using a backing fire in grass fuels;

10. Burning fuels with an air curtain destructor, as defined in R18-2-101, operated according to manufacturer specifications and meeting applicable state or local opacity requirements;

11. Extinguishing or mopping-up of smoldering fuels;

12. Chunking of piles and other consolidations of burning material to enhance flaming and fuel consumption, and to minimize smoke production;

13. Burning before litter fall;

14. Burning before green-up of fuels;

15. Burning before recently cut large fuels cure in areas with activity; and

16. Burning just before precipitation to reduce fuel smoldering and consumption.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1510" level="4" title="Smoke Management Techniques">

Smoke Management Techniques

A. Each F/SLM conducting a prescribed burn shall implement as many Smoke Management Techniques as are feasible subject to economic, technical, and safety feasibility criteria, and land management objectives.

B. Smoke management techniques include:

1. Burning from March 15 through September 15, when meteorological conditions allow for good smoke dispersion;

2. Igniting burns under good-to-excellent ventilation conditions;

3. Suspending operations under poor smoke dispersion conditions;

4. Considering smoke impacts on local community activities and land users;

5. Burning piles when other burns are not feasible, such as when snow or rain is present;

6. Using mass ignition techniques such as aerial ignition by helicopter to produce high intensity fires with short duration impacts;

7. Using all opportunities that meet the burn prescription and all burn locations to spread smoke impacts over a broader time period and geographic area;

8. Burning during optimum mid-day dispersion hours, with all ignitions in a burn unit completed by 3:00 p.m. to prevent trapping smoke in inversions or diurnal windflow patterns;

9. Providing information on the adverse impacts of using green or wet wood as fuel when public firewood access is allowed;

10. Implementing maintenance burning in a periodic rotation to shorten prescribed fire duration and to reduce excessive fuel accumulations that could result in excessive smoke production in a wildfire; and

11. Using wildland fire-use strategies to shift smoke into more favorable smoke dispersion seasons.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Former Section R18-2-1510 renumbered to R18-2-1511; new R18-2-1510 made by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1511" level="4" title="Monitoring">

Monitoring

A. ADEQ may require a F/SLM to monitor air quality before or during a prescribed burn or a wildland fire use incident if necessary to assess smoke impacts. Air quality monitoring may be conducted using both federal and non-federal reference method as well as other techniques.

B. ADEQ may require a F/SLM to monitor weather before or during a prescribed burn or a wildland fire use incident, if necessary to predict or assess smoke impacts. After consultation with the F/SLM, ADEQ may also require the F/SLM to establish burn site or area-representative remote automated weather stations or their equivalent, having telemetry that allows retrieval on a real-time basis by ADEQ. An F/SLM shall give ADEQ notice and an opportunity to comment before making any change to a long-term established remote automated weather station.

C. A F/SLM shall employ the following types of monitoring, unless waived by ADEQ, for burns greater than 250 acres per day, or greater than 50 acres per day if the burn is within 15 miles of a Class I Area, an area that is non-attainment for particulate matter, carbon monoxide, or ozone, or other smoke-sensitive area:

1. Smoke plume measurements, using a format supplied by ADEQ; and

2. The release of pilot balloons (PIBALs) at the burn site to verify needed wind speed, direction, and stability. Instead of pilot balloons, a test burn at the burn site may be used for specific prescribed burns on a case-by-case basis as approved by ADEQ, to verify needed wind speed, direction, and stability.

D. An F/SLM shall make monitoring information required under subsection (C) available to ADEQ on the business day following the burn ignition.

E. The F/SLM shall keep on file for one year following the burn date any monitoring information required under this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Former Section R18-2-1511 renumbered to R18-2-1512; new R18-2-1511 renumbered from R18-2-1510 and amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1512" level="4" title="Burner Qualifications">

Burner Qualifications

A. All burn projects shall be conducted by personnel trained in prescribed fire and smoke management techniques as required by the F/SLM in charge of the burn and established by National Wildfire Coordinating Group training qualifications.

B. A Prescribed Fire Boss or other local Fire Management Officer of the F/SLM having jurisdiction over prescribed burns shall have smoke management training obtained through one of the following:

1. Successful completion of a National Wildfire Coordinating Group or F/SLM-equivalent course addressing smoke management; or

2. Attendance at an ADEQ-approved smoke management workshop.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Former Section R18-2-1512 renumbered to R18-2-1513; new R18-2-1512 renumbered from R18-2-1511 and amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1513" level="4" title="Public Notification and Awareness Program; Regional Coordination">

Public Notification and Awareness Program; Regional Coordination

A. The Director shall conduct a public education and awareness program in cooperation with F/SLMs and other interested parties to inform the general public of the smoke management program described by this Article. The program shall include smoke impacts from prescribed fires and the role of prescribed fire in natural ecosystems.

B. ADEQ shall make annual registration, prescribed burn approval, and wildfire and wildland fire use activity information readily available to the public and to facilitate regional coordination efforts and public notification.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Former Section R18-2-1513 renumbered to R18-2-1514; new R18-2-1513 renumbered from R18-2-1512 and amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1514" level="4" title="Surveillance and Enforcement">

Surveillance and Enforcement

A. An F/SLM conducting a prescribed burn shall permit ADEQ to enter and inspect burn sites unannounced to verify the accuracy of the Daily Burn Request, Burn Plan, or Accomplishment data as well as matching burn approval with actual conditions, smoke dispersion, and air quality impacts. On-ground site inspection procedures and aerial surveillance shall be coordinated by ADEQ and the F/SLM for safety purposes.

B. ADEQ may use remote automated weather station data if necessary to verify current and previous meteorological conditions at or near the burn site.

C. ADEQ may audit burn accomplishment data, smoke dispersion measurements, or weather measurements from previously conducted burns, if necessary to verify conformity with, or deviation from, procedures and authorizations approved by ADEQ.

D. Deviation from procedures and authorizations approved by ADEQ constitute a violation of this Article. Violations may require containment or mop-up of any active burns and may also require, in the Director's discretion, a five-day moratorium on ignitions by the responsible F/SLM. Violations of this Article are also subject to a civil penalty of not more than $10,000 per day per violation under A.R.S. &#167; 49-463.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Former Section R18-2-1514 repealed; new R18-2-1514 renumbered from R18-2-1513 and amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.2.1515" level="4" title="Forms; Electronic Copies; Information Transfers">

Forms; Electronic Copies; Information Transfers

A. ADEQ shall make available on paper and in electronically readable format any form required to be developed by ADEQ and completed by a F/SLM.

B. After consultation with an F/SLM, ADEQ may require the F/SLM to provide data in a manner that facilitates electronic transfers of information.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 8, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 388, effective March 16, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 16" level="3" title="VISIBILITY; REGIONAL HAZE">

VISIBILITY; REGIONAL HAZE

Article 16, consisting of Sections R18-2-1601 through R18-2-1606, made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1601" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in Articles 1 and 4 of this Chapter and A.R.S. &#167; 49-401.01, the following definitions apply to this Article:

1. "Best available retrofit technology (BART)" means an emission limitation based on the degree of reduction achievable through the application of the best system of continuous emission reduction for each pollutant emitted by an existing stationary facility. The emission limitation is established on a case-by-case basis under R18-2-1605.

2. "Existing stationary facility" means any of the following stationary sources of air pollutants, including any reconstructed source, which was not in operation before August 7, 1962, and was in existence on August 7, 1977, and has the potential to emit 250 tons per year or more of any air pollutant. A person who determines potential to emit shall count fugitive emissions to the extent quantifiable.

a. Fossil-fuel fired steam electric plants of more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input;

b. Coal cleaning plants (thermal dryers);

c. Kraft pulp mills;

d. Portland cement plants;

e. Primary zinc smelters;

f. Iron and steel mill plants;

g. Primary aluminum ore reduction plants;

h. Primary copper smelters;

i. Municipal incinerators capable of charging more than 250 tons of refuse per day;

j. Hydrofluoric, sulfuric, and nitric acid plants;

k. Petroleum refineries;

l. Lime plants;

m. Phosphate rock processing plants;

n. Coke oven batteries;

o. Sulfur recovery plants;

p. Carbon black plants (furnace process);

q. Primary lead smelters;

r. Fuel conversion plants;

s. Sintering plants;

t. Secondary metal production facilities;

u. Chemical process plants;

v. Fossil-fuel boilers of more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input;

w. Petroleum storage and transfer facilities with a capacity exceeding 300,000 barrels;

x. Taconite ore processing facilities;

y. Glass fiber processing plants; and

z. Charcoal production facilities.

3. "Federal Land Manager" means the secretary of the department, or the secretary's designee, with authority over the Federal Class I area.

4. "Mandatory Federal Class I Area" means any area identified in 40 CFR 81.400 through 81.436.

5. "Reasonably attributable" means ascribable by visual observation or other techniques described in R18-2-1604.

6. "Reasonably attributable visibility impairment" means visibility impairment that is caused by the emission of air pollutants from one source, or a small group of sources.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1602" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

This Article applies to any existing stationary source located in the state that may reasonably be anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment in any mandatory Federal Class I area identified in 40 CFR 81.401 through 81.436. Mandatory Federal Class I areas within Arizona are: Chiricahua National Monument Wilderness, Chiricahua Wilderness, Galiuro Wilderness, Grand Canyon National Park, Mazatzal Wilderness, Mount Baldy Wilderness, Petrified Forest National Park, Pine Mountain Wilderness, Saguaro Wilderness, Sierra Ancha Wilderness, Superstition Wilderness, and Sycamore Canyon Wilderness.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1603" level="4" title="Certification of Impairment">

Certification of Impairment

A. A Federal Land Manager with authority over a mandatory Federal Class I area may certify to the Director, at any time, that a reasonably attributable visibility impairment exists in a mandatory Federal Class I area. The Director may also certify that reasonably attributable visibility impairment exists in any mandatory Federal Class I area to assure reasonable progress under section 169A(b)(2) of the Clean Air Act.

B. Documentation that supports the Federal Land Manager or Director's certification shall include:

1. The mandatory Federal Class I area for which visibility impairment is being certified,

2. Any information documenting the basis for the certification of impairment.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1604" level="4" title="Attribution Analysis; Finding">

Attribution Analysis; Finding

A. If a mandatory Federal Class I area is certified as having reasonably attributable visibility impairment, the Director shall conduct an attribution analysis to identify each existing stationary source that may be reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment. The Director shall notify the Federal Land Manager, affected source or small group of sources, and local air pollution control officer of the intent to conduct an attribution analysis. The attribution analysis shall be based on the following:

1. Monitoring information obtained through the Arizona Class I Visibility Monitoring Network or special studies approved by ADEQ to ascertain:

a. The times visibility impairment occurred, and

b. The pollutants contributing to the visibility impairment;

2. Transport analysis or air quality modeling based upon meteorological records to ascertain whether the pollutants were transported to the mandatory Federal Class I area;

3. Other available studies, modeling analyses, and emissions inventories of point, area, and mobile source emissions to ascertain:

a. The pollutant causing the impairment, and

b. The source, or a small group of sources, emitting the pollutant;

4. Other relevant supporting documentation provided by the Federal Land Manager or Director used to make the draft attribution analysis finding; and

5. Consideration of any documentation provided by the source, a small group of sources, or other interested parties.

B. In conducting the attribution analysis, the Director shall use monitoring information, meteorological records, and emissions inventories that represent times and locations reasonably concurrent with the visibility impairment.

C. The Director shall issue a draft attribution finding that impairment has or has not occurred, and provide public notice of the draft attribution finding. The Director shall publish notice of the draft attribution finding in a newspaper of general circulation in each county containing the mandatory Federal Class I area and the affected source. The Director shall provide at least 30 days from the date of the notice for public comment. Written comments to the Director shall include the name of the person and the person's agent or attorney, if any, and shall clearly set forth reasons why the Director should review the draft attribution finding. The Director shall issue a final attribution finding after the public comment period. If the Director finds existing stationary sources cause or contribute to visibility impairment in a mandatory Federal Class I area, the source shall be subject to a BART Control Analysis under R18-2-1605.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1605" level="4" title="BART Control Analysis; Finding">

BART Control Analysis; Finding

A. The Director shall analyze for BART controls each existing stationary source for which a final attribution finding is made under R18-2-1604(C). The Director shall consider the following factors:

1. Available control technology;

2. New source performance standards (NSPS) in Article 9;

3. Alternative control systems if retrofitting to comply with applicable NSPS standards in Article 9 is infeasible;

4. Cost of compliance;

5. Energy and non-air quality environmental impacts of compliance;

6. Existing pollution control technology in use at the source or small group of sources;

7. Remaining useful life of the source or small group of sources;

8. Net environmental impact associated with the proposed emission control system;

9. Economic impacts associated with installing and operating the proposed emission control system; and

10. Degree of improvement in visibility anticipated to result from application of the proposed emission control system.

B. The Director shall issue a draft BART finding, and provide public notice of the draft BART finding. The Director shall publish notice of the draft BART finding in a newspaper of general circulation in each county containing the mandatory Federal Class I area and the affected source. The Director shall provide at least 30 days from the date of the notice for public comment. Written comments to the Director shall include the name of the person and the person's agent or attorney, and shall clearly set forth reasons why the Director should review the draft BART finding. The Director shall issue a final BART finding after the public comment period.

1. The Director shall submit each final BART finding to the Administrator as a revision to the SIP.

2. The Director shall require that each existing stationary source meet BART as expeditiously as practicable but in no case later than five years after EPA approval of the SIP revision.

C. If the Director determines that technological or economic limitations on the applicability of measurement methodology to a particular existing stationary source would make the imposition of an emission standard infeasible, the Director may, as part of the finding under subsection (B), prescribe a design, equipment, work practice, operational standard, or combination of design, equipment, work practice, or operational standard. The standard, to the degree possible, shall set forth the emission reduction to be achieved by implementation of the design, equipment, work practice, or operation, and shall provide for compliance by means that achieve equivalent results.

D. The Director shall make a finding that the attributable source satisfies the BART requirement if the attributable source:

1. Voluntarily applies best available retrofit technology;

2. Previously applied emission control standards equivalent to BART; or

3. Agrees to shutdown or curtail operations at the attributable source within five years of the finding. An attributable source that does not shutdown or curtail operations shall meet BART as expeditiously as practicable, but in no case later than five years after EPA's approval of the revision to the SIP.

E. If the Director determines that the imposition of BART or a standard under subsection (C) is infeasible at the time of the finding, the Director shall require the attributable source to install and operate BART at a later date when the Director determines that BART or equivalent controls are feasible.

F. The Director shall provide for a BART control analysis of any existing stationary source that might cause or contribute to impairment of visibility in any mandatory Federal Class I area identified under this Article at such time as the Administrator determines new control technology for the pollutant becomes reasonably available:

1. The pollutant is emitted by that existing stationary source,

2. Controls representing BART for the pollutant have not previously been required under this Article, and

3. The impairment of visibility in any mandatory Federal Class I area is reasonably attributable to the emissions of that pollutant.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="R18.2.1606" level="4" title="Exemption from BART"> <dwc name="barium" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="8"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="benzen" times="1">

Exemption from BART

Any existing stationary source required to install, operate, and maintain BART under this Article, may apply to the Administrator for an exemption from that requirement according to 40 CFR 51.303. The existing stationary source shall obtain the Director's written concurrence before sending the application for exemption to the Administrator.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 4541, effective December 2, 2003 (Supp. 03-4).

APPENDIX 1. STANDARD PERMIT APPLICATION FORM AND FILING INSTRUCTIONS

FILING INSTRUCTIONS

No application shall be considered complete until the Director has determined that all information required by this application form and the applicable statutes and regulations has been submitted. The Director may waive certain application requirements for specific source types, pursuant to R18-2-304(B). For permit revisions, the applicant need only supply information which directly pertains to the revision. The Director shall develop special guidance documents and forms to assist certain sources requiring Class 2 permits in completing the application form and filing instructions. Guidance documents can be requested by contacting the Office of Air Quality at the address and phone number given on the "Standard Permit Application Form."

In addition to the information required on the application form, the applicant shall supply the following:

1. Description of the process to be carried out in each unit (include Source Classification Code, if known).

2. Description of product(s).

3. Description of alternate operating scenario, if desired by applicant (include Source Classification Code).

4. Description of alternate operating scenario product(s), if applicable.

5. A flow diagram for all processes.

6. A material balance for all processes (optional, only if emission calculations are based on a material balance).

7. Emissions Related Information:

a. The source shall be required to submit the potential emissions of regulated air pollutants as defined in R18-2-101 for all emission sources. Emissions shall be expressed in pounds per hour, tons per year, and such other terms as may be requested. Emissions shall be submitted using the standard "Emission Sources" portion of the "Standard Permit Application Form." Emissions information shall include fugitive emissions in the same manner as stack emissions, regardless of whether the source category in question is included in the list of sources contained in the definition of major source in R18-2-101.

b. The source shall be required to identify and describe all points of emissions and to submit additional information related to the emissions of regulated air pollutants sufficient to verify which requirements are applicable to the source and sufficient to determine any fees under this Chapter.

8. Citation and description of all applicable requirements as defined in R18-2-101 including voluntarily accepted limits pursuant to R18-2-306.01.

9. An explanation of any proposed exemptions from otherwise applicable requirements.

10. The following information to the extent it is needed to determine or regulate emissions or to comply with the requirements of R18-2-306.01:

a. Maximum annual process rate for each piece of equipment which generates air emissions.

b. Maximum annual process rate for the whole plant.

c. Maximum rated hourly process rate for each piece of equipment which generates air emissions.

d. Maximum rated hourly process rate for the whole plant.

e. For all fuel burning equipment including generators, a description of fuel use, including the type used, the quantity used per year, the maximum and average quantity used per hour, the percent used for process heat, and higher heating value of the fuel. For solid fuels and fuel oils, state the potential sulfur and ash content.

f. A description of all raw materials used and the maximum annual and hourly, monthly, or quarterly quantities of each material used.

g. Anticipated Operating Schedules

i. Percent of annual production by season.

ii. Days of the week normally in operation.

iii. Shifts or hours of the day normally in operation.

iv. Number of days per year in operation.

h. Limitations on source operations and any work practice standards affecting emissions.

11. A description of all process and control equipment for which permits are required including:

a. Name.

b. Make (if available).

c. Model (if available).

d. Serial number (if available).

e. Date of manufacture (if available).

f. Size/production capacity.

g. Type.

12. Stack Information:

a. Identification.

b. Description.

c. Building Dimensions.

d. Exit Gas Temperature.

e. Exit Gas Velocity.

f. Height.

g. Inside Dimensions.

13. Site diagram which includes:

a. Property boundaries.

b. Adjacent streets or roads.

c. Directional arrow.

d. Elevation.

e. Closest distance between equipment and property boundary.

f. Equipment layout.

g. Relative location of emission sources/points.

h. Location of emission points and non-point emission areas.

i. Location of air pollution control equipment.

14. Air Pollution Control Information:

a. Description of or reference to any applicable test method for determining compliance with each applicable requirement.

b. Identification, description and location of air pollution control equipment, including spray nozzles and hoods, and compliance monitoring devices or activities.

c. The rated and operating efficiency of air pollution control equipment.

d. Data necessary to establish required efficiency for air pollution control equipment (e.g. air to cloth ratio for baghouses, pressure drop for scrubbers, and warranty information).

e. Evidence that operation of the new or modified pollution control equipment will not violate any ambient air quality standards, or maximum allowable increases under R18-2-218.

15. Equipment manufacturer's bulletins or shop drawings are acceptable for the purposes of supplying the information required by any item in numbers 11, 12 or 14 of this Appendix.

16. Compliance Plan:

a. A description of the compliance status of the source with respect to all applicable requirements including, but not limited to:

i. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in Article 6.

ii. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in Article 7.

iii. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in Article 8.

iv. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in Article 9.

v. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in Article 11 and in rules promulgated pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.03.

vi. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with the applicable requirements contained in rules promulgated pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-426.06.

vii. A demonstration that the source or modification will comply with any voluntarily accepted limitations pursuant to R18-2-306.01.

b. A compliance schedule as follows:

i. For applicable requirements with which the source is in compliance, a statement that the source will continue to comply with such requirements

ii. For applicable requirements that will become effective during the permit term, a statement that the source will meet such requirements on a timely basis. A statement that the source will meet in a timely manner applicable requirements that become effective during the permit term shall satisfy this provision, unless a more detailed schedule is expressly required by the applicable requirement.

iii. A schedule of compliance for sources that are not in compliance with all applicable requirements at the time of permit issuance. Such a schedule shall include a schedule of remedial measures, including an enforceable sequence of actions with milestones, leading to compliance with any applicable requirements for which the source will be in noncompliance at the time of permit issuance. This compliance schedule shall resemble and be at least as stringent as that contained in any judicial consent decree or administrative order to which the source is subject. Any such schedule of compliance shall be supplemental to, and shall not sanction noncompliance with, the applicable requirements on which it is based.

c. A schedule for submission of certified progress reports no less frequently than every six months for sources required to have a schedule of compliance to remedy a violation.

d. The compliance plan content requirements specified in this subsection shall apply and be included in the acid rain portion of a compliance plan for an affected source, except as specifically superseded by regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Act and incorporated pursuant to R18-2-333 with regard to the schedule and method(s) the source will use to achieve compliance with the acid rain emissions limitations.

17. Compliance Certification: A certification of compliance with all applicable requirements including voluntarily accepted limitations pursuant to R18-2-306.01 by a responsible official consistent with R18-2-309(A)(5). The certification shall include:

a. Identification of the applicable requirements which are the basis of the certification;

b. A statement of methods used for determining compliance, including a description of monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements and test methods;

c. A schedule for submission of compliance certifications during the permit term to be submitted no less frequently than annually, or more frequently if specified by the underlying applicable requirement or by the permitting authority; and

d. A statement indicating the source's compliance status with any applicable enhanced monitoring and compliance certification requirements.

e. A certification of truth, accuracy, and completeness pursuant to R18-2-304(H).

18. Acid Rain Program Compliance Plan: Sources subject to the Federal acid rain regulations shall use nationally-standardized forms for acid rain portions of permit applications and compliance plans, as required by regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Act and incorporated pursuant to R18-2-333.

19. A new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification shall submit all information required in this Appendix and information necessary to show compliance with Article 4 including, but not limited to:

a. For sources located in a Non-Attainment Area:

i. In the case of a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification subject to an emission limitation which is LAER (Lowest Achievable Emission Rate) for that source or facility, the application shall contain a determination of LAER that is consistent with the requirements of the definition of LAER contained in R18-2-401. The demonstration shall contain the data and information relied upon by the applicant in determining the emission limitation that is LAER for the source or facility for which a permit is sought.

ii. In the case of a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification subject to the demonstration requirement of R18-2-403(A)(2), the applicant shall submit such demonstration in a form that lists and describes all existing major sources owned or operated by the applicant and a statement of compliance with all conditions contained in the permits or conditional orders of each of the sources.

iii. In the case of a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification subject to the offset requirements described in R18-2-403(A)(3), the applicant shall demonstrate the manner in which the new major source or major modification meets the requirements of R18-2-404.

iv. An applicant for a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or a major modification for volatile organic compounds or carbon monoxide (or both) which will be located in a nonattainment area for photochemical oxidants or carbon monoxide (or both) shall submit the analysis described in R18-2-403(B).

b. For sources located in an Attainment Area:

i. A demonstration of the manner in which a new major source or major modification which will be located in an attainment area for a pollutant for which the source is classified as a major source as defined in R18-2-401 or the modification is classified as a major modification will meet the requirements of R18-2-406.

ii. In the case of a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or major modification subject to an emission limitation which is BACT (Best Available Control Technology) for that source or facility, the application shall contain a determination of BACT that is consistent with the requirements of the definition of BACT contained in R18-2-101. The demonstration shall contain the data and information relied upon by the applicant in determining the emission limitation that is BACT for the source or facility for which a permit is sought.

iii. In the case of a new major source as defined in R18-2-401 or major modification required to perform and submit an air impact analysis in the form prescribed in R18-2-407, such an analysis shall meet the requirements of R18-2-406. Unless otherwise exempted in writing by the Director, the air impact analysis shall include all of the information and data specified in R18-2-407.

iv. If an applicant seeks an exemption from any or all of the requirements of R18-2-406, the applicant shall provide sufficient information and data in the application to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of the subsection(s) under which an exemption is sought.

20. Calculations on which all information requested in this Appendix is based.

STANDARD PERMIT APPLICATION FORM

(As required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-426, and A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 2, Article 3)

ARIZONA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

OFFICE OF AIR QUALITY

P.O. Box 600 &#8226; Phoenix, AZ 85001-0600 &#8226; Phone: (602) 207-2338

<table> 1. Permit to be issued to: (Business license name of organization that is to receive permit) 2. Mailing Address: City: State: ZIP: 3. Plant Name (if different item #1 above): 4. Name (or names) of Owner or Operator: Phone: 5. Name of Owner's Agent: Phone: 6. Plant/Site Manager or Contact Person: Phone: 7. Proposed Equipment/Plant Location Address: City: County: ZIP: Indian Reservation (if applicable): Section/Township/Range, Latitude/Longitude, Elevation: 8. General Nature of Business: Standard Industrial Classification Code: 9. Type of Organization: <img src="18-02-7.gif"/> Individual Owner <img src="18-02-9.gif"/> Government Entity (Government Facility Code: ) <img src="18-02-11.gif"/> 10. Permit Application Basis: <img src="18-02-12.gif"/> Revision <img src="18-02-14.gif"/> <img src="18-02-15.gif"/> General Permit (Check all that apply.) For renewal or modification, include existing permit number: Date of Commencement of Construction or Modification: Is any of the equipment to be leased to another individual or entity? <img src="18-02-17.gif"/> No 11. Signature of Responsible Official of Organization: Official Title of Signer: 12. Typed or Printed Name of Signer: Date: Telephone Number: </table>

PAGE 1 OF 2

ADEQ/OAQ/100B

<img src="18-02-19.gif"/>Historical Note

Former Appendix 1 repealed, new Appendix 1 adopted effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended effective September 22, 1983 (Supp. 83-5). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Appendix 1 repealed, new Appendix 1 adopted effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). Amended effective October 7, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective August 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-3). The reference to R18-2-101(80) amended to reference R18-2-101(84) (Supp. 99-3).

APPENDIX 2. TEST METHODS AND PROTOCOLS

The following test methods and protocols are approved for use as directed by the Department under this Chapter. These standards are incorporated by reference revised as of July 1, 2003, and no future editions or amendments. These standards are on file with the Department, and items 1-10 are also available from the U.S. Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, Mail Stop SSOP, Washington, D.C. 20402-9328.

1. 40 CFR 50;

2. 40 CFR 50, Appendices A through K;

3. 40 CFR Part 51, Appendix M, Appendix S, Section IV, and Appendix W;

4. 40 CFR 52, Appendices D and E;

5. 40 CFR 58;

6. 40 CFR 58, all appendices;

7. 40 CFR Part 60, all appendices;

8. 40 CFR Part 61, all appendices;

9. 40 CFR Part 63, all appendices;

10. 40 CFR Part 75, all appendices.

Historical Note

Former Appendix 2 repealed, new Appendix 2 adopted effective October 2, 1979 (Supp. 79-5). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Repealed effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). New Appendix 2 adopted effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective May 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective April 4, 1997; filed with the Office of the Secretary of State March 14, 1997 (Supp. 97-1). Amended effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3221, effective August 12, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 4170, effective October 11, 2000 (Supp. 00-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2543, effective May 24, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 3281, effective September 27, 2004 (Supp. 04-3).

APPENDIX 3. LOGGING

1. Each log entry required by a change under R18-2-317.02(B) shall include at least the following information:

a. A description of the change, including:

i. A description of any process change.

ii. A description of any equipment change, including both old and new equipment descriptions, model numbers and serial numbers, or any other unique equipment number.

iii. A description of any process material change.

b. The date and time that the change occurred.

c. The provision of R18-2-317.02(B) that authorizes the change to be made with logging.

d. The date the entry was made and the first and last name of the person making the entry.

2. Logs shall be kept for five years from the date created. Logging shall be performed in indelible ink in a bound log book with sequentially numbered pages, or in any other form, including electronic format, approved by the Director.

Historical Note

Appendix 3 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4074, effective September 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

APPENDIX 4. RESERVED

APPENDIX 5. REPEALED

Historical Note

Appendix 5 repealed effective November 15, 1993

(Supp. 93-4).

APPENDIX 6. REPEALED

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 7, 1975 (Supp. 75-1). Former Appendix 6 repealed, new Appendix 6 adopted effective July 7, 1978 (Supp. 78-4). Former Appendix 6 repealed effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1).

APPENDIX 7. REPEALED

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Former Appendix 7 repealed, new Appendix 7 adopted effective January 8, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Editorial correction, Instructions for Schedule 2, paragraph (15) (Supp. 80-2). Repealed effective September 26, 1990

(Supp. 90-3).

A8. APPENDIX 8

PROCEDURES FOR UTILIZING THE SULFUR BALANCE METHOD FOR DETERMINING SULFUR EMISSIONS

A8.1. Calculating Input Sulfur

Total sulfur input is the sum of the product of the weight of each sulfur bearing material introduced into the smelting process as calculated in A8.1.1. below multiplied by the fraction of sulfur contained in that material as calculated in A8.1.2. below plus the amount of sulfur contained in fuel utilized in the smelting process as calculated in A8.1.3. below.

A8.1.1. Material Weight

All sulfur bearing materials, other than fuels, introduced into the smelting process shall be weighed. Such weighing shall be subject to the following conditions:

A8.1.1.1. Weight shall be determined on a belt scale, rail or truck scales, or other weighing device.

A8.1.1.2. Weight shall be determined within an accuracy of &#177;5%.

A8.1.1.3. All devices or scales used for weighing are to be calibrated to manufacturer's specifications but no less than once a month.

A8.1.1.4. Sulfur bearing materials subject to being weighed shall include but not be limited to concentrate, cement copper, reverts which are discarded and not part of the internal circulating load and precipitates. Materials such as limestone and silica flux which are mixed with a charge of sulfur bearing materials shall be weighed and reported.

A8.1.2. Sulfur Content

The sulfur content of all sulfur bearing materials introduced into the smelting process shall be calculated using the following steps or an equivalent method approved by the Director.

A8.1.2.1. Sampling

The procedure to be followed in sampling is dependent upon the input vehicles for the sulfur bearing material.

A8.1.2.1.1. Beltfeed

The smelter operator shall collect a five-pound sample each hour. Hourly samples shall be combined for a total daily sample.

A8.1.2.1.2. Railcar

The smelter operator shall collect a 24-pound sample from each car by the auger method at a minimum of four points. Each car sample shall be combined with all other car samples for a total lot sample.

A8.1.2.1.3. Truck

The smelter operator shall collect a 12-pound sample from each truck load. Samples are to be taken at two points during unloading. Where more than one truck delivers a single lot, the samples from each truck shall be combined for a total lot sample.

A8.1.2.2. Sample Preparation

Each total sample shall be prepared for analysis in the following manner:

A8.1.2.2.1. The sample shall be crushed to minus inch particles.

A8.1.2.2.2. 2000 gm of the sample shall be split out using a Jones Riffle Splitter or similar device.

A8.1.2.2.3. The 2000 gm sample shall be pulverized to minus 150 mesh.

A8.1.2.2.4. The pulverized mass shall be mixed using a rolling cloth.

A8.1.2.2.5. 500 gm shall be split out for sample analysis.

A8.1.2.3. Sample Analysis

A8.1.2.3.1. The sample shall be analyzed to determine sulfur content using the Barium Sulfate (BaSO

4

) Gravimetric Method. Such analysis shall be accurate to within &#177;1%.

A8.1.2.3.2. For purpose of comparison the sample shall be analyzed for copper content using the Potassium Iodine (KI) Titration Method. Such analysis shall be accurate to within &#177;1%.

A8.1.3. Fuel Sulfur Content

Sulfur in fuels shall be calculated by multiplying the amount of fuel delivered to the process by the fraction of sulfur in the fuel as reported to the smelter operator by the fuel's supplier. The sulfur content determination shall be accurate to within &#177;5%.

A8.2. Calculating Removed Sulfur

Total removed sulfur is the sum of the sulfur removed in each of the following products as determined by each process set forth below or by other processes approved by the Director.

A8.2.1. Reverberatory and Convertor Slags

A8.2.1.1. The weight of the slag shall be determined using a scale with an accuracy within &#177;5%.

A8.2.1.2. A five-pound sample shall be collected from each slag pot during tapping operations.

A8.2.1.3. The sample shall be prepared and the amount of sulfur and copper analyzed using the procedures specified in A8.1.2.2. and A8.1.2.3. above.

A8.2.2. Cottrell, Scrubber, and Cyclone Dusts

A8.2.2.1. After the dust is collected and placed in a rail car or truck it shall be weighed using a scale with an accuracy within &#177; 5%.

A8.2.2.2. The dust shall be sampled, and a sample prepared and analyzed for sulfur and copper using the procedures specified in A8.1.2.1., A8.1.2.2., and A8.1.2.3. above.

A8.2.3. Strong Acids

A8.2.3.1. An inventory of strong acids shall be taken daily by means of a manometer or sight glass. The inventory shall be increased by the amounts of acid shipped or otherwise transferred during that day.

A8.2.3.2. The daily inventory will be accurate to within &#177; 5%.

A8.2.3.3. A sample of each batch of the acid inventoried shall be taken and analyzed for sulfur in accordance with the procedures in A8.1.2.3. above.

A8.2.4. Weak Acids

A8.2.4.1. The amount of weak acid discharged from an acid plant and scrubber systems is to be determined by a time volumetric method of measurement in gallons/minute and to an accuracy of within &#177;20%.

A8.2.4.2. A 500 ml sample of the weak acid shall be analyzed daily for sulfur content in accordance with the procedures in A8.1.2.3.

A8.2.5. Sulfur in Copper Production

A8.2.5.1. The weight of copper produced is to be determined by weight of copper cast to an accuracy of within &#177;5%.

A8.2.5.2. The weight and number of castings shall be recorded.

A8.2.5.3. A sample of the copper is to be obtained either by the grab sample method while casting, or by the use of at least three drill holes on a representative casting from each charge.

A8.2.5.4. At least one sample must be obtained from each charge.

A8.2.5.5. Each sample is to be analyzed for sulfur content using the chemical gravimetric means of analysis to an accuracy of within +50%.

A8.2.6. Materials in Process

A8.2.6.1. Total tonnage of materials in process shall be determined by physical inventory on the first or last day of each month.

A8.2.6.2. A monthly change in in-process inventory shall be calculated for each material in process by taking the difference between the inventory from each material in process on the first or last day of the preceding month and multiplying that difference by the monthly composite sulfur assay for that material.

A8.2.6.3. The change in monthly in-process inventory must be accurate to within &#177;50%.

A8.3. Sulfur Dioxide Emissions Monitoring

A8.3.1. The sulfur dioxide emissions monitoring and recording system required under R18-2-715(C)(4) shall meet the following specifications:

A8.3.1.1. It shall be capable of continuously monitoring sulfur dioxide emissions with an accuracy of within &#177;20% and a confidence level of 95%.

A8.3.1.2. Sulfur dioxide emission monitoring and recording equipment shall be operated and calibrated in accordance with manufacturer's specifications for the equipment except that calibration must be done at least once every 24 hours.

A8.3.2. The sulfur removal equipment bypass monitoring required under R18-2-715(C)(7)(v) shall consist of a detector and recorder system capable of producing a permanent record of all periods in which a bypass has been operated.

A8.4. General Provisions

A8.4.1. For purposes of this Appendix, an approved equivalent process or procedure must be approved in writing by the Director prior to its use by a smelter operator.

A8.4.2. The processes and procedures specified in this Appendix shall be available for inspection, review and verification by the Department at all reasonable times.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 22, 1976 (Supp. 76-5). Correction, Appendix 8, A8-2-1.1 (Supp. 77-2). Amended effective May 28, 1982 (Supp. 82-3). Amended effective November 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-4).

A9. APPENDIX 9

MONITORING REQUIREMENTS

A9.1. Unless otherwise approved by the Director or specified in applicable Sections, the requirements of this Appendix shall apply to all continuous monitoring systems required under applicable Sections.

A9.2. All continuous monitoring systems and monitoring devices shall be installed and operational prior to conducting performance tests under rule R18-2-312. Verification of operational status shall, as a minimum, consist of the following:

A9.2.1. For continuous monitoring systems referenced in A9.3.1. below, completion of the conditioning period specified by applicable requirements in the Arizona Testing Manual and 40 CFR 60.

A9.2.2. For continuous monitoring systems referenced in A9.3.2. below, completion of seven days of operation.

A9.2.3. For monitoring devices referenced in other applicable Sections, completions of the manufacturer's written requirements or recommendations for checking the operation or calibration of the device.

A9.3. During any performance tests required under rule R18-2-312 or within 30 days thereafter and at such other times as may be required by the Director, the owner or operator of any affected facility shall conduct continuous monitoring system performance evaluations and furnish the Director within 60 days thereof, 2, or upon request, more copies of a written report of the results of such tests. The continuous monitoring system performance evaluations shall be conducted in accordance with the following specifications and procedures:

A9.3.1. Continuous monitoring systems listed within this subsection, except as provided in A9.3.2. below shall be evaluated in accordance with the requirements and procedures contained in the applicable performance specification of the Arizona Testing Manual and 40 CFR 60.

A9.3.1.1. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring opacity of emissions shall comply with Performance Specification 1.

A9.3.1.2. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring nitrogen oxides emissions shall comply with Performance Specification 2.

A9.3.1.3. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring sulfur dioxide emissions shall comply with Performance Specification 2.

A9.3.1.4. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring the oxygen content or carbon dioxide content of effluent gases shall comply with Performance Specification 3.

A9.3.2. An owner or operator who, prior to September 11, 1974, entered into a binding contractual obligation to purchase specific continuous monitoring system components except as referenced by A9.3.2.3. below shall comply with the following requirements:

A9.3.2.1. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring opacity of emissions shall be capable of measuring emission levels within &#177; 20%. The Calibration Error Test and associated calculation procedures set forth in Performance Specification 1 of 40 CFR 60, Appendix B shall be used for demonstrating compliance with this specification.

A9.3.2.2. Continuous monitoring systems for measurement of nitrogen oxides or sulfur dioxide shall be capable of measuring emission levels within &#177; 20% with a confidence level of 95%. The Calibration Error Test, the Field Test for Accuracy (Relative), and associated operating and calculation procedures set forth in Performance Specification 2 of 40 CFR 60, Appendix B shall be used for demonstrating compliance with this specification.

A9.3.2.3. Owners or operators of all continuous monitoring systems installed on an affected facility prior to October 6, 1975, are not required to conduct tests under A9.3.2.1. and/or A9.3.2.2. above unless requested by the Director.

A9.3.3. All continuous monitoring systems referenced by A9.3.2. above shall be upgraded or replaced (if necessary) with new continuous monitoring systems, and such improved systems shall be demonstrated to comply with applicable performance specifications under A9.3.1. above by September 11, 1979.

A9.4. Owners or operators of all continuous monitoring systems installed in accordance with the provisions of these rules shall check the zero and span drift at least once daily in accordance with the method prescribed by the manufacturer of such systems unless the manufacturer recommends adjustments at shorter intervals, in which case such recommendations shall be followed. The zero and span shall, as a minimum, be adjusted whenever the 24-hour zero drift or 24-hour calibration drift limits of the applicable performance specifications in 40 CFR 60, Appendix B are exceeded. For continuous monitoring systems measuring opacity of emissions, the optical surfaces exposed to the effluent gases shall be cleaned prior to performing the zero or span drift adjustments except that for systems using automatic zero adjustments, the optical surfaces shall be cleaned when the cumulative automatic zero compensation exceeds 4% opacity. Unless otherwise approved by the Director, the following procedures, as applicable, shall be followed:

A9.4.1. For extractive continuous monitoring systems measuring gases, minimum procedures shall include introducing applicable zero and span gas mixtures into the measurement system as near the probe as practical. Span and zero gases certified by their manufacturer to be traceable to the National Bureau of Standards reference gases will be used whenever these reference gases are available. The span and zero gas mixtures shall be the same composition as specified in the 40 CFR 60, Appendix B. Every six months from date of manufacture, span and zero gases shall be re-analyzed by conducting triplicate analyses with Reference Methods 6 for SO

2

, 7 for NOx and 3 for O

2

and CO

2

, respectively. The gases may be analyzed at less frequent intervals if longer shelf lives are guaranteed by the manufacturer.

A9.4.2. For nonextractive continuous monitoring systems measuring gases, minimum procedures shall include upscale check(s) using a certified calibration gas cell or test cell which is functionally equivalent to a known gas concentration. The zero check may be performed by computing the zero value from upscale measurements or by mechanically producing a zero condition.

A9.4.3. For continuous monitoring systems measuring opacity of emissions, minimum procedures shall include a method for producing a simulated zero opacity condition and an upscale (span) opacity condition using a certified neutral density filter or other related technique to produce a known obscuration of the light beam. Such procedures shall provide a system check of the analyzer internal optical surfaces and all electronic circuitry including the lamp and photodetector assembly.

A9.5. Except for system breakdowns, repairs, calibration checks, and zero and span adjustments required under A9.4. above, all continuous monitoring systems shall be in continuous operation and shall meet minimum frequency of operation requirements as follows:

A9.5.1. All continuous monitoring systems referenced by A9.3.1. and A9.3.2. above for measuring opacity of emissions shall complete a minimum of one cycle of operation (sampling, analyzing, and data recording) for each successive 10-second period.

A9.5.2. All continuous monitoring systems referenced by A9.3.1. above for measuring oxides of nitrogen, sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide, or oxygen shall complete a minimum of one cycle of operation (sampling, analyzing, and data recording) for each successive 15-minute period.

A9.5.3. All continuous monitoring systems referenced by A9.3.2. above, except opacity, shall complete a minimum of one cycle of operation (sampling, analyzing, and data recording) for each successive one-hour period.

A9.6. All continuous monitoring systems for monitoring devices shall be installed such that representative measurements of emissions or process parameters from the affected facility are obtained. Additional procedures for location of continuous monitoring systems contained in the applicable Performance Specifications of 40 CFR 60, Appendix B shall be used.

A9.7. When the effluents from a single affected facility or two or more affected facilities subject to the same emission standards are combined before being released to the atmosphere, the owner or operator may install applicable continuous monitoring systems on each effluent or on the combined effluent. When the affected facilities are not subject to the same emission standards, separate continuous monitoring systems shall be installed on each effluent. When the effluent from one affected facility is released to the atmosphere through more than one point, the owner or operator shall install applicable continuous monitoring systems on each separate effluent unless the installation of fewer systems is approved by the Director.

A9.8. Owners or operators of all continuous monitoring systems for measurement of opacity shall reduce all data to six-minute averages and for systems other than opacity to one-hour averages, respectively. Six minute opacity averages shall be calculated from 24 or more data points equally spaced over each six-minute period. For systems other than opacity, one-hour averages shall be computed from four or more data points equally spaced over each one-hour period. Data recorded during periods of system breakdowns, repairs, calibration checks, and zero and span adjustments shall not be included in the data averages computed under this subsection. An arithmetic or integrated average of all data may be used. The data output of all continuous monitoring systems may be recorded in reduced or nonreduced form (e.g. ppm pollutant and percent O

2

or lb/million Btu of pollutant). All excess emissions shall be converted into units of the standard using the applicable conversion procedures specified in subparts. After conversion into units of the standard, the data may be rounded to the same number of significant digits used in these rules to specify the applicable standard (e.g., rounded to the nearest 1% opacity).

A9.9. Upon written application by an owner or operator, the Director may approve alternatives to any monitoring procedures or requirements of these rules including, but not limited to the following:

A9.9.1. Alternative monitoring requirements when installation of a continuous monitoring system or monitoring device specified by these rules would not provide accurate measurements due to liquid water or other interferences caused by substances with the effluent gases.

A9.9.2. Alternative monitoring requirements when the affected facility is infrequently operated.

A9.9.3. Alternative monitoring requirements to accommodate continuous monitoring systems that require additional measurements to correct for stack moisture conditions.

A9.9.4. Alternative locations for installing continuous monitoring systems or monitoring devices when the owner or operator can demonstrate that installation at alternate locations will enable accurate and representative measurements.

A9.9.5. Alternative methods of converting pollutant concentration measurements to units of the standards.

A9.9.6. Alternative procedures for performing daily checks of zero and span drift that do not involve use of span gases or test cells.

A9.9.7. Alternatives to the ASTM test methods or sampling procedures specified by any subpart.

A9.9.8. Alternative continuous monitoring systems that do not meet the design or performance requirements in Performance Specification 1 in 40 CFR 60, Appendix B but adequately demonstrate a definite and consistent relationship between its measurements and the measurements of opacity by a system complying with the requirements in Performance Specification 1. The Director may require that such demonstration be performed for each affected facility.

A9.9.9. Alternative monitoring requirements when the effluent from a single affected facility or the combined effluent from two or more affected facilities are released to the atmosphere through more than one point.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective September 26, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Amended effective June 15, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

A10. APPENDIX 10

EVALUATION OF AIR QUALITY DATA

A10.1. General Statistical Requirements

A10.1.1. The measurements of air quality shall be corrected to a reference temperature of 298&#176;K (25&#176;C) and to a reference pressure of 101.3 kilopascals (760 millimeters of mercury). For these reference conditions the following conversion factors shall be used:

Carbon monoxide: ppm x 1.145 = mg/m

3

Hydrocarbons: ppm x 656 = ug/m

3

Nitrogen dioxide: ppm x 1882 = ug/m

3

Sulfur dioxide: ppm x 2620 = ug/m

3

mg/m

3

and ug/m

3

are abbreviations for milligrams per cubic meter and micrograms per cubic meter, respectively.

A10.1.2. For purposes of reporting and determining compliance with ambient air quality standards, all ambient air quality data shall be expressed in micrograms per cubic meter, except for carbon monoxide which shall be expressed in milligrams per cubic meter, and for ozone which shall be expressed in parts per million.

A10.1.3. Significant Figures

A10.1.3.1. Continuous Monitoring Instrument Data

Ambient air quality data from continuous monitoring instruments shall be measured, and processed and recorded to the following degrees of precision:

For analog recorders, 1% of full scale

For digital recorders, 0.1% of full scale

A10.1.3.2. Manual Sampling Data

Data from manual samplers shall be reported to the following degrees of precision:

Nitrogen dioxide, 1.0 ug/m

3

Sulfur dioxide, 1.0 ug/m

3

Particulate matter, 1.0 ug/m

3

Benzene soluble organics, 0.1 ug/m

3

Lead, 0.1 ug/m

3

Nitrates, 0.1 ug/m

3

Sulfates, 0.1 ug/m

3

A10.1.3.3. Computational Procedures

All computations shall be made to one more decimal place than shown in A10.1.3.2. above. If the least significant figure is 5 or greater, the computed value shall be rounded up to the required number of decimal places. If the least significant figure is 4 or less, the computed value shall be rounded down to the required number of decimal places.

A10.1.4. Annual mean pollutant concentrations and compliance with the annual ambient air quality standards shall be based on calendar year means only.

A10.2. Statistical Requirements for Manual Sampling Techniques-High Volume Samplers and Gas Bubblers.

A10.2.1. For computing annual means there shall be at least 11 samples per quarter, based on a sampling frequency of at least one sample every six days. The sampling period shall be 24 hours, starting at midnight and ending the following midnight.

A10.2.2. For determining compliance with 24-hour ambient air quality standards, the sampling period shall be 24 hours, starting at midnight and ending on the following midnight.

A10.3. Statistical Requirements for Continuous Monitors

A10.3.1. Hourly averages shall be computed for each discrete clock hour using the data measured for the preceding 60-minute period. All measurements of the analyzer shall be used for computing hourly averages which are the basis for all other averages.

A10.3.2. Determining Compliance with Ambient Air Quality Standards

Any three or 8, consecutive, hourly averages shall be used to determine compliance with the three or eight-hour ambient air quality standards provided the minimum number of observations required in A10.3.4. are available. If a violation of a standard occurs, no hourly averages used to compute that violation shall be used to compute additional violations of the same standard. In other words, the time periods for violations of the same standard cannot overlap. For example, a maximum of two violations of the same three-hour standard could be recorded at the same monitor in any period of six consecutive hours. For determining compliance with 24-hour ambient air quality standards, 24 hourly averages for a calendar day shall be used provided the minimum number of observations required in A10.3.4. are available.

A10.3.3. Determining Maximum Concentrations

For determining maximum three- or eight-hour concentrations for information, planning, and reporting requirements, any three or 8, consecutive, hourly averages may be used provided the minimum number of observations required in A10.3.4. are available. The time period for the maximum concentration may overlap time periods for violations.

A10.3.4. Minimum requirements for statistical validity for averaging times shall be as follows:

Time Interval Minimum Number of Observations

1 hour 45 minutes of measured concentrations

3 hours consecutive valid hourly averages

8 hours 6 valid hourly averages

24 hours 18 valid hourly averages within a calendar

day

Monthly Valid hourly data for at least 75% of the

hours in the month

Quarterly 3 consecutive valid monthly averages

Annual 6,570 hourly averages with at least two

months, each having

75% data recovery, per quarter, and at least nine months, each having 75% data recovery per year. All valid hourly averages shall be used to compute the annual averages.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective July 9, 1980 (Supp. 80-4). Amended effective June 19, 1981 (Supp. 81-3).

A11. APPENDIX 11

ALLOWABLE PARTICULATE EMISSIONS COMPUTATIONS

A11.1. Figure 1, hereto, plots the formulae for determining allowable particulate emissions from fuel burning equipment, based on the heat input to the equipment.

A11.2. Figure 2, hereto, plots the formulae for determining allowable particulate emissions from process industries, based on the process weight rate of the industry.

<img src="18-02-20.gif"/><img src="18-02-21.gif"/>Historical Note

Adopted effective May 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-1). Amended effective September 11, 1983 (Supp. 83-5).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 3" level="2" title="REPEALED</p>">

REPEALED

Supp. 98-2

Editor's Note: Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1011(C), the rules in Title 18, Chapter 3 have been removed from the Arizona Administrative Code, effective July 1, 2000. Laws 2000, Ch. 353 repealed the statutes authorizing the Air Pollution Control Hearing Board (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 4" level="2" title="SAFE DRINKING WATER">

SAFE DRINKING WATER

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="GENERAL REQUIREMENTS">

GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

<regElement name="R18.4.101" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="cryptosporidium" times="1"><dwc name="giardia lamblia" times="2"><dwc name="giardia" times="2"><dwc name="heterotroph plate count" times="1"><dwc name="plate count" times="1"><dwc name="total coliform" times="3"><dwc name="coliform" times="4"><dwc name="turbid" times="7"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="12"><dwc name="chlorin" times="5"><dwc name="chloramin" times="1"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="2"><dwc name="haloacet acid" times="3"><dwc name="haa" times="1"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="5"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="7"><dwc name="tthm" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="lead" times="12"><dwc name="acrylamid" times="1"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="1"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="2"><dwc name="radioact" times="3"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="2"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="photon emitt" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="4"><dwc name="uranium" times="2">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201, in this Chapter, unless otherwise specified:

"Action level" means a concentration of 0.015 mg/L for lead or 1.3 mg/L for copper.

"ADHS" means the Arizona Department of Health Services.

"Air-gap separation" means a physical separation, between the discharge end of a supply pipe and the top rim of its receiving vessel, of at least one inch or twice the diameter of the supply pipe, whichever is greater.

"ANSI/NSF Standard 60" means American National Standards Institute/NSF International Standard 60 - 2000a, Drinking Water Treatment Chemicals - Health Effects, November 2000, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. This material is available from NSF International, 789 North Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, MI 48113-0140, USA; (734) 769-8010; http://www.nsf.org. This incorporation by reference includes no future editions or amendments.

"ANSI/NSF Standard 61" means American National Standards Institute/NSF International Standard 61 - 2000a, Drinking Water System Components - Health Effects, November 2000, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. This material is available from NSF International, 789 North Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, MI 48113-0140, USA; (734) 769-8010; http://www.nsf.org. This incorporation by reference includes no future editions or amendments.

"Backflow" means a reverse flow condition that causes water or mixtures of water and other liquids, gases, or substances to flow back into the distribution system. Backflow can be created by a difference in water pressure (backpressure), a vacuum or partial vacuum (backsiphonage), or a combination of both.

"Backflow-prevention assembly" means a mechanical device used to prevent backflow.

"Baseline sampling" means the routine monitoring of contaminants covered under the monitoring assistance program to determine compliance with the MCLs listed in Article 2 and the monitoring requirements listed in Article 4, not including repeat monitoring necessary for compliance after detection of a contaminant or a MCL violation.

"BAT" means best available technology.

"Best available technology" means a technology, treatment technique, or other means that is identified by EPA, after examination for efficacy under field conditions and not solely under laboratory conditions, as being the best available for removing or reducing the concentration of a contaminant in water, taking costs into consideration.

"CCR" means Consumer Confidence Report.

"Certified operator" has the meaning prescribed by R18-5-101.

"Coagulation" means a treatment process that uses coagulant chemicals and mixing to destabilize and agglomerate colloidal and suspended materials into flocs.

"Community water system" means a public water system that serves 15 or more service connections used by year-round residents or that serves 25 or more year-round residents.

"Compliance cycle" means a nine-calendar-year time-frame during which a public water system is required to monitor. Each compliance cycle consists of three three-year compliance periods. The first compliance cycle began January 1, 1993, and ends December 31, 2001. The second compliance cycle begins January 1, 2002, and ends December 31, 2010. The third compliance cycle begins January 1, 2011, and ends December 31, 2019.

"Compliance period" means a three-calendar-year time-frame within a compliance cycle. Within the first compliance cycle, the first compliance period began January 1, 1993, and ended December 31, 1995. The second compliance period began January 1, 1996, and ended December 31, 1998. The third compliance period began January 1, 1999, and ends December 31, 2001.

"Comprehensive performance evaluation" means a thorough review and analysis of a water treatment plant's performance-based capabilities and associated administrative, operation and maintenance practices. A comprehensive performance evaluation consists of at least the following components: assessment of water treatment plant performance, evaluation of major unit processes, identification and prioritization of performance limiting factors, assessment of the applicability of comprehensive technical assistance, and preparation of a comprehensive performance evaluation report.

"Consecutive public water system" means a public water system that obtains all of its water from another public water system that is regulated by the Department.

"Contaminant" means any physical, chemical, biological, or radiological substance in water.

"Contractor" means a private party or statewide nonprofit organization representing a water system, with which the Department contracts to implement the monitoring assistance program under A.R.S. &#167; 49-360(B).

"Conventional filtration" means a series of treatment processes, including coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration that result in substantial particulate removal.

"Corrosion inhibitor" means a substance that reduces corrosion of metal plumbing materials, especially lead and copper, by forming a protective film on the interior surface of those materials.

"Cross connection" means a physical connection between a public water system and any source of water or other substance that may lead to contamination of the water provided by the public water system through backflow.

"CWS" means community water system.

"Detected" means measured in a laboratory at a concentration that is at or above the method detection limit.

"Diatomaceous earth filtration" means a treatment process that results in substantial particulate removal in which a precoat cake of diatomaceous earth filter media is deposited on a support membrane (septum) and, while the water is filtered through the precoat cake on the septum, additional filter media (body feed) is continuously added to the feed water to maintain the permeability of the precoat cake.

"Direct filtration" means a series of treatment processes, including coagulation and filtration but excluding sedimentation, that result in substantial particulate removal.

"Disinfectant" means an oxidant, including chlorine, chlorine dioxide, chloramines, ozone, or an equivalent agent or process such as ultraviolet light, that kills or inactivates pathogenic organisms.

"Disinfection" means a treatment process that kills or inactivates pathogenic organisms in water by oxidants, ultraviolet light, or equivalent agents.

"Distribution system" means a pipeline, appurtenance, device, and facility of a public water system that conducts water from a source or water treatment plant to persons served by the system.

"Domestic or other non-distribution system plumbing problem" means a total coliform contamination problem in a public water system with more than one service connection that is limited to a specific service connection from which a total coliform-positive sample is taken.

"Dose equivalent" means the product of an absorbed dose from ionizing radiation and factors that account for differences in biological effectiveness due to the type of radiation and its distribution in the body as specified by the International Commission on Radiological Units and Measurements.

"Double check valve assembly" means a backflow-prevention assembly that contains two independently acting check valves with tightly closing, resilient-seated shut-off valves on each end of the assembly and properly located, resilient-seated test cocks.

"Elementary business plan" means a document containing all items, required to be submitted for evaluation, necessary for a complete review for technical, managerial, and financial capacity of a new public water system under Article 6.

"Enhanced coagulation" means the addition of sufficient coagulant for improved removal of disinfection byproduct precursors by conventional filtration treatment.

"Enhanced softening" means the improved removal of disinfection byproduct precursors by precipitative softening.

"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

"Exclusion" means a waiver granted by the Department under R18-4-112 from a requirement of this Chapter that is not a requirement contained in 40 CFR 141, the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations.

"Exemption" means a temporary deviation from a MCL or treatment technique required in this Chapter that is granted by the Department under R18-4-111.

"Existing public water system" means a public water system, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-352(B)(1), issued a public water system identification number by the Department before October 1, 1999.

"Filter profile" means a graphical representation of individual filter performance, based on continuous turbidity measurements or total particle counts versus time for an entire filter run, from startup to backwash inclusively, that includes an assessment of filter performance while another filter is being backwashed.

"Filtration" means a treatment process for removing particulate matter from water by passage through porous media.

"Financial capacity" means the ability of a public water system to acquire and manage sufficient financial resources for the system to achieve and maintain compliance with the federal Safe Drinking Water Act.

"First-draw sample" means a one-liter sample of tap water, collected in accordance with R18-4-310(D).

"Flocculation" means a treatment process to enhance agglomeration or collection of smaller floc particles into larger and more easily settleable particles through gentle stirring by hydraulic or mechanical means.

"GAC" means granular activated carbon.

"GAC10" means granular activated carbon filter beds with an empty-bed contact time of 10 minutes based on average daily flow and a carbon reactivation frequency of every 180 days.

"GC" means gas chromatography.

"GC/MS" means gas chromatography-mass spectrometry.

"Gross alpha particle activity" means the total radioactivity due to alpha particle emission as inferred from measurements on a dry sample.

"Gross beta particle activity" means the total radioactivity due to beta particle emission as inferred from measurements on a dry sample.

"Groundwater system" means a public water system that is supplied solely by groundwater that is not under the direct influence of surface water.

"Groundwater under the direct influence of surface water" means any water beneath the surface of the ground with:

A significant occurrence of insects or other macroorganisms, algae, large diameter pathogens such as Giardia lamblia, or total coliform; or

Significant and relatively rapid shifts in water characteristics such as turbidity, temperature, conductivity, or pH that closely correlate to climatological or surface water conditions.

"HAA5" means haloacetic acids (five).

"Haloacetic acids (five)" means the sum of the concentrations in milligrams per liter of the haloacetic acid compounds (monochloroacetic acid, dichloroacetic acid, trichloroacetic acid, monobromoacetic acid, and dibromoacetic acid), rounded to two significant figures after addition.

"Halogenated" means treated or mixed with chlorine, bromine, or iodine.

"HPC" means heterotrophic plate count.

"Initial compliance period" means the first full three-year compliance period in a compliance cycle that a public water system conducts initial monitoring.

"Initial monitoring year" means the calendar year designated by the Department within a compliance period in which a public water system conducts initial monitoring at a sampling point.

"Large water system," for R18-4-306 through R18-4-316 only, means a public water system that serves more than 50,000 persons.

"Lead-free" means that the pipe, solder, or flux used in the installation or repair of a public water system, or in a residential or non-residential facility that provides water for human consumption and is connected to the public water system, meets the following criteria:

All solders and flux contain not more than 0.2% lead.

All pipes and pipe fittings contain not more than 8.0% lead.

When used with respect to plumbing fittings and fixtures intended by the manufacturer to dispense water for human ingestion, "lead-free" means fittings and fixtures that are in compliance with ANSI/NSF Standard 61, Section 9.

"Lead service line" means a service line made of lead that connects a water main to a building inlet and any lead pigtail, gooseneck, or fitting that is connected to the service line.

"Log" means the percentage removal or inactivation of Cryptosporidium oocysts, Giardia lamblia cysts, or viruses as follows:

"One-log" is 90%.

"Two-log" is 99%.

"Three-log" is 99.9%.

"Four-log" is 99.99%.

"Major stockholder" means a person who has 20% or more ownership interest in a public water system.

"Man-made beta particle and photon emitters" means all radionuclides emitting beta particles or photons, except the daughter products of Thorium-232, Uranium-235, and Uranium-238, listed in "Maximum Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum Permissible Concentrations of Radionuclides in Air and in Water for Occupational Exposure," Handbook 69, U.S. Department of Commerce, National Bureau of Standards, amended as of August 1963 (and no future editions or amendments), incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department. Copies of Handbook 69 are also available from the Library of Congress, 101 Independence Avenue, S.E., Washington D.C., 20540, by telephoning (202) 707-5640.

"Managerial capacity" means the ability of a public water system to conduct its affairs in a manner that will meet and maintain compliance with the requirements of the federal Safe Drinking Water Act.

"Maximum contaminant level" means the maximum permissible level for a contaminant in drinking water that is delivered to any person who is served by a public water system.

"Maximum residual disinfectant level" means a level of a disinfectant added for water treatment that may not be exceeded at the consumer's tap without an unacceptable possibility of adverse health effects.

"Maximum total trihalomethane potential" means the maximum concentration of total trihalomethanes produced in water containing a disinfectant residual after seven days at a temperature of 25&#176; C or above.

"MCL" means maximum contaminant level.

"MFL" means million fibers per liter greater than 10 microns in length.

"Medium water system," for R18-4-306 through R18-4-316 only, means a public water system that serves more than 3,300 persons and 50,000 or fewer persons.

"Meter" means a device that measures the volume of water that passes through it.

"Meter weight" means the number of gallons per minute (gpm) that flows through a meter divided by 30.

"Millirem" means 1/1000 of a rem.

"MRDL" means maximum residual disinfectant level.

"MTP" means maximum total trihalomethane potential.

"Monitoring assistance program" means the program established by A.R.S. &#167; 49-360, under which a contractor provides for collection, transportation, and analysis of samples from a public water system under the provisions of R18-4-224 through R18-4-226.

"Nephelometric turbidity unit" means the unit of measure for turbidity. Turbidity is a measure of light scatter or absorption caused by suspended or colloidal matter in water. Turbidity is measured as an indicator of the effectiveness of filtration treatment.

"New public water system" means a public water system, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-352(B)(1), that is issued its first unique public water system identification number by the Department on or after October 1, 1999.

"Noncommunity water system" means a public water system that is either a nontransient, noncommunity water system or a transient, noncommunity water system.

"Nontransient, noncommunity water system" means a public water system that:

Serves 15 or more service connections that are used by the same persons for at least six months per year, or

Serves the same 25 or more persons for at least six months per year.

"NTNCWS" means nontransient, noncommunity water system.

"NTU" means nephelometric turbidity unit.

"Optimal corrosion control treatment" means the corrosion control treatment that minimizes lead and copper concentrations at the tap without violating any rule prescribed in this Chapter.

"OX" means chlorine or ozone oxidation.

"PCBs" means polychlorinated biphenyls.

"pCi" means picocurie.

"Picocurie" means the quantity of radioactive material producing 2.22 nuclear transformations per minute.

"Point-of-entry into the distribution system" means the point at which water is discharged into the distribution system from a well, storage tank, pressure tank, or water treatment plant.

"Point-of-entry treatment device" means a device that applies treatment to drinking water entering a house or building to reduce contaminants in the drinking water that is distributed throughout the house or building.

"Point-of-use treatment device" means a device that applies treatment to drinking water flowing to a single tap to reduce contaminants in the drinking water at that single tap.

"Pressure vacuum breaker assembly" means a backsiphonage prevention assembly that contains an independently operated, internally loaded check valve; an internally operated air-inlet valve located on the discharge side of the check valve; tightly closing resilient seated shut-off valves on each end of the check valve assembly; and properly located resilient seated test cocks.

"PTA" means packed tower aeration.

"Public water system" has the same meaning prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-352. A public water system is either a community water system; a nontransient, noncommunity water system; or a transient, noncommunity water system.

"Reduced pressure principle backflow-prevention assembly" means a backflow-prevention assembly that contains two independently acting check valves; a hydraulically operating, mechanically independent pressure differential relief valve located between the two check valves; tightly closing, resilient seated shut-off valves on each end of the check valve assembly; and properly located resilient seated test cocks.

"Rem" means the unit of dose equivalent from ionizing radiation to the total body or any internal organ or organ system.

"Repeat compliance period" means any compliance period after the initial compliance period.

"Residual disinfectant concentration" means the concentration of disinfectant measured in mg/L in a representative sample of water.

"Safe Drinking Water Act" means the federal Safe Drinking Water Act as amended (42 U.S.C. 300f et seq., Title XIV of the Public Health Service Act).

"Sanitary survey" means an onsite review of the water source, facilities, equipment, operation, and maintenance of a public water system to evaluate their adequacy to produce and distribute safe drinking water.

"Sedimentation" means a treatment process that holds water in a low-flow condition before filtration to remove solids by gravity or separation.

"Service connection" means a location at the meter or, in the absence of a meter, at the curbstop or at the building inlet.

"Service line" means the water line that runs from the corporation stop at a water main to the building inlet, including any pigtail, gooseneck, or fitting.

"Service line sample" means a one liter sample of water collected in accordance with R18-4-315(D).

"Single-family structure" means a building constructed as a single-family residence that is used as a residence or as a place of business.

"Slow sand filtration" means a treatment process that involves the passage of raw water through a bed of sand at low velocity, generally less than 0.4 m/h, and results in substantial particulate removal by physical and biological mechanisms.

"Small water system," for R18-4-306 through R18-4-316 only, means a public water system that serves 3,300 or fewer persons.

"SOC" means synthetic organic chemical.

"Source" means a body of water above or below the ground that supplies water to a public water system, including a well, spring, or surface water.

"Specific ultraviolet absorption" means an indicator of the humic content of a water at 254 nanometers (nm). It is a calculated parameter obtained by dividing a sample's ultraviolet absorption at a wavelength of 254 nm (UV

254

) (in m

-1

) by its concentration of dissolved organic carbon (DOC) (in mg/L).

"Standard sample" means the aliquot of finished drinking water that is examined for the presence of coliform bacteria. The standard sample volume is 100 milliliters.

"Surface water" means a source that is exposed to the unenclosed atmosphere and subject to surface runoff.

"Surface water system" means a public water system that uses surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water, in whole or in part, as a source.

"SUVA" means specific ultraviolet absorption.

"Technical capacity" means the ability of a public water system to meet the requirements of R18-4-603 and the federal Safe Drinking Water Act at all times, and includes the ability to correct problems with its distribution, water quality, or source availability and to sustain compliance with its operations and maintenance plan.

"TNCWS" means transient, noncommunity water system.

"TOC" means total organic carbon.

"Total organic carbon" means total organic carbon in mg/L measured using heat, oxygen, ultraviolet irradiation, chemical oxidants, or combinations of these oxidants that convert organic carbon to carbon dioxide, rounded to two significant figures.

"Total trihalomethanes" means the sum of the concentrations of the following trihalomethane compounds: trichloromethane (chloroform), dibromochloromethane, bromo-dichloromethane, and tribromomethane (bromoform).

"Transient, noncommunity water system" means a public water system that:

Serves 15 or more service connections, but does not serve 15 or more service connections that are used by the same persons for more than six months per year; or

Serves an average of at least 25 persons per day for at least 60 days per year, but does not serve the same 25 persons for more than six months per year.

"Treatment" means a process that changes the quality of water by physical, chemical, or biological means.

"Treatment technique" means a treatment procedure promulgated by EPA in lieu of a MCL. Treatment techniques include the requirements for filtration, disinfection, lead, copper, acrylamide, and epichlorohydrin that are prescribed in Article 3 of this Chapter.

"Trihalomethane" means one of the family of organic compounds, named as derivatives of methane, in which three of four hydrogen atoms in methane are substituted by a halogen atom in the molecular structure.

"TTHM" means total trihalomethanes.

"Unit fee" means the amount charged to a public water system under the monitoring assistance program for a meter weight of 1 in accordance with R18-4-225.

"Virus" means an enteric virus that is infectious to humans by waterborne transmission.

"VOC" means volatile organic chemical.

"Water main" means a pipe used to distribute drinking water to more than one property and is exterior to buildings.

"Water supplier" means a person who owns, supervises, or directs the operation of a public water system.

"Waterborne disease outbreak" means the occurrence of illness that is epidemiologically associated with the ingestion of drinking water from a public water system.

"Water treatment plant" means a process, device, or structure used to improve the physical, chemical, or biological quality of the water in a public water system. A booster chlorination facility that is designed to maintain an effective disinfectant residual in water in the distribution system is not a water treatment plant.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-504 repealed, new Section R9-20-504 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-504 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-501, then renumbered as Section R18-4-101 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-101 recodified to R18-5-101 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.102" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. The rules in this Chapter apply to public water systems, unless a public water system:

1. Consists only of distribution and storage facilities and does not have collection or treatment facilities;

2. Obtains all of its water from, but is not owned or operated by, a public water system that is regulated under this Chapter;

3. Does not sell water to any person; and

4. Is not a carrier that conveys passengers in interstate commerce.

B. The rules in this Chapter do not apply to a public water system for a mobile home park that:

1. Consists only of distribution and storage facilities and does not have collection or treatment facilities;

2. Obtains all of its water from, but is not owned or operated by, a public water system that is regulated under this Chapter; and

3. Does not sell water to any person. For purposes of this subsection, submetering by a mobile home park to determine the quantity of water used by individual park tenants shall not be considered to be selling water, if the submetering is for the purpose of water conservation.

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-502 and renumbered as Section R18-4-102 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-102 recodified to R18-5-102 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.103" level="4" title="Recordkeeping Requirements"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="2"><dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="4"><dwc name="disinfect" times="3">

Recordkeeping Requirements

A. A public water system shall retain on its premises or at a convenient location near its premises, the following records for the following minimum periods of time:

1. Records of bacteriological analyses, including records of analyses for total coliform, fecal coliform, Escherichia coli (E. coli), and heterotrophic bacteria for five years;

2. Records of chemical analyses for 10 years;

3. Records of actions taken by the public water system to correct a violation of this Chapter for three years after the last action taken to correct the violation;

4. Records concerning a variance or exemption granted to the public water system for five years after the expiration of the variance or exemption;

5. Copies of written reports, summaries, or communications relating to a sanitary survey of the public water system for 10 years after completion of the sanitary survey; and

6. Records of all sampling data and analyses, reports, surveys, letters, evaluations, schedules, Department determinations, and any other information required in R18-4-306 through R18-4-316 for 12 years.

7. A surface water system shall retain the following records for 10 years:

a. Records of turbidity measurements, including the number and percentage of filtered water turbidity measurements taken during the month that are less than or equal to the turbidity limits specified in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology used;

b. The date and value of any turbidity measurement taken during a month that exceeds 5 NTUs;

c. Records of the lowest residual disinfectant concentration (in mg/L) in water entering the distribution system for each day that each water treatment plant operates;

d. Records of the residual disinfectant concentration (in mg/L) in water for each sampling site in the distribution system; and

e. Records of analyses for heterotrophic bacteria if HPC is measured instead of residual disinfectant concentration in the distribution system.

8. A surface water system shall retain records of individual filter monitoring specified in R18-4-403 for three years.

9. A public water system shall retain copies of a public notice and a certification for three years after issuance.

B. A public water system shall keep the original laboratory reports of drinking water analyses or copies of Department-approved reporting forms.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-505 repealed, new Section R9-20-505 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-505 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-503, then renumbered as Section R18-4-103 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-103 recodified to R18-5-103 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.104" level="4" title="Reporting Requirements"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="5"><dwc name="coliform" times="10"><dwc name="turbid" times="14"><dwc name="disinfect" times="15"><dwc name="chlorin" times="3"><dwc name="chloramin" times="1"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="6"><dwc name="bromat" times="1"><dwc name="chlorit" times="1"><dwc name="haa" times="4"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="2"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="2"><dwc name="tthm" times="4"><dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="4"><dwc name="copper" times="16"><dwc name="fluorid" times="2"><dwc name="lead" times="42"><dwc name="nitrat" times="5"><dwc name="nitrit" times="3"><dwc name="alachlor" times="1"><dwc name="atrazin" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="1"><dwc name="chlordan" times="1"><dwc name="dalapon" times="1"><dwc name="dibromochloropropan" times="1"><dwc name="dbcp" times="1"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="1"><dwc name="tcdd" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="1"><dwc name="ethylen dibromid" times="1"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="1"><dwc name="picloram" times="1"><dwc name="simazin" times="1"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="2"><dwc name="silvex" times="1"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="1"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="1"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="photon emitt" times="2"><dwc name="beta particl" times="2"><dwc name="radium" times="2">

Reporting Requirements

A. Routine monitoring. Except as specified in this subsection, a public water system or a contractor shall report the result of any test measurement or analysis required by Article 2 to the Department within 10 days after the end of the month in which the public water system receives the analytical result or within 10 days after the end of an applicable monitoring period prescribed by Article 2, whichever occurs first.

1. Fecal coliform or E coli: If any routine or repeat sample for total coliform is positive, the public water system shall have the total coliform-positive sample analyzed to determine whether fecal coliforms are present, except that the public water system may test for E. coli instead of fecal coliforms. If fecal coliforms or E. coli are present in a total coliform-positive sample, the public water system shall report the positive results to the Department, by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after receipt of the fecal coliform-positive or E. coli-positive test result.

2. Nitrate: If a monitoring result is greater than the MCL for nitrate in a routine sample, the public water system shall take a confirmation sample within 24 hours of receipt of the analytical results. The public water system shall report the MCL exceedance to the Department by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after receipt of the analytical results.

3. Total trihalomethanes: A public water system shall report the arithmetic average of analytical results for total trihalomethanes within 30 days of receipt of the last analytical results of the previous quarter.

4. Disinfection byproducts, disinfectant residuals, disinfection byproduct precursors and enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening: The following results shall be reported as specified by the time-frame under subsection (A).

a. Disinfection byproducts. A CWS, NTNCWS, or TNCWS shall report the information specified in Table 1:

Table 1. Reporting Requirements for Disinfection Byproducts

<table> IF YOU ARE A... YOU MUST REPORT... A. System monitoring for TTHMs and HAA5 under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 on a quarterly or more frequent basis 1. The number of samples collected during the last quarter. 2. The location, date, and result of each sample collected during the last quarter. 3. The arithmetic average of all samples collected in the last quarter. 4. The annual arithmetic average of the quarterly arithmetic averages for the last four quarters. 5. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(I)(3) or R18-4-214.02(H)(3), the MCL was violated. B. System monitoring for TTHMs and HAA5 under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 less frequently than quarterly (but at least annually) 1. The number of samples collected during the last year. 2. The location, date, and result of each sample collected during the last monitoring period. 3. The arithmetic average of all samples collected over the last year. 4. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(I)(3) or R18-4-214.02(H)(3), the MCL was violated. C. System monitoring for TTHMs and HAA5 under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 less frequently than annually 1. The location, date, and result of the last sample collected. 2. Whether, based on, R18-4-214.01(I)(3) or R18-4-214.02(H)(3), the MCL was violated. D. System monitoring for chlorite under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 1. The number of entry point samples collected each month for the last three months. 2. The location, date, and result of each sample (both point-of-entry into the distribution system and in the distribution system) collected during the last quarter. 3. For each month in the reporting period, the arithmetic average of all samples collected in each set of three samples collected in the distribution system. 4. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(I)(5) or R18-4-214.02(H)(5), the MCL was violated, in which month, and how many times it was violated each month. E. System monitoring for bromate under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 1. The number of samples collected during the last quarter. 2. The location, date, and result of each sample collected during the last quarter. 3. The arithmetic average of the monthly arithmetic averages of all samples collected in the last year. 4. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(I)(4) or R18-4-214.02(H)(4), the MCL was violated. </table>

b. Disinfectant Residuals. A CWS, NTNCWS, or TNCWS shall report the information specified in Table 2:

Table 2. Reporting Requirements for Disinfection Residuals

<table> IF YOU ARE A... YOU MUST REPORT... A. System monitoring for chlorine or chloramines under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 1. The number of samples collected during each month of the last quarter. 2. The monthly arithmetic average of all samples collected in each month for the last 12 months. 3. The arithmetic average of all monthly averages for the last 12 months. 4. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(K)(2) or R18-4-214.02(J)(2), the MRDL was violated. B. System monitoring for chlorine dioxide under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 1. The dates, results, and locations of samples collected during the last quarter. 2. Whether, based on R18-4-214.01(K)(3) or R18-4-214.02(J)(3), the MRDL was violated. 3. Whether the MRDL was exceeded in any two consecutive daily samples and whether the resulting violation required an Acute or Nonacute Level 1 public notice. </table>

c. Disinfection byproduct precursors and enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening. A CWS or NTNCWS shall report the information specified in Table 3:

Table 3. Reporting Requirements for Disinfection Byproduct Precursors and Enhanced Coagulation or Enhanced Softening

<table> IF YOU ARE A... YOU MUST REPORT... A. System monitoring monthly or quarterly for TOC and alkalinity under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 and required to meet the enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening requirements in R18-4-301.02 1. The number of sample sets (source water TOC and alkalinity and treated water TOC) collected during the last quarter. 2. The location, date, and results of each sample set collected during the last quarter. 3. For each month in the reporting period that sample sets were collected, the monthly arithmetic average of the percent removal of TOC and the required TOC percent removal. 4. Calculations for determining compliance with the TOC percent removal requirements, as provided in R18-4-301.02(D). 5. Whether the system is in compliance with the enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening percent removal requirements in R18-4-301.02(C) for the last four quarters. B. System monitoring monthly or quarterly for TOC under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 or R18-4-214.02 and meeting one or more of the alternative compliance criteria in R18-4-301.02(A)(1)-(8) 1. The alternative compliance criterion that the system is using. 2. The number of sample sets (source water TOC and alkalinity and treated water TOC) collected during the last quarter. 3. The location, date, and result of each sample set collected during the last quarter. 4. The running annual arithmetic average based on monthly averages or quarterly samples of source water TOC for systems meeting a criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(1) or (8) or of treated water TOC for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(2). 5. The running annual arithmetic average based on monthly averages or quarterly samples of source water SUVA for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(4) or of treated water SUVA for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(5). 6. The running annual average of source water alkalinity for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(8) and of treated water alkalinity for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(6). 7. The running annual average for both TTHM and HAA5 for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(3) or (8). 8. The running annual average of the amount of magnesium hardness removal (as CaCO 3 , in mg/L) for systems meeting the criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(7). 9. Whether the system is in compliance with the particular alternative compliance criterion in R18-4-301.02(A)(1) through (8). </table>

B. MCL and MRDL violations: Except as specified in this subsection, a public water system shall report a violation of a MCL or MRDL to the Department within 48 hours of receipt of analytical results that indicate a violation.

1. A public water system shall report a violation of the MCL for total coliform to the Department, by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after receipt of analytical results that indicate a violation.

2. A public water system shall report a violation of the MCL for nitrate or nitrite to the Department, by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after receipt of analytical results for the confirmation sample that confirms a violation.

3. A public water system shall report a violation of an interim MCL for turbidity to the Department, by telephone or facsimile:

a. Within 10 days after the end of the month if the arithmetic average of the analytical results of daily samples taken during the month exceeds one NTU.

b. Within 24 hours of receipt of analytical results for the second daily sample if the arithmetic average of the results of daily samples collected on two consecutive days exceeds 5 NTUs.

4. A water supplier shall report an acute violation of the chlorine dioxide MRDL, as specified in R18-4-214.01(K)(3)(a) and R18-4-214.02(J)(3)(a), to the Department, by phone or facsimile as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after receipt of analytical results that indicate an acute violation.

C. Filtration. Except as provided in subsection (C)(4), a surface water system that provides filtration shall report the following turbidity measurements to the Department within 10 days after the end of each month for each water treatment plant that operates during the month:

1. The total number of filtered water turbidity measurements taken during the month,

2. The number and percentage of filtered water turbidity measurements taken during the month that are less than or equal to the turbidity limits prescribed in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology used, and

3. The date and value of a filtered water turbidity measurement collected during the month that exceeds the maximum turbidity limits specified in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology used.

4. If the turbidity of the filtered water exceeds the maximum turbidity limits specified in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology used, then the surface water system shall report the exceedance to the Department, by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after the exceedance.

D. Disinfection. Except as provided in subsection (D)(4), a surface water system that provides disinfection shall report the following information to the Department within 10 days after the end of each month for each water treatment plant that operates during the month:

1. For each day, the lowest measurement of residual disinfectant concentration in mg/L in water entering the distribution system;

2. The date and duration of each period the residual disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system fell below 0.2 mg/L; and

3. The value of "V" calculated by the formula prescribed in R18-4-303(C)(2) for the current and previous month.

4. If the residual disinfectant concentration falls below 0.2 mg/L in water entering the distribution system, the surface water system shall report the occurrence to the Department as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after the occurrence. The surface water system shall report whether the residual disinfectant concentration was restored to at least 0.2 mg/L within four hours.

E. Tap water monitoring for lead and copper. A public water system that monitors for lead and copper under R18-4-310 or R18-4-313 shall report the following information to the Department within 10 days after the end of the monitoring period:

1. The results of all tap water samples, the location of each sample site, and the criteria specified in either R18-4-309(A)(1), or R18-4-309(A)(2), or both, used to select the site for the system's sampling pool.

2. The 90th percentile lead and copper concentrations for all lead and copper tap water samples collected during each monitoring period (as calculated in accordance with R18-4-308), unless the Department notifies the public water system that the Department will calculate the 90th percentile lead and copper concentrations and will notify the public water system of the 90th percentile concentrations.

3. Identification of all non-first-draw sample sites selected by the public water system and the length of the standing time for each substitute sample collected according to R18-4-310(D)(3).

4. A list of sampling sites that were not sampled in the previous monitoring period and an explanation for the change in sampling sites.

5. The results of any tap water samples collected in addition to the minimum required in R18-4-310 and R18-4-313.

6. Documentation of all lead and copper tap water samples for which the public water system requests invalidation under R18-4-310(P).

F. Corrosion control treatment. A public water system that is required under R18-4-313(A) to install optimal corrosion control treatment, shall submit a letter to the Department certifying that the public water system has completed installation of the optimal corrosion control treatment. The public water system shall submit the certification within 24 months after the date the Department designates the treatment.

G. Water quality parameter monitoring. A public water system that monitors for water quality parameters at the tap or source under R18-4-311 or R18-4-313 shall report the results of all water quality parameter samples to the Department within 10 days after the end of the monitoring period. The public water system shall also report the results of any water quality parameter samples collected in addition to the minimum required in R18-4-311 and R18-4-313.

H. Source water monitoring for lead and copper. A public water system that monitors source water for lead and copper under R18-4-314 shall report the following information to the Department within 10 days after the end of the monitoring period:

1. The results of all source water samples,

2. A list of sampling points that were not sampled in the previous monitoring period and an explanation for the change in sampling points, and

3. The results of any source water samples collected in addition to the minimum required in R18-4-314.

I. Source water treatment. A public water system shall report the following information to the Department within the following minimum time periods:

1. Within six months after a public water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper, the public water system shall submit a letter to the Department that makes a recommendation regarding installation and operation of source water treatment. If the public water system demonstrates that source water treatment is not necessary to minimize lead or copper levels at taps, the public water system may recommend that no source water treatment be installed.

2. If the Department determines that source water treatment is necessary under R18-4-314(E), the public water system shall submit a letter that certifies that the public water system has installed the source water treatment designated or approved by the Department within 24 months after receipt of a written determination by the Department that source water treatment is necessary.

J. Lead service line replacement. A public water system that is required to replace lead service lines under R18-4-315 shall report the following information to the Department:

1. A public water system that exceeds the action level for lead after installation of either corrosion control, or source water treatment, or both, shall, within 12 months after the public water system exceeds the action level for lead:

a. Conduct a materials survey and include the information required in the initial materials survey conducted under R18-4-309(B) to identify the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system;

b. Submit a report to the Department that contains the results of the materials survey and a schedule for the annual replacement of at least 7% of the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system; and

c. Submit a letter to the Department that demonstrates that the public water system has either:

i. Replaced at least 7% of the initial number of lead service lines or a greater percentage of lead service lines specified by the Department under R18-4-315(F) in the previous 12 months, or

ii. Conducted sampling that demonstrates that the lead concentration in all lead service line samples collected under R18-4-315(D) from an individual service line are less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L. If the public water system conducted lead monitoring of individual lead service lines, the letter shall document the number of lead service lines with lead concentrations that are less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L and the number of lead service lines replaced. The total number of lead service lines with lead concentrations that are less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L plus the number of lead service lines replaced shall equal at least 7% of the initial number of lead service lines or the larger percentage specified by the Department under R18-4-315(F).

2. The public water system shall submit an annual letter to the Department that contains the following information:

a. The information required in subsections (J)(1)(c)(i) and (J)(1)(c)(ii), as applicable;

b. The number of lead service lines scheduled to be replaced during the previous year of the system's lead service line replacement program;

c. The number and location of each lead service line replaced during the previous year of the system's lead service line replacement program;

d. If measured, the lead concentration and location of each lead service line sampled, the sampling method, and the date of sampling; and

e. Certification that all partial lead service line replacement activities required in R18-4-315(E) have been completed, if applicable.

K. Special monitoring. A public water system, or a contractor that conducts special monitoring required in Article 4, shall report the following information to the Department:

1. For sodium required in R18-4-401, the sodium monitoring results within 10 days after the end of the month in which the public water system receives the analytical results.

2. For nickel required in R18-4-402, the nickel monitoring results within 10 days after the end of the month in which the public water system receives the analytical result or within 10 days after the end of an applicable monitoring period prescribed by R18-4-402, whichever occurs first.

3. For turbidity monitoring under R18-4-403.

a. A system shall report within 10 days after the end of each month the system served water to the public that the continuous turbidity monitoring was conducted.

b. A system shall report the continuous turbidity measurements within 10 days after the end of each month the system served water to the public only if measurements demonstrate one or more conditions in R18-4-403(A)(3) through (6). The following information shall be reported:

i. The filter number, the turbidity measurement, the date(s) on which the turbidity limit was exceeded.

ii. If the system is required to produce a filter profile, the system shall report that the filter profile has been produced, or report the obvious reason for the abnormal filter performance.

iii. If the system is required to conduct a filter self-assessment, the system shall report that the filter self-assessment has been conducted.

iv. If the system is required to arrange for a comprehensive performance evaluation, the evaluation shall be completed and submitted to the Department no later than 90 days following the exceedance.

L. Failure to comply with monitoring requirements. A public water system shall report the failure to comply with any monitoring requirement prescribed in this Chapter, including a monitoring requirement covered by the monitoring assistance program in this Chapter, to the Department within 48 hours, except that a public water system that fails to comply with a total coliform monitoring requirement shall report the monitoring violation to the Department within 10 days after discovery.

M. Cross connection incidents. A public water system shall submit a written cross connection incident report to the Department and the local county health department within five days of the occurrence of a cross connection problem that results in contamination of water provided by the public water system. The report shall address all of the following:

1. Date and time of discovery of the cross connection incident,

2. Nature of the cross connection incident,

3. Affected area,

4. Cause of the cross connection incident,

5. Public health impact,

6. Date and text of any public health advisory issued,

7. Corrective action taken, and

8. Date of completion of corrective action.

N. Emergencies. A public water system shall notify the Department, by telephone or facsimile, as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after the occurrence of any of the following emergencies:

1. Loss of water supply from a source;

2. Loss of water supply due to major component failure;

3. Damage to power supply equipment or loss of power;

4. Contamination of water in the distribution system from backflow;

5. Collapse of a reservoir, reservoir roof, or pumphouse structure;

6. Break in a transmission or distribution line that results in a loss of service to customers for more than four hours; and

7. Chemical or microbiological contamination of the water supply.

O. Waterborne disease outbreak. A public water system shall report to the Department the occurrence of a waterborne disease outbreak that may be attributable to water provided by the public water system as soon as possible but no later than 24 hours after actual notice of the waterborne disease outbreak.

P. Confirmation sample results. A public water system shall report the analytical results of any confirmation sample required by the Department, except a confirmation sample obtained by a contractor under the monitoring assistance program, within 24 hours after receipt of the analytical results.

Q. Copies of public notices. A public water system shall submit to the Department within 10 days after the date of completion of a public notice, a representative copy of each type of public notice required in R18-4-105 and R18-4-105.01 that is distributed, published, posted, or made available to persons served by the public water system or to the media and an affidavit that describes how the public notice was provided.

R. Department requests for records. A public water system shall submit to the Department, within the time stated in the request, copies of any records that the public water system maintains under R18-4-103 or copies of any documents that the Department is entitled to inspect under 42 U.S.C. 300j-4 (2001).

S. Department reporting forms. A public water system shall report to the Department the results of all analyses completed under this Chapter on Department-approved forms.

T. Direct reporting. A public water system may contract with a laboratory or another agent to report monitoring results to the Department, but the public water system remains legally responsible for compliance with reporting requirements.

U. Reporting limits. A public water system shall not report an analytical result as "not detected" or "ND" without a specific reference to a numeric "less than value" [that is, "&lt; x" where x is a numeric concentration]. A public water system shall not report a "less than value" at a concentration that exceeds any of the following reporting limits:

1. Single point-of-entry sample:

a. Inorganic chemicals (except nitrate, nitrite, fluoride, lead and copper): The reporting limit is the MCL for the inorganic chemical.

b. Nitrate: 5 mg/L.

c. Nitrite: 0.5 mg/L.

d. Fluoride: 2.0 mg/L.

e. VOCs: 0.0005 mg/L.

f. SOCs:

<table> Synthetic Organic Chemical Reporting Limit [in mg/L] Alachlor 0.0002 Atrazine 0.0001 Benzo(a)pyrene 0.00002 Carbofuran 0.0009 Chlordane 0.0002 2,4-D 0.0001 Dalapon 0.001 Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) 0.00002 Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate 0.0006 Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 0.0006 Dinoseb 0.0002 Diquat 0.0004 Endothall 0.009 Endrin 0.00001 Ethylene dibromide (EDB) 0.00001 Glyphosate 0.006 Heptachlor 0.00004 Heptachlor epoxide 0.00002 Hexachlorobenzene 0.0001 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 0.0001 Lindane 0.00002 Methoxychlor 0.0001 Oxamyl 0.002 PCBs (as decachlorbiphenyl) 0.0001 Pentachlorophenol 0.00004 Picloram 0.0001 Simazine 0.00007 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) 0.000000005 Toxaphene 0.001 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 0.0002 </table>

2. Composite samples:

a. Inorganic chemicals (except lead and copper): The reporting limit is 1/5 of the MCL for the inorganic chemical.

b. VOCs: 0.0005 mg/L.

c. SOCs: The reporting limit for a SOC composite sample is the same as the reporting limit for a SOC single sample listed under subsection (U)(1)(f), except for toxaphene, which has a reporting limit that is less than or equal to 0.0006 mg/L.

3. Radiochemical reporting limits: The reporting limit for a radiochemical shall be that concentration that can be counted with a precision of plus or minus 100% at the 95% confidence level (1.96 F where F is the standard deviation of the net counting rate of the sample).

a. Radium-226: 1 pCi/L.

b. Radium-228: 1 pCi/L.

c. Gross alpha particle activity: 3 pCi/L.

d. Man-made beta particle and photon emitters:

<table> Man-made Beta Particle and Photon Emitters Reporting Limit i. Tritium 1,000 pCi/L ii. Strontium-89 10 pCi/L iii. Strontium-90 2 pCi/L iv. Iodine-131 1 pCi/L v. Cesium-134 10 pCi/L vi. Gross beta 4 pCi/L vii. Other radionuclides 1/10 of the applicable limit </table>

4. Lead and copper reporting limits:

A public water system shall report all lead levels measured between 0.005 mg/L and the method detection limit as measured or as 0.0025 mg/L. A public water system shall report all copper levels measured between 0.050 mg/L and the method detection limit as measured or as 0.025 mg/L. A public water system shall report all lead and copper levels measured below the method detection limits for lead and copper as zero.

V. Failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Chapter. A public water system shall report the failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Chapter to the Department within 48 hours, except where a different reporting period is specified in this Section.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-506 repealed, new Section R9-20-506 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Amended effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-506 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-504, then renumbered as Section R18-4-104 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-104 recodified to R18-5-104 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). Amended under R1-1-109(B) to correct a manifest clerical error; subsection R18-4-104(J)(3) moved to its proper place as subsection R18-4-104(K)(3); compare at 8 A.A.R. 3086, July 26, 2002 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.105" level="4" title="Public Notification Requirements (Effective May 6, 2002)"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="2"><dwc name="coliform" times="4"><dwc name="turbid" times="5"><dwc name="chlorin" times="2"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="2"><dwc name="nitrat" times="4"><dwc name="nitrit" times="3">

Public Notification Requirements (Effective May 6, 2002)

A. A public water system shall give public notice for all violations of this Chapter and for the following situations:

1. Operation under a variance or an exemption,

2. Failure to comply with the requirements of a schedule that is set under a variance or exemption,

3. Occurrence of a waterborne disease outbreak or other waterborne emergency as identified in Table 2 item 10,

4. Distributing water with a concentration of fluoride greater than 2.0 mg/L but less than 4.0 mg/L, and

5. Availability of data from unregulated contaminant monitoring required by 40 CFR 141.40.

B. Public notice requirements are divided into three categories, to take into account the seriousness of the violation or situation and of any potential adverse health effects that may be involved. Table 1 provides the public notice categories. Appendix A identifies the public notice requirement for a specific violation or situation.

Table 1. Public Notice Categories

<table> 1. Acute (24 hour) public notice - required for violations and situations with significant potential to have serious adverse effects on human health as a result of short-term exposure. 2. Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice - required for violations and situations with potential to have serious adverse effects on human health, but not as a result of short-term exposure. 3. Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice - required for all other violations and situations not included in Acute (24 hour) and Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice. </table>

C. A public water system shall provide public notice to persons served by the system, in accordance with this Section.

1. A public water system that sells or otherwise provides drinking water to a consecutive system is required to give public notice to the consecutive system. The consecutive system is responsible for providing public notice to the persons it serves.

2. A public water system that has a violation in a portion of the distribution system that is physically or hydraulically isolated from other parts of the distribution system may request that the Department allow the system to limit distribution of the public notice to persons served by that portion of the system that is out of compliance. The Department's decision to allow limited distribution of the notice shall be in writing.

3. The Department may provide public notice on behalf of the public water system. A public water system remains legally responsible for ensuring that the requirements are met.

D. Acute (24 hour) Public Notice

1. Table 2 lists the violations and other situations requiring an Acute (24 hour) public notice.

Table 2. Violations and Other Situations Requiring an Acute (24 hour) Public Notice

<table> 1. Violation of the MCL for total coliforms when fecal coliform or E. coli are present in the water distribution system, as specified in R18-4-202(A)(3) or R18-4-202(A)(4); 2. Failure to test for fecal coliforms or E. coli when a repeat sample tests positive for total coliform; 3. Violation of the MCL for nitrate, nitrite, or total nitrate and nitrite in R18-4-205; 4. Failure to take a confirmation sample within 24 hours of the system's receipt of the initial sample showing a violation of the nitrate or nitrite MCL, as specified in R18-4-208(I) and R18-4-209(K); 5. Violation of the nitrate MCL by a noncommunity water system, where permitted to exceed the MCL by the Department under R18-4-205; 6. Violation of the MRDL for chlorine dioxide at the point-of-entry into the distribution system when one or more samples collected in the distribution system the day following a violation of the MRDL 7. Failure to take the required chlorine dioxide samples in the distribution system, as required in R18-4-214.01(J)(2) or R18-4-214.02(I)(2). 8. Violation of the interim MCL for turbidity, as specified in R18-4-204(A)(2), if the Department determines after consultation with the public water system that an Acute (24 hour) public notice is required, for reasons such as the source of turbidity, or if consultation does not take place within 24 hours after the system learns of the violation, subject to subsection (E)(2)(b); 9. Violation of the maximum turbidity limit specified in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology used, if the Department determines after consultation with the public water system that an Acute (24 hour) public notice is required or if consultation does not take place within 24 hours after the system learns of the violation, subject to subsection (E)(2)(b); and 10. Occurrence of a waterborne disease outbreak or other waterborne emergency with significant potential to have serious adverse effects on human health as a result of short-term exposure, such as a failure or significant interruption in key water treatment processes, a natural disaster that disrupts the water supply or distribution system, or a chemical spill or unexpected loading of possible pathogens into the source water that significantly increases the potential for drinking water contamination. </table>

2. A public water system shall provide an Acute (24 hour) public notice according to the following procedures:

a. Provide a public notice as soon as possible, but no later than 24 hours after the system learns of the violation or situation; and

b. Initiate consultation with the Department as soon as possible, but no later than 24 hours after the public water system learns of the violation or situation, to determine additional public notice requirements.

c. A public water system shall provide a repeat public notice every three months from the date the water system learns of the violation or situation for as long as the violation or situation exists.

3. A public water system shall provide an Acute (24 hour) public notice in a form and manner reasonably expected to reach all persons served by one or more of the following delivery methods:

a. Appropriate broadcast media, including radio and television;

b. Posting of the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout the area served by the water system;

c. Hand delivery of the public notice to persons served by the water system; or

d. Another delivery method approved in writing by the Department.

E. Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) Public Notice

1. Table 3 lists the violations and other situations requiring a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice.

Table 3. Violations and Other Situations Requiring a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) Public Notice

<table> 1. Violation of a MCL, MRDL, or treatment technique requirement where an Acute (24 hour) public notice is not required; 2. Violation of a monitoring requirement, if the Department determines that a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice rather than a Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice is required, taking into account potential health impacts and persistence of the violation; and 3. Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of a variance or exemption granted to a public water system by the Department. </table>

2. A public water system shall provide a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice according to the following procedures:

a. Provide the public notice as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the system learns of the violation. The Department may, in appropriate circumstances, allow additional time for the initial public notice of up to three months from the date the system learns of the violation. The Department shall not grant an extension for an unresolved violation. The Department's decision to grant an extension shall be in writing.

b. A public water system that is unable to consult with the Department within 24 hours due to weekends or holidays, may distribute a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice for a violation of a maximum turbidity limit if one or more of the following is met:

i. The water system is able to document that water has been fed to waste and not served to customers,

ii. The water system is able to document that water has been recycled and not served to customers, or

iii. The water system is able to document that the testing equipment malfunctioned and high turbidity readings were erroneously obtained.

c. A public water system shall provide a repeat public notice every three months from the date the water system learns of the violation or situation for as long as the violation or situation exists. The Department may determine that appropriate circumstances warrant a different repeat public notice frequency. The frequency of a reduced repeat public notice shall be at least once a year. The Department's determination to allow a public water system to provide repeat public notices less frequently shall be in writing.

3. A public water system shall provide a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice in a form and manner reasonably expected to reach all persons served by one or more of the following delivery methods:

a. A CWS shall provide public notice by:

i. Mail or other direct delivery to each customer receiving a bill and to other service connections to which water is delivered by the public water system, and

ii. Another public notice delivery method reasonably expected to reach other persons regularly served by the system, if they would not normally be reached by the public notice required in subsection (E)(3)(a)(i). Other methods may include: Publication in a local newspaper, delivery of multiple copies for distribution by customers that provide their drinking water to others (for example, apartment building owners or large private employers), delivery to community organizations, or posting the public notice in public places served by the system or on the internet. A public water system shall post the public notice for at least seven days, or for as long as the violation, variance, exemption, or other situation exists, whichever is longer.

b. A noncommunity water system shall provide public notice by:

i. Posting the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout the distribution system frequented by persons served by the system, or by mail or direct delivery to each customer and service connection (where known), and

ii. Another public notice delivery method reasonably expected to reach other persons served by the system if they would not normally be reached by the public notice required in subsection (E)(3)(b)(i). Other methods may include: Publication in a local newspaper or newsletter distributed to customers, use of e-mail to notify employees or students, or delivery of multiple copies in central locations such as community centers.

F. Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) Public Notice

1. Table 4 lists the violations and other situations requiring a Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice.

Table 4. Violations and Other Situations Requiring a Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) Public Notice

<table> 1. Monitoring violations where an Acute (24 hour) public notice or a Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice is not required, 2. Operation under a variance or an exemption granted by the Department, 3. Availability of unregulated contaminant monitoring results required by 40 CFR 141.40, and 4. Distributing water with a concentration of fluoride greater than 2.0 mg/L but less than 4.0 mg/L. </table>

2. A public water system shall provide a Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice according to the following procedures:

a. Provide the public notice no later than one year (12 months) after the public water system learns of the violation or situation or begins operating under a variance or exemption.

b. A public water system may use one annual public notice detailing all Nonacute Level 2 violations and situations that occurred during the previous 12 months, rather than individual Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notices if the timing requirements in subsection (F)(2)(a) are met.

c. A public water system shall repeat the public notice annually for as long as the violation, variance, exemption, or other situation exists.

3. A public water system shall provide a Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice in a form and manner reasonably expected to reach all persons served by one or more of the following delivery methods:

a. A CWS shall provide public notice by:

i. Mail or other direct delivery to each customer receiving a bill and to other service connections to which water is delivered by the public water system, and

ii. Another public notice delivery method reasonably expected to reach other persons regularly served by the system, if they would not normally be reached by the public notice required in subsection (F)(3)(a)(i). Other methods may include: Publication in a local newspaper, delivery of multiple copies for distribution by customers that provide their drinking water to others (for example, apartment building owners or large private employers), delivery to community organizations, or posting the public notice in public places or on the internet. A public water system shall post the public notice for at least seven days, or for as long as the violation, variance, exemption, or other situation exists, whichever is longer.

iii. A CWS may use the CCR as a vehicle for the initial Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice and all required repeat public notices, as long as the timing, content, and distribution requirements of this subsection are met.

b. A noncommunity water system shall provide public notice by:

i. Posting the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout the distribution system frequented by persons served by the system, or by mail or direct delivery to each customer and service connection (where known), and

ii. Another public notice delivery method reasonably expected to reach other persons served by the system, if they would not normally be reached by the public notice required in subsection (F)(3)(b)(i). Other methods may include: Publication in a local newspaper or newsletter distributed to customers; use of e-mail to notify employees or students; or, delivery of multiple copies in central locations (for example, community centers).

G. Notice to new customers or billing units:

1. A CWS shall give a copy of the most recent public notice for a continuing violation, the existence of a variance or exemption, or other ongoing situation requiring a public notice to all new billing units or new customers prior to or at the time service begins.

2. A noncommunity water system shall continuously post the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout the area served by the water system in order to inform new customers of a continuing violation, variance or exemption, or other situation requiring a public notice for as long as the violation, variance, exemption, or other situation exists.

H. Content of the Public Notice

1. A public notice shall contain the following elements:

a. A description of the violation or situation, including the contaminant(s) of concern, and, as applicable, the contaminant level(s);

b. When the violation or situation occurred;

c. Any potential adverse health effects from the violation or situation, including the information in subsection (H)(5)(a) or (H)(5)(b), as applicable;

d. The population at risk, if known, including subpopulations particularly vulnerable if exposed to the contaminant in their drinking water;

e. Whether alternative water supplies should be used;

f. What actions consumers should take, including when they should seek medical help, if known;

g. What the system is doing to correct the violation or situation;

h. When the water system expects to return to compliance or resolve the situation;

i. The name, business address, and phone number of the public water system owner, operator, or designee of the public water system as a source of additional information concerning the public notice; and

j. A statement to encourage the public notice recipient to distribute the public notice to other persons served using the standard language in subsection (H)(5)(c), as applicable.

2. For a public water system that has been granted a variance or an exemption, the public notice shall contain the following:

a. An explanation of the reasons for the variance or exemption;

b. The date on which the variance or exemption was issued;

c. A brief status report on the steps the system is taking to install treatment, find alternative sources of water, or otherwise comply with the terms and schedules of the variance or exemption; and

d. A notice of opportunity for public input in the review of the variance or exemption.

3. A public notice required by this Section:

a. Shall be displayed in a conspicuous way when printed or posted,

b. Shall not contain overly technical language or very small print,

c. Shall not be formatted in a way that defeats the purpose of the public notice, and

d. Shall not contain language that nullifies the purpose of the public notice.

4. A public water system that serves a large proportion of non-English speaking consumers, as determined by the public water system after consultation with the Department, shall include information in the appropriate language regarding the importance of the public notice or include a telephone number or address where persons served may contact the water system to obtain a translated copy of the public notice or to request assistance in the appropriate language.

5. A public water system shall include the following language in a public notice:

a. For violations of a MCL, MRDL, treatment technique, or the condition of a variance or exemption, the public notice shall include the health effects language in Appendix A.

b. For violations of a monitoring requirement, the public notice shall include the following language and the language necessary to fill in the information in the parentheses:

We are required to monitor your drinking water for specific contaminants on a regular basis. Results of regular monitoring are an indicator of whether or not your drinking water meets health standards. During [compliance period], we [did not monitor or test] or [did not complete all monitoring or testing] for [contaminant(s)], and therefore cannot be sure of the quality of your drinking water during that time.

c. For a public water system that supplies water to a customer that distributes water to others:

Please share this information with all the other people who drink this water, especially those who may not have received this notice directly (for example, people in apartments, nursing homes, schools, and businesses). You can do this by posting this notice in a public place or distributing copies by hand or mail.

6. A public water system that is required to monitor for unregulated contaminants, as specified in 40 CFR &#167; 141.40, shall include information on the availability of unregulated contaminant monitoring results in the public notice.

I. This Section is effective May 6, 2002.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-507 repealed, new Section R9-20-507 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-507 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-505, then renumbered as Section R18-4-105 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-105 recodified to R18-5-105 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). New Section R18-4-105 renumbered from R18-4-105.01 at 8 A.A.R. 2756, effective June 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). Subsection citation in part 4 of Table 2 corrected (Supp. 04-1).

R18-4-105.01. Renumbered

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). Section renumbered to R18-4-105 at 8 A.A.R. 2756, effective June 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.106" level="4" title="Use of Approved Analytical Methods">

Use of Approved Analytical Methods

A. A person sampling to determine compliance with a MCL, treatment technique, or a monitoring requirement prescribed in this Chapter shall ensure that the sample is analyzed in accordance with an analytical method that is approved for drinking water by EPA, and by ADHS under R9-14-610.

B. An alternative analytical method to determine compliance with a MCL, treatment technique, or monitoring requirement prescribed in this Chapter may be employed if the alternative analytical method is approved by the Director of ADHS under R9-14-610(B) with the concurrence of the Administrator of EPA.

Historical Note

Adopted effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-508 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-506, then renumbered as Section R18-4-106 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (F) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-4-106 recodified to R18-5-106 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.107" level="4" title="Use of Licensed Laboratories"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Use of Licensed Laboratories

Analytical results from a sample taken by a public water system shall be valid only if the sample has been analyzed by a laboratory that is licensed to perform such analysis by the Arizona Department of Health Services, except that field measurements of turbidity, disinfectant residual, temperature, pH, conductivity, alkalinity, calcium hardness [as CaCO

3

], orthophosphates and silica may be performed by an operator, employee, agent or other representative of a public water system.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-509 repealed, new Section R9-20-509 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-509 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-507, then renumbered as Section R18-4-107 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (B) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-4-107 recodified to R18-5-107 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.108" level="4" title="Sample Collection, Preservation, and Transportation">

Sample Collection, Preservation, and Transportation

A public water system shall collect each sample using the sample preservation, container, and maximum holding time procedure prescribed by ADHS and approved by EPA for the analytical method used.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-510 repealed, new Section R9-20-510 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-510 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-508, then renumbered as Section R18-4-108 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (D) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-4-108 recodified to R18-5-108 (Supp. 95-2). New Section R18-4-108 renumbered from R18-4-109 and amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.109" level="4" title="Alternate Variances">

Alternate Variances

A. The Department may grant an alternate variance from compliance with a MCL or treatment technique requirement to a public water system. When making a decision whether to grant or deny an alternate variance, the Department shall consider whether:

1. The public water system serves fewer than 10,000 persons, including the number of persons served through a consecutive system;

2. The MCL or treatment technique requirement for which the alternate variance is sought was promulgated on or after January 1, 1986;

3. The public water system will install and use an alternate variance technology published by EPA under 42 U.S.C. 300g-1(b)(15) (2001);

4. The public water system establishes, by submission of the information required of new systems under Appendices C and D of Article 6, that it cannot afford to comply with the MCL or treatment technique requirement for which the alternate variance is sought by use of one of the following:

a. Installing treatment;

b. Use of an alternative source of water supply; or

c. Restructuring or consolidation changes, including ownership change and physical consolidation with another public water system, or both.

5. The public water system is not able to obtain financial assistance under 42 U.S.C. 300j-12 (2001) or any other federal or state program;

6. The public water system submits documentation that it meets the source water quality requirements for installing the alternate variance technology; and

7. The public water system submits documentation demonstrating that it is financially and technically capable of installing, operating, and maintaining the alternate variance technology.

B. The Department shall only grant an alternate variance for a MCL that was revised after January 1,1986 up to the MCL in effect before January 1, 1986.

C. The Department shall not grant an alternate variance for a microbiological contaminant, including a bacterium, virus, or other organism, or an indicator or treatment technique for a microbial contaminant.

D. A public water system that serves fewer than 10,000 persons shall submit a written request for an alternate variance to the Department. The request shall include all items listed in R18-4-110(D) and documentation that the public water system can pay for and maintain the installation and operation of the alternate variance technology.

E. The Department shall review the alternate variance request, make a preliminary decision on the request, and schedule a public hearing for customers of the public water system to comment on the proposed alternate variance.

F. The Department shall conduct public hearings on a proposed alternate variance according to the general public hearing procedures prescribed in R18-1-402.

G. The Department shall not grant an alternate variance until the later of the following:

1. 90 days after the Department proposes to grant the alternate variance;

2. For a public water system that serves 3,300 or fewer persons, the date that the Department makes the modifications recommended by EPA or responds in writing to each objection made by EPA, if any; or

3. For a public water system that serves more than 3,300 and fewer than 10,000 persons, the date EPA approves the alternate variance.

H. The Department shall publish a final decision to grant an alternate variance in the Arizona Administrative Register.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-511 repealed, new Section R9-20-511 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-511 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-509, then renumbered as Section R18-4-109 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-109 recodified to R18-5-109 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Former Section R18-4-109 renumbered to R18-4-108; new Section R18-4-109 made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.110" level="4" title="Variances"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1">

Variances

A. The Department may grant a variance to a public water system from compliance with a MCL, except for total coliform, nitrate, or nitrite, if the public water system demonstrates to the Department all of the following:

1. The public water system cannot comply with a MCL because of the characteristics of the sources reasonably available to the public water system;

2. The public water system cannot join with another public water system or develop another source that will result in compliance with the MCL;

3. The public water system will install and use or has installed and uses best available technology in an attempt to achieve compliance with the MCL, except that if a public water system can demonstrate through a comprehensive engineering assessment of the public water system that installation and use of best available technology will achieve only a de minimis reduction in the contaminant level, the Department may grant a variance conditioned upon the issuance of a schedule of compliance that requires the public water system to examine other treatment methods to achieve compliance with the MCL. If the Department determines that another treatment method is technically feasible, the Department may require the public water system to install and use that treatment method under a schedule of compliance; and

4. The granting of a variance will not result in an unreasonable risk to the health of persons served by the public water system.

B. The Department may grant a variance to a public water system from a treatment technique requirement upon a finding that the public water system applying for the variance has demonstrated that the treatment technique is not necessary to protect the health of persons because of the nature of the source for the public water system. The Department shall not grant a variance to a public water system from treatment technique requirements related to disinfection and filtration.

C. The Department shall, as a condition of a variance, prescribe a schedule of compliance to a public water system when a variance is granted. The schedule of compliance shall include interim control measures deemed necessary by the Department and dates for their implementation. A schedule of compliance shall require compliance with the MCL for which the variance is granted as quickly as practicable, but no later than five years after the date the variance is issued. The Department may extend the final date of compliance after providing a public notice and an opportunity for a general public hearing.

D. A public water system shall submit a written request to the Department for a variance. The request shall include the following:

1. Identification of the contaminant and the MCL or treatment technique requirement for which a variance is requested;

2. Explanation of the economic and legal factors relevant to the system's ability to comply;

3. Analytical results of samples taken from water entering the distribution system after treatment and source water;

4. A description of the best available treatment technology, treatment technique, or other means that has been or will be installed and used in an attempt to comply with the MCL;

5. A proposed compliance schedule, including interim control measures and the dates that each interim control measure will be implemented. The proposed compliance schedule shall include as a minimum the following dates:

a. The date by which the public water system will arrange for an alternative source or the existing source will be improved,

b. The date of initiation of the connection of the alternative source or the improvement of the existing source, and

c. The date by which final compliance with the MCL or treatment technique requirement is to be achieved.

6. A contingency plan for the provision of safe drinking water if there is an increase in the concentration of the contaminant for which the variance is requested to prevent an unreasonable risk to public health; and

7. A statement that the public water system will perform monitoring or other reasonable requirements prescribed by the Department as a condition of the variance.

E. The Department shall consider the following factors when reviewing a request for a variance because a public water system is unable to comply with a MCL:

1. The availability and effectiveness of treatment methods for the contaminant for which the variance is requested; and

2. The cost and other economic considerations such as implementing treatment, improving the quality of the source, or using an alternative source.

F. The Department shall consider the following factors when reviewing a request for a variance from a treatment technique requirement because the treatment is unnecessary to protect the public health:

1. The quality of the source, including water quality data and pertinent sources of pollution; and

2. Source protection measures employed by the public water system.

G. The Department shall provide written notice to the applicant of a preliminary decision to grant or deny a variance within 90 days after receipt of a request. If the preliminary decision is to grant the variance, the notice shall identify the contaminant for which the variance is granted, specify the term of the variance, and include a proposed schedule of compliance. A public water system shall provide public notice of the preliminary decision to grant the variance to persons served by the public water system as required in R18-4-105. If the preliminary decision is to deny the variance, the notice of intent to deny the variance shall state the reasons for the proposed denial. The applicant may submit additional information to the Department within 30 days after receipt of the notice of intent to deny the variance. The Department shall make a final decision, in writing, and notify the applicant within 30 days after receipt of any additional information. If no additional information is submitted to the Department within 30 days, the Department shall deny the variance.

H. The Department shall provide notice and an opportunity for a public hearing on a proposed variance according to the procedures prescribed in R18-1-401. The public notice may cover one or more variance requests. Any person who is served by the public water system and who may be adversely affected by the proposed variance may request a public hearing. The Department may issue a public notice and hold a public hearing on a proposed variance on its own initiative.

1. A request for a public hearing shall be submitted to the Department within 30 days after publication of the notice of opportunity for a public hearing.

2. A request for a hearing shall include the name, address, and signature of the person requesting the hearing and a brief jurisdictional statement that describes how the person will be adversely affected by the proposed variance.

I. The Department shall conduct a public hearing on a proposed variance according to the general public hearing procedures prescribed at R18-1-402.

J. The Department may require a public water system to use bottled water, point-of-use treatment devices, point-of-entry treatment devices, or other means as a condition of granting a variance from a MCL to avoid an unreasonable risk to health.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-512 repealed, new Section R9-20-512 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-512 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-510, then renumbered as Section R18-4-110 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (B) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-4-110 recodified to R18-5-110 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.111" level="4" title="Exemptions"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="lead" times="6"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1">

Exemptions

A. The Department may grant an exemption to a public water system from a MCL (except for total coliform, nitrate, or nitrite) or a treatment technique requirement if the public water system demonstrates to the Department that:

1. The public water system is unable to comply with a MCL or treatment technique requirement because of compelling factors (which may include economic factors);

2. The grant of an exemption will not result in an unreasonable risk to public health;

3. The public water system is either:

a. An existing public water system that is in operation on the effective date of the MCL or treatment technique requirement; or

b. A new public water system that begins operation after the effective date of the MCL or treatment technique requirement, and does not have a reasonably available, alternative source that can be used to achieve compliance with the MCL or treatment technique requirement;

4. The public water system is unable to make management or restructuring changes that will result in compliance with the MCL or treatment technique requirement, or improve the quality of the drinking water; and

5. The public water system is taking all practicable steps to meet the MCL or treatment technique requirement, and:

a. The public water system cannot meet the MCL or treatment technique requirement without capital improvements that cannot be completed before the effective date of the MCL or treatment technique requirement;

b. If the public water system needs financial assistance for necessary capital improvements, the public water system has entered into an agreement to obtain the financial assistance; or

c. The public water system has entered into an enforceable agreement to become part of a regional public water system.

B. When an exemption is granted, the Department shall prescribe to the public water system a schedule for compliance through the installation of treatment or the development of an alternate source. The schedule for compliance shall include the interim control measures that the Department deems necessary and dates for their implementation.

C. The Department shall require in the schedule of compliance that a public water system comply with a MCL or treatment technique requirement as quickly as practicable, but within three years after the effective date of the MCL or treatment technique requirement. The Department may renew an exemption biennially for a period not to exceed six additional years for a public water system serving 3300 or fewer persons that cannot come into compliance within three years after the effective date of the MCL or treatment technique requirement due solely to needing financial assistance for necessary capital improvements. A public water system requesting a biennial extension must demonstrate compliance with the schedule for compliance in subsection (B).

D. The Department shall not grant an exemption to a public water system from a treatment technique requirement related to disinfection or filtration.

E. A public water system shall submit a written request to the Department for an exemption. The request shall include the following:

1. Identification of the contaminant and the MCL or treatment technique requirement for which an exemption is requested,

2. Analytical results of samples taken of both water entering the distribution system after treatment and source water, and

3. An explanation of the compelling factors that prevent the public water system from achieving compliance with the MCL or treatment technique requirement.

F. The Department shall consider the following when determining whether a public water system is unable to comply because of compelling factors:

1. The necessary construction, installation, or modification of treatment equipment or systems required;

2. The time required to place a new treatment facility into operation to replace the existing facility that is not in compliance;

3. The economic feasibility of compliance;

4. The availability of alternative sources of water; and

5. Opportunities for consolidation with another public water system.

G. The Department shall provide written notice to the applicant of a preliminary decision to grant or deny an exemption within 90 days after receipt of a request. If the preliminary decision is to grant an exemption, the notice shall identify the MCL or treatment technique requirement for which the exemption is granted, the term of the exemption, and include a proposed schedule of compliance. A public water system shall provide public notice of the preliminary decision to grant the exemption to persons served by the public water system as required in R18-4-105. If the preliminary decision is to deny the exemption, the notice of intent to deny the exemption shall state the reasons for the proposed denial. The applicant may submit additional information to the Department within 30 days after receipt of the notice of intent to deny the exemption. The Department shall make a final decision, in writing, and notify the applicant within 30 days after receipt of any additional information. If no additional information is submitted to the Department within 30 days, the Department shall deny the exemption.

H. The Department shall provide notice and an opportunity for a public hearing on a proposed exemption according to the procedures prescribed in R18-1-401. The public notice may cover one or more exemption requests. Any person who is served by the public water system and who may be adversely affected by the proposed exemption may request a public hearing. The Department may issue a public notice and hold a public hearing on a proposed exemption on its own initiative.

1. A request for a public hearing shall be submitted to the Department within 30 days after publication of the notice of opportunity for a public hearing.

2. A request for a hearing shall include the name, address, and signature of the person requesting the hearing and a brief jurisdictional statement that describes how the person will be adversely affected by the proposed exemption.

I. The Department shall conduct a public hearing on a proposed exemption according to the general public hearing procedures prescribed at R18-1-402.

J. The Department may require a public water system to use bottled water, a point-of-use treatment device, a point-of-entry treatment device, or other means as a condition of granting an exemption from a MCL requirement to avoid an unreasonable risk to health. The Department may require a public water system to use bottled water, a point-of-use treatment device, or other means as a condition of granting an exemption from a corrosion control treatment requirement for lead and copper to avoid an unreasonable risk to health. The Department may require a public water system to use a point-of-entry treatment device as a condition of granting an exemption from the source water treatment or the lead service line replacement requirements, or both, for lead or copper to avoid an unreasonable risk to health. If the Department requires the use of a point-of-entry treatment device as a condition of granting an exemption from the source water treatment or the lead service line replacement requirements, or both, for lead or copper, the public water system shall ensure that use of the treatment device will not cause increased corrosion of lead- or copper-bearing materials located between the device and the tap that could increase contaminant levels at the tap.

K. A public water system shall not receive an exemption under this Section if the public water system has been granted an alternate variance under R18-4-109.

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-511 and renumbered as Section R18-4-111 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-111 recodified to R18-5-111 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.112" level="4" title="Exclusions"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1">

Exclusions

A. A water supplier may request an exclusion from any requirement contained in this Chapter if such requirement is not also a requirement contained in a National Primary Drinking Water Regulation. The Department shall consider the application of a water supplier for an exclusion from compliance with portions of this Chapter if it can be satisfactorily demonstrated that:

1. The request is not for a requirement which meets the qualifications to be addressed by a variance or exemption;

2. The request is not for requirements relating to turbidity, nitrate, or microbiological contaminants; and

3. The exclusion will not result in unreasonable risk to public health.

B. An application for an exclusion shall contain the following information:

1. The nature and duration of the exclusion requested,

2. Analytical results of water quality sampling of the water system including tests conducted as required by this Chapter,

3. An explanation and submittal of evidence that the exclusion will not result in an unreasonable risk to public health, and

4. Other information that the applicant believes to be pertinent or that the Department requires.

C. The Department shall take the following action on the application:

1. If the Department grants the request for an exclusion, it shall notify the applicant of that decision in writing within 90 days of receipt of the application. Such notice shall identify the facility covered, the conditions and requirements of the exclusion, including control measures, and that the exclusion may be terminated upon a finding that the water system has failed to comply with any conditions or requirements of the exclusion.

2. If the Department determines that an exclusion is not justified, it shall notify the applicant of the intention of denial within 90 days of receipt of the application, indicating the reasons for the proposed denial, and shall offer the applicant an opportunity to submit additional information to the Department within 30 days of the notice of intention to deny application. The Department shall make a final determination and notify the applicant within 30 days after receiving such additional information. If no additional information is submitted, the application shall be denied.

D. In addition to reviewing a request submitted by a water supplier, the Department may, on its own initiative, grant exclusions to water systems, either individually or on a group basis, provided that the exclusions meet criteria prescribed in subsection (A) of this Section.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-517 repealed, new Section R9-20-517 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Amended effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-517 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-512, then renumbered as Section R18-4-112 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-112 recodified to R18-5-112 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.113" level="4" title="Consecutive Public Water Systems">

Consecutive Public Water Systems

When a public water system obtains all of its water from another public water system that is regulated by the Department, the Department may modify the monitoring requirements imposed by this Chapter to the extent that the interconnection of the public water systems justifies treating them as a single public water system for monitoring purposes. Any modified monitoring by a public water system shall be conducted according to a written monitoring schedule prescribed by the Department and approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-513 and renumbered as Section R18-4-113 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsections (A) and (C) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-4-113 recodified to R18-5-113 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.114" level="4" title="Certified Operators">

Certified Operators

A water supplier of a public water system shall provide for a certified operator who is properly certified pursuant to 18 A.A.C. 5, Article 1 to operate each water treatment plant in the system and the distribution system. The same certified operator may be in direct responsible charge of one or more water treatment plants and the distribution system provided the operator holds an operator certificate of the proper type and grade for each facility. Separate operator certificates are required to operate a water treatment plant and a distribution system.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-519 repealed, new Section R9-20-519 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-519 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-514, then renumbered as Section R18-4-114 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-114 recodified to R18-5-114 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.115" level="4" title="Backflow Prevention">

Backflow Prevention

A. A public water system shall protect its system from contamination caused by backflow through unprotected cross-connections by requiring the installation and periodic testing of backflow-prevention assemblies. Required backflow-prevention assemblies shall be installed as close as practicable to the service connection.

B. A public water system shall ensure that a backflow-prevention assembly is installed whenever any of the following occur:

1. A substance harmful to human health is handled in a manner that could permit its entry into the public water system. These substances include chemicals, chemical or biological process waters, water from public water supplies that has deteriorated in sanitary quality, and water that has entered a fire sprinkler system. A Class 1 or Class 2 fire sprinkler system is exempt from the requirements of this Section;

2. A source of water supply exists on the user's premises that is not accepted as an additional source by the public water system or is not approved by the Department;

3. An unprotected cross-connection exists or a cross-connection problem has previously occurred within a user's premises; or

4. There is a significant possibility that a cross-connection problem will occur and entry to the premises is restricted to the extent that cross-connection inspections cannot be made with sufficient frequency or on sufficiently short notice to assure that unprotected cross-connections do not exist.

C. Unless a cross-connection problem is specifically identified, or as otherwise provided in this Section, the requirements of this Section shall not apply to single family residences used solely for residential purposes.

D. A backflow-prevention assembly required by this Section shall comply with the following:

1. If equipped with test cocks, it shall have been issued a certificate of approval by:

a. The University of Southern California Foundation for Cross-Connection Control and Hydraulic Research (USC-FCCCHR), or

b. A third-party certifying entity that is unrelated to the product's manufacturer or vendor, and is approved by the Department.

2. If not equipped with test cocks, it shall be approved by a third-party certifying entity that is unrelated to the product's manufacturer or vendor and is approved by the Department.

E. The minimum level of backflow protection that is provided to protect a public water system shall be the level recommended in Section 7.2 of the Manual of Cross-Connection Control, Ninth Edition, USC-FCCCHR, KAP-200 University Park MC-2531, Los Angeles, California, 90089-2531, December 1993, (and no future editions or amendments), incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. The types of backflow prevention that may be required, listed in decreasing order according to the level of protection they provide, include: an air-gap separation (AG), a reduced pressure principle backflow prevention (RP) assembly, a pressure vacuum breaker (PVB) assembly, and a double check valve (DC) assembly. Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the public water system from requiring the use of a higher level of protection than that required by this subsection.

1. A public water system may make installation of a required backflow-prevention assembly a condition of service. A user's failure to comply with this requirement shall be sufficient cause for the public water system to terminate water service.

2. Specific installation requirements for backflow prevention include the following:

a. Any backflow prevention required by this Section shall be installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.

b. For an AG installation, all piping between the user's connection and the receiving tank shall be entirely visible unless otherwise approved in writing by the public water system.

c. An RP assembly shall not be installed in a meter box, pit, or vault unless adequate drainage is provided.

d. A PVB assembly may be installed for use on a landscape water irrigation system if the irrigation system conforms to all of the criteria listed below. An RP assembly is required whenever any of the criteria are not met.

i. The water use beyond the assembly is for irrigation purposes only;

ii. The PVB is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;

iii. The irrigation system is designed and constructed to be incapable of inducing backpressure; and

iv. Chemigation, the injection of chemical pesticides and fertilizers, is not used or provided in the irrigation system.

F. Each backflow-prevention assembly required by this Section shall be tested at least annually, or more frequently if directed by the public water system or the Department. Each assembly shall also be tested after installation, relocation, or repair. An assembly shall not be placed in service unless it has been tested and is functioning as designed. The following provisions shall apply to the testing of backflow-prevention assemblies:

1. Testing shall be in accordance with procedures described in Section 9 of the Manual of Cross-Connection Control. The public water system shall notify the water user when testing of backflow-prevention assemblies is needed. The notice shall specify the date by which the testing must be completed and the results forwarded to the public water system.

2. Testing shall be performed by a person who is currently certified as a "general" tester by the California-Nevada Section of the American Water Works Association (CA-NV Section, AWWA), the Arizona State Environmental Technical Training (ASETT) Center, or other certifying authority approved by the Department.

3. When a backflow-prevention assembly is tested and found to be defective, it shall be repaired or replaced in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

G. A public water system shall maintain records of backflow-prevention assembly installations and tests performed on backflow-prevention assemblies in its service area. Records shall be retained by the public water system for at least three years and shall be made available for review by the Department upon request. These records shall include an inventory of backflow-prevention assemblies required by this Section and, for each assembly, all of the following information:

1. Assembly identification number and description,

2. Location,

3. Date of tests,

4. Description of repairs and recommendations for repairs made by the tester, and

5. The tester's name and certificate number.

H. A public water system shall submit a written cross-connection incident report to the Department and the local health authority within five business days after a cross-connection problem occurs that results in contamination of the public water system. The report shall address all of the following:

1. Date and time of discovery of the unprotected cross-connection,

2. Nature of the cross-connection problem,

3. Affected area,

4. Cause of the cross-connection problem,

5. Public health impact,

6. Date and text of any public health advisory issued,

7. Each corrective action taken, and

8. Date of completion of each corrective action.

I. An individual with direct responsibility for implementing a backflow prevention program for a water system serving more than 50,000 persons, or if the Department has determined that such a need exists, shall be licensed as a "cross-connection control program specialist" by the CA-NV Section, AWWA, the ASETT Center, or other certifying authority approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-520 repealed, new Section R9-20-520 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-520 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-515, then renumbered as Section R18-4-115 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-4-115 recodified to R18-5-115 (Supp. 95-2). New Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.116" level="4" title="Emergency Operation Plans"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Emergency Operation Plans

A. The water supplier for a community water system shall develop and keep an emergency operations plan in an easily accessible location. At a minimum, the emergency operations plan shall detail the steps that the community water system will take to assure continuation of service in the following emergency situations:

1. Loss of a source;

2. Loss of water supply due to major component failure;

3. Damage to power supply equipment or loss of power;

4. Contamination of water in the distribution system from backflow;

5. Collapse of a reservoir, reservoir roof, or pumphouse structure;

6. A break in a transmission or distribution line; and

7. Chemical or microbiological contamination of the water supply.

B. The emergency operations plan required by subsection (A) shall address all of the following:

1. Provision of alternate sources of water during the emergency;

2. Notice procedures for regulatory agencies, news media, and users;

3. Disinfection and testing of the distribution system once service is restored;

4. Identification of critical system components that shall remain in service or be returned to service quickly;

5. Critical spare parts inventory; and

6. Staff training in emergency response procedures.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.117" level="4" title="Unsafe Supplies"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1">

Unsafe Supplies

The Department may order a public water system to disconnect a source to protect the public health from an acute health risk that is attributable to the source. An acute health risk is posed when one of the following occurs:

1. A violation of a MCL for total coliform and fecal coliform or E. coli are present that is attributable to the source,

2. A violation of the MCL for nitrate or nitrite that is attributable to the source, or

3. An occurrence of a waterborne disease outbreak that is attributable to the source.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.118" level="4" title="Sanitary Surveys"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Sanitary Surveys

A. Each public water system shall undergo a sanitary survey. A sanitary survey shall be conducted on a scheduled basis, when the Department determines that a public water system is not in compliance with this Chapter or when the Department determines that a public water system poses a threat to public health because of defective design, lack of treatment, inadequacy of the source, poor maintenance, inadequate records, ineffective operation, or that the water is unsatisfactory for use. A water supplier shall make necessary alteration or additions in the design or construction of equipment and such changes in the operation of the public water system as necessary to comply with requirements of this Chapter and within the time limits set by the Department.

B. A community water system which collects fewer than five routine microbiological samples per month shall undergo an initial sanitary survey by June 29, 1994. A noncommunity water system which collects fewer than five routine microbiological samples per month shall undergo an initial sanitary survey by June 29, 1999. Thereafter, these systems shall undergo another sanitary survey every five years, except that noncommunity water systems using only protected and disinfected groundwater shall undergo subsequent sanitary surveys at intervals not to exceed 10 years. The Department shall review the results of each sanitary survey to determine whether existing monitoring frequency is adequate and what additional measures, if any, the public water system needs to undertake to improve drinking water quality.

C. In conducting a sanitary survey of a groundwater system, information on sources of contamination within a delineated wellhead protection area shall be considered instead of collecting new information provided the information was collected since the last time the system was subject to a sanitary survey.

D. A sanitary survey of a public water system shall be made by a representative of the Department or a professional engineer or sanitarian who is registered in Arizona and approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.119" level="4" title="Standards for Additives, Materials, and Equipment"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="chlorin" times="1"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1">

Standards for Additives, Materials, and Equipment

A. Each product added directly to water during production or treatment shall conform to ANSI/NSF Standard 60. Products covered by this subsection include but are not limited to:

1. Coagulation and flocculation chemicals;

2. Chemicals for corrosion and scale control;

3. Chemicals for softening, precipitation, sequestering, and pH adjustment;

4. Disinfection and oxidation chemicals;

5. Chemicals for fluoridation, defluoridation, algae control, and dechlorination;

6. Dyes and tracers;

7. Antifreezes, antifoamers, regenerants, and separation process scale inhibitors and cleaners; and

8. Water well drilling and rehabilitation aids.

B. Except as identified in subsections (D) and (E), a material or product installed after January 1, 1993, that comes into contact with water or a water treatment chemical shall conform to ANSI/NSF Standard 61. Products and materials covered by this subsection include but are not limited to:

1. Process media, such as carbon and sand;

2. Joining and sealing materials, such as solvents, cements, welding materials, and gaskets;

3. Lubricants;

4. Pipes and related products, such as tanks and fittings;

5. Mechanical devices used in treatment, transmission, or distribution systems such as valves, chlorinators, and separation membranes; and

6. Surface coatings and paints.

C. Evidence that a product conforms to the requirements of this Section shall be the appearance on the product or product package of a seal of a certifying entity that is accredited by the American National Standards Institute to provide the certification.

D. The Director shall consider standards for chemicals, materials, or equipment that [have] been certified by . . . [NSF International] as complying with the standards required by this Section. In those instances where chemicals, materials, and equipment that come into contact with drinking water are essential to the design, construction, or operation of the drinking water system and have not been certified by . . . [NSF International] or have . . . [NSF International] certification but are not available from more than one source, the standards shall provide for the use of alternatives which include:

1. Products composed entirely of ingredients determined by the Environmental Protection Agency, the Food and Drug Administration, or other federal agencies as appropriate for addition to potable water or aqueous food.

2. Products composed entirely of ingredients listed in the National Academy of Sciences "Water Chemicals Codex."

3. Products consistent with the specifications of the American Water Works Association.

4. Products that are designed for use in drinking water systems and that are consistent with the specifications of the American Society for Testing and Materials.

5. Products that are historically used or in use in drinking water systems consistent with standard practice and that have not been demonstrated during past applications in the United States to contribute to water contamination. A.R.S. &#167; 49-353.01(B)

E. The Department exempts the following materials and products from the requirement to conform to ANSI/NSF Standard 61:

1. A concrete structure, tank, or treatment tank basin constructed onsite that is not normally coated or sealed if the construction materials used in the concrete are consistent with subsection (D). If a coating or sealant is specified by the design engineer, the coating or sealant shall comply with ANSI/NSF Standard 61;

2. An earthen reservoir or canal located upstream of water treatment;

3. A water treatment plant that is comprised of components that comply with subsections (B), (C), and (D);

4. A synthetic tank constructed of material that meets Food and Drug Administration standards for a material that comes into contact with drinking water or aqueous food, or a galvanized steel tank, either of which is:

a. Less than 15,000 gallons in capacity, and

b. Used in a public water system with 500 or fewer service connections; or

5. A pipe, treatment plant component, or water distribution system component made of lead-free stainless steel.

Historical Note

Former Section R18-4-215 renumbered R18-4-119 pursuant to R1-1-404 effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.120" level="4" title="Monitoring and Sampling by the Department">

Monitoring and Sampling by the Department

A. The Department may take samples from a public water system. If the Department takes a sample at a public water system, the Department shall forward a copy of the analytical results to the water supplier.

B. If a public water system fails to monitor, the Department may monitor to determine compliance with MCLs. A public water system shall not use Department monitoring to satisfy monitoring requirements prescribed by this Chapter. This subsection does not apply to monitoring under the monitoring assistance program.

C. A contractor shall take compliance samples for the categories of contaminants listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-360(A)(1) through (3) for a public water system that participates in the monitoring assistance program.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.121" level="4" title="Enforcement">

Enforcement

A. A water supplier who constructs, operates, or maintains a public water system contrary to the provisions of this Chapter or fails to maintain the quality of water within the public water system as required by this Chapter is subject to the actions provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-142 and &#167; 49-354.

B. If the Department determines that a public water system is not in compliance with any of the provisions of this Chapter, the Department may issue an order to the water supplier that requires the public water system to make no further service connections or that limits the number of service connections until the Department determines that the public water system achieves compliance.

C. The Department may determine compliance or initiate enforcement action based upon analytical results and other information compiled by the Department or other federal, state, or local agencies.

D. The Department shall round compliance data to the same number of significant figures as the MCL in question to determine compliance with the MCL.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.122" level="4" title="Entry and Inspection of Public Water Systems">

Entry and Inspection of Public Water Systems

A Department inspection shall comply with A.R.S. &#167; 41-1009.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix A. Renumbered

Historical Note

New Appendix made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Appendix A repealed; new Appendix A made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). Appendix A renumbered to a position after R18-4-125 at 8 A.A.R. 2756, effective June 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.123" level="4" title="Vending Machines"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="2"><dwc name="total coliform" times="3"><dwc name="coliform" times="3"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Vending Machines

An owner of a water vending machine shall be responsible for the proper operation of each water vending machine. The owner shall do all of the following:

1. Clean and maintain each water vending machine according to the manufacturer's recommendations;

2. Retain maintenance and cleaning records for one year;

3. Have analyses performed at least once every six months for total coliform bacteria. Results of such analyses shall be retained for one year. If a sample is positive for total coliform, the water vending machine shall be removed from service, and all components shall be cleaned or replaced or serviced. The water vending machine shall not be placed back into service until another total coliform bacteria analysis is performed, and the result is negative; and

4. Maintain in operable condition all ultraviolet, ozone, or other disinfection components and automatic disabling capabilities built into the vending machine for use in the event of a disinfection system malfunction.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.124" level="4" title="Operation and Maintenance">

Operation and Maintenance

A water supplier shall maintain and keep in proper operating condition all facilities used in production, treatment, and distribution of the water supply so as to comply with the requirements of this Chapter.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.125" level="4" title="Hauled Water"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="6"><dwc name="total coliform" times="2"><dwc name="coliform" times="8"><dwc name="turbid" times="4"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="9"><dwc name="chlorin" times="20"><dwc name="chloramin" times="3"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="9"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="2"><dwc name="bromat" times="2"><dwc name="chlorit" times="3"><dwc name="haloacet acid" times="3"><dwc name="haa" times="2"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="2"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="3"><dwc name="tthm" times="2"><dwc name="inorgan contamin" times="2"><dwc name="antimoni" times="2"><dwc name="arsen" times="2"><dwc name="asbesto" times="3"><dwc name="barium" times="2"><dwc name="beryllium" times="2"><dwc name="cadmium" times="2"><dwc name="chromium" times="2"><dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="cyanid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="13"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="nitrat" times="2"><dwc name="nitrit" times="2"><dwc name="selenium" times="3"><dwc name="thallium" times="2"><dwc name="organ contamin" times="4"><dwc name="acrylamid" times="2"><dwc name="alachlor" times="2"><dwc name="atrazin" times="2"><dwc name="benzen" times="2"><dwc name="pah" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="2"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="2"><dwc name="chlordan" times="2"><dwc name="chlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="dalapon" times="2"><dwc name="dbcp" times="2"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="2"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="2"><dwc name="dioxin" times="2"><dwc name="tcdd" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="2"><dwc name="endothal" times="2"><dwc name="endrin" times="2"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="2"><dwc name="ethylen dibromid" times="2"><dwc name="glyphos" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="5"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="2"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="lindan" times="2"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="2"><dwc name="vydat" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="2"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="2"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="2"><dwc name="picloram" times="2"><dwc name="simazin" times="2"><dwc name="styren" times="2"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="toluen" times="2"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="2"><dwc name="silvex" times="2"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="2"><dwc name="xylen" times="2"><dwc name="radioact" times="2"><dwc name="alpha emitt" times="2"><dwc name="alpha radiat" times="1"><dwc name="photon emitt" times="2"><dwc name="beta radiat" times="1"><dwc name="radium" times="2">

Hauled Water

A. All hauled water for delivery to a public water system shall be obtained from a source that is approved pursuant to R18-4-505(B)(1)(d) or a regulated public water system.

B. Materials or products which come into contact with the water shall comply with R18-4-119(B).

C. Roof hatches shall be fitted with a watertight cover.

D. A bottom drain valve or other provisions to allow complete drainage and cleaning of a water transport container shall be provided.

E. Hoses which are used to deliver drinking water shall be equipped with a cap and shall remain capped when not in use.

F. A water hauler shall, at all times, maintain a residual free chlorine level of 0.2 mg/l to 1.0 mg/l in the water that is hauled in a water transport container. A chlorine disinfectant shall be added at the time water is loaded into the container. The residual free chlorine level shall be measured each time water is off-loaded from the container. The water hauler shall maintain a log of all on-loading, chlorine disinfectant additions and residual-free chlorine measurements. Such records shall be maintained for at least three years and made available to the Department for review upon request.

G A water transport container shall be for hauling drinking water only. The container shall be plainly and conspicuously labeled "For Drinking Water Use Only."

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-1).

Appendix A. Regulated Contaminants

(Key for explanation of acronyms and endnotes is at the end of the appendix.)

Part 1. Microbiological Contaminants

<table> Microbiological Contaminants MCL MCLG Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* Monit.* Total Coliform Bacteria Presence of coliform bacteria in 5% or more of monthly samples (CWSs that collect 40 or more samples per month); one positive monthly sample (CWSs that collect fewer than 40 samples per month). 0 Naturally present in the environment. Coliforms are bacteria that are naturally present in the environment and are used as an indicator that other, potentially harmful, bacteria may be present. Coliforms were found in more samples than allowed and this was a warning of potential problems. NAL1 NAL2 Fecal coliform and E. coli A routine sample and a repeat sample are total coliform positive, and one is also fecal coliform or E. coli positive 0 Human and animal fecal waste. Fecal coliforms and E. coli are bacteria whose presence indicates that the water may be contaminated with human or animal wastes. Microbes in these wastes can cause short-term effects, such as diarrhea, cramps, nausea, headaches, or other symptoms. They may pose a special health risk for infants, young children, and people with severely compromised immune systems. AC AC, NAL2 Turbidity Treatment Technique as specified in R18-4-302 N/A Soil Run-off Turbidity has no health effects. However, turbidity can interfere with disinfection and provide a medium for microbial growth. Turbidity may indicate the presence of disease-causing organisms. These organisms include bacteria, viruses, and parasites that can cause symptoms such as nausea, cramps, diarrhea, and associated headaches. NAL1, AC NAL2 </table>

Part 2. Radiochemicals

<table> Radiochemicals MCL MCLG Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* Monit.* Beta/photon emitters 4 millirems/ Year 0 Decay of natural and man-made deposits. Certain minerals are radioactive and may emit forms of radiation known as photons and beta radiation. Some people who drink water containing beta and photon emitters in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Alpha emitters 15 picocuries/Liter 0 Erosion of natural deposits. Certain minerals are radioactive and may emit a form of radiation known as alpha radiation. Some people who drink water containing alpha emitters in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Combined radium 226/228 5 picocuries/ Liter 0 Erosion of natural deposits. Some people who drink water containing radium 226 or 228 in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 </table>

Part 3. Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts

<table> Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts MCL / MRDL in mg/L (MCL unless MRDL specified) MCLG in mg/L Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* or MRDL* Monit.* Bromate .010 0 By-product of drinking water chlorination Some people who drink water containing bromate in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Chloramines MRDL = 4.0 MRDLG = 4.0 Water additive used to control microbes Some people who use water containing chloramines well in excess of the MRDL could experience irritating effects to their eyes and nose. Some people who drink water containing chloramines well in excess of the MRDL could experience stomach discomfort or anemia. NAL1 NAL2 Chlorine MRDL = 4.0 MRDLG = 4.0 Water additive used to control microbes Some people who use water containing chlorine well in excess of the MRDL could experience irritating effects to their eyes and nose. Some people who drink water containing chlorine well in excess of the MRDL could experience stomach discomfort. NAL1 NAL2 Chlorine dioxide MRDL = .8 MRDLG = .8 Water additive used to control microbes Some infants and young children who drink water containing chlorine dioxide in excess of the MRDL could experience nervous system effects. Similar effects may occur in fetuses of pregnant women who drink water containing chlorine dioxide in excess of the MRDL. Some people may experience anemia. See endnote (a). AC, NAL1 AC, NAL1, NAL2 Chlorite 1 .8 By-product of drinking water chlorination Some infants and young children who drink water containing chlorite in excess of the MCL could experience nervous system effects. Similar effects may occur in fetuses of pregnant women who drink water containing chlorite in excess of the MCL. Some people may experience anemia. NAL1, NAL2 Haloacetic Acids (HAA5) .060 See endnote (b). N/A By-product of drinking water disinfection Some people who drink water containing haloacetic acids in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 TTHMs (Total trihalomethanes) .10 or .080 See endnote (c). N/A Byproduct of drinking water chlorination. Some people who drink water containing trihalomethanes in excess of the MCL over many years may experience problems with their liver, kidneys, or central nervous systems, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 </table>

Part 4. Inorganic Contaminants

<table> Inorganic Contaminants MCL in mg/L MCLG in mg/L Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* Monit.* Antimony .006 .006 Discharge from petroleum refineries; fire retardants; ceramics; electronics; solder. Some people who drink water containing antimony well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience increases in blood cholesterol and decreases in blood sugar. NAL1 NAL2 Arsenic .05 N/A Erosion of natural deposits; Run-off from orchards; Run-off from glass and electronics production wastes. Some people who drink water containing arsenic in excess of the MCL over many years could experience skin damage or problems with their circulatory system, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Asbestos 7 million fibers/Liter (MFL) 7 MFL Decay of asbestos cement water mains; Erosion of natural deposits. Some people who drink water containing asbestos in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of developing benign intestinal polyps. NAL1 NAL2 Barium 2 2 Discharge of drilling wastes; Discharge from metal refineries; Erosion of natural deposits. Some people who drink water containing barium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience an increase in their blood pressure. NAL1 NAL2 Beryllium .004 .004 Discharge from metal refineries and coal-burning factories; Discharge from electrical, aerospace, and defense industries. Some people who drink water containing beryllium well in excess of the MCL over many years could develop intestinal lesions. NAL1 NAL2 Cadmium .005 .005 Corrosion of galvanized pipes; Erosion of natural deposits; Discharge from metal refineries; run-off from waste batteries and paints. Some people who drink water containing cadmium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience kidney damage. NAL1 NAL2 Chromium .1 .1 Discharge from steel and pulp mills; Erosion of natural deposits. Some people who use water containing chromium well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience allergic dermatitis. NAL1 NAL2 Copper Action Level = 1.3 1.3 Corrosion of household plumbing systems; Erosion of natural deposits; Leaching from wood preservatives. Copper is an essential nutrient, but some people who drink water containing copper in excess of the action level over a relatively short amount of time could experience gastrointestinal distress. Some people who drink water containing copper in excess of the action level over many years could suffer liver or kidney damage. People with Wilson's Disease should consult their personal doctor. NAL1 NAL2 Cyanide .2 .2 Discharge from steel or metal factories; Discharge from plastic and fertilizer factories. Some people who drink water containing cyanide well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience nerve damage or problems with their thyroid. NAL1 NAL2 Fluoride 4.0 4.0 Erosion of natural deposits; Water additive that promotes strong teeth; Discharge from fertilizer and aluminum factories. Some people who drink water containing fluoride in excess of the MCL over many years could get bone disease, including pain and tenderness of the bones. Children may get mottled teeth. NAL1 NAL2 Fluoride Levels greater than 2.0 mg/L, but less than 4.0 mg/L, N/A N/A See endnote (d). Lead Action Level = .015 0 Corrosion of household plumbing systems; Erosion of natural deposits. Infants and children who drink water containing lead in excess of the action level could experience delays in their physical or mental development. Children could show slight deficits in attention span and learning abilities. Adults who drink this water over many years could develop kidney problems or high blood pressure. NAL1 NAL2 Mercury .002 .002 Erosion of natural deposits; Discharge from refineries and factories; Runoff from landfills; Runoff from crop land. Some people who drink water containing inorganic mercury well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience kidney damage. NAL1 NAL2 Nitrate 10 10 Runoff from fertilizer use; Leaching from septic tanks, sewage; Erosion of natural deposits. Infants below the age of six months who drink water containing nitrate in excess of the MCL could become seriously ill and, if untreated, may die. Symptoms include shortness of breath and blue-baby syndrome. AC AC, NAL2 Nitrite 1 1 Runoff from fertilizer use; Leaching from septic tanks, sewage; Erosion of natural deposits. Infants below the age of six months who drink water containing nitrite in excess of the MCL could become seriously ill and, if untreated, may die. Symptoms include shortness of breath and blue-baby syndrome. AC AC, NAL2 Selenium .05 .05 Discharge from petroleum and metal refineries; Erosion of natural deposits; Discharge from mines. Selenium is an essential nutrient. However, some people who drink water containing selenium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience hair or fingernail losses, numbness in fingers or toes, or problems with their circulation. NAL1 NAL2 Thallium .002 .0005 Leaching from ore-processing sites; Discharge from electronics, glass, and drug factories. Some people who drink water containing thallium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience hair loss, changes in their blood, or problems with their kidneys, intestines, or liver. NAL1 NAL2 </table>

Part 5. Synthetic Organic Contaminants (including Pesticides and Herbicides)

<table> Synthetic Organic Contaminants (including Pesticides and Herbicides) MCL in mg/L MCLG in mg/L Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* Monit.* 2,4-D .07 .07 Runoff from herbicide used on row crops. Some people who drink water containing the weed killer 2,4-D well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their kidneys, liver, or adrenal glands. NAL1 NAL2 2,4,5-TP [Silvex] .05 .05 Residue of banned herbicide. Some people who drink water containing silvex in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver problems. NAL1 NAL2 Acrylamide Treatment Technique as specified in R18-4-317 0 Added to water during sewage and wastewater treatment. Some people who drink water containing high levels of acrylamide over a long period of time could have problems with their nervous system or blood, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Alachlor .002 0 Runoff from herbicide used on row crops. Some people who drink water containing alachlor in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their eyes, liver, kidneys, or spleen, or experience anemia, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Atrazine .003 .003 Runoff from herbicide used on row crops. Some people who drink water containing atrazine well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their cardiovascular system or reproductive difficulties. NAL1 NAL2 Benzo(a)pyrene [PAH] .0002 0 Leaching from linings of water storage tanks and distribution lines. Some people who drink water containing benzo(a)pyrene in excess of the MCL over many years may experience reproductive difficulties and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Carbofuran .04 .04 Leaching of soil fumigant used on rice and alfalfa. Some people who drink water containing carbofuran in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their blood, or nervous or reproductive systems. NAL1 NAL2 Chlordane .002 0 Residue of banned termiticide. Some people who drink water containing chlordane in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver or nervous system, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Dalapon .2 .2 Runoff from herbicide used on rights of way. Some people who drink water containing dalapon well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience minor kidney changes. NAL1 NAL2 Di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate .4 .4 Discharge from chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing di (2-ethylhexyl) adipate well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience general toxic effects or reproductive difficulties. NAL1 NAL2 Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate .006 0 Discharge from rubber and chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing di (2-ethylhexyl) phthalate in excess of the MCL over many years may have problems with their liver, or experience reproductive difficulties, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Dibromochloro-propane (DBCP) .0002 0 Runoff or leaching from soil fumigant used on soybeans, cotton, pineapples, and orchards. Some people who drink water containing DBCP in excess of the MCL over many years could experience reproductive difficulties and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Dinoseb .007 .007 Runoff from herbicide used on soybeans and vegetables. Some people who drink water containing dinoseb well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience reproductive difficulties. NAL1 NAL2 Dioxin [2,3,7,8-TCDD] .00000003 0 Emissions from waste incineration and other combustion; Discharge from chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing dioxin in excess of the MCL over many years could experience reproductive difficulties and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Diquat .02 .02 Runoff from herbicide use. Some people who drink water containing diquat in excess of the MCL over many years could get cataracts. NAL1 NAL2 Endothall .1 .1 Runoff from herbicide use. Some people who drink water containing endothall in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their stomach or intestines. NAL1 NAL2 Endrin .002 .002 Residue of banned insecticide. Some people who drink water containing endrin in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver problems. NAL1 NAL2 Epichlorohydrin Treatment technique as specified in R18-4-317. 0 Discharge from industrial chemical factories; An impurity of some water treatment chemicals. Some people who drink water containing high levels of epichlorohydrin over a long period of time could experience stomach problems, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Ethylene dibromide .00005 0 Discharge from petroleum refineries. Some people who drink water containing ethylene dibromide in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver, stomach, reproductive system, or kidneys, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Glyphosate .7 .7 Runoff from herbicide use. Some people who drink water containing glyphosate in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their kidneys or reproductive difficulties. NAL1 NAL2 Heptachlor .0004 0 Residue of banned pesticide. Some people who drink water containing heptachlor in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver damage and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Heptachlor epoxide .0002 0 Breakdown of heptachlor. Some people who drink water containing heptachlor epoxide in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver damage, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Hexachlorobenzene .001 0 Discharge from metal refineries and agricultural chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing hexachlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver or kidneys, or adverse reproductive effects, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Hexachloro- cyclopentadiene .05 .05 Discharge from chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing hexachlorocyclopentadie ne well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their kidneys or stomach. NAL1 NAL2 Lindane .0002 .0002 Runoff or leaching from insecticide used on cattle, lumber, and gardens. Some people who drink water containing lindane in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their kidneys or liver. NAL1 NAL2 Methoxychlor .04 .04 Runoff or leaching from insecticide used on fruits, vegetables, alfalfa, and livestock. Some people who drink water containing methoxychlor in excess of the MCL over many years could experience reproductive difficulties. NAL1 NAL2 Oxamyl [Vydate] .2 .2 Runoff or leaching from insecticide used on apples, potatoes and tomatoes. Some people who drink water containing oxamyl in excess of the MCL over many years could experience slight nervous system effects. NAL1 NAL2 PCBs [Polychlorinated biphenyls] .0005 0 Runoff from landfills; discharge of waste chemicals. Some people who drink water containing PCBs in excess of the MCL over many years could experience changes in their skin, problems with their thymus gland, immune deficiencies, or reproductive or nervous system difficulties, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Pentachlorophenol .001 0 Discharge from wood preserving factories. Some people who drink water containing pentachlorophenol in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver or kidneys, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Picloram .5 .5 Herbicide runoff. Some people who drink water containing picloram in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver. NAL1 NAL2 Simazine .004 .004 Herbicide runoff. Some people who drink water containing simazine in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their blood. NAL1 NAL2 Toxaphene .003 0 Runoff or leaching from insecticide used on cotton and cattle. Some people who drink water containing toxaphene in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their kidneys, liver, or thyroid, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 </table>

Part 6. Volatile Organic Contaminants

<table> Volatile Organic Contaminants MCL in mg/L MCLG in mg/L Major Sources in Drinking Water Mandatory Health Language Type of PN* required MCL* Monit.* Benzene .005 0 Discharge from factories; Leaching from gas storage tanks and landfills. Some people who drink water containing benzene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience anemia or a decrease in blood platelets, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Carbon tetrachloride .005 0 Discharge from chemical plants and other industrial activities. Some people who drink water containing carbon tetrachloride in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Chlorobenzene .1 .1 Discharge from chemical and agricultural chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing chlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver or kidneys. NAL1 NAL2 o-Dichlorobenzene .6 .6 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing o-dichlorobenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver, kidneys, or circulatory systems. NAL1 NAL2 p-Dichlorobenzene .075 .075 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing p-dichlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience anemia, damage to their liver, kidneys, or spleen, or changes in their blood. NAL1 NAL2 1,2-Dichloroethane .005 0 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,2-dichloroethane in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 1,1-Dichloroethylene .007 .007 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,1-dichloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver. NAL1 NAL2 cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene .07 .07 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing cis-1,2-dichloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver. NAL1 NAL2 trans-1,2- Dichloroethylene .1 .1 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing trans-1,2-dichloroethylene well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver. NAL1 NAL2 Dichloromethane .005 0 Discharge from pharmaceutical and chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing dichloromethane in excess of the MCL over many years could have liver problems and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 1,2-Dichloropropane .005 0 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,2-dichloropropane in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Ethylbenzene .7 .7 Discharge from petroleum refineries. Some people who drink water containing ethylbenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver or kidneys. NAL1 NAL2 Styrene .1 .1 Discharge from rubber and plastic factories; Leaching from landfills. Some people who drink water containing styrene well in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their liver, kidneys, or circulatory system. NAL1 NAL2 Tetrachloroethylene .005 0 Discharge from factories and dry cleaners. Some people who drink water containing tetrachloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their liver, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene .07 .07 Discharge from textile-finishing factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience changes in their adrenal glands. NAL1 NAL2 1,1,1-Trichloroethane .2 .2 Discharge from metal degreasing sites and other factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,1,1-trichloroethane in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver, nervous system, or circulatory system. NAL1 NAL2 1,1,2-Trichloroethane .005 .003 Discharge from industrial chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing 1,1,2-trichloroethane well in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their liver, kidneys, or immune systems. NAL1 NAL2 Trichloroethylene .005 0 Discharge from metal degreasing sites and other factories. Some people who drink water containing trichloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Toluene 1 1 Discharge from petroleum factories. Some people who drink water containing toluene well in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with their nervous system, kidneys, or liver. NAL1 NAL2 Vinyl Chloride .002 0 Leaching from PVC piping; Discharge from plastics factories. Some people who drink water containing vinyl chloride in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. NAL1 NAL2 Xylenes 10 10 Discharge from petroleum factories; Discharge from chemical factories. Some people who drink water containing xylenes in excess of the MCL over many years could experience damage to their nervous system. NAL1 NAL2 </table>

Key to Acronyms:

*PN = Public Notice

*MCL = Violation of a MCL

*MRDL = Violation of a MRDL

*Monit. = Failure to perform monitoring

AC = Acute (24 hour) public notice

NAL1 = Nonacute Level 1 (30 day) public notice

NAL2 = Nonacute Level 2 (12 month) public notice

MCLG = Maximum Contaminant Level Goal

MRDLG = Maximum Residual Disinfectant Level Goal (defined at R18-4-703(C)(4))

Endnotes:

a. In addition to the mandatory health language, a system shall include either the language in endnote (a)(i) or (a)(ii). A system with a violation at the water treatment plant, but not in the distribution system, shall use the language in endnote (a)(i) and provide a Nonacute public notice. A system with a violation in the distribution system shall use the language in endnote (a)(ii) and provide an Acute public notice.

i. The chlorine dioxide violations reported today are the result of violations at the treatment facility only, and do not include violations within the distribution system serving users of this water supply. Continued compliance with chlorine dioxide levels within the distribution system minimizes the potential risk of these violations to present consumers.

ii. The chlorine dioxide violations reported today include violations of the EPA standard within the distribution system serving water users. Violations of the chlorine dioxide standard within the distribution system may harm human health based on short-term exposures. Certain groups, including pregnant women, infants, and young children, may be especially susceptible to adverse effects of excessive exposure to chlorine dioxide-treated water. The purpose of this notice is to advise that such persons should consider reducing their risk of adverse effects from these chlorine dioxide violations by seeking alternate sources of water for human consumption until such violations are rectified. Local and state health authorities are the best sources for information concerning alternate drinking water.

b. Haloacetic Acids (HAA5): The MCL of .060mg/L is effective May 1, 2002 for surface water systems serving at least 10,000 persons. The CCR for calendar year 2002 shall reflect the MCL of .060mg/L.

c. Total trihalomethanes (TTHM): The MCL of .080mg/L is effective May 1, 2002 for surface water systems serving at least 10,000 persons. The CCR for calendar year 2001 shall reflect the MCL of .10mg/L, and the CCR for calendar year 2002 shall reflect the MCL of .080mg/L.

d. Mandatory health effects language for fluoride levels greater than 2 mg/L:

This is an alert about your drinking water and a cosmetic dental problem that might affect children under nine years of age. At low levels, fluoride can help prevent cavities, but children drinking water containing more than 2 milligrams per liter (mg/L) of fluoride may develop cosmetic discoloration of their permanent teeth (dental fluorosis). The drinking water provided by your community water system [name] has a fluoride concentration of [insert value] mg/L.

Dental fluorosis, in its moderate or severe forms, may result in a brown staining and/or pitting of the permanent teeth. This problem occurs only in developing teeth, before they erupt from the gums. Children under nine should be provided with alternative sources of drinking water or water that has been treated to remove the fluoride to avoid the possibility of staining and pitting of their permanent teeth. You may also want to contact your dentist about proper use by young children of fluoride-containing products. Older children and adults may safely drink the water.

Drinking water containing more than 4 mg/L of fluoride (the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's drinking water standard) can increase your risk of developing bone disease. Your drinking water does not contain more than 4 mg/L of fluoride, but we're required to notify you when we discover that the fluoride levels in your drinking water exceed 2 mg/L because of this cosmetic dental problem.

For more information, please call [name of water system contact] of [name of community water system] at [phone number]. Some home water treatment units are also available to remove fluoride from drinking water. To learn more about available home water treatment units, you may call NSF International at 1-877-8-NSF-HELP.

Historical Note

Appendix A renumbered from a position after R18-4-122 to a position after R18-4-125 at 8 A.A.R. 2756, effective June 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3). Subsection citation in Appendix A corrected (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="MAXIMUM CONTAMINANT LEVELS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS; MONITORING ASSISTANCE PROGRAM">

MAXIMUM CONTAMINANT LEVELS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS; MONITORING ASSISTANCE PROGRAM

<regElement name="R18.4.201" level="4" title="Maximum Contaminant Levels; Public Water Systems Affected"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1">

Maximum Contaminant Levels; Public Water Systems Affected

A. Except as provided in this Section, the MCLs prescribed in this Article apply to water distributed by a public water system.

B. Except as provided in subsection (D), only the MCLs for nitrate, nitrite, and total coliform apply to water distributed by a TNCWS.

C. The MCLs for fluoride, arsenic, and radiochemicals apply only to water distributed by a CWS.

D. The interim MCLs for turbidity apply only to water that is distributed by a surface water system that does not provide filtration.

E. The MCL for total trihalomethanes applies only to water distributed by a CWS that serves a population of 10,000 or more and that adds a halogenated disinfectant to the water in any part of the treatment process.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-212 repealed, new Section R9-8-212 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Amended by renumbering subsections (P) thru (W) as (Q) thru (X) and adding a new subsection (P) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-212 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-212 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-4-212 amended and renumbered as Section R18-4-201 effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.202" level="4" title="Total Coliform; MCLs and Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="56"><dwc name="coliform" times="64">

Total Coliform; MCLs and Monitoring Requirements

A. A public water system shall not distribute water that exceeds the following MCLs for total coliform:

1. When 40 or more routine and repeat samples are collected per month, no more than 5% of the samples may be total coliform-positive. Violation of this subsection is a nonacute violation.

2. When fewer than 40 routine and repeat samples are collected per month, no more than one sample may be total coliform-positive. Violation of this subsection is a nonacute violation.

3. Any fecal coliform-positive repeat sample or Escherichia coli (E. coli)-positive repeat sample is an acute violation.

4. Any total coliform-positive repeat sample following a fecal coliform-positive or E. coli-positive routine sample is an acute violation.

B. The MCLs for total coliform are based on the presence or absence of coliform organisms in a standard 100 ml sample.

C. A public water system shall collect total coliform samples at sites that are representative of water throughout the distribution system according to a written site sampling plan that is subject to review and approval by the Department.

D. A public water system shall not composite samples for total coliform analysis.

E. Except as provided by subsection (G), a public water system shall conduct monthly monitoring to determine compliance with the MCLs for total coliform. A public water system shall collect routine total coliform samples at regular time intervals throughout the month, except that a groundwater system that serves 4,900 persons or less may collect all required routine samples on a single day if the samples are taken from different sampling sites.

F. The number of samples taken for total coliform is based on the population served by a public water system. A public water system shall take the following minimum number of samples per month:

<table> Population served Minimum Number of Samples per Month 25 to 1,000 1 1 1,001 to 2,500 2 2,501 to 3,300 3 3,301 to 4,100 4 4,101 to 4,900 5 4,901 to 5,800 6 5,801 to 6,700 7 6,701 to 7,600 8 7,601 to 8,500 9 8,501 to 12,900 10 12,901 to 17,200 15 17,201 to 21,500 20 21,501 to 25,000 25 25,001 to 33,000 30 33,001 to 41,000 40 41,001 to 50,000 50 50,001 to 59,000 60 59,001 to 70,000 70 70,001 to 83,000 80 83,001 to 96,000 90 96,001 to 130,000 100 130,001 to 220,000 120 220,001 to 320,000 150 320,001 to 450,000 180 450,001 to 600,000 210 600,001 to 780,000 240 780,001 to 970,000 270 970,001 to 1,230,000 300 1,230,001 to 1,520,000 330 1,520,001 to 1,850,000 360 1,850,001 to 2,270,000 390 2,270,001 to 3,020,000 420 3,020,001 to 3,960,000 450 3,960,001 or more 480 </table>

1

Includes public water systems that have at least 15 service connections, but serve fewer than 25 persons.

G. A public water system may request that the Department give written approval to reduce the public water system's total coliform monitoring frequency from monthly to quarterly. The Department's determination of whether to give written approval to reduce total coliform monitoring shall be based on the public water system's compliance with all of the following factors:

1. The public water system is a protected groundwater system;

2. The public water system serves fewer than 1000 persons;

3. The public water system has no history of total coliform contamination in its current configuration; and

4. The most recent sanitary survey of the public water system, conducted under R18-4-118, indicates that the public water system is free of sanitary defects.

H. If a routine sample is total coliform-positive, a public water system shall collect a set of repeat samples within 24 hours of receiving notice of the total coliform-positive test result. A public water system may request that the Department extend this 24-hour time period if the public water system has a logistical problem in collecting repeat samples that is beyond the public water system's control. If the Department grants an extension of the 24-hour period to collect repeat samples, the Department shall specify how much time the public water system has to collect repeat samples.

1. A public water system that collects one routine sample per month or per quarter shall collect at least four repeat samples for each total coliform-positive routine sample found. A public water system that collects more than one routine sample per month shall collect at least three repeat samples for each total coliform-positive routine sample found.

2. A public water system shall collect repeat samples as follows:

a. The public water system shall collect one repeat sample from the tap where the total coliform-positive routine sample was collected.

b. The public water system shall collect one repeat sample from a tap located within five service connections upstream of the sampling site where the total coliform-positive routine sample was collected.

c. The public water system shall collect one repeat sample from a tap located within five service connections downstream of the sampling site where the total coliform-positive routine sample was collected.

d. If a total coliform-positive routine sample is collected at the end of the distribution system or one away from the end of the distribution system, the Department may waive the requirement to collect at least one repeat sample upstream or downstream of the original sampling site.

e. If a public water system is required to take four repeat samples, the fourth repeat sample may be collected from any sampling site in the distribution system.

3. A public water system shall collect all repeat samples on the same day, except that the Department may allow a public water system with a single service connection to collect the required set of repeat samples over a four-day period or to collect a larger volume repeat sample. A larger volume repeat sample may be collected in one or more sample containers of any size provided that the total volume collected is at least 400 ml (300 ml for a public water system with a single service connection that collects more than one routine sample per month).

4. If a repeat sample is total coliform-positive, the public water system shall collect an additional set of repeat samples for the sampling site where the original total coliform-positive routine sample was collected. The additional set of repeat samples shall be collected according to the procedures prescribed in subsections (H)(1) through (H)(3). A public water system shall continue to take additional sets of repeat samples for the sampling site where the original total coliform-positive routine sample was collected until either total coliforms are not detected in one complete set of repeat samples or a MCL for total coliform is violated and the public water system notifies the Department.

I. A public water system that collects fewer than five routine samples per month and has one or more total coliform-positive routine sample shall collect at least five routine samples during the next month that the public water system provides water to the public. The requirement to take additional routine samples in the next month is in addition to repeat sampling requirements prescribed in subsection (H). The Department may waive the increased routine monitoring requirement in the next month. The Department's determination of whether to waive the increased routine monitoring requirement in the next month shall be based on consideration of the following factors:

1. The Department, or an agent approved by the Department, performs a site visit before the end of the next month that the public water system provides water. Although a sanitary survey need not be performed, the site visit shall be sufficiently detailed to determine whether additional monitoring or any corrective action is needed. The Department shall not approve an employee of the public water system to perform this site visit; or

2. The Department determines why the routine sample was total coliform-positive and that the public water system has corrected the problem or will correct the problem before the end of the next month that the public water system serves water to the public. In this case, the Department shall document the decision to waive the increased routine monitoring requirement for the next month in writing. The decision document shall be signed by the supervisor of the person who recommends the decision and shall be available to EPA and the public. The decision document shall describe the specific cause of the total coliform-positive routine sample and what action the public water system has taken or will take to correct the problem. The Department shall not waive the increased routine monitoring requirement for the next month solely on the grounds that all repeat samples are total coliform-negative.

J. The Department may invalidate a total coliform-positive sample. A total coliform-positive sample that is invalidated shall not count towards meeting the minimum monitoring requirements prescribed in subsections (F), (H), and (I) for total coliform. The Department shall consider the following criteria when determining whether to invalidate a total coliform-positive sample:

1. The laboratory that analyzed the samples establishes that improper sample analysis caused a total coliform-positive result. If the Department invalidates a total coliform-positive sample on this ground, the public water system shall collect another sample from the same location as the original sample within 24 hours of being notified of sample invalidation and shall have it analyzed for the presence of coliform organisms. The Department may waive the 24-hour time limit on a case-by-case basis. The Department's decision to invalidate a sample on this ground shall be in writing.

2. The Department determines on the basis of the results of repeat samples collected and documentation that the total coliform-positive sample was the result of a domestic or other non-distribution system plumbing problem. The Department shall not invalidate a sample on this ground unless the repeat sample collected at the same sampling site as the original total coliform-positive sample also is total coliform-positive and all repeat samples collected within five service connections of the original sampling site are total coliform-negative. The Department's decision to invalidate a total-coliform positive sample on the ground that it is the result of a domestic or other non-distribution system problem shall be in writing. The Department shall not invalidate a total coliform-positive sample on this ground if all repeat samples are total coliform-negative or if the public water system has a single service connection.

3. The Department has substantial grounds to believe that a total coliform-positive result is due to a circumstance or condition that does not reflect water quality in the distribution system. If a total coliform-positive sample is invalidated on this ground, the public water system shall collect the required repeat samples. Repeat samples shall be counted in determining compliance with the MCLs for total coliform. The decision to invalidate a total coliform-positive sample on this ground shall be in writing. The decision document shall be signed by the supervisor of the person who recommends the decision and shall be available to EPA and the public. The decision document shall state the specific cause of the total coliform-positive sample and what action the public water system has taken or will take to correct the problem. The Department shall not invalidate a total coliform-positive sample solely on the ground that all repeat samples are total coliform-negative.

K. If any routine or repeat sample is total coliform-positive, a public water system shall analyze that total coliform-positive culture medium to determine whether fecal coliforms are present, except that a public water system may test for Escherichia coli (E. coli) in place of fecal coliforms. The Department shall allow a public water system to forego fecal coliform or E. coli testing on a total coliform-positive sample if the public water system assumes in every case that any total coliform-positive sample is either fecal coliform-positive or E. coli-positive.

L. The results of all routine and repeat samples not invalidated by the Department shall be included in determining compliance with the MCLs for total coliform.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.203" level="4" title="Total Coliform; Special Events"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1">

Total Coliform; Special Events

A water system that does not meet the definition of a public water system, but serves a large number of persons for a short duration of time, such as a special event, shall comply with the MCL for total colifom if the total number of user-days exceeds 600. A user-day is calculated by multiplying the number of days the event will run by the average number of persons expected to be served each day. The water system shall submit a minimum of two samples at least seven days before the beginning of the special event. The water system shall submit a minimum of one additional sample to the Department for each day of the special event.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.204" level="4" title="Turbidity; Interim MCLs and Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="turbid" times="7"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Turbidity; Interim MCLs and Monitoring Requirements

A. Water that is distributed by a surface water system which does not provide filtration shall not exceed the following interim maximum contaminant levels for turbidity:

1. One NTU, as determined by an arithmetic average of the samples taken per month, except that not more than 5 NTUs may be allowed if the water supplier demonstrates, through a history of acceptable microbiological results, that the higher turbidity does not:

a. Interfere with disinfection;

b. Prevent maintenance of a detectable residual disinfectant concentration throughout the distribution system; or

c. Interfere with microbiological determinations.

2. Five NTUs based on an arithmetic average of the samples taken for two consecutive days.

B. A surface water system which does not provide filtration shall sample at least once per day to determine compliance with the interim maximum contaminant levels for turbidity.

C. If the result of a turbidity measurement indicates that turbidity exceeds 5 NTUs, then a water supplier shall take a confirmation measurement as soon as practicable, preferably within one hour. If the confirmation measurement confirms that turbidity exceeds 5 NTUs, then the water supplier shall report the exceedance to the Department, by telephone or facsimile, within 48 hours. The confirmation measurement shall be used for the purpose of calculating the two-day and the monthly average.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.205" level="4" title="Inorganic Chemicals; MCLs"> <dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="3"><dwc name="antimoni" times="1"><dwc name="arsen" times="2"><dwc name="asbesto" times="1"><dwc name="barium" times="1"><dwc name="beryllium" times="1"><dwc name="cadmium" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="cyanid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="8"><dwc name="nitrit" times="5"><dwc name="selenium" times="1"><dwc name="thallium" times="1">

Inorganic Chemicals; MCLs

A. Water that is distributed by a community water system or a nontransient, noncommunity water system shall not exceed the following maximum contaminant levels for inorganic chemicals:

<table> Contaminant MCL(mg/L) Alternate MCL (mg/L) Antimony 0.006 Arsenic a 0.05 Asbestos 7 MFL b Barium 2 Beryllium 0.004 Cadmium 0.005 Chromium 0.1 Cyanide (as free cyanide) 0.2 Fluoride a 4.0 Mercury 0.002 Nitrate (as N) 10 20 c Nitrite (as N) 1 Total nitrate/nitrite 10 20 c Selenium 0.05 Thallium 0.002 </table>

a

The MCLs for fluoride and arsenic apply to community water systems only.

b

"MFL" means million fibers per liter greater than 10 microns in length.

c

The Department may allow a noncommunity water system to comply with the alternate MCL for nitrate and for total nitrate/nitrite provided all of the following conditions are met:

i. The public water system is a noncommunity water system;

ii. Water provided by the noncommunity water system will not be available to children under six months of age;

iii. The water supplier continuously posts notice of the fact that nitrate levels may exceed the MCL of 10 mg/L;

iv. The water supplier continuously posts notice of the potential health effects on infants under six months of age;

v. The water supplier notifies the Department annually of nitrate levels that exceed 10 mg/L; and

vi. No adverse health effects result.

B. Water that is distributed by a TNCWS shall not exceed the MCLs for nitrate, nitrite, and total nitrate/nitrite. The MCLs for other inorganic chemicals listed in this Section do not apply to water that is distributed by a TNCWS.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.206" level="4" title="Monitoring Requirements for Antimony, Arsenic, Barium, Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Cyanide, Fluoride, Mercury, Selenium, and Thallium."> <dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="16"><dwc name="antimoni" times="2"><dwc name="arsen" times="3"><dwc name="barium" times="2"><dwc name="beryllium" times="2"><dwc name="cadmium" times="2"><dwc name="chromium" times="2"><dwc name="cyanid" times="4"><dwc name="fluorid" times="3"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="selenium" times="2"><dwc name="thallium" times="2">

Monitoring Requirements for Antimony, Arsenic, Barium, Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Cyanide, Fluoride, Mercury, Selenium, and Thallium.

A. A TNCWS is not required to monitor for the inorganic chemicals listed in this Section. Each CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for the following inorganic chemicals:

1. Each CWS shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCLs for antimony, arsenic, barium, beryllium, cadmium, chromium, cyanide, fluoride, mercury, selenium, and thallium.

2. Each NTNCWS shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCLs for all of the inorganic chemicals listed in subsection (A)(1) except fluoride and arsenic.

B. Each CWS or NTNCWS shall conduct initial monitoring for inorganic chemicals listed in this Section in the monitoring year designated by the Department.

C. Each CWS and NTNCWS shall monitor for inorganic chemicals at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

D. A CWS, NTNCWS, or the contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite samples for inorganic chemicals as prescribed in R18-4-219.

E. Each CWS and NTNCWS shall monitor at the following frequencies:

1. Each CWS or NTNCWS shall take one sample at each groundwater sampling point once every three years.

2. Each CWS or NTNCWS shall take one sample annually at each surface water sampling point.

F. A water supplier may use monitoring data collected before the initial monitoring year to satisfy initial monitoring requirements at a sampling point provided at least one sample was taken in the three years immediately prior to the initial monitoring year.

G. If the analytical results from a sampling point indicate that the concentration of an inorganic chemical exceeds a MCL, a CWS or NTNCWS shall take quarterly samples at that sampling point, beginning in the calendar quarter immediately following collection of the sample that exceeded the MCL. A CWS or NTNCWS shall continue quarterly sampling at the sampling point until:

1. Groundwater sampling points: A minimum of two consecutive quarterly samples are taken and the concentration of the inorganic chemical in each sample is below the MCL. If this criterion is met, the Department may decrease the monitoring frequency from quarterly to one sample every three years. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency shall be in writing.

2. Surface water sampling points: A minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples are taken and the concentration of the inorganic chemical in each sample is below the MCL. If this criterion is met, the Department may decrease monitoring frequency from quarterly to annually. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency shall be in writing.

H. If the analytical results of an initial sample indicate that there is an exceedance of a MCL, the Department may require that a water supplier or contractor take a confirmation sample as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after taking the initial sample at the same sampling point.

I. Compliance with a MCL for an inorganic chemical is based upon the analytical result from a single sample obtained at each sampling point unless the Department requires a confirmation sample. If the Department requires a confirmation sample, the analytical results of the initial sample and the confirmation sample shall be averaged. The resulting average shall be used to determine compliance with the MCL.

J. Except for a water supplier subject to the monitoring assistance program, a water supplier may apply to the Department to conduct monitoring at a sampling point more frequently than the monitoring frequency specified in subsection (E). If the Department gives written approval to conduct more frequent monitoring at a sampling point, compliance shall be determined by a running annual average at the sampling point. If the running annual average at the sampling point is greater than the MCL, the public water system is out of compliance. If any single analytical results causes the running annual average to exceed the MCL, the public water system is immediately out of compliance.

K. A water supplier may make a written request to, or the Department under the monitoring assistance program, may reduce monitoring frequency for an inorganic chemical at a sampling point. The Department may reduce monitoring frequency at a sampling point as follows:

1. Groundwater sampling points: The Department may reduce monitoring frequency at a groundwater sampling point from once every three years to a less frequent basis if a public water system has monitored at least once every three years for nine years at the groundwater sampling point and all previous analytical results for the inorganic chemical are below the MCL.

2. Surface water sampling points: The Department may reduce monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point from annually to a less frequent basis if the surface water system has monitored annually at the surface water sampling point for at least three consecutive years and all previous analytical results for the inorganic chemical are below the MCL.

3. The term of reduced monitoring shall not exceed nine years.

4. A CWS or NTNCWS shall take at least one sample at the sampling point during the reduced monitoring term.

5. In determining the appropriate reduced monitoring frequency at a sampling point, the Department shall consider the following factors:

a. Reported concentrations of the inorganic chemical from all previous monitoring;

b. The degree of variation in the reported concentrations of the inorganic chemical; and

c. Other factors that may affect the concentration of the inorganic chemical such as changes in groundwater pumping rates, the configuration of the CWS or NTNCWS, operating procedures, stream flows, or source water characteristics.

6. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency at a sampling point shall be in writing and shall specify the grounds for the decision. A water supplier may make a written request for reduced monitoring or the Department may grant reduced monitoring on its own. A water supplier shall provide documentation of analytical results that support the request for reduced monitoring. When a CWS or NTNCWS submits new data or if other data relevant to the public water system's appropriate monitoring frequency become available, the Department shall review the data and, if appropriate, revise its determination of monitoring frequency.

7. A CWS or NTNCWS that uses a new source is not eligible for reduced monitoring until it completes three consecutive rounds of monitoring from the new source.

L. The Department may grant a public water system a waiver from cyanide monitoring if the Department determines that the system is not vulnerable because there is no industrial source of cyanide.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.207" level="4" title="Asbestos; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="asbesto" times="36">

Asbestos; Monitoring Requirements

A. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct monitoring to determine compliance with the MCL for asbestos. A transient, noncommunity water system is not required to monitor for asbestos.

B. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct monitoring for asbestos in the monitoring year designated by the Department during the initial compliance period of each compliance cycle, beginning in the compliance period that starts on January 1, 1993.

C. If the Department determines that a CWS or NTNCWS is vulnerable to asbestos contamination due solely to its source water, the Department shall notify the CWS or NTNCWS in writing that the CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of the CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct source water monitoring for asbestos at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take one sample for asbestos at each sampling point.

D. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite samples for asbestos as prescribed in R18-4-219.

E. If the Department determines that a CWS or NTNCWS is vulnerable to asbestos contamination solely because of corrosion of asbestos-cement pipe in the distribution system, the Department shall notify the CWS or NTNCWS in writing that the CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of the CWS or NTNCWS, shall take a minimum of one sample at a tap served by asbestos-cement pipe under conditions where asbestos contamination is most likely to occur.

F. If the Department determines that a CWS or NTNCWS is vulnerable to asbestos contamination due to both its source water and corrosion of asbestos-cement pipe, the Department shall notify the CWS or NTNCWS in writing that the CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of the CWS or NTNCWS, shall take one sample at a tap served by asbestos-cement pipe under conditions where asbestos contamination is most likely to occur.

G. If the analytical results of an initial sample do not exceed seven MFL, a CWS or NTNCWS is not required to take another sample at that sampling point until the initial compliance period of the next compliance cycle.

H. If the concentration of asbestos in a sample exceeds seven MFL, a CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct quarterly monitoring at that sampling point, beginning in the quarter immediately following collection of the sample that exceeds the MCL.

1. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall continue quarterly monitoring at a groundwater sampling point until at least two consecutive quarterly samples are taken in which the concentration of asbestos in each sample does not exceed seven MFL. If the analytical results from two or more consecutive quarterly samples are less than seven MFL, the Department shall give written permission to the public water system to return to base monitoring frequency if the Department determines that the public water system has been reliably and consistently below the MCL for asbestos in previous samples. If the Department gives written permission to return to base monitoring frequency, the public water system is not required to take a repeat sample at the groundwater sampling point until the initial compliance period of the next compliance cycle.

2. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall continue quarterly monitoring at a surface water sampling point until at least four consecutive quarterly samples are taken and the concentration of asbestos in each sample does not exceed seven MFL. If the analytical results from four consecutive quarterly samples are less than seven MFL, the Department shall give written permission to the public water system to return to base monitoring frequency if the Department determines that the public water system has been reliably and consistently below the MCL for asbestos in previous samples. If the Department gives written permission to return to base monitoring frequency, the public water system is not required to take a repeat sample at the surface water sampling point until the initial compliance period of the next compliance cycle.

I. If the results of sampling for asbestos indicate an exceedance of the MCL, the Department may require that one confirmation sample be collected. The confirmation sample shall be collected at the same sampling point as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after the initial sample was taken.

J. Compliance with the MCL for asbestos is determined by the concentration of asbestos in a single sample, unless a confirmation sample is taken. If a confirmation sample is taken, the results of the initial sample and the confirmation sample shall be averaged, and the resulting average shall be used to determine compliance with the MCL for asbestos.

K. If a water supplier of a CWS or NTNCWS believes that a CWS or NTNCWS is not vulnerable to asbestos contamination of its source water or contamination of its distribution system due to corrosion of asbestos-cement pipe, the water supplier may make a written request for an asbestos monitoring waiver from the Department; the Department may also grant a waiver without a written request. A decision by the Department to grant an asbestos monitoring waiver shall be in writing and shall set forth the grounds for the decision. A water supplier shall provide documentation of analytical results that support the request for a monitoring waiver. If the Department grants a waiver, the CWS or NTNCWS is not required to monitor for asbestos.

1. The Department's determination of whether to grant an asbestos monitoring waiver shall be based on consideration of the following factors:

a. Potential asbestos contamination of the source water;

b. Use of asbestos-cement pipe for distribution of water; and

c. Water corrosivity.

2. An asbestos monitoring waiver remains in effect for a compliance cycle. If an asbestos monitoring waiver is not renewed in the first year of the initial compliance period of the following compliance cycle, a CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct repeat monitoring for asbestos before the end of the initial compliance period of that compliance cycle.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.208" level="4" title="Nitrate; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="nitrat" times="15">

Nitrate; Monitoring Requirements

A. All public water systems shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCL for nitrate.

B. A public water system shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCL for nitrate at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

C. A public water system may composite nitrate samples as prescribed in R18-4-219.

D. Each public water system shall conduct monitoring for nitrate at the following frequencies:

1. A CWS or NTNCWS shall monitor annually at each groundwater sampling point.

2. A CWS or NTNCWS shall monitor quarterly at each surface water sampling point.

3. A TNCWS shall monitor annually at each sampling point.

E. The Department may reduce the monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point from quarterly to annually if the analytical results from the sampling point demonstrate that the concentration of nitrate is &lt; 5 mg/L for four consecutive quarters. A CWS or NTNCWS shall return to quarterly monitoring at a surface water sampling point if the analytical result for any sample indicates that the concentration of nitrate is &#8805; 5 mg/L. If the Department reduces the monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point from quarterly to annually, the annual sample shall be taken during the quarter which previously yielded the highest analytical result for nitrate. The Department's decision to allow a CWS or NTNCWS to reduce monitoring frequency shall be in writing.

F. A CWS or NTNCWS that collects a sample from a groundwater sampling point with a concentration of nitrate that is &#8805; 5 mg/L shall increase the monitoring frequency at that sampling point from annually to quarterly. The Department may subsequently reduce the monitoring frequency at the groundwater sampling point from quarterly to annually if the analytical results for four consecutive quarterly samples are &lt; 10 mg/L. If the Department reduces the monitoring frequency at the groundwater sampling point from quarterly to annually, the annual sample shall be taken during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result for nitrate. If the Department reduces the monitoring frequency at the groundwater sampling point from quarterly to annually, a subsequent detection of nitrate in a concentration that is &#8805; 5 mgL and &#8804; 10 mg/L shall not trigger quarterly monitoring. The Department's decision to allow a CWS or NTNCWS to reduce monitoring frequency shall be in writing.

G. The Department shall not accept monitoring data collected before the initial monitoring year to satisfy initial monitoring requirements for nitrate.

H. Monitoring waivers for nitrate are prohibited.

I. If the concentration of nitrate in a sample exceeds 10 mg/L, a water supplier shall take a confirmation sample at the same sampling point within 24 hours of receiving the analytical results of the initial sample. A water supplier that is unable to take a confirmation sample within 24 hours shall issue public notice to persons served by the system in accordance with R18-4-105. A water supplier that does not take a confirmation sample within 24 hours and issues public notice shall take and complete the analysis of a confirmation sample within two weeks of receiving the analytical results of the initial sample.

J. Compliance with the MCL for nitrate is based upon the average of the analytical results of the initial sample and the confirmation sample. If a water supplier fails to take the required confirmation sample within the time prescribed in subsection (I), compliance is based upon the analytical results of the initial sample.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.209" level="4" title="Nitrite; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="nitrit" times="16">

Nitrite; Monitoring Requirements

A. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCL for nitrite.

B. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for nitrite at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

C. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite samples for nitrite as prescribed in R18-4-219.

D. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take one sample at each sampling point during the initial compliance period. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for nitrite in the initial monitoring year designated by the Department within the initial compliance period.

E. If the analytical result of the initial sample for nitrite at a sampling point is less than 0.5 mg/L (as nitrogen), a public water system is not required to take another nitrite sample at that sampling point until the first compliance period of the next compliance cycle.

F. If the analytical result of the initial sample for nitrite at a sampling point is greater than or equal to 0.5 mg/L (as nitrogen), a public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct quarterly monitoring at that sampling point for at least four consecutive quarters.

G. If the concentration of nitrite in four consecutive quarterly samples at a sampling point does not exceed one mg/L (as nitrogen), the Department shall give written permission to the public water system to reduce its monitoring frequency at a sampling point from quarterly to annually if the Department determines that the public water system has been reliably and consistently below the MCL for nitrite in previous samples.

H. If the Department reduces the monitoring frequency from quarterly to annually, the public water system shall take annual samples during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result for nitrite. If the Department reduces the monitoring frequency at a sampling point from quarterly to annually and there is a subsequent detection of nitrite at the sampling point in the same monitoring period, and the concentration does not exceed one mg/L (as nitrogen), the detection shall not trigger quarterly monitoring.

I. The Department shall not accept monitoring data collected before the initial monitoring year to satisfy initial monitoring requirements for nitrite.

J. The Department shall not grant monitoring waivers for nitrite.

K. If the concentration of nitrite in a sample exceeds one mg/L (as nitrogen), the public water system, or a contractor on behalf of a public water system, shall take a confirmation sample at the same sampling point within 24 hours of receiving the analytical results of the initial sample. A public water system that cannot take a confirmation sample within 24 hours shall issue public notice to persons served by the system in accordance with R18-4-105. A public water system that cannot take a confirmation sample within 24 hours and that issues public notice shall take and complete the analysis of a confirmation sample within two weeks of receiving the analytical results of the initial sample.

L. Compliance with the MCL for nitrite is based upon the average of the analytical results of the initial sample and the confirmation sample. If a public water system fails to take the required confirmation sample, compliance is based upon the analytical results from the initial sample.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.210" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended subsection (C) and added subsection (D) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-210 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-210 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). New Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 6, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.211" level="4" title="Volatile Organic Chemicals; MCLs"> <dwc name="benzen" times="1"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="1"><dwc name="monochlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="1"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="1"><dwc name="styren" times="1"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="toluen" times="1"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="1"><dwc name="xylen" times="1">

Volatile Organic Chemicals; MCLs

Water that is distributed by a community water system or nontransient, noncommunity water system shall not exceed the following maximum contaminant levels for volatile organic chemicals:

<table> Contaminant MCL (mg/L) Benzene 0.005 Carbon tetrachloride 0.005 o-Dichlorobenzene 0.6 para-Dichlorobenzene 0.075 1,2-Dichloroethane 0.005 1,1-Dichloroethylene 0.007 cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene 0.07 trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 0.1 Dichloromethane 0.005 1,2-Dichloropropane 0.005 Ethylbenzene 0.7 Monochlorobenzene 0.1 Styrene 0.1 Tetrachloroethylene 0.005 Toluene 1 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 0.07 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 0.2 1,1,2-Trichloroethane 0.005 Trichloroethylene 0.005 Vinyl chloride 0.002 Xylenes (total) 10 </table>

Historical Note

Corrected A.R.S. reference (Supp. 77-3). Amended effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-211 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-211 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective Dec. 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Repealed effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). New Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.212" level="4" title="Volatile Organic Chemical; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="2">

Volatile Organic Chemical; Monitoring Requirements

A. Each CWS, NTNCWS, or the contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCLs for the VOCs listed in R18-4-211. A TNCWS is not required to monitor for the VOCs listed in R18-4-211.

B. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct initial monitoring for VOCs in the monitoring year designated by the Department within the initial compliance period, except that a CWS or NTNCWS shall monitor for vinyl chloride only as prescribed in R18-4-213.

C. A CWS, and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCLs for VOCs at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

D. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite samples for VOCs under R18-4-219.

E. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take four consecutive quarterly samples at each sampling point for each VOC listed in R18-4-211 (except vinyl chloride) during the initial compliance period unless a CWS or NTNCWS qualifies for reduced monitoring or obtains a monitoring waiver. A CWS shall conduct initial monitoring for VOCs in the monitoring year designated by the Department within the initial compliance period.

F. If the concentration of a VOC in four consecutive quarterly samples during the initial compliance period is &lt; 0.0005 mg/L, a CWS or NTNCWS shall take one sample annually at that sampling point in repeat compliance periods. The Department may further reduce monitoring frequency at a groundwater sampling point to one sample every three years if, after a minimum of three years of sampling at the groundwater sampling point (including the four consecutive quarterly samples taken during the initial compliance period) the Department finds that the concentration of the VOC in each annual sample is &lt; 0.0005 mg/L. The Department shall not reduce monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point to less than annually. The Department's decision to allow reduced monitoring at a sampling point shall be in writing.

G. If the concentration of a VOC in a sample is &#8805; 0.0005 mg/L, a CWS or NTNCWS shall sample quarterly for the VOC at that sampling point, beginning in the quarter immediately following collection of the sample that was &#8805; 0.0005 mg/L. A CWS or NTNCWS shall continue quarterly monitoring at the sampling point until:

1. For a groundwater sampling point, a minimum of two consecutive quarterly samples are taken (which may include the initial detection) and the concentration of the VOC in each sample is below the MCL. If the concentration of the VOC is less than the MCL for a minimum of two consecutive quarterly samples, the Department may reduce monitoring frequency at the groundwater sampling point from quarterly to annually. If the Department reduces monitoring frequency, the CWS or NTNCWS shall take the annual sample during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result. If the concentration of the VOC is &lt; 0.0005 mg/L for three consecutive annual samples, a CWS or NTNCWS may request that the Department further reduce monitoring frequency to once every three years or the CWS or NTNCWS may apply for a monitoring waiver.

2. For a surface water sampling point, a minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples are taken (which may include the initial detection) and the concentration of the VOC in each sample is less than the MCL. If the concentration of the VOC is less than the MCL for a minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples, the Department may reduce monitoring frequency at the surface water sampling point from quarterly to annually. If the Department reduces monitoring frequency, the CWS or NTNCWS shall take the annual sample during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result. The Department shall not reduce monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point to less than annually.

H. The Department may require increased monitoring for a VOC if necessary to detect variations in a CWS or NTNCWS. A Department decision to require increased monitoring shall be in writing.

I. The Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for a VOC based upon the analytical results obtained at each sampling point.

1. For a CWS or NTNCWS that samples quarterly or more frequently, the Department shall determine compliance by the running annual average of samples taken at each sampling point. If the running annual average at any sampling point is greater than the MCL, the system is out of compliance. If any quarterly sample causes the running annual average to exceed the MCL, the system is immediately out of compliance.

2. If a CWS or NTNCWS samples on an annual or less frequent basis, the system is out of compliance if the concentration of a VOC in a single sample exceeds the MCL.

3. A CWS or NTNCWS that is out of compliance with a MCL for a VOC at a groundwater or surface water sampling point shall take at least four consecutive quarterly samples at that sampling point. The CWS or NTNCWS shall continue quarterly monitoring until the running annual average is below the MCL. If the running annual average is below the MCL, the Department may reduce monitoring frequency at the groundwater or surface water sampling point from quarterly to annually. If the Department reduces monitoring frequency to annually, a CWS or NTNCWS shall take the annual sample during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result. If the concentration of the VOC at a groundwater sampling point is below the MCL for three consecutive annual samples, a CWS or NTNCWS may request that the Department further reduce monitoring frequency at that groundwater sampling point to once every three years. The Department shall not reduce monitoring frequency at a surface water sampling point to less than annually.

4. If the Department requires a confirmation sample, the analytical result shall be averaged with the initial analytical result and the average used in the compliance determination as specified in subsection (I)(1) or (2).

J. The Department may require a confirmation sample for positive or negative results.

K. A CWS or NTNCWS that does not detect a VOC at a sampling point in a concentration that is &#8805; 0.0005 mg/l during initial monitoring may submit a written request to the Department for a waiver from repeat monitoring requirements at that sampling point. The Department may initiate a waiver for a CWS or NTNCWS. A CWS or NTNCWS may not obtain a waiver from initial monitoring requirements. A monitoring waiver for a groundwater sampling point shall be effective for a term not to exceed six years. A monitoring waiver for a surface water sampling point shall be effective for a three-year term. The Department's decision to grant or deny a request for a monitoring waiver shall be in writing. The Department may grant a monitoring waiver as follows:

1. Use waiver: The Department may grant a use waiver if the Department determines that there has been no previous use of the VOC (including transport, storage, or disposal) within the watershed or zone of influence of a well.

2. Susceptibility waiver: If previous use of the VOC is unknown or if it has been used previously, the Department may grant a susceptibility waiver based upon a vulnerability assessment. The Department shall consider the following factors in deciding whether to grant or deny a susceptibility waiver:

a. Previous analytical results,

b. The proximity of the CWS or NTNCWS to a potential point or nonpoint source of contamination. A point source of contamination includes a spill or leak of a chemical at or near a water treatment plant or distribution system pipeline, at a manufacturing, distribution or storage facility, or from a hazardous or municipal waste landfill or other waste handling or treatment facility,

c. The environmental persistence and transport of the VOC,

d. The number of persons served by the CWS or NTNCWS and the proximity of a smaller system to a larger system, and

e. How well the water source is protected against contamination. The Department shall consider factors such as the depth of the well, the type of soil, and wellhead protection for a groundwater system and watershed protection for a surface water system.

3. Sampling conditions for waivers: As a condition of a monitoring waiver for a groundwater sampling point, a CWS or NTNCWS shall take one sample at the groundwater sampling point during the time the waiver is effective (that is, one sample every six years). A CWS or NTNCWS shall update its vulnerability assessment during the term of the waiver, considering the factors listed in subsection (K)(2). The Department may renew a waiver based upon an updated vulnerability assessment provided the assessment reconfirms that the CWS or NTNCWS is not vulnerable to VOC contamination. If the Department does not reconfirm nonvulnerability within three years of the initial determination, the waiver automatically terminates and the CWS or NTNCWS shall sample annually at the groundwater sampling point in the next compliance period.

4. Vulnerability assessment updates: A CWS or NTNCWS that receives a monitoring waiver for a surface water sampling point shall sample at the frequency specified by the Department (if any). A CWS or NTNCWS shall update its vulnerability assessment during each compliance period. The Department may update a public water system's vulnerability assessment for a CWS or NTNCWS that is subject to the monitoring assistance program. The Department may renew a waiver based upon an updated vulnerability assessment provided the assessment reconfirms that the CWS or NTNCWS is not vulnerable to VOC contamination. If the Department does not reconfirm nonvulnerability, the waiver automatically terminates and a CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS shall sample annually at the surface water sampling point in the next compliance period.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.213" level="4" title="Vinyl Chloride; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="6">

Vinyl Chloride; Monitoring Requirements

A. A CWS or NTNCWS that detects trichloroethylene, tetrachloroethylene, 1,2-dichloroethane,1,1,1-trichloroethane, cis-1,2-dichloroethylene, trans-1,2-dichloroethylene, or 1,1-dichloroethylene at a groundwater sampling point shall monitor quarterly for vinyl chloride at that sampling point. If vinyl chloride is not detected in the first quarterly sample, the Department may reduce the quarterly monitoring frequency for vinyl chloride to one sample during each compliance period. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency for vinyl chloride shall be in writing.

B. A CWS or NTNCWS that detects one of the VOCs listed in subsection (A) at a surface water sampling point shall monitor for vinyl chloride at a frequency specified by the Department.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-213 repealed, new Section R9-8-213 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-213 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-213 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.214" level="4" title="Total Trihalomethanes: MCL And Monitoring Requirements (Repeal January 1, 2004)"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="2"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect" times="70"><dwc name="chlorin" times="66"><dwc name="chloramin" times="24"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="38"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="20"><dwc name="bromat" times="26"><dwc name="chlorit" times="34"><dwc name="haloacet acid" times="2"><dwc name="haa" times="34"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="12"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="12"><dwc name="tthm" times="35">

Total Trihalomethanes: MCL And Monitoring Requirements (Repeal January 1, 2004)

A. This Section does not apply to surface water systems serving 10,000 or more persons. After May 1, 2002, the maximum contaminant level for total trihalomethanes applies only to water that is distributed by a CWS that serves a population of 10,000 or more persons and that adds a halogenated disinfectant to the water at a point in the treatment process.

B. The maximum contaminant level for total trihalomethanes is 0.10 mg/L.

C. A CWS shall take four samples per quarter for each water treatment plant operated by the CWS. For purposes of this Section, the minimum number of samples required to be collected shall be based upon the number of water treatment plants used by the CWS, except that multiple wells drawing water from a single aquifer may, with Department approval, be considered one water treatment plant for determining the minimum number of samples required. All samples collected within a quarter shall be collected within a 24-hour period.

D. At least 25% of the total trihalomethane samples shall be collected at locations within the distribution system that reflect the maximum residence time of water in the system. The remaining 75% of the samples shall be collected at representative locations in the distribution system.

E. Reduced monitoring.

1. Upon the written request of a CWS, the Department may reduce the number of samples collected per quarter to a minimum of one sample for each water treatment plant. The Department's decision to reduce the number of samples shall be in writing. The Department may reduce the number of quarterly samples if:

a. The sample is collected at a point in the distribution system that reflects the maximum residence time of the water in the system; and

b. There is at least one year of monitoring data which demonstrates that total trihalomethane concentrations are below 0.10 mg/L.

2. If the concentration of total trihalomethanes in a sample exceeds 0.10 mg/L and the analytical results are confirmed by at least one confirmation sample collected within 24 hours after such analytical results are received or, if the CWS changes its source or treatment process, the CWS shall immediately resume monitoring in accordance with the monitoring frequency prescribed in subsection (C) and continue that monitoring for at least one year.

F. A CWS that is a groundwater system may make a written request that the Department reduce monitoring frequency to a minimum of one sample for maximum total trihalomethane potential [MTP] per year for each water treatment plant used by the system. The Department may reduce monitoring frequency by a groundwater system provided the groundwater system submits data that demonstrates that the MTP is less than 0.10 mg/L and the groundwater system is not likely to exceed the maximum contaminant level for total trihalomethanes. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency to one sample for MTP per water treatment plant shall be in writing.

1. The required MTP sample shall be collected at a point that reflects the maximum residence time of the water in the distribution system.

2. If the analytical results of a sample collected by a groundwater system for MTP are equal to or greater than 0.10 mg/L and the results are confirmed by at least one sample collected within 24 hours after analytical results are received, then the groundwater system shall immediately resume monitoring at the frequency prescribed in subsection (C) and continue that monitoring for at least one year.

3. If the groundwater system changes its source of water or treatment process, the groundwater system shall immediately analyze an additional sample for MTP. The additional sample shall be collected at a point that reflects the maximum residence time of the water in the distribution system.

G. The Department may increase monitoring frequency where necessary to detect variations of levels of total trihalomethanes within a distribution system.

H. The results of all analyses collected each quarter shall be arithmetically averaged and reported to the Department within 30 days of a water system's receipt of the last results of the previous quarter. Unless the analytical results are invalidated by the Department because the samples were not collected and analyzed in conformance with this Section, all samples collected shall be used in the computation of the average.

I. Compliance with the maximum contaminant level for total trihalomethanes shall be determined based on a running annual average of quarterly samples collected by a CWS.

J. This Section is repealed January 1, 2004.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-4-214.01. Disinfectant Residuals and Disinfection Byproducts (Effective May 1, 2002; Repeal January 1, 2004)

A. This Section applies to surface water systems serving 10,000 or more persons. After May 1, 2002 a CWS or NTNCWS shall comply with the following MCLs for disinfection byproducts:

<table> Disinfection byproduct MCL (mg/L) Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) 0.080 Haloacetic acids (five) (HAA5) 0.060 Bromate 0.010 Chlorite 1.0 </table>

B. A CWS or NTNCWS that is installing GAC or membrane technology to comply with the MCLs listed in subsection (A), may make a written request to the Department for an extension of up to 24 months past the compliance date, but not beyond December 31, 2003. The Department shall develop, and a system shall comply with, an extension agreement. An extension agreement shall provide the following:

1. A schedule for compliance with specific project milestones,

2. A schedule for submission of progress reports,

3. A requirement for notice of monitoring results and extension in the system's CCR,

4. A public notification requirement if a MCL in subsection (A) is exceeded, and

5. Interim treatment requirements.

a. In order to determine the appropriate interim treatment requirements for an extension agreement, the Department may consider, but is not limited to, the following information: monitoring data for disinfection byproducts, current treatment practices, current water treatment plant infrastructure, construction plans, and pilot studies.

b. Interim treatment requirements may include: moving the point of disinfection, treatment changes to improve TOC removal, changing primary or secondary disinfectants, adjusting pH to reduce disinfection byproduct formation, and implementing a main flushing program in areas with high detention times or biofilm problems.

C. A CWS or NTNCWS shall comply with the following MRDLs for disinfectant residuals:

<table> Disinfectant Residual MRDL (mg/L) Chlorine 4.0 (as Cl 2 ) Chloramines 4.0 (as Cl 2 ) Chlorine dioxide 0.8 (as ClO 2 ) </table>

D. A TNCWS that uses chlorine dioxide as a disinfectant or oxidant shall comply with the chlorine dioxide MRDL in subsection (C).

E. In order to protect public health, a system may increase residual disinfectant levels in the distribution system of chlorine or chloramines (but not chlorine dioxide) to a level and for a time necessary to address specific microbiological contamination problems caused by circumstances such as distribution line breaks, storm run-off events, source water contamination events, or cross-connection events.

F. A system shall collect disinfection byproduct and residual disinfection level samples at sites that are representative of water throughout the distribution system according to a written monitoring plan. The system shall submit the monitoring plan to the Department for review. After review, the Department may require changes to the monitoring plan. The system shall maintain the plan and make it available for inspection by the Department and the general public no later than January 31, 2002. The system shall submit a copy of the monitoring plan to the Department no later than the date of the first report required in R18-4-104(A). The plan shall include at least the following elements:

1. Specific locations and schedules for collecting samples required by this Section;

2. Compliance calculation methods for applicable MCLs, MRDLs, and treatment techniques; and

3. If approved for monitoring as a consecutive system or if providing water to a consecutive system as prescribed under R18-4-113, the monitoring plan shall reflect the entire distribution system.

G. General monitoring requirements for disinfectant residuals and disinfection byproducts.

1. A system shall collect all samples during normal operating conditions.

2. A system shall monitor in accordance with the monitoring plan required in subsection (F).

3. A system may use only data collected under the provisions of this Section to qualify for reduced monitoring.

H. Monitoring requirements for disinfection byproducts.

1. TTHM and HAA5. A CWS or NTNCWS shall monitor for TTHM and HAA5 at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect at least four samples per quarter per water treatment plant in the distribution system. A system shall collect at least 25 percent of the samples collected in a quarter at locations representing maximum residence time. A system shall collect the remaining samples at locations representative of at least average residence time in the distribution system and representing the entire distribution system, taking into account number of persons served, different sources of water, and different treatment methods. If a system elects to collect more than the minimum samples required, the system shall collect at least 25 percent of all samples collected each quarter at locations that represent the maximum residence time of the water in the distribution system. A system shall collect the remaining samples at locations representative of at least average residence time in the distribution system.

b. Reduced monitoring: A system may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in TTHM and HAA5 monitoring. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for TTHM and HAA5 shall be in writing.

i. The Department may reduce TTHM and HAA5 monitoring to one sample per water treatment plant per quarter if a system's source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment, is less than or equal to 4.0 mg/L, TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L, and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L. A system on a reduced monitoring schedule shall collect samples at a distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time.

ii. If the average of all samples collected in a year for a system on a reduced monitoring schedule is greater than 0.060 mg/L for TTHM or 0.045 mg/L for HAA5, the system shall resume monitoring at the frequency identified in subsection (H)(1)(a) in the quarter immediately following the monitoring period in which the average exceeds 0.060 mg/L for TTHM or 0.045 mg/L for HAA5.

2. Chlorite: A CWS or NTNCWS using chlorine dioxide for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for chlorite at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect a daily sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system. If a daily sample exceeds the chlorite MCL, the system shall collect additional samples in the distribution system the following day at the locations required in subsection (H)(2)(c), in addition to the sample required at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

b. Monthly monitoring: A system shall collect three samples each month in the distribution system. The system shall collect one sample at each of the following locations: near the first customer, at a location representative of average residence time, and at a location reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system. If a system collects additional routine samples, it shall collect them in the same manner as for monthly monitoring. The system may use the results of additional monitoring conducted under subsection (H)(2)(c) to meet the requirement for monthly monitoring.

c. Additional monitoring: On each day following a routine sample monitoring result that exceeds the chlorite MCL at the point-of-entry into the distribution system, the system shall collect three chlorite samples in the distribution system at the following locations: as close to the first customer as possible, in a location representative of average residence time, and as close to the end of the distribution system as possible (reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system).

d. Reduced monitoring:

i. The Department shall not reduce chlorite monitoring at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

ii. A system may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in chlorite monitoring in the distribution system required in subsection (H)(2)(b). The Department may reduce chlorite monitoring in the distribution system to one set of three samples per quarter after the system has monitored for one year and no individual chlorite sample collected in the distribution system under subsection (H)(2)(b) has exceeded the chlorite MCL and the system has not been required to conduct monitoring under subsection (H)(2)(c). The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for chlorite in the distribution system shall be in writing.

iii. A system may remain on the reduced monitoring schedule until either any of the three individual chlorite samples collected monthly in the distribution system under subsection (H)(2)(b) exceeds the chlorite MCL or the system is required to conduct monitoring under subsection (H)(2)(c), at which time the system shall revert to routine monitoring.

3. Bromate. A CWS or NTNCWS using ozone for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for bromate at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect one sample per month for each water treatment plant in the system using ozone. A system shall collect a sample each month at the point-of-entry into the distribution system while the ozonation system is operating under normal conditions.

b. Reduced monitoring: A system may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in bromate monitoring. The Department may reduce bromate monitoring in the distribution system to once per quarter, if the system demonstrates that the annual average for source water bromide concentration is less than 0.05 mg/L based upon representative monthly bromide measurements. A system shall continue monthly bromide monitoring to remain on reduced bromate monitoring. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for bromate shall be in writing.

c. The system may remain on reduced bromate monitoring until the running annual average source water bromide concentration, computed quarterly, is equal to or greater than 0.05 mg/L based upon representative monthly measurements. If the running annual average source water bromide concentration is greater than or equal to 0.05 mg/L, the system shall resume routine monitoring required in subsection (H)(3)(a).

I. Compliance for disinfection byproducts. The Department shall determine compliance with a disinfection byproduct as follows:

1. All samples collected and analyzed under the provisions of this Section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number is greater than the minimum required.

2. During the first year of monitoring under this Section, if the average for an individual quarter will cause the running annual average of a system to exceed a MCL, the system is out of compliance at the end of that quarter.

3. TTHM and HAA5: For a system that monitors quarterly, the Department shall determine compliance with a MCL for TTHM and HAA5 based on the running annual average of all samples collected by the system as required in of subsection (H)(1). For a system that fails to collect four consecutive quarters of samples, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for TTHM and HAA5 based on an average of the available data.

4. Bromate: For a system required to monitor for bromate, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for bromate based on the running annual arithmetic average, computed quarterly, of monthly samples (or, for months in which the system collects more than one sample, the average of all samples collected during the month) collected by the system as required in subsection (H)(3). For a system that fails to collect 12 consecutive months of samples for bromate, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for bromate based on an average of the available data.

5. Chlorite: For a system required to monitor for chlorite, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for chlorite based on a monthly arithmetic average of samples collected by the system as required in subsection (H)(2).

J. Monitoring requirements for disinfectant residuals.

1. Chlorine and chloramines. A CWS or NTNCWS that uses chlorine or chloramines shall measure the residual disinfectant level in the distribution system when total coliforms are sampled as required in R18-4-303(C)(3). The Department shall not reduce monitoring for chlorine or chloramines.

2. Chlorine dioxide. A CWS, NTNCWS, or TNCWS that uses chlorine dioxide for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for chlorine dioxide at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect a daily sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system. For a daily sample that exceeds the MRDL, the system shall collect samples in the distribution system the following day at the locations required by subsection (J)(2)(b), in addition to the sample required at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

b. Additional monitoring: On each day following a routine sample monitoring result that exceeds the MRDL, the system shall collect three chlorine dioxide distribution system samples.

i. If chlorine dioxide or chloramines are used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system, or if chlorine is used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system and there are no disinfection addition points after the point-of-entry into the distribution system (that is no booster chlorination), the system shall collect three chlorine dioxide samples as close to the first customer as possible, at intervals of at least six hours.

ii. If chlorine or chloramines are used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system and there are one or more disinfection addition points after the point-of-entry into the distribution system (that is booster chlorination), the system shall collect one chlorine dioxide sample at each of the following locations: as close to the first customer as possible, in a location representative of average residence time, and as close to the end of the distribution system as possible, reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system.

iii. The Department shall not reduce monitoring for chlorine dioxide.

K. Compliance for disinfectant residuals. The Department shall determine compliance with disinfectant residuals in subsection (C) as follows:

1. All samples collected and analyzed under the provisions of this Section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number is greater than the minimum required.

2. Chlorine and chloramines.

a. A system that fails to monitor for a disinfectant residual where compliance is based on a running annual average of monthly or quarterly samples or averages and the system's failure to monitor makes it impossible to determine compliance with MRDLs for chlorine and chloramines, is out of compliance for the entire period covered by the annual average.

b. The Department shall determine compliance with a MRDL for chlorine and chloramines based on a running annual arithmetic average, computed quarterly, of monthly averages of all samples collected by the system under subsection (J)(1).

c. For a system that switches between the use of chlorine and chloramines for residual disinfection during the year, the Department shall include all monitoring results of both chlorine and chloramines in calculating compliance.

3. Chlorine dioxide. The Department shall determine compliance with the MRDL for chlorine dioxide based on consecutive daily samples collected by the system under subsection (J)(2).

a. a sample collected in the distribution system that exceeds the MRDL the day after a sample collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceeds the MRDL is an acute violation. The system shall immediately take corrective action to lower the level of chlorine dioxide below the MRDL. Failure to collect a sample in the distribution system on the day following a sample collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system that exceeds the chlorine dioxide MRDL, is an acute violation.

b. If all the samples the system collects in the distribution system are less than the MRDL after any two consecutive daily samples collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceed the MRDL, it is a non-acute violation. The system shall take corrective action to lower the level of chlorine dioxide below the MRDL at the point of sampling. Failure to collect a sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system the day after a sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceeds the chlorine dioxide MRDL is a non-acute violation.

L. Monitoring requirements for disinfection byproduct precursors (TOC).

1. Routine monitoring: A CWS or NTNCWS that uses conventional filtration treatment shall monitor each water treatment plant for TOC no later than the point of combined filter effluent turbidity monitoring that is representative of the treated water. A system that is required to monitor under this subsection shall also monitor for TOC and alkalinity in the source water prior to any treatment at the same time as monitoring for TOC in the treated water. These TOC and alkalinity samples are referred to as a sample set. A system shall collect one sample set per month per water treatment plant at a time representative of normal operating conditions and source water quality.

2. Reduced monitoring: Upon a written request from a system, the Department may approve a reduction in monitoring to one sample set per water treatment plant per quarter for a system with an average treated water TOC of less than 2.0 mg/L for two consecutive years, or less than 1.0 mg/L for one year. The system shall resume routine monitoring in the month following the quarter when the annual average treated water TOC is greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/L. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for TOC shall be in writing.

M. This Section is effective May 1, 2002, and is repealed January 1, 2004.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-4-214.02. Disinfectant Residuals and Disinfection Byproducts (Effective January 1, 2004)

A. This Section applies to surface water systems and ground water systems of any size that use a chemical disinfectant. After January 1, 2004 a CWS or NTNCWS shall comply with the following MCLs for disinfection byproducts:

<table> Disinfection byproduct MCL (mg/L) Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) 0.080 Haloacetic acids (five) (HAA5) 0.060 Bromate 0.010 Chlorite 1.0 </table>

B. A CWS or NTNCWS shall comply with the following MRDLs for disinfectant residuals:

<table> Disinfectant Residual MRDL (mg/L) Chlorine 4.0 (as Cl 2 ) Chloramines 4.0 (as Cl 2 ) Chlorine dioxide 0.8 (as ClO 2 ) </table>

C. A TNCWS that uses chlorine dioxide as a disinfectant or oxidant shall comply with the MRDL for chlorine dioxide in subsection (B).

D. In order to protect public health, a system may increase residual disinfectant levels in the distribution system of chlorine or chloramines (but not chlorine dioxide) to a level and for a time necessary to address specific microbiological contamination problems caused by circumstances such as distribution line breaks, storm run-off events, source water contamination events, or cross-connection events.

E. A system shall collect disinfection byproduct and residual disinfection level samples at sites that are representative of water throughout the distribution system according to a written monitoring plan. A surface water system that serves more than 3,300 people shall submit a copy of the monitoring plan to the Department for review no later than the date of the first report required under R18-4-104(A). After review, the Department may require changes to the monitoring plan. The system shall maintain the plan and make it available for inspection by the Department and the general public no later than January 31, 2004. The Department may require any other PWS to submit a copy of the monitoring plan. A monitoring plan is subject to review and approval by the Department. A monitoring plan shall include at least the following elements:

1. Specific locations and schedules for collecting samples required by this Section;

2. Compliance calculation methods for applicable MCLs, MRDLs, and treatment techniques;

3. If approved for monitoring as a consecutive system or if providing water to a consecutive system as prescribed under R18-4-113, the monitoring plan shall reflect the entire distribution system.

F. General monitoring requirements for disinfectant residuals and disinfection byproducts.

1. A system shall take a sample during normal operating conditions.

2. A system may make a written request that the Department consider multiple wells drawing water from a single aquifer as one water treatment plant for determining the minimum number of TTHM and HAA5 samples required. In order to determine the appropriate reduction in monitoring for TTHM and HAA5, the Department may consider, but is not limited to, the following information:

a. Well construction and geology,

b. Water characteristics and chemistry,

c. Number of water treatment plants,

d. Hydrologic reports that delineate the source aquifer or aquifers,

e. Previous TTHM analytical results,

f. Number of persons served, and

g. Land area encompassed by the water system.

3. A system shall monitor in accordance with the monitoring plan required under subsection (E).

4. A system may use only data collected under the provisions of this Section to qualify for reduced monitoring.

G. Monitoring requirements for disinfection byproducts.

1. Routine monitoring for TTHM and HAA5. A CWS or NTNCWS shall monitor at the frequency indicated in Table 1:

Table 1. Routine Monitoring for TTHM and HAA5

<table> Type of system Minimum Monitoring Frequency Sample Location in the distribution system A. CWS or NTNCWS using surface water and serving at least 10,000 persons four water samples per quarter per water treatment plant At least 25 percent of all samples collected each quarter at locations representing maximum residence time. Remaining samples collected at locations representative of at least average residence time in the distribution system and representing the entire distribution system, taking into account number of persons served, different sources of water, and different treatment methods. B. CWS or NTNCWS using surface water and serving from 500 to 9,999 persons one water sample per quarter per water treatment plant Locations representing maximum residence time. C. CWS or NTNCWS using surface water and serving fewer than 500 persons one water sample per year per water treatment plant during month of warmest water temperature Locations representing maximum residence time. If the sample (or average of annual samples, if more than one sample is collected) exceeds the MCL, the system shall increase monitoring to one sample per water treatment plant per quarter, collected at a point reflecting the maximum residence time in the distribution system, until the system meets criteria in subsection (G)(2)(c). D. CWS or NTNCWS using solely groundwater and using chemical disinfectant and serving at least 10,000 persons one water sample per quarter per water treatment plant Locations representing maximum residence time. E. CWS or NTNCWS using solely groundwater and using chemical disinfectant and serving fewer than 10,000 persons one water sample per year per water treatment plant during month of warmest water temperature Locations representing maximum residence time. If the sample (or average of annual samples, if more than one sample is collected) exceeds the MCL, the system shall increase monitoring to one sample per water treatment plant per quarter, collected at a point reflecting the maximum residence time in the distribution system, until the system meets criteria in subsection (G)(2)(c). </table>

a. A system that elects to sample more frequently than the minimum required, shall collect at least 25 percent of all samples collected each quarter at locations that represent the maximum residence time of the water in the distribution system. The system shall collect the remaining samples at locations representative of at least average residence time in the distribution system.

b. Multiple wells drawing water from a single aquifer may be considered one water treatment plant for determining the minimum number of samples required, with Department approval in accordance with criteria listed under subsections (F)(2)(a) through (g).

2. Reduced monitoring for TTHM and HAA5. Upon the written request from a system, the Department may approve a reduction in TTHM and HAA5 monitoring in accordance with Table 2:

Table 2. Reduced Monitoring For TTHM and HAA5

<table> Type of System Routine Monitoring Results for at Least One Year Reduced Monitoring and Sample Location A. CWS or NTNCWS using surface water and serving 10,000 persons or more with a source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment of 4.0 mg/L or less TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L one sample per water treatment plant per quarter at distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time B. CWS or NTNCWS using surface water and serving 500 to 9,999 persons with a source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment of 4.0 mg/L or less TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L one sample per water treatment plant per year at distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time during month of warmest water temperature. NOTE: a system serving surface water and serving fewer than 500 persons may not reduce its monitoring to less than one sample per water treatment plant per year. C. CWS or NTNCWS using solely groundwater and using a chemical disinfectant and serving 10,000 persons or more TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L one sample per water treatment plant per year at distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time during month of warmest water temperature D. CWS or NTNCWS using only groundwater and using chemical a disinfectant and serving fewer than 10,000 persons TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L for two consecutive years OR TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.020 mg/L and HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.015mg/L for one year one sample per water treatment plant per three year monitoring cycle at distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time during month of warmest water temperature, with the three-year cycle beginning on January 1 following quarter in which system qualifies for reduced monitoring. </table>

a. A system on a reduced monitoring schedule may remain on that reduced schedule as long as the average of all samples collected in the year (for a system that monitors quarterly) or the result of the sample (for a system that monitors no more frequently than annually) is no more than 0.060 mg/L for TTHM and 0.045 mg/L for HAA5. A system that exceeds these levels shall resume monitoring at the frequency identified in subsection (G)(1) (minimum monitoring frequency column) in the quarter immediately following the monitoring period in which the system exceeds 0.060 mg/L for TTHM or 0.045 mg/L for HAA5.

b. For a system using solely groundwater and serving fewer than 10,000 persons, if either the TTHM annual average is greater than 0.080 mg/L or the HAA5 annual average is greater than 0.060 mg/L, the system shall increase monitoring as specified in subsection (G)(1) (sample location column) in the quarter immediately following the monitoring period in which the system exceeds 0.080 mg/L for TTHM or 0.060 mg/L for HAA5.

c. A system on increased monitoring may return to routine monitoring if, after at least one year of monitoring the TTHM annual average is less than or equal to 0.060 mg/L and their HAA5 annual average is less than or equal to 0.045 mg/L.

3. Chlorite: A CWS or NTNCWS using chlorine dioxide for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for chlorite at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect a daily sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system. If a daily sample exceeds the chlorite MCL, the system shall collect additional samples in the distribution system the following day at the locations required in subsection (G)(3)(c), in addition to the sample required at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

b. Monthly monitoring: A system shall collect three samples each month in the distribution system. The system shall collect one sample at each of the following locations: near the first customer, at a location representative of average residence time, and at a location reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system. If a system collects additional routine samples, it shall collect them in the same manner as for monthly monitoring. The system may use the results of additional monitoring conducted under subsection (G)(3)(c) to meet the requirement for monthly monitoring in this subsection.

c. Additional monitoring: On each day following a routine sample monitoring result that exceeds the chlorite MCL at the point-of-entry into the distribution system, the system shall collect three chlorite samples in the distribution system at the following locations: as close to the first customer as possible, in a location representative of average residence time, and as close to the end of the distribution system as possible (reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system).

d. Reduced monitoring:

i. The Department shall not reduce chlorite monitoring at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

ii. A system may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in chlorite monitoring in the distribution system required in subsection (G)(3)(b). The Department may reduce chlorite monitoring in the distribution system to one set of three samples per quarter after the system has monitored for one year and no individual chlorite sample collected in the distribution system under subsection (G)(3)(b) has exceeded the chlorite MCL and the system has not been required to conduct monitoring under subsection (G)(3)(c). The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for chlorite in the distribution system shall be in writing.

iii. A system may remain on the reduced monitoring schedule until either any of the three individual chlorite samples collected monthly in the distribution system under subsection (G)(3)(b) exceeds the chlorite MCL or the system is required to conduct monitoring under subsection (G)(3)(c) of this Section, at which time the system shall resume routine monitoring.

4. Bromate. A CWS or NTNCWS using ozone for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for bromate at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect one sample per month for each water treatment plant in the system using ozone. A system shall collect a sample each month at the point-of-entry into the distribution system while the ozonation system is operating under normal conditions.

b. Reduced monitoring: A system may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in bromate monitoring. The Department may reduce bromate monitoring in the distribution system to once per quarter, if the system demonstrates that the annual average for source water bromide concentration is less than 0.05 mg/L based upon representative monthly bromide measurements. A system shall continue monthly bromide monitoring to remain on reduced bromate monitoring. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for bromate shall be in writing.

c. The system may remain on reduced bromate monitoring until the running annual average source water bromide concentration, computed quarterly, is equal to or greater than 0.05 mg/L based upon representative monthly measurements. If the running annual average source water bromide concentration is greater than or equal to 0.05 mg/L, the system shall resume routine monitoring required in subsection (G)(4)(a).

H. Compliance for disinfection byproducts. The Department shall determine compliance with a disinfection byproduct as follows:

1. All samples collected and analyzed under the provisions of this Section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number is greater than the minimum required.

2. During the first year of monitoring under this Section, if the average for an individual quarter will cause the running annual average of a system to exceed a MCL, the system is out of compliance at the end of that quarter.

3. TTHM and HAA5:

i. For a system that monitors quarterly, the Department shall determine compliance with a MCL for TTHM and HAA5 based on a running annual average of all samples collected by the system as required in of subsections (G)(1) and (2). For a system that fails to collect four consecutive quarters of samples, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for TTHM and HAA5 based on an average of the available data.

ii. For a system that monitors less frequently than quarterly, the Department shall determine compliance with a MCL for TTHM and HAA5 based on the average of samples collected that year by the system as required in subsections (G)(1) and (2). If the average of these samples exceeds the MCL, the system shall increase monitoring to once per quarter per water treatment plant. The system is not in violation of the MCL until it has completed one year of quarterly monitoring and the running annual average is greater than the MCL, unless the result of fewer than four quarters of monitoring will cause the running annual average to exceed the MCL, in which case the system is in violation at the end of that quarter. For a system required to increase monitoring frequency to quarterly compliance shall be calculated by including the sample that triggered the increased monitoring and the results of the following three quarters of monitoring.

4. Bromate: For a system required to monitor for bromate, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for bromate based on the running annual arithmetic average, computed quarterly, of monthly samples collected by the system as required in subsection (G)(4) or, for months in which the system collects more than one sample, the average of all samples collected during the month. For a system that fails to collect 12 consecutive months of samples for bromate, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for bromate based on an average of the available data.

5. Chlorite: For a system required to monitor for chlorite, the Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for chlorite based on a monthly arithmetic average of samples collected by the system as required in subsection (G)(3).

I. Monitoring requirements for disinfectant residuals.

1. Chlorine and chloramines. A CWS or NTNCWS that uses chlorine or chloramines shall measure the residual disinfectant level in the distribution system when total coliforms are sampled. A surface water system may use the results of residual disinfectant concentration sampling conducted under R18-4-303(C)(3) instead of taking separate samples. The Department shall not reduce monitoring for chlorine or chloramines.

2. Chlorine dioxide. A CWS, NTNCWS, or TNCWS that uses chlorine dioxide for disinfection or oxidation shall monitor for chlorine dioxide at the following frequencies:

a. Routine monitoring: A system shall collect a daily sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system. For a daily sample that exceeds the MRDL, the system shall collect samples in the distribution system the following day at the locations required by subsection (I)(2)(b), in addition to the sample required at the point-of-entry into the distribution system.

b. Additional monitoring: On each day following a routine sample monitoring result that exceeds the MRDL, the system shall collect three chlorine dioxide distribution system samples.

i. If chlorine dioxide or chloramines are used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system, or if chlorine is used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system and there are no disinfection addition points after the point-of-entry into the distribution system (that is no booster chlorination), the system shall collect three chlorine dioxide samples as close to the first customer as possible, at intervals of at least six hours.

ii. If chlorine or chloramines are used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution system and there are one or more disinfection addition points after the point-of-entry into the distribution system (that is booster chlorination), the system shall collect one chlorine dioxide sample at each of the following locations: as close to the first customer as possible, in a location representative of average residence time, and at a point as close to the end of the distribution system as possible that reflects the maximum residence time in the distribution system.

iii. The Department shall not reduce monitoring for chlorine dioxide.

J. Compliance for disinfectant residuals. The Department shall determine compliance with disinfectant residuals in subsection (B) as follows:

1. All samples collected and analyzed under the provisions of this Section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number is greater than the minimum required.

2. Chlorine and chloramines.

a. For a system that fails to monitor for a residual level where compliance is based on a running annual average of monthly or quarterly samples or averages and the system's failure to monitor makes it impossible to determine compliance with MRDLs for chlorine and chloramines, the system is out of compliance for the entire period covered by the annual average.

b. The Department shall determine compliance with a MRDL for chlorine and chloramines based on a running annual arithmetic average, computed quarterly, of monthly averages of all samples collected by the system under subsection (I)(1).

c. For a system that switches between the use of chlorine and chloramines for residual disinfection during the year, the Department shall determine compliance by including all monitoring results of both chlorine and chloramines in calculating compliance.

3. Chlorine dioxide. The Department shall determine compliance with the MRDL for chlorine dioxide based on consecutive daily samples collected by the system under subsection (I)(2).

a. a sample collected in the distribution system which exceeds the MRDL the day after a sample collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceeds the MRDL is an acute violation. The system shall immediately take corrective action to lower the level of chlorine dioxide below the MRDL. Failure to collect samples in the distribution system on the day following a sample collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceeding the chlorine dioxide MRDL, is an acute violation.

b. Any two consecutive daily samples collected at the point-of-entry into the distribution system that exceed the MRDL and all the samples the system collected in the distribution are below the MRDL is a non-acute violation. The system shall take corrective action to lower the level of chlorine dioxide below the MRDL at the point of sampling. Failure to collect a sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system the day after a sample at the point-of-entry into the distribution system exceeds the chlorine dioxide MRDL is a non-acute violation.

K. Monitoring requirements for disinfection byproduct precursors (TOC).

1. Routine monitoring: A CWS or NTNCWS that uses conventional filtration treatment shall monitor each water treatment plant for TOC no later than the point of combined filter effluent turbidity monitoring that is representative of the treated water. A system that is required to monitor under this subsection shall also monitor for TOC and alkalinity in the source water prior to any treatment at the same time as monitoring for TOC in the treated water. These TOC and alkalinity samples are referred to as a sample set. A system shall collect one sample set per month per water treatment plant at a time representative of normal operating conditions and source water quality.

2. Reduced monitoring: Upon a written request from a system, the Department may approve a reduction in monitoring to one sample set per water treatment plant per quarter for a system with an average treated water TOC of less than 2.0 mg/L for two consecutive years, or less than 1.0 mg/L for one year. The system shall resume routine monitoring in the month following the quarter when the annual average treated water TOC is greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/L. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring for TOC shall be in writing.

L. This Section is effective January 1, 2004.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective January 1, 2004 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.215" level="4" title="Synthetic Organic Chemicals: MCLs"> <dwc name="alachlor" times="1"><dwc name="atrazin" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="1"><dwc name="chlordan" times="1"><dwc name="dalapon" times="1"><dwc name="dibromochloropropan" times="1"><dwc name="dbcp" times="1"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="1"><dwc name="tcdd" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="1"><dwc name="ethylen dibromid" times="1"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="1"><dwc name="picloram" times="1"><dwc name="simazin" times="1"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="1"><dwc name="silvex" times="1">

Synthetic Organic Chemicals: MCLs

Water distributed by a CWS or NTNCWS shall not exceed the following MCLs for SOCs:

<table> Contaminant MCL (mg/L) Alachlor 0.002 Atrazine 0.003 Benzo(a)pyrene 0.0002 Carbofuran 0.04 Chlordane 0.002 2,4-D 0.07 Dalapon 0.2 Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) 0.0002 Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate 0.4 Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 0.006 Dinoseb 0.007 Diquat 0.02 Endothall 0.1 Endrin 0.002 Ethylene dibromide (EDB) 0.00005 Glyphosate 0.7 Heptachlor 0.0004 Heptachlor epoxide 0.0002 Hexachlorobenzene 0.001 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 0.05 Lindane 0.0002 Methoxychlor 0.04 Oxamyl 0.2 Pentachlorophenol 0.001 Picloram 0.5 Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) (as decachlorobiphenyl) 0.0005 Simazine 0.004 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) 3 x 10 -8 Toxaphene 0.003 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 0.05 </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.216" level="4" title="Synthetic Organic Chemicals; Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="3"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="7">

Synthetic Organic Chemicals; Monitoring Requirements

A. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor to determine compliance with the MCLs for the SOCs listed in R18-4-215. A TNCWS is not required to monitor for SOCs.

B. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall conduct initial monitoring for SOCs in the monitoring year designated by the Department.

C. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for SOCs at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

D. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite SOC samples as prescribed in R18-4-219.

E. A CWS, NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take four consecutive quarterly samples at each sampling point during each compliance period.

F. A CWS or NTNCWS may use SOC monitoring data collected in the three years immediately before the initial monitoring year to satisfy initial monitoring requirements.

G. A CWS or NTNCWS may submit a written request to the Department for a reduction in monitoring frequency at a sampling point. The Department may also initiate a reduction in monitoring frequency for a CWS or NTNCWS. The Department may grant a reduction in monitoring frequency at a sampling point after consideration of previous analytical data, and if the CWS or NTNCWS does not detect a SOC at a sampling point during initial monitoring. If the Department decides to reduce monitoring frequency, the decision shall be in writing, and the reduction shall be granted as follows:

1. For a CWS or NTNCWS that serves more than 3,300 persons, the Department may reduce monitoring frequency to a minimum of two quarterly samples in one year at each sampling point during each repeat compliance period. Quarterly samples shall not be taken in consecutive quarters.

2. For a CWS or NTNCWS that serves 3,300 or fewer persons, the Department may reduce monitoring frequency to a minimum of one sample at each sampling point during each repeat compliance period.

H. If a CWS or NTNCWS detects a SOC listed in R18-4-215 at a sampling point in a concentration that is greater than or equal to the reporting limit listed under R18-4-104(U)(1)(f), the CWS or NTNCWS shall conduct quarterly monitoring for that SOC at that sampling point, beginning in the quarter immediately following the collection of the sample in which the SOC was detected. The CWS or NTNCWS shall continue quarterly monitoring at the sampling point until:

1. For groundwater sampling points, a minimum of two consecutive quarterly samples are taken and the concentration of the SOC in each sample is below the MCL. If the initial detection that triggers quarterly monitoring is at a concentration that exceeds the MCL for a SOC, a minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples at the sampling point and the concentration of the SOC in each sample is below the MCL.

2. For surface water sampling points, a minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples are taken and the concentration of the SOC in each sample is below the MCL.

3. If the concentration of a SOC is below the MCL for the minimum number of consecutive quarterly samples prescribed in subsections (H)(1) or (H)(2), and the Department determines that the CWS or NTNCWS has been reliably and consistently below the MCL for the SOC in previous samples, the Department shall reduce monitoring frequency at the sampling point from quarterly to annually. The Department's decision to reduce monitoring frequency from quarterly to annually shall be in writing. If the Department reduces monitoring frequency to annually, a CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take the annual sample during the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result. A CWS or NTNCWS that has three consecutive annual samples with no detection of a SOC may submit a written request to the Department for a monitoring waiver according to subsection (M).

I. The Department may increase monitoring frequency, where necessary, to detect variations within a CWS or NTNCWS (for example, fluctuations in concentration due to seasonal use or changes in water source). The Department's decision to increase monitoring frequency shall be in writing.

J. If a CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, detects either heptachlor or heptachlor epoxide at a sampling point in a concentration that is greater than or equal to the reporting limit, the CWS or NTNCWS shall have subsequent samples analyzed for both heptachlor and heptochlor epoxide.

K. The Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for a SOC from the analytical results from each sampling point as follows:

1. For a CWS or NTNCWS that samples quarterly or more frequently at a sampling point, the Department shall determine compliance from the running annual average of all samples taken at the sampling point. If the running annual average is greater than the MCL, the CWS or NTNCWS is out of compliance. If any sample causes the running annual average to exceed the MCL, the CWS or NTNCWS is out of compliance immediately. Any sample below the reporting limit shall be calculated as zero for purposes of determining the running annual average.

2. If a CWS or NTNCWS samples on an annual or less frequent basis at a sampling point, the CWS or NTNCWS is out of compliance if the concentration of a SOC in a single sample exceeds the MCL.

L. The Department shall require a confirmation sample whenever the Department has reason to believe that the confirmation sample will provide a more accurate characterization of water quality. If the Department requires a confirmation sample, the analytical result from the confirmation sample shall be averaged with the analytical result from the initial sample. The Department shall use the average to determine compliance under subsection (K)(2).

M. A CWS or NTNCWS may submit a written request to the Department for a waiver from the monitoring requirements for a SOC; the Department may also initiate a waiver for a CWS or NTNCWS. A monitoring waiver is effective for one compliance period. A CWS or NTNCWS shall reapply for a monitoring waiver in each subsequent compliance period. A CWS or NTNCWS that receives a monitoring waiver is not required to monitor for the SOC during the term of the waiver. The Department's decision of whether to grant a SOC monitoring waiver shall be in writing, and shall be based on consideration of the following factors:

1. Use waivers: The Department may grant a use waiver based upon the results of a vulnerability assessment conducted by the Department or by the CWS or NTNCWS. In deciding whether to grant or deny a use waiver, the Department shall review the vulnerability assessment and consider whether there has been previous use of the SOC (including transport, storage, or disposal) within the watershed or zone of influence of a well. If previous use of the SOC is unknown or if the SOC has been used previously, the Department may grant a susceptibility waiver based upon a vulnerability assessment.

2. Susceptibility waiver: The Department may grant a susceptibility waiver based upon the results of a vulnerability assessment conducted by the Department or by the CWS or NTNCWS. The Department shall review the vulnerability assessment and consider the following factors in deciding whether to grant or deny a susceptibility waiver:

a. Previous analytical results;

b. The proximity of the CWS or NTNCWS to a potential point source or nonpoint source of contamination. A point source of contamination includes a spill or leak of a SOC at or near a water treatment plant or distribution system pipeline; at a manufacturing, distribution, or storage facility; or from a hazardous or municipal waste landfill; or from another waste handling or treatment facility. A nonpoint source includes the use of pesticides to control insect and weed pests on an agricultural area, forest, home, garden, or other land application use;

c. The environmental persistence and transport of the SOC;

d. How well the water source is protected against contamination by the SOC due to factors such as geology and well design (for example, depth to groundwater, type of soil, and the integrity of the well casing);

e. Elevated nitrate levels at the water supply source;

f. The use of PCBs in equipment used in the production, storage, or distribution of water; and

g. Wellhead protection assessments.

N. Each CWS or NTNCWS that monitors for PCBs shall analyze each sample using either EPA Method 505 or EPA Method 508, listed in R9-14-611(E)(4). If PCBs are not detected (as 1 of 7 Aroclors) in the sample in a concentration that exceeds the reporting limits listed in this subsection, the CWS or NTNCWS is in compliance with the MCL for PCBs. If a PCB is detected (as 1 of 7 Aroclors) in a concentration that exceeds the reporting limit for the Aroclor listed in this subsection, the sample shall be reanalyzed using EPA Method 508(A), listed in R9-14-611(E)(4), to quantitate PCBs as decachlorobiphenyl. The Department shall determine compliance with the MCL for PCBs (as decachlorobiphenyl) from the EPA Method 508(A) analytical result.

<table> Aroclor Reporting limit (mg/L) 1016 0.00008 1221 0.02 1232 0.0005 1242 0.0003 1248 0.0001 1254 0.0001 1260 0.0002 </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.217" level="4" title="Radiochemicals; MCLs and Monitoring Requirements"> <dwc name="radionuclid" times="6"><dwc name="radioact" times="26"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="14"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="13"><dwc name="photon emitt" times="1"><dwc name="photon radioact" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="12"><dwc name="radium" times="27"><dwc name="uranium" times="3">

Radiochemicals; MCLs and Monitoring Requirements

A. Water distributed by a CWS shall not exceed the following MCLs:

1. 5 pCi/l for combined radium-226 and radium-228;

2. 15 pCi/l for gross alpha particle activity, including radium-226 but excluding radon and uranium; and

3. Four millirem per year annual dose equivalent to either the total body or to an internal organ (average annual concentration of beta particle and photon radioactivity from man-made radionuclides.)

a. Except for Tritium and Strontium-90, the concentration of man-made radionuclides causing 4 millirem total body or organ dose equivalents shall be calculated on the basis of a two-liter per day drinking water intake using the 168-hour data listed in the National Bureau of Standards Handbook 69, incorporated by reference in the definition of "man-made beta particle and photon emitters" in R18-4-101.

b. The Department assumes that the following average annual concentrations of Tritium and Strontium-90 produce a total body or organ dose equivalent of four millirem per year:

<table> Radionuclide Critical organ pCi/L Tritium Total body 20,000 Strontium-90 Bone marrow 8 </table>

c. If two or more radionuclides are present, the sum of their annual dose equivalents to the total body or to any internal organ shall not exceed four millirem/year.

B. A CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall monitor for gross alpha particle activity, radium-226, and radium-228 as follows:

1. A CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall monitor each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218 once every four years. A CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall take four consecutive quarterly samples at each sampling point for gross alpha particle radioactivity, radium-226, and radium-228 analysis.

2. The Department shall determine compliance with the MCLs in subsections (A)(1) and (A)(2) from the analytical results of a composite sample composed of four consecutive quarterly samples or the average of the analytical results of four consecutive quarterly samples, whichever method the public water system chooses.

3. A gross alpha particle activity measurement may be substituted for the required radium-226 and radium-228 analyses if the measured gross alpha particle activity does not exceed five pCi/L at a confidence level of 95 percent (1.65 Fs where Fs is the standard deviation of the net counting rate of the sample).

a. If a gross alpha particle activity measurement exceeds five pCi/L, the same sample shall be analyzed for radium-226. If the concentration of radium-226 exceeds three pCi/L, the same sample shall be analyzed for radium-228.

b. If a gross alpha particle activity measurement exceeds 15 pCi/L, the same sample shall be analyzed for uranium and the uranium result shall be subtracted from the gross alpha particle activity measurement to determine compliance with subsection (A)(2).

c. The Department shall consider the following criteria in determining whether to require radium-226 and radium-228 analyses:

i. Whether the gross alpha particle activity exceeds two pCi/L, and

ii. Whether radium-228 may be present in the local drinking water.

C. If the MCL for gross alpha particle activity or combined radium-226 and radium-228 is exceeded, the CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall monitor quarterly at the sampling point until a monitoring schedule that is a condition of a variance, exemption, compliance agreement, or enforcement action is effective or the annual average concentration no longer exceeds the MCL due to one or more of the following:

1. Treatment,

2. Removal of a source from service, or

3. A blending plan approved under R18-4-221.

D. If the Department determines that current monitoring results demonstrate a need for more frequent monitoring, the Department shall order a CWS to conduct more frequent monitoring for gross alpha particle activity, radium-226, or radium-228. The Department's determination shall be based on one or more of the following:

1. The CWS is in the vicinity of mining or other operations that may contribute alpha particle radioactivity to either surface or groundwater sources of drinking water;

2. There is possible radiochemical contamination of surface or groundwater sources of drinking water; or

3. Changes in the distribution system or treatment process occur that may increase the concentration of radioactivity in drinking water.

E. When the concentration of radium-226 exceeds three pCi/L, and the Department determines that annual monitoring is required based on previous monitoring results, the Department shall order a CWS to conduct annual monitoring for gross alpha particle radioactivity, radium-226, or radium-228 at one or more sampling points.

F. The Department shall reduce monitoring for gross alpha particle radioactivity, radium-226, or radium-228 as follows:

1. The Department shall allow a CWS to substitute a single annual sample for the four consecutive quarterly samples prescribed in subsection (B) if an annual record establishes that the average annual concentration is less than one-half the MCLs prescribed in subsection (A).

2. The Department shall allow a CWS to stop monitoring for radium-228 if:

a. The CWS has monitored radium-228 at least once using the quarterly monitoring procedure prescribed in subsection (B), and

b. The radium-226 concentration is less than three pCi/L.

G. A CWS or a contractor on behalf of a CWS shall take four consecutive quarterly samples as prescribed in subsection (B) at the point-of-entry to the distribution system within one year of the introduction of a new water source.

H. A CWS that uses two or more sources that are combined before the point-of-entry into the distribution system and that have different concentrations of radioactivity shall monitor each source and the blended water at the point-of-entry when ordered to by the Department.

I. A CWS that is a surface water system that serves more than 100,000 persons and any CWS that the Department determines is subject to potential health risks from man-made radioactivity shall monitor for gross beta particle radioactivity, Tritium, and Strontium-90 as follows:

1. A CWS that is a surface water system that serves more than 100,000 persons shall monitor at each surface water sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218. A CWS that the Department determines is subject to potential health risks from man-made radioactivity shall monitor at sampling points designated by the Department.

2. A CWS or a contractor on behalf of a CWS shall take four consecutive quarterly samples at each sampling point for gross beta particle radioactivity, Tritium, and Strontium-90 analysis once every four years, unless subsection (H)(3) applies.

a. If the average annual concentration of gross beta particle radioactivity is less than 50 pCi/L, the sample shall be analyzed to determine the concentrations of Tritium and Strontium-90. A CWS is in compliance with the MCLs for man-made radioactivity prescribed in subsection (A)(3) if the average annual concentration of gross beta particle radioactivity is less than 50 pCi/L, the average annual concentration of Tritium is less than 20,000 pCi/L, the average annual concentration of Strontium-90 is less than eight pCi/L, and the sum of the annual dose equivalents for Tritium and Strontium-90 is less than 4 millirem / year.

b. If gross beta particle radioactivity is greater than 50 pCi/L, the sample shall be analyzed to identify the major radioactive constituents present and the appropriate internal organ and total body doses shall be calculated to determine compliance with subsection (A)(3).

3. A CWS that utilizes water that the Department determines may be contaminated by effluent from a nuclear facility shall monitor for gross beta particle radioactivity, Iodine-131, Strontium-90, and Tritium as follows:

a. A CWS shall monitor monthly for gross beta particle radioactivity. Compliance shall be based upon the analysis of a composite sample made up of three monthly samples or the average concentration of three monthly samples.

i. If the concentration of gross beta particle radioactivity is greater than 15 pCi/L, the same sample shall be analyzed for Strontium-89 and Cesium-134. A CWS is in compliance with the MCLs for man-made radioactivity prescribed in subsection (A)(3) if the average concentration of gross beta particle radioactivity is less than 50 pCi/L, the average concentration of Cesium-134 is less than 80 pCi/L, the average concentration of Strontium-89 is less than 80 pCi/L, and the sum of the annual dose equivalents for Strontium-89 and Cesium-134 is less than 4 millirem / year.

ii. If the concentration of gross beta particle radioactivity is greater than 50 pCi/L, the same sample shall be analyzed to identify the man-made radionuclides that are present. The internal organ and total body dose equivalents shall be calculated for the man-made radionuclides that are present to determine compliance with the MCL prescribed in subsection (A)(3).

b. A CWS or a contractor on behalf of a CWS shall take a composite of five consecutive daily samples once each quarter for Iodine-131 analysis. If Iodine-131 is detected, the CWS shall conduct more frequent monitoring at a frequency designated by the Department. If the concentration of Iodine-131 in the composite sample is greater than three pCi / L, the CWS is out of compliance.

c. A CWS or a contractor on behalf of a CWS shall take four consecutive quarterly samples for Strontium-90 and Tritium analyses each year. Compliance shall be based upon the analysis of a composite sample or the annual average concentration of four consecutive quarterly samples, as determined by the Department. A CWS is in compliance with the MCLs for man-made radioactivity prescribed in subsection (A)(3) if the average annual concentration of Tritium is less than 20,000 pCi/L, the average annual concentration of Strontium-90 is less than eight pCi/L, and the sum of the annual dose equivalents for Tritium and Strontium-90 is less than 4 millirem per year.

d. The Department shall allow the substitution of environmental surveillance data taken in conjunction with a nuclear facility for direct monitoring of man-made radioactivity by a CWS if the Department determines that the data are applicable to the CWS.

4. A CWS that violates a MCL for man-made radioactivity shall monitor monthly until the average concentration for 12 consecutive months no longer exceeds the MCL or the Department specifies a monitoring schedule as a condition to a variance, exemption, compliance agreement, or enforcement action.

5. A CWS that is a surface water system shall monitor at surface water points-of-entry. If the Department determines that a CWS is subject to potential health risk from man-made radioactivity the CWS shall monitor at points-of-entry designated by the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.218" level="4" title="Sampling Points"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="1">

Sampling Points

A. A public water system shall monitor to determine compliance with MCLs at sampling points as follows:

1. At each point-of-entry into the distribution system that is representative of water from each well after treatment, and

2. At each point-of-entry into the distribution system that is representative of each surface water source after treatment or at a point located before the first service connection that is representative of each surface water source after treatment.

B. If a public water system draws water from more than one source and the sources are combined before distribution, the public water system shall sample at points-of-entry into the distribution system during periods of normal operating conditions.

C. A public water system shall take each sample in subsequent monitoring periods at the same sampling point unless conditions make another sampling point more representative of water from each source after treatment.

D. A public water system shall sample for total coliforms at sampling sites identified in a written site sampling plan that is subject to Department review and approval.

E. A CWS shall sample for total trihalomethanes at sampling points as prescribed in R18-4-214.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.219" level="4" title="Sample Compositing"> <dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="3"><dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="lead" times="4"><dwc name="pcb" times="2"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="1"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="1">

Sample Compositing

A. A public water system may composite up to five samples provided that the detection limit of the method used for analysis is less than 1/5 of the MCL for the contaminant.

B. Compositing of samples shall be performed by a licensed laboratory and shall be analyzed within 14 days of sample collection.

C. A public water system may composite up to five samples from sampling points within the same public water system. A public water system serving 3,300 or fewer persons may composite samples with samples taken from other public water systems serving 3,300 or fewer persons. A contractor may composite samples for a CWS or NTNCWS that is subject to the monitoring assistance program as prescribed in this Section.

D. A public water system, or a contractor on behalf of the public water system, shall take a follow-up sample at each sampling point included in a composite sample within 14 days after the public water system is notified of a detection in (D)(1), (D)(2), or (D)(3), if:

1. Inorganic chemicals: An inorganic chemical is detected in a composite sample in a concentration greater than or equal to 1/5 the MCL, the follow-up sample shall be analyzed for the inorganic chemical that was detected in the composite sample in a concentration greater than or equal to 1/5 of the MCL.

2. VOCs: A VOC is detected in a composite sample in a concentration greater than or equal to 0.0005 mg/L, the follow-up sample shall be analyzed for the VOC that was detected in the composite sample in a concentration greater than or equal to 0.0005 mg/L.

3. SOCs: A SOC is detected in a composite sample in a concentration that exceeds the reporting limit for that SOC prescribed in R18-4-104(U)(2)(c), the follow-up sample shall be analyzed for the SOC that was detected in the composite sample in a concentration that exceeded the reporting limit.

4. If a duplicate of the original sample that was included in the composite sample is available, the public water system may use the duplicate instead of taking a follow-up sample. The duplicate sample shall be analyzed within method holding times and the results reported to the Department within 14 days after completion of the composite sample analysis.

E. Special compositing rules:

1. Compositing VOC samples before GC analysis:

a. Add 5 ml or equal larger amounts of each sample (up to five samples are allowed) to a 25 ml glass syringe. Special precautions shall be taken to maintain zero headspace in the syringe. If less than five samples are used for compositing, a proportionately smaller syringe may be used.

b. Samples shall be cooled at 4&#176; C to minimize volatilization losses.

c. The composite sample shall be well mixed. A 5 ml aliquot shall be drawn from the composite sample for GC analysis.

d. Introduce a sample, purge, and desorb as prescribed in the approved analytical method.

2. Compositing samples before GC/MS analysis:

a. Inject 5 ml or equal larger amounts of each aqueous sample (up to five samples are allowed) into a 25 ml purging device using the sample introduction technique described in the approved method.

b. The total volume in the purging device shall be 25 ml.

c. Purge and desorb as prescribed in the approved method.

3. Vinyl chloride samples shall not be composited.

4. Samples that are composited cannot be screened for PCBs using EPA Method 505 or EPA Method 508. Samples that are composited for PCB analysis shall be analyzed using EPA Method 508A, listed in R9-14-611(E)(4).

5. A public water system shall not composite tap water samples for lead and copper. A public water system may composite source water samples for lead and copper. If lead or copper is detected in a composite sample in a concentration greater than or equal to the method detection limit for lead or greater than or equal to 0.160 mg/L for copper, the public water system shall take and analyze a follow-up sample within 14 days at each sampling point included in the composite sample. If a duplicate of or a sufficient quantity of the original samples from each sampling point used in the composite is available, the public water system may have the duplicate analyzed instead of taking a follow-up sample.

6. A public water system shall not composite toxaphene samples unless the analytical method has a method detection limit that is less than or equal to 0.0006 mg/L.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.220" level="4" title="Best Available Technology"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="18"><dwc name="chlorin" times="10"><dwc name="chloramin" times="2"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="3"><dwc name="bromat" times="2"><dwc name="chlorit" times="1"><dwc name="haa" times="1"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="3"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="5"><dwc name="tthm" times="1"><dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="3"><dwc name="antimoni" times="2"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="asbesto" times="2"><dwc name="barium" times="3"><dwc name="beryllium" times="2"><dwc name="cadmium" times="2"><dwc name="chromium" times="4"><dwc name="cyanid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="3"><dwc name="nitrat" times="3"><dwc name="nitrit" times="3"><dwc name="selenium" times="4"><dwc name="thallium" times="2"><dwc name="alachlor" times="2"><dwc name="atrazin" times="2"><dwc name="benzen" times="2"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="2"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="2"><dwc name="chlordan" times="2"><dwc name="monochlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="dalapon" times="2"><dwc name="dibromochloropropan" times="2"><dwc name="dbcp" times="2"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="2"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="2"><dwc name="dioxin" times="2"><dwc name="tcdd" times="2"><dwc name="diquat" times="2"><dwc name="endothal" times="2"><dwc name="endrin" times="2"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="2"><dwc name="ethylen dibromid" times="2"><dwc name="glyphos" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="4"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="2"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="2"><dwc name="lindan" times="2"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="2"><dwc name="vydat" times="2"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="2"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="2"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="2"><dwc name="picloram" times="2"><dwc name="simazin" times="2"><dwc name="styren" times="2"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="toluen" times="2"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="2"><dwc name="silvex" times="2"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="2"><dwc name="xylen" times="2"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="2"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="1"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="1"><dwc name="radium" times="2">

Best Available Technology

A. A public water system that is not in compliance with an applicable MCL shall install and use best available technology to achieve compliance with that MCL. The best available technologies for achieving compliance with MCLs are as follows:

1. Inorganic chemicals

<table> Chemical BATs Antimony 2, 9 Asbestos 2, 3, 4, 5 Barium 7, 8, 9, 10 Beryllium 1, 2, 7, 8, 9 Cadmium 2, 7, 8, 9 Chromium III 2, 7, 8, 9 Chromium VI 2, 7, 9 Cyanide 7, 9, 11 Fluoride 1, 9 Mercury 2 a , 6, 8 a , 9 a Nickel 7, 8, 9 Nitrate 7, 9, 10 Nitrite 7, 9 Selenium IV 1, 2, 8, 9, 10 Selenium VI 1, 7, 8, 9 Thallium 1, 7 </table>

<table> Key to BATs 1 = Activated alumina 7 = Ion exchange 2 = Conventional filtration b 8 = Lime softening b 3 = Corrosion control 9 = Reverse osmosis 4 = Direct filtration 10 = Electrodialysis 5 = Diatomaceous earth filtration 11 = Chlorine oxidation 6 = Granular activated carbon </table>

a

BAT only if influent Hg concentration is less than 10 mg/L.

b

Not BAT for public water systems with less than 500 service connections.

2. Synthetic and volatile organic chemicals:

<table> Chemical GAC PTA OX Alachlor X Atrazine X Benzene X X Benzo(a)pyrene X Carbofuran X Carbon tetrachloride X X Chlordane X 2,4-D X Dalapon X Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) X X o-Dichlorobenzene X X para-Dichlorobenzene X X 1,2-Dichloroethane X X 1,1-Dichloroethylene X X cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene X X trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene X X Dichloromethane X 1,2-Dichloropropane X X Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate X X Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate X Dinoseb X Diquat X Endothall X Endrin X Ethylbenzene X X Ethylene dibromide (EDB) X X Glyphosate X Heptachlor X Heptachlor epoxide X Hexachlorobenzene X Hexachlorocyclopentadiene X X Lindane X Methoxychlor X Monochlorobenzene X X Oxamyl (Vydate) X Pentachlorophenol X Picloram X Polychlorinatedbiphenyls (PCBs) X Simazine X Styrene X X 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) X Tetrachloroethylene X X Toluene X X Toxaphene X 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) X 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene X X 1,1,1-Trichloroethane X X 1,1,2-Trichloroethane X X Trichloroethylene X X Vinyl chloride X Xylenes (total) X X </table>

Key to BATs:

GAC = Granulated activated carbon

PTA = Packed tower aeration

OX = Chlorine or ozone oxidation

B. The best available technologies, treatment techniques, or other means for achieving compliance with the MCLs for total coliform are as follows:

1. Protection of wells from contamination by coliforms by appropriate placement and construction;

2. Maintenance of a disinfectant residual throughout the distribution system;

3. Maintenance of the distribution system, which includes appropriate pipe replacement and repair procedures, ongoing main flushing programs, proper operation and maintenance of storage tanks and reservoirs, and continual maintenance of positive water pressure in all parts of the distribution system; and

4. Filtration and disinfection of surface water and groundwater under the direct influence of surface water or disinfection of groundwater.

C. The best available technology for achieving compliance with the MCL for turbidity is filtration.

D. The best available technologies, treatment or other means for achieving compliance with the maximum contaminant levels for disinfection byproducts are:

1. Total trihalomethanes under the requirements of R18-4-214:

a. Use of chloramines as an alternate or supplemental disinfectant or oxidant;

b. Use of chlorine dioxide as an alternate or supplemental disinfectant or oxidant;

c. Improved existing clarification for trihalomethane precursor reduction;

d. Moving the point of chlorination to reduce total trihalomethane formation and, where necessary, substituting chloramines, chlorine dioxide, or potassium permanganate for the use of chlorine as a pre-oxidant.

e. Use of powdered activated carbon for trihalomethane precursor or total trihalomethane reduction seasonally or intermittently at dosages not to exceed 10 mg/L on an annual average basis.

2. Disinfection byproducts under the requirements of R18-4-214.01 and R18-4-214.02:

<table> Disinfection Byproduct Best Available Technology TTHM Enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening or GAC10, with chlorine as the primary and residual disinfectant HAA5 Enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening or GAC10, with chlorine as the primary and residual disinfectant Bromate Control of ozone treatment process to reduce production of bromate Chlorite Control of treatment processes to reduce disinfectant demand and control of disinfection treatment processes to reduce disinfectant levels </table>

E. The best available technologies for achieving compliance with the maximum residual disinfectant levels for disinfectants are the control of treatment processes to reduce disinfectant demand and the control of disinfection treatment processes to reduce disinfectant levels.

F. A public water system may defer installation and use of best available technology by obtaining an exemption under R18-4-111. The Department may require a public water system to use bottled water, point-of-use treatment devices, point-of-entry treatment devices, or other means as a condition of granting an exemption to avoid an unreasonable risk to public health.

G. A public water system shall install and use best available technology as a condition for granting a variance under R18-4-110. The Department may require a public water system to use bottled water, point-of-use treatment devices, point-of-entry treatment devices, or other means as a condition of granting a variance to avoid an unreasonable risk to public health. If a water supplier can demonstrate through a comprehensive engineering assessment of a public water system that installation of best available technology will achieve only an insignificant reduction in contaminant levels, the Department may issue a schedule of compliance that requires the public water system to examine other treatment methods as a condition of obtaining a variance. If the Department determines that another treatment method is technically feasible, the Department may require the public water system to install and use that treatment method under a compliance schedule.

H. A PWS that is not in compliance with a MCL may use an alternative technology, the removal of a source from service, or blending may be used to achieve compliance with a MCL if the alternative technology, source removal, or blending is approved, in writing, by the Department and is at least as effective as the best available technology identified in this Section.

I. A public water system that serves 10,000 or fewer persons may use the following compliance technologies to achieve compliance with a MCL. A public water system may use any additional compliance technologies allowed by EPA under 42 U.S.C. 300g-1(b)(4)(E)(ii) (2001) to achieve compliance with a MCL or treatment technique requirement.

1. Inorganic Chemicals:

<table> Chemical Compliance Technologies for Public Water Systems Serving 25 to 10,000 Persons Antimony 4, 5, 13 Arsenic 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 11, 12, 13 Asbestos 4, 8, 9, 14, 15 Barium 2, 3, 4, 5, 11, 12, 13 Beryllium 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 12, 13 Cadmium 2, 3, 4, 5, 12, 13 Chromium III 2, 3, 4, 5, 12, 13 Chromium VI 2, 4, 5, 12, 13 Cyanide 2, 5, 6, 7 Fluoride 1, 5, 13 Mercury 3 a , 4 a , 5 a , 10 Nitrate 2, 5, 11 Nitrite 2, 5 Nitrate + Nitrite 2, 5, 11 Selenium IV 1, 3, 4, 5, 11, 13 Selenium VI 1, 2, 3, 5, 13 Thallium 1, 2, 12 </table>

a

Compliance technologies only when influent mercury concentrations are less than or equal to 10 Fg/L.

<table> Key to Compliance Technologies for Inorganic Chemicals 1. Activated Alumina 9. Diatomaceous Earth Filtration 2. Ion Exchange (IX) 10. Granular Activated Carbon 3. Lime Softening 11. Electrodialysis Reversal 4. Coagulation and Filtration 12. Point-of-Use - IX 5. Reverse Osmosis (RO) 13. Point-of-Use - RO 6. Alkaline Chlorination 14. pH and Alkalinity Adjustment (chemical feed) 7. Ozone Oxidation 15. Inhibitors 8. Direct Filtration </table>

2. Synthetic and Volatile Organic Chemicals:

<table> Chemical Compliance Technologies for Public Water Systems Serving 25 to 10,000 Persons Alachlor 1, 2, 3 Atrazine 1, 2, 3 Benzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Benzo(a)pyrene 1, 2, 3 Carbofuran 1, 2, 3 Carbon Tetrachloride 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Chlordane 1, 2, 3 2,4-D 1, 2, 3 Dalapon 1, 2, 3 Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 o-Dichlorobenzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 para-Dichlorobenzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 1, 2 -Dichloroethane 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 1,1-Dichloroethylene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 trans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Dichloromethane 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 1, 2 -Dichloropropane 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 1, 2, 3 Dinoseb 1, 2, 3 Diquat 1, 2, 3 Endothall 1, 2, 3 Endrin 1, 2, 3 Ethylbenzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Ethylene Dibromide (EDB) 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Glyphosate 4, 5 Heptachlor 1, 2, 3 Heptachlor Epoxide 1, 2, 3 Hexachlorobenzene 1, 2, 3 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Lindane 1, 2, 3 Methoxychlor 1, 2, 3 Monochlorobenzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 Oxamyl (Vydate) 1, 2, 3 Pentachlorophenol 1, 2, 3 Picloram 1, 2, 3 Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) 1, 2, 3 Simazine 1, 2, 3 Styrene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) 1, 2, 3 Tetrachloroethylene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Toluene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Toxaphene 1, 2, 3 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 4-Trichlorobenzene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 1, 1, 1-Trichloroethane 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 1, 1, 2-Trichloroethane 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Trichloroethylene 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 Vinyl Chloride 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Xylenes (total) 1, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 </table>

<table> Key to Compliance Technologies for Synthetic and Volatile Organic Chemicals 1. Granular Activated Carbon (GAC) 7. Diffused Aeration 2. Point-of-Use - GAC 8. Multi-Stage Bubble Aerators 3. Powdered Activated Carbon 9. Tray Aeration 4. Chlorination 10. Shallow Tray Aeration 5. Ozonation 11. Spray Aeration 6. Packed Tower Aeration (PTA) 12. Mechanical Aeration </table>

3. Radionuclides:

<table> Contaminant Compliance Technologies for Public Water Systems Serving 25 to 10,000 Persons combined radium-226 and radium-228 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 gross alpha particle activity 3, 4 total beta particle activity and photon activity, average annual concentration 1, 2, 3, 4 </table>

<table> Key to Compliance Technologies for Radionuclides 1. Ion Exchange (IX) 6. Green Sand Filtration 2. Point-of-Use - IX 7. Co-precipitation with Barium Sulfate 3. Reverse Osmosis (RO) 8. Electrodialysis/Electrodialysis Reversal 4. Point-of-Use - RO 9. Pre-formed Hydrous Manganese Oxide Filtration 5. Lime Softening </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-220 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-220 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). New Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.221" level="4" title="Use of Blending to Achieve Compliance with Maximum Contaminant Levels"> <dwc name="silvex" times="1">

Use of Blending to Achieve Compliance with Maximum Contaminant Levels

A. A public water system may use blending to achieve compliance with a maximum contaminant level MCL if all of the following requirements are met:

1. The public water system has obtained the Department's written approval for a blending plan that includes the following elements:

a. Detailed drawings and schematics that show flow, concentrations, and controls;

b. Proposed automatic or electronic devices that will be incorporated to ensure that the blend remains in the desired range or shuts off the offending source or triggers an alarm when the blend falls out of the desired range;

c. Individual test results from all sources proposed to be blended;

d. Projected contaminant levels that will result from blending that show both best-case and worst-case scenarios;

e. Identified techniques, and any other information requested by the Department, that show how the blending plan will produce water that will comply with MCLs.

2. The public water system has obtained the Department's written approval for a monitoring program designed to verify continued compliance with MCLs at all subsequent downstream service connections. This program shall include monitoring on at least a quarterly basis of both of the following:

a. All sources contributing to the blend; and

b. Blended water to ensure that the provisions of this Section are met.

B. A public water system shall submit an amended blending plan to the Department to confirm that the new blend achieves compliance with MCLs whenever sources are added to or removed from service or the relative flow rates from blended sources are changed in a way that changes the blend.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-221 repealed, new Section R9-8-221 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Correction, subsection (D), paragraph (2), subparagraph (b), drinking water standard for silvex, should read 0.01 mg/l as amended effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 82-3). Amended subsection (D) effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-221 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-221 (Supp. 87-3). Amended and new subsections (F) and (G) added effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.222" level="4" title="Use of Point-of-Entry or Point-of-Use Treatment Devices"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Use of Point-of-Entry or Point-of-Use Treatment Devices

A. A public water system may use a point-of-use treatment device to achieve compliance with a MCL, provided that the point-of-use treatment device meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 300g-1(b)(4)(E)(ii) (2001), and the requirements listed under subsections (B)(1) through (B)(6).

B. A public water system may use a point-of-entry treatment device to achieve compliance with a MCL if the public water system meets all of the following requirements:

1. The public water system develops a monitoring plan for the treatment device and obtains the Department's written approval of the monitoring plan before a point-of-entry treatment device is installed. The monitoring plan shall provide reasonable assurance that the treatment device provides health protection equivalent to that provided by central water treatment.

2. The design of the point-of-entry treatment device is approved, in writing, by the Department.

3. The public water system operates and maintains the point-of-entry treatment device.

4. The microbiological safety of water that is treated by a point-of-entry treatment device is maintained at all times. The design and application of the treatment device shall consider the tendency for increase in heterotrophic bacteria concentrations in water treated with activated carbon. The Department may require frequent backwashing, post-contactor disinfection, or HPC monitoring to ensure that the microbiological safety of water is not compromised.

5. The public water system installs a sufficient number of point-of-entry treatment devices to buildings connected to the public water system so that every person served by the public water system is protected. Every building connected to the public water system shall be subject to treatment and monitoring.

6. The rights and responsibilities of persons served by the public water system convey with title upon the sale of property.

C. A public water system that uses a point-of-entry treatment device or a point-of-use treatment device as a condition for receiving a variance or an exemption shall meet the requirements listed under subsection (B).

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-222 repealed, new Section R9-8-222 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-222 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-222 (Supp. 87-3). Amended and new subsections (C) and (D) added effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.223" level="4" title="Use of Bottled Water">

Use of Bottled Water

A. A public water system may use bottled water on a temporary basis to avoid an unreasonable risk to health. A public water system shall not use bottled water to achieve compliance with a MCL.

B. If a public water system uses bottled water to avoid an unreasonable risk to health, the public water system is responsible for the provision of sufficient quantities of bottled water to every person served by the public water system via door-to-door bottled water delivery.

C. A public water system that uses bottled water as a condition for receiving a variance or an exemption shall comply with the following:

1. The public water system shall develop and put in place a monitoring program approved by the Department that provides reasonable assurances that the bottled water meets applicable MCLs. The public water system shall monitor a representative sample of the bottled water to determine compliance with applicable MCLs during the first three-month period that it supplies the bottled water to the public and annually thereafter. Results of the bottled water monitoring program shall be provided to the Department annually; or

2. The public water system shall receive a certification from the bottled water company that the bottled water supplied has been taken from an "approved source" as defined in 21 CFR 129.3(a); the bottled water company has conducted monitoring in accordance with 21 CFR 129.80(g)(1) through (3); and the bottled water does not exceed any MCLs or quality limits as set out in 21 CFR 165.110, 21 CFR 110, and 21 CFR 129. The public water system shall provide the certification to the Department in the first quarter after it supplies bottled water and annually thereafter. The Department may waive the certification requirements prescribed in this subsection if an approved monitoring program is already in place in another state; and

3. The public water system is fully responsible for the provision of sufficient quantities of bottled water to every person served by the public water system via door-to-door bottled water delivery.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-223 repealed, new Section R9-8-223 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended subsection (D), paragraph (4) effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-223 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-223 (Supp. 87-3). Amended and a new subsection (F) added effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.224" level="4" title="The Monitoring Assistance Program"> <dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="1">

The Monitoring Assistance Program

A. A public water system that serves 10,000 or fewer persons shall participate in the monitoring assistance program. Within 60 days after receiving notice of participation in the monitoring assistance program, a public water system that determines that it serves more than 10,000 persons shall substantiate its determination by submitting that portion of the most recent census provided by the Arizona Department of Economic Security, Research Administration, Population Statistics Unit that supports the public water system's determination.

B. A public water system that is not obligated to participate in the monitoring assistance program may elect to participate in the monitoring assistance program if the owner of the public water system:

1. Notifies the Department in writing of the public water system's intention to participate in the monitoring assistance program,

2. Agrees to participate in the monitoring assistance program for a minimum of three years, and

3. Pays the fees required by R18-4-225. Subject to payment of the required fees, the public water system's participation shall begin at the start of the next full calendar year of a compliance period.

C. Under the monitoring assistance program, a contractor shall collect, transport, and analyze water samples from a participating public water system. The contractor, or a party designated by the contractor, shall monitor for the chemicals listed below:

1. All inorganic chemicals (IOCs) listed in R18-4-206, R18-4-207, R18-4-209, R18-4-402, and R18-4-403;

2. All volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) listed in R18-4-211;

3. All synthetic organic chemicals (SOCs) listed in R18-4-215; and

4. Radiochemicals required by R18-4-217.

D. A contractor shall deliver copies of monitoring analysis results to the owner of the public water system and to the Department.

E. Although a contractor performs the monitoring when a public water system participates in the monitoring assistance program, nothing in this Section changes the party responsible for compliance with the public notice requirements of R18-4-105.

F. An owner of a public water system shall notify the Department by July 1 of each year of:

1. The owner's name, current mailing address, and phone number;

2. The population currently served by the public water system;

3. The public water system identification number; and

4. The number of meters and service connections currently in the public water system.

G. A public water system that participates in the monitoring assistance program shall not deny a contractor access to or restrict a contractor's access to the public water system or prevent a contractor from collecting a sample covered under the monitoring assistance program.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-224 repealed, new Section R9-8-224 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-224 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-224 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). New Section adopted effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.225" level="4" title="Fees for the Monitoring Assistance Program">

Fees for the Monitoring Assistance Program

A. The Department shall assess, and a public water system participating in the monitoring assistance program shall pay, the following annual fees, subject to adjustments referenced in subsection (B):

1. An annual fee of $250; and

2. A unit fee of $2.57 per meter or service connection.

B. If the monitoring assistance fund has a surplus after execution of the previous year's contract, any surplus in excess of two hundred thousand dollars in any year shall be used to reduce future fees for public water systems that paid annual fees in the previous compliance period, in a manner consistent with the program invoicing system. The first compliance period that a public water system participates in the monitoring assistance program, the public water system shall pay the full amount of annual fees due under this Section, not subject to a fee reduction resulting from a surplus in the monitoring assistance fund from a prior compliance period.

C. If a public water system serving 10,000 or fewer persons at the beginning of a compliance period increases service during the compliance period so that the public water system serves more than 10,000 persons annually, the public water system may elect to cease participation in the monitoring assistance program under the following conditions:

1. If the monitoring assistance program has already conducted monitoring for the public water system during the compliance period, the public water system shall remain in the monitoring assistance program, and pay annual fees, for the remainder of the compliance period.

2. If the monitoring assistance program has not conducted monitoring for the public water system during the compliance period, the public water system may cease participating in the monitoring assistance program, and if so, the Department shall refund any monitoring fees paid by the public water system during the compliance period.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-225 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-225 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). New Section adopted effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.226" level="4" title="Collection and Payment of Fees">

Collection and Payment of Fees

A. The Department shall mail an invoice for fees annually to the owner of a public water system participating in the monitoring assistance program. The owner of the public water system shall pay the invoiced amount to the Department, at the address listed on the invoice, by the indicated due date.

B. The Department shall make refunds or billing corrections for a public water system that demonstrates an error in the amount billed. The owner of a public water system shall send a written request for a refund or correction to the Department, at the address on the invoice, within 90 days of the invoice date.

C. The Department may verify the number of meters and service connections of a participating public water system.

D. The Department shall not waive fees prescribed by R18-4-225.

E. The owner of a public water system that fails to pay fees assessed by the Department in a timely manner shall be subject to the penalties listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-354. Failure to notify the Department of the owner's current mailing address does not relieve the owner of a public water system from liability for penalties.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended subsection (B) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-226 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-226 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). New Section adopted effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.227" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-3-227 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-227 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.228" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.229" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Former Section R18-4-224 repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.230" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-230 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-230 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.231" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-231 repealed, new Section R9-8-231 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-231 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-231 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.232" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-232 repealed, new Section R9-8-232 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-232 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-232 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.233" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-233 repealed, new Section R9-8-232 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-233 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-233 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.234" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-234 repealed, new Section R9-8-234 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective Feb. 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-234 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-234 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.235" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-235 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-235 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.236" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-236 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-236 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.237" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.238" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.239" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.240" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.241" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.242" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.243" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.244" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.245" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.246" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.247" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.248" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.249" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.250" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-250 repealed, new Section R9-8-250 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-250 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-250 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.251" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-250 repealed, new Section R9-8-251 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended by adding subsection (B) effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Former Section R9-8-251 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-251 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.252" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-252 repealed, new Section R9-8-252 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended subsection (A) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-252 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-252 (Supp. 87-3). Amended by adding a new subsection (C) effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.253" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-253 repealed, new Section R9-8-253 adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended subsection (A) and deleted subsection (B) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-253 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-253 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.254" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.255" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.256" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.257" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.258" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.259" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.260" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-260 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-260 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.261" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-261 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-261 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.262" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-262 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-262 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.263" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-263 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-263 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.264" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended subsection (B) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-264 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-264 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). New Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.265" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-265 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-265 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsections (B) and (C) effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.266" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-266 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-266 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (A) effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.267" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-267 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-267 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.268" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-268 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-268 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.269" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-269 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-269 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (A) effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.270" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-270 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-270 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). New Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.271" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-271 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-271 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.272" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended subsections (A) and (D) effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-272 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-272 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.273" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Amended effective August 7, 1979 (Supp. 79-4). Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Former Section R9-8-273 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-273 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.274" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.275" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.276" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.277" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.278" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.279" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.280" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.281" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.282" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.283" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.284" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.285" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.286" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.287" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.288" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.289" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.4.290" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 26, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-290 renumbered without change as Section R18-4-290 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Repealed effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

Appendix 1. Repealed

Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 2. Repealed

Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 3. Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 4. Repealed

Historical Note

Former Appendix 4 repealed, new Appendix 4 adopted effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 5. Repealed

Historical Note

Former Appendix 5 renumbered as Appendix 6, new Appendix 5 adopted effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 6. Repealed

Historical Note

Former Appendix 5 renumbered as Appendix 6 effective November 2, 1982 (Supp. 82-6). Former Appendix 6 repealed, new Appendix 6 adopted effective January 6, 1984 (Supp. 84-1). Amended effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

Appendix 7. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 30, 1989 (Supp. 89-2). Repealed effective August 8, 1991 (Supp. 91-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="TREATMENT TECHNIQUES">

TREATMENT TECHNIQUES

<regElement name="R18.4.301" level="4" title="Surface Water Treatment"> <dwc name="cryptosporidium" times="2"><dwc name="giardia lamblia" times="2"><dwc name="giardia" times="2"><dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="3"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="11"><dwc name="chlorin" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="1"><dwc name="haa" times="7"><dwc name="tthm" times="7">

Surface Water Treatment

A. A surface water system shall provide filtration and disinfection that reliably achieves:

1. At least a 99.9% (3-log) removal and inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer;

2. At least a 99.99% (4-log) removal and inactivation of viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer; and

3. Effective May 1, 2002, a surface water system serving at least 10,000 persons shall provide at least a 99% (2-log) removal of Cryptosporidium oocysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.

B. A surface water system is in compliance with the Giardia lamblia, virus, and Cryptosporidium removal and inactivation requirements prescribed in subsection (A) if the system provides filtration as prescribed by R18-4-302 and disinfection as prescribed in R18-4-303.

C. A surface water system shall provide filtration and disinfection by June 29, 1993. A public water system with a source that is determined by the Department to be groundwater under the direct influence of surface water shall provide filtration and disinfection by June 29, 1993, or within 18 months of the date that the Department determines that the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water, whichever is later. Failure to provide filtration and disinfection by the date specified in this subsection is a treatment technique violation.

D. A surface water system that has not installed filtration shall comply, before filtration is installed, with the interim maximum contaminant level and monitoring requirements for turbidity prescribed at R18-4-204 and any interim disinfection requirements prescribed by the Department that the Department considers necessary to protect public health.

E. The Department shall not grant a variance or exemption from treatment technique requirements related to filtration and disinfection.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-4-301.01. Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water

A. The Department suspects the following sources to be groundwater under the direct influence of surface water:

1. A spring;

2. An infiltration gallery;

3. A radial well collector, Ranney well, or horizontal well;

4. A well that is less than 500 feet from a surface water, and:

a. The Department conducts a vulnerability assessment and determines that the source is vulnerable to direct surface water influence, or

b. The Department cannot assess the vulnerability of the groundwater source to direct surface water influence because of a lack of information or the uncertainty of available information on the local hydrogeology or well construction characteristics;

5. A shallow well with perforations or well screens that are less than 50 feet below the ground surface;

6. A hand-dug or auger-bored well without a casing;

7. A groundwater source for which turbidity data is available that shows that the groundwater violates an interim MCL for turbidity;

8. A groundwater source for which data is available that shows that total coliform, fecal coliform, or E. Coli are present in untreated groundwater from the source that are not related to new well development, source modification, repair, or maintenance; and

9. Any groundwater source if the temperature of the groundwater fluctuates 15% to 20% from the mean groundwater temperature over the course of a year or if changes in the temperature of the groundwater correlate to similar changes in the temperature of surface water.

B. The Department shall conduct a sanitary survey of each public water system that it suspects is using a groundwater source under the direct influence of surface water.

C. The Department shall provide written notice to a public water system that the Department suspects a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water. A public water system may submit information to the Department to show that a groundwater source is not under the direct influence of surface water. Information that is submitted to show that a suspect groundwater source is not under the direct influence of surface water shall be prepared by a qualified professional, such as a professional engineer registered in Arizona, registered geologist, water system operator, or hydrogeologist. The Department shall review any information submitted by a qualified professional to show a suspect groundwater source is not under the direct influence of surface water and determine if the source remains suspect within 90 days after receipt of the information.

D. If a groundwater source continues to be suspect after the analyses required in subsections (A) through (C), the Department may require a public water system that is suspected of using a groundwater source that is under the direct influence of surface water to conduct Microscopic Particle Analysis (MPA) monitoring of the groundwater source. A public water system may request that the Department require an alternative method to determine whether a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water. An alternative method to determine whether a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water shall be approved by ADHS under R9-14-610.

E. A public water system shall conduct MPA monitoring as follows:

1. Each sample shall be representative of the groundwater source. A public water system shall not take a sample of blended water or a sample of water from the distribution system.

2. Each sample shall be collected and analyzed according to the procedures prescribed in the "Consensus Method for Determining Groundwaters Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water Using Microscopic Particulate Analysis (MPA)," EPA 910/9-92-029, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Environmental Services Division, Manchester Environmental Laboratory, 7411 Beach Dr. E., Port Orchard, WA 98366, October 1992 (and no future editions or amendments), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

3. The Department shall schedule MPA monitoring at a time when the groundwater source is most susceptible to direct surface water influence.

4. The Department shall use the MPA risk ratings in Table 1 to determine whether groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water.

a. If the MPA risk rating of the initial sample indicates a high or moderate risk of direct surface water influence, the public water system shall collect a second sample for MPA at the same location on a date scheduled by the Department. If the MPA risk rating of the second sample indicates a high or moderate risk of direct surface water influence, the Department shall determine that the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water. If the risk rating of the second sample indicates a low risk of direct surface water influence, the public water system shall collect a third sample for MPA at the same location on a date scheduled by the Department. If a third sample is taken, the Department shall determine whether the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water under subsection (E)(4)(c).

b. If the MPA risk rating of the initial sample indicates a low risk of direct surface water influence, the public water system shall collect a second sample for MPA at the same location on a date scheduled by the Department. If the MPA risk rating of the second sample indicates a low risk of direct surface water influence, the Department shall determine that the groundwater is not under the direct influence of surface water. If the MPA risk rating of the second sample indicates a high or moderate risk of direct surface water influence, the public water system shall collect a third sample for MPA at the same location on a date scheduled by the Department. If a third sample is taken, the Department shall determine whether the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water under subsection (E)(4)(c).

c. If a third sample is required and the MPA risk rating of the third sample indicates a high or moderate risk of direct surface water influence, the Department shall determine that the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water. If the MPA risk rating of the third sample indicates a low risk of direct surface water influence, the Department shall determine that the groundwater is not under the direct influence of surface water.

F. If the Department determines a source to be groundwater under the direct influence of surface water under subsection (E) and a public water system demonstrates to the Department that it is feasible to take corrective action to prevent direct surface water influence, the Department shall establish a schedule of compliance for the public water system to take corrective action instead of requiring installation of filtration and disinfection treatment. A schedule of compliance to take corrective action shall require:

1. Completion of corrective action no later than 18 months after receipt of the initial MPA monitoring results, and

2. A second round of MPA monitoring to determine whether the source is under the direct influence of surface water after completion of the corrective action.

G. Except as provided in subsection (F), a public water system with a source that the Department determines to be groundwater under the direct influence of surface water shall provide filtration required in R18-4-302 and disinfection required in R18-4-303 within 18 months after the date that the Department makes the final determination that the groundwater is under the direct influence of surface water.

H. The Department shall provide a written notice to a public water system of a final determination that a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water. The notice shall contain the following information:

1. A statement that the Department's determination that a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water is an "appealable agency action" as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092(3); and

2. Notice that the public water system may request an informal settlement conference with the Department under the Uniform Administrative Appeal Procedures in A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10.

I. A public water system may appeal a final determination that a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water by serving notice of appeal with the Department under the Uniform Administrative Appeals Procedures in A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10. A public water system shall file notice of appeal with the Department within 30 days after receiving notice of the Department's determination that a groundwater source is under the direct influence of surface water. The Department shall notify the Office of Administrative Hearings which shall schedule a hearing on the appeal within 60 days after the date that notice of appeal is filed with the Department. Hearings shall be conducted according to the Uniform Administrative Appeals Procedures in A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 1686, effective April 19, 1999 (Supp. 99-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Table 1. Decision Matrix for Determining Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water

<table> Initial Sample MPA Risk Rating Second Sample MPA Risk Rating Third Sample MPA Risk Rating Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water High High or Moderate Yes High Low High or Moderate Yes High Low Low No Moderate High or Moderate Yes Moderate Low High or Moderate Yes Moderate Low Low No Low High or Moderate High or Moderate Yes Low High or Moderate Low No Low Low No </table>

Historical Note

New Table made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

R18-4-301.02. Control of Disinfection Byproduct Precursors by Enhanced Coagulation and Enhanced Softening

A. Effective May 1, 2002, a CWS or NTNCWS that serves 10,000 or more persons and is a surface water system that uses conventional filtration shall comply with enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening requirements unless the system meets at least one of the following alternate compliance criteria:

1. Source water TOC level is less than 2.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a running annual average;

2. Treated water TOC level is less than 2.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a running annual average;

3. Running annual average for TTHM is less than or equal to 0.040mg/L and HAA5 is less than or equal to 0.030mg/L and chlorine is the only disinfectant used by the system;

4. Source water SUVA is less than or equal to 2.0 L/mg-m, measured monthly and calculated quarterly as a running annual average;

5. Treated SUVA is less than or equal to 2.0 L/mg-m, measured monthly and calculated quarterly as a running annual average;

6. Softening that results in lowering treated water alkalinity to less than 60 mg/L (as CaCO

3

), measured monthly and calculated quarterly as a running annual average;

7. Softening that results in removing at least 10 mg/L of magnesium hardness (as CaCO

3

), measured monthly and calculated quarterly as a running annual average; or

8. Source water TOC is less than 4.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a running annual average, and source water alkalinity is greater than 60 mg/L (as CaCO

3

), calculated quarterly as a running annual average, and either the TTHM running annual average is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and the HAA5 running annual average is less than or equal to 0.030 mg/L, or if the system can submit evidence to the Department by the applicable compliance date in subsection (A) or (B) that a control technology will be installed and operating by June 30, 2005 with a schedule for the reduction of TTHM to 0.040 mg/L and HAA5 to 0.030 mg/L.

B. Effective January 1, 2004 a CWS or NTNCWS that serves fewer than 10,000 persons and is a surface water system that uses conventional filtration shall comply with enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening requirements unless the system meets at least one of the alternate compliance criteria in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(8).

C. A CWS or NTNCWS that is a surface water system that uses conventional filtration and that does not meet at least one of the alternate compliance criteria shall comply with the following enhanced coagulation and enhanced softening requirement as applicable:

1. Step 1: The Step 1 TOC percent removal requirement is based on source water alkalinity and source water TOC. A system shall meet the Step 1 TOC percent removal as specified in Table 1 with respect to the system's existing source water TOC and source water alkalinity. A system that practices water softening shall meet the Step 1 TOC percent removal in the far right column of the table. A system shall meet the Step 1 TOC percent removal requirement until a Step 2 TOC removal requirement is approved by the Department.

Table 1. Step 1 TOC Percent Removal

<table> Source Water TOC, mg/L Source Water Alkalinity, mg/L as CaCO 3 0-60 &gt;60-120 &gt;120 &gt;2.0-4.0 35.0% 25.0% 15.0% &gt;4.0-8.0 45.0% 35.0% 25.0% &gt;8.0 50.0% 40.0% 30.0% </table>

2. Step 2: A system that cannot meet the Step 1 TOC percent removal requirement due to water quality parameters or operational constraints shall request a Step 2 TOC removal requirement from the Department. A system shall submit the request within three months of the failure to achieve the TOC removal requirement in Step 1. The Step 2 TOC removal requirement shall be based on an average of four consecutive quarters of bench- or pilot- scale testing performed by the system. A system shall include the results from bench- or pilot-scale testing in the request to the Department for an approval of a Step 2 TOC removal requirement. Once approved by the Department in writing, the Step 2 TOC removal requirement supersedes the Step 1 TOC removal requirement. A system shall meet the Department approved Step 2 TOC removal requirement until the system requests, and the Department approves, a new TOC removal requirement.

a. The Step 2 TOC removal requirement is the percent removal of TOC at the point of diminishing return on the "TOC removal versus coagulant dose" curve under subsection (C)(2)(d) which results from bench- or pilot-scale testing.

b. Bench- or pilot-scale testing shall be conducted by using representative water samples.

c. Before the "TOC removal versus coagulant dose" test in subsection (C)(2)(d) is performed a system shall comply with the following procedure. 10 mg/L incremental doses of alum (or an equivalent amount of ferric salt) are added until the target pH on Table 2 is reached. The target pH is based on the alkalinity of the water. A system shall record the total amount of coagulant dose needed to reach the target pH.

Table 2. Target pH for Step 2 TOC removal

<table> Alkalinity (mg/L as CaCO 3 ) Target pH 0-60 5.5 &gt;60-120 6.3 &gt;120-240 7.0 &gt;240 7.5 </table>

d. The "TOC removal versus coagulant dose" is determined by adding incremental 10 mg/L doses of alum (or an equivalent amount of ferric salt) to the point where TOC removal is less than or equal to 0.3 mg/L and is within the target pH. Systems shall add additional coagulant past the dose needed to reach the target pH only if the water has low alkalinity.

e. For water with alkalinity less than 60 mg/L for which the addition of small amounts of alum or equivalent amounts of iron coagulant drives the pH below 5.5 before significant TOC removal occurs, the system shall add necessary chemicals to maintain the pH between 5.3 and 5.7 in the samples until the TOC removal of 0.3 mg/L per 10 mg/L alum or equivalent amount of iron coagulant is reached.

D. Compliance: After a system collects 12 months of data, the system shall determine the annual average of TOC percent removal using the following method:

1. Monthly TOC percent removal:

<img src="18-04-1.gif"/>2. Monthly TOC percent removal ratio:

Monthly TOC percent removal value from (D)(1)

Step 1 or Step 2 percent reduction requirement

3. Annual average of TOC percent removal:

<img src="18-04-2.gif"/>4. If the annual average of TOC percent removal calculated in subsection (D)(3) is less than 1, then the system is in violation of the TOC removal requirement. A system may assign a value of 1 for a month, instead of calculating the monthly TOC percent removal ratio in subsection (D)(2), for any of the following:

a. A month the system's treated or source water TOC level is less than 2.0 mg/L;

b. A month the system practices softening that removes at least 10 mg/L of magnesium hardness (as CaCO

3

);

c. A month that the system's source water SUVA, prior to any treatment, is less than or equal to 2.0 L/mg-m;

d. A month that the system's finished water SUVA is less than or equal to 2.0 L/mg-m; or

e. A month that a system practicing enhanced softening lowers alkalinity below 60 mg/L (as CaCO

3

).

5. A surface water system that meets at least one alternate compliance criteria listed under subsections (A)(1) through (A)(8) is in compliance with the TOC removal requirement.

6. All samples collected and analyzed under the provisions of this Section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number is greater than the minimum required.

7. A system that determines in the first 12 months after the applicable compliance date that it is not able to meet the Step 1 TOC percent removal requirements in subsection (C)(1) and applies for a Step 2 TOC removal requirement, is eligible for retroactive compliance with this Section if the Department approves a Step 2 TOC removal requirement as allowed in subsection (C)(2). A system may apply for a Step 2 TOC removal requirement any time after the compliance date.

E. Waiver

1. A system may submit a written request to the Department for a waiver of enhanced coagulation requirements. The system shall submit documentation of four consecutive quarters of bench- or pilot-scale tests for TOC removal. The bench- or pilot-scale tests shall demonstrate that the annual average of TOC removal is less than 0.3 mg/L of TOC per 10 mg/L of incremental alum dose at all doses of alum (or equivalent addition of iron coagulant). The Department's decision to approve or deny a waiver shall be in writing.

2. A waiver shall remain in effect until four quarters after the running annual average for TTHM is equal to or greater than 0.064 mg/L and the running annual average for HAA5 is equal to or greater than 0.048 mg/L. In the four quarters subsequent to the running annual average for TTHM equaling or exceeding 0.064 mg/L and the running annual average for HAA5 equaling or exceeding1 0.048 mg/L, a system may perform four quarters of bench- or pilot-scale testing and submit the results to the Department to demonstrate that the TOC remains non-amenable to enhanced coagulation with a written request to renew the waiver. The Department's decision to renew or deny a waiver shall be in writing.

a. A system that conducts bench- or pilot-scale testing within four quarters after the running annual average for TTHM is equal to or greater than 0.064 mg/L and the running annual average for HAA5 is equal to or greater than 0.048 mg/L, may request Department approval of a Step 2 TOC removal requirement under subsection (C)(2) instead of a waiver renewal.

b. A system that does not request a waiver renewal or approval of a Step 2 TOC removal requirement from the Department shall comply with the Step 1 TOC removal requirement in subsection (C)(1) four quarters after the running annual average for TTHM is equal to or greater than 0.064 mg/L and the running annual average for HAA5 is equal to or greater than 0.048 mg/L.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.302" level="4" title="Filtration"> <dwc name="cryptosporidium" times="1"><dwc name="giardia lamblia" times="1"><dwc name="giardia" times="1"><dwc name="turbid" times="25"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Filtration

A. A surface water system shall treat water by filtration.

B. Conventional or direct filtration:

1. For a system serving less than 10,000 people, the turbidity of filtered water shall be less than or equal to 0.5 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements collected each month. The turbidity of filtered water shall not exceed a maximum turbidity limit of 5 NTUs.

2. Effective May 1, 2002, for a system serving at least 10,000 people, the turbidity of filtered water shall be less than or equal to 0.3 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements collected each month. The turbidity of filtered water shall not exceed a maximum turbidity limit of 1 NTU.

C. Slow sand filtration: The turbidity of filtered water shall be less than or equal to 1 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements collected each month. The turbidity of filtered water shall not exceed a maximum turbidity limit of 5 NTUs.

D. Diatomaceous earth filtration: The turbidity of filtered water shall be less than or equal to 1 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements collected each month. The turbidity of filtered water shall not exceed a maximum turbidity limit of 5 NTUs.

E. Other filtration technologies: A surface water system may use a filtration technology other than conventional filtration, direct filtration, slow sand filtration, or diatomaceous earth filtration if the water supplier demonstrates to the Department, through pilot plant studies or other means, that the filtration technology, in combination with disinfection, consistently achieves the following:

1. A 99.9% (3-log) removal and inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts and a 99.99% (4-log) removal and inactivation of viruses, and

2. The turbidity of filtered water is less than or equal to 1 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements collected each month and does not exceed 5 NTUs.

3. Effective May 1, 2002, a surface water system that serves over 10,000 people shall, in addition, demonstrate to the Department, through pilot studies or other means, that the filtration technology consistently achieves a 99% (2-log) removal of Cryptosporidium.

F. Frequency of turbidity monitoring: A surface water system shall take a grab sample and measure the turbidity of filtered water at least once every four hours that a water treatment plant is operating or monitor turbidity continuously. If a surface water system continuously monitors the turbidity of filtered water, the water supplier shall calibrate its turbidity monitoring equipment regularly in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.

G. Location of turbidity monitoring: A surface water system shall monitor the turbidity of filtered water at one of the following locations:

1. Combined filter effluent prior to entry into a clearwell,

2. Clearwell effluent,

3. Water treatment plant effluent, or

4. Another location that is approved by the Department.

H. Reduced turbidity monitoring: Upon the written request of a water supplier, the Department may reduce the frequency of grab sampling for turbidity if the Department determines that less frequent turbidity monitoring is sufficient to indicate effective filtration performance. A Department decision to reduce turbidity monitoring shall be in writing. The Department may reduce turbidity monitoring as follows:

1. The Department may reduce the frequency of grab sampling by a surface water system using slow sand filtration or a filtration technology other than conventional filtration, direct filtration, or diatomaceous earth filtration to once per day;

2. The Department may reduce the frequency of grab sampling by a surface water system that serves 500 or fewer persons to once per day, regardless of the type of filtration used.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.303" level="4" title="Disinfection"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="2"><dwc name="giardia lamblia" times="3"><dwc name="giardia" times="3"><dwc name="heterotroph plate count" times="1"><dwc name="plate count" times="1"><dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="virus" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect" times="20"><dwc name="chlorin" times="7"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="2">

Disinfection

A. A surface water system shall provide disinfection sufficient to ensure that the total treatment processes of the system achieve at least a 99.9% (3-log) inactivation and removal of Giardia lamblia cysts and at least a 99.99% (4-log) inactivation and removal of viruses.

B. The residual disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system (measured as free chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide) shall be not less than 0.2 mg/L for more than four consecutive hours.

1. A surface water system that serves more than 3,300 persons per day shall continuously monitor the residual disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system. If there is a failure of the continuous monitoring equipment, a surface water system shall take grab samples every four hours to monitor residual disinfectant concentration. A surface water system shall repair or replace the continuous monitoring equipment within five days of initial failure.

2. A surface water system that serves 3,300 or fewer persons per day may take grab samples to monitor the residual disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system instead of continuous monitoring.

a. The surface water system shall sample each day at the following frequency:

<table> System size by population Number of grab samples per day 1 500 or less 1 501 to 1,000 3 1,001 to 2,500 3 2,501 to 3,300 4 </table>

1

Grab samples shall not be collected at the same time. Sampling intervals are subject to Department review and approval for appropriateness.

b. If the residual disinfectant concentration in a grab sample is less than 0.2 mg/l, a surface water system shall increase the frequency of grab sampling to once every four hours. The surface water system shall continue to take a grab sample every four hours until the residual disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system is greater than or equal to 0.2 mg/L.

C. The residual disinfectant concentration of water in the distribution system (measured as total chlorine, free chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide) shall be detectable in 95% or more of the samples each month for any two consecutive months that a surface water system serves water to the public.

1. A surface water system may measure the concentration of heterotrophic bacteria in water in the distribution system as heterotrophic plate count (HPC) instead of measuring the residual disinfectant concentration in water in the distribution system. Water in the distribution system with a heterotrophic bacteria concentration that is less than or equal to 500/ml (measured as HPC) is deemed to have a detectable residual disinfectant concentration.

2. The water supplier shall calculate the value "V" in the following formula to determine whether there is a detectable residual concentration in water in the distribution system in 95% of the samples collected each month. The value "V" shall not exceed 5 in each month for any two consecutive months:

<img src="18-04-3.gif"/>Where:

a = Number of instances the residual disinfectant concentration is measured;

b = Number of instances the residual disinfectant concentration is not measured but HPC is measured;

c = Number of instances the residual disinfectant concentration is measured but not detected and no HPC is measured;

d = Number of instances no residual disinfectant concentration is detected and the HPC is greater than 500/ml; and

e = Number of instances the residual disinfectant concentration is not measured and HPC is greater than 500/ml.

3. The residual disinfectant concentration in water in the distribution system shall be measured at the same sampling sites and at the same time as total coliform sampling.

D. A water supplier shall submit a treatment technique compliance study to the Department that demonstrates the total treatment processes of the surface water system achieve the Giardia lamblia and virus removal and inactivation rates prescribed in subsection (A). The water supplier shall submit an additional treatment technique compliance study if there is a change in the treatment process that may affect the percent removal or inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts or viruses or an additional or different source is developed. A system that performed profiling under 40 CFR 141.172(b) shall consult with the Department before making any changes to the point of disinfection, the disinfectant used, or the disinfection process.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.304" level="4" title="Groundwater Treatment"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="2"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Groundwater Treatment

A. The Department may require a groundwater system to provide disinfection if any of the following occurs:

1. There is a violation of a maximum contaminant level for total coliform at a sampling point.

2. The groundwater system fails to comply with monitoring requirements for total coliform.

3. There is a reasonable probability of microbiological contamination of the groundwater.

B. The Department may require a groundwater system to monitor for turbidity to determine whether the groundwater system is under the direct influence of surface water.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.305" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section R18-4-305 renumbered to R18-4-306 by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.306" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Applicability"> <dwc name="copper" times="2"><dwc name="lead" times="2">

Lead and Copper; Applicability

The treatment technique requirements related to the control of lead and copper in drinking water that are prescribed in this Article apply to CWSs and NTNCWSs. These treatment technique requirements do not apply to TNCWSs.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Former Section R18-4-306 repealed; new Section R18-4-306 renumbered from R18-4-305 and amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.307" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; General Requirements"> <dwc name="copper" times="28"><dwc name="lead" times="34">

Lead and Copper; General Requirements

A. Except as provided in subsection (B), a large, medium, or small water system shall complete the following treatment technique steps within the indicated time periods:

1. A large water system shall conduct initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. A small or medium water system shall conduct initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods or until the small or medium water system exceeds a lead or copper action level.

2. A large water system shall monitor for water quality parameters as prescribed in R18-4-311 for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. A large water system shall conduct monitoring for water quality parameters in the same monitoring period that the large water system conducts initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper required in R18-4-310(B). A small or medium water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall monitor for water quality parameters as prescribed in R18-4-311. A small or medium water system shall conduct monitoring for water quality parameters in the same monitoring period that the small or medium water system exceeds the action level.

3. A large water system shall complete a corrosion control study within 18 months of the date that it completed initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper in R18-4-310(A)(1).

4. A small or medium water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall recommend optimal corrosion control treatment to the Department within six months after the small or medium water system exceeds the action level. Within one year after a small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper, the Department shall determine whether a corrosion control study is required, according to the criteria under R18-4-312(A). If the Department determines that a corrosion control study is required, the small or medium water system shall complete and submit the study to the Department within 18 months after the date that the Department determines that a study is required.

5. The Department shall designate the optimal corrosion control treatment for the large, medium, or small water system within six months after receipt of the corrosion control study required in subsection (A)(3) or (A)(4).

6. If the Department does not require a small or medium water system that exceeded the action level for lead or copper to perform a corrosion control study, the Department shall designate optimal corrosion control treatment for the system as follows:

a. For medium water systems, within 18 months after the medium water system exceeds an action level; or

b. For small water systems, within 24 months after the small water system exceeds an action level.

7. A large, medium, or small water system shall install optimal corrosion control treatment within 24 months after the Department designates optimal corrosion control treatment.

8. A large, medium, or small water system shall complete follow-up tap water monitoring for lead and copper and follow-up monitoring for water quality parameters, as prescribed in R18-4-313(C) through (F), within 36 months after the Department designates optimal corrosion control treatment.

9. The Department shall review the large, medium, or small water system's installation of corrosion control treatment and designate water quality parameters for optimal corrosion control within six months after the large, medium, or small water system completes follow-up lead and copper tap water and water quality parameter monitoring.

10. A large, medium, or small water system shall comply with the designated water quality parameters for optimal corrosion control and continue follow-up tap water monitoring for lead and copper and for water quality parameters as prescribed in R18-4-313(G) through R18-4-313(U).

B. A large water system is deemed to have optimized corrosion control and is not required to complete the treatment technique steps identified in subsection (A) if the large water system satisfies one of the criteria in subsection (B)(2) or (B)(3). A small or medium water system is deemed to have optimized corrosion control and is not required to complete the treatment technique steps identified in subsection (A) if the small or medium water system satisfies one of the criteria in subsection (B)(1), (B)(2) or (B)(3). A large water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(2) or (B)(3) that has treatment in place, and a small or medium water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(1), (B)(2), or (B)(3) that has treatment in place, shall continue to operate and maintain optimal corrosion control treatment and shall meet any requirements that the Department determines appropriate to ensure optimal corrosion control treatment is maintained.

1. A small or medium water system does not exceed the action level for lead or copper for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods conducted in accordance with R18-4-309 and R18-4-310.

2. A large, medium, or small water system demonstrates to the Department that it has conducted corrosion control activities that are equivalent to the corrosion control steps prescribed in subsection (A). The Department shall provide written notice to the large, medium, or small water system that explains the basis for its determination that the system's corrosion control steps are equivalent. The Department shall designate the water quality parameters that represent optimal corrosion control for the large, medium, or small water system in accordance with R18-4-313(G). A large, medium, or small water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under this subsection shall operate in compliance with the optimal water quality control parameters designated by the Department in accordance with subsections R18-4-313(H) and (I) and continue to conduct lead and copper tap and water quality parameter monitoring in accordance with R18-4-313(H) and (O). A large, medium, or small water system shall provide the following information to the Department to support a request for an equivalency determination:

a. The results of all samples collected for lead, copper, pH, alkalinity, calcium, conductivity, water temperature, orthophosphate [when an inhibitor containing a phosphate compound is used], and silicate [when an inhibitor containing a silicate compound is used] before and after evaluation of corrosion control treatment.

b. A report that explains the test methods used by the large, medium, or small water system to evaluate the effectiveness of each of the following corrosion control treatments:

i. Alkalinity and pH adjustment,

ii. Calcium hardness adjustment, and

iii. The addition of a phosphate- or silicate-based corrosion inhibitor at a concentration sufficient to maintain an effective residual concentration in all test tap samples.

c. The report shall include the results of all tests conducted and the basis for the large, medium, or small water system's selection of optimal corrosion control treatment.

d. A report that explains how corrosion control treatment has been installed and how it is being maintained to ensure minimal lead and copper concentrations at taps.

e. The results of tap water monitoring samples for lead and copper collected in accordance with requirements prescribed at R18-4-309 and R18-4-310. A large, medium, or small water system shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper at least once every six months for at least one year after corrosion control treatment has been installed.

3. A large, medium, or small water system submits the following to the Department:

a. The results of tap water monitoring for lead and copper conducted under R18-4-309 and R18-4-310 and source water monitoring conducted under R18-4-314 that demonstrate the following for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods:

i. The difference between the 90th percentile for tap water lead and the highest source water lead concentration is less than 0.005 mg/L; and

ii. The copper action level is not exceeded; or

b. The results of tap water monitoring for lead and copper conducted under R18-4-309 and R18-4-310 and source water monitoring conducted under R18-4-314 that demonstrate the following:

i. The highest source water lead concentration is less than the method detection limit;

ii. The 90th percentile for tap water lead is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods; and

iii. The copper action level is not exceeded.

4. A large, medium, or small water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(3), and that no longer meets the requirements of that subsection, shall implement corrosion control treatment under the deadlines in subsection (A).

5. A large, medium, or small water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(3) shall continue tap water monitoring for lead and copper as specified in R18-4-310(E).

6. The Department may require a large, medium, or small water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(3) that changes its treatment or adds a new source to conduct additional monitoring or to take other action the Department deems appropriate to ensure that the large, medium, or small water system maintains minimal levels of corrosion in its distribution system.

C. A small or medium water system that is required to complete the corrosion control steps prescribed in subsection (A) may cease completing the steps whenever the small or medium water system does not exceed the action level for lead or copper for each of two consecutive six-month monitoring periods and submits the analytical results to the Department. If a small or medium water system subsequently exceeds the action level for lead or copper during a monitoring period, the small or medium water system (or the Department) shall resume completion of the applicable corrosion control steps, beginning with the first step that was not previously completed in its entirety. The Department may require a small or medium water system to repeat steps previously completed if the Department determines that repeating a step is necessary to implement properly the corrosion control requirements of this Section. The Department shall notify the small or medium water system in writing if the Department determines that repeating a step is necessary and explain the basis for its decision.

D. A small or medium water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under subsection (B)(1) shall implement corrosion control treatment steps if the action level for lead or copper is exceeded.

E. A large, medium, or small water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall conduct source water monitoring as prescribed in R18-4-314.

F. A large, medium, or small water system that exceeds the action level for lead shall comply with the public education requirements for lead prescribed in R18-4-316.

G. A large, medium, or small water system that exceeds the action level for lead after implementation of applicable corrosion control treatment and source water treatment requirements shall comply with the lead service line replacement requirements prescribed in R18-4-315.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.308" level="4" title="Lead and Copper Action Levels"> <dwc name="copper" times="6"><dwc name="lead" times="6">

Lead and Copper Action Levels

A. The action level for lead is 0.015 mg/L. The action level for lead is exceeded if the concentration of lead in more than 10% of the tap water samples collected during any monitoring period [that is, the 90th percentile] is greater than 0.015 mg/L.

B. The action level for copper is 1.3 mg/L. The action level for copper is exceeded if the concentration of copper in more than 10% of the tap water samples collected during any monitoring period [that is, the 90th percentile] is greater than 1.3 mg/L.

C. The 90th percentile lead and copper levels shall be computed as follows:

1. The results of all lead or copper samples taken during a monitoring period shall be placed in ascending order from the sample with the lowest concentration to the sample with the highest concentration. Each sampling result shall be assigned a number, ascending by single integers beginning with the number 1 for the sample with the lowest contaminant level. The number assigned to the sample with the highest contaminant level shall be equal to the total number of samples taken.

2. The number of samples taken during the monitoring period shall be multiplied by 0.9.

3. The contaminant concentration in the numbered sample yielded by the calculation in subsection (C)(2) is the 90th percentile contaminant level.

4. For a small water system that serves fewer than 100 persons and collects five samples per monitoring period, the 90th percentile is computed by taking the average of the highest and second highest concentrations.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.309" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Targeted Sampling Sites and Materials Survey"> <dwc name="inorgan contamin" times="1"><dwc name="asbesto" times="2"><dwc name="copper" times="11"><dwc name="lead" times="22">

Lead and Copper; Targeted Sampling Sites and Materials Survey

A. A public water system shall collect tap water samples for lead and copper at locations that meet the following targeting criteria:

1. A CWS shall collect the required number of tap water samples from Tier 1 sampling sites. If a sufficient number of Tier 1 sampling sites do not exist or are inaccessible, then a CWS shall collect the remaining number of tap water samples from Tier 2 sampling sites. If a sufficient number of Tier 2 sampling sites do not exist or are inaccessible, then a CWS shall collect the remaining number of samples from Tier 3 sampling sites. A CWS with insufficient Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3 sampling sites shall complete its sampling pool with representative sites throughout the distribution system.

a. Tier 1 sampling sites are single-family structures that meet any of the following requirements:

i. Contain lead pipes,

ii. Contain copper pipes with lead solder that were installed after 1982, or

iii. Are served by a lead service line.

b. If multiple-family residences comprise at least 20 percent of the structures served by a public water system, the public water system may include these types of structures in its sampling pool as Tier 1 sampling sites if the structures meet any of the requirements in subsections (A)(1)(a)(i) through (A)(1)(a)(iii).

c. Tier 2 sampling sites are buildings and multiple-family residences that meet any of the following requirements:

i. Contain lead pipes,

ii. Contain copper pipes with lead solder that were installed after 1982, or

iii. Are served by a lead service line.

d. Tier 3 sampling sites are single-family structures that contain copper pipes with lead solder that were installed before 1983.

e. For this subsection, a representative site is a site in which the plumbing materials used at that site would be commonly found at other sites served by the CWS.

2. A NTNCWS shall collect the required number of tap water samples from Tier 1 sampling sites. If a sufficient number of Tier 1 sampling sites do not exist or are inaccessible, then a NTNCWS shall collect the remaining number of tap water samples from Tier 2 sampling sites. A NTNCWS with insufficient Tier 1 and Tier 2 sampling sites shall complete its sampling pool with representative sites throughout the distribution system.

a. Tier 1 sampling sites are buildings that meet any of the following requirements:

i. Contain lead pipes,

ii. Contain copper pipes with lead solder that were installed after 1982, or

iii. Are served by lead service lines.

b. Tier 2 sampling sites are buildings that contain copper pipes with lead solder that were installed before 1983.

c. For this subsection, a representative site is a site in which the plumbing materials used at that site would be commonly found at other sites served by the NTNCWS.

3. A sampling site shall not include faucets that have point-of-entry or point-of-use treatment devices designed to remove inorganic contaminants.

4. A CWS or NTNCWS that has a distribution system that contains lead service lines shall draw 50% of the tap water samples it collects during each monitoring period from sites that contain lead pipes, or copper pipes with lead solder, and 50% of the tap water samples from sites served by a lead service line. A CWS or NTNCWS that cannot identify a sufficient number of sites served by lead service lines to comply with the 50% requirement prescribed in this subsection shall collect first-draw tap water samples from all sites in the system that have been identified as being served by lead service lines.

B. A public water system shall complete a materials survey of its distribution system to identify a pool of sampling sites that is sufficiently large to ensure that the public water system can collect the required number of tap water samples prescribed in R18-4-310(C). Each site from which a first-draw sample is collected shall be selected from the pool of sampling sites.

1. A public water system shall use the information on lead, copper, and galvanized piping that it is required to identify in subsection (B)(2) when conducting a materials survey. When an evaluation of the information collected under subsection (B)(2) is insufficient to locate the requisite number of sampling sites that meet the targeting criteria prescribed in subsection (A), the public water system shall review the sources of information listed in this subsection to identify a sufficient number of sampling sites. In addition, the public water system shall seek to collect this information if possible in the course of its normal operations (for example, checking service line materials when reading water meters or performing maintenance activities):

a. All plumbing codes, permits, and records in the files of the local, county, state, or federal building departments that indicate the plumbing materials that are installed within publicly and privately owned structures connected to the distribution system;

b. All inspections and records of the distribution system that indicate the material composition of the service connections that connect a structure to the distribution system; and

c. All existing water quality information, including the results of all prior analyses of the public water system or individual structures connected to the public water system, that indicates locations that may be particularly susceptible to high lead or copper concentrations.

2. A public water system shall identify whether any of the following construction materials are present in its distribution system when conducting a materials survey:

a. Lead from piping, solder, caulking, interior lining of distribution mains, alloys and home plumbing;

b. Copper from piping and alloys, service lines, and home plumbing;

c. Galvanized piping, service lines, and home plumbing;

d. Ferrous piping materials, such as cast iron and steel;

e. Asbestos cement pipes;

f. Vinyl lined asbestos cement pipe; and

g. Coal tar-lined pipes and tanks.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.310" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Tap Water Monitoring"> <dwc name="copper" times="51"><dwc name="lead" times="67">

Lead and Copper; Tap Water Monitoring

A. A public water system shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper as follows:

1. A large water system shall conduct initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods.

2. A small or medium water system shall conduct initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. If a small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper in a monitoring period, the small or medium water system shall implement corrosion control treatment steps as prescribed in R18-4-307(A)(2) through (10).

B. A public water system shall conduct initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper in the monitoring year designated by the Department.

C. A public water system shall collect one tap water sample for lead and copper from at least the following number of sampling sites during each monitoring period:

<table> System Size (Number of Persons Served) Number of Sites More than 100,000 100 10,001 to 100,000 60 3,301 to 10,000 40 501 to 3,300 20 101 to 500 10 100 or less 5 </table>

D. All tap water samples for lead and copper shall be first-draw samples, with the exception of lead service line samples collected under R18-4-315(D) and samples collected under subsection (D)(3).

1. A first-draw tap water sample for lead and copper shall be one liter in volume and shall have stood motionless in the plumbing system of each sampling site for at least six hours. A first-draw sample may be collected by the public water system or it may allow a resident to collect a first-draw sample after providing instructions to the resident on proper sampling procedures. To avoid the problem of residents handling nitric acid, acidification of first-draw samples may be done up to14 days after the sample is collected. If a public water system allows residents to perform sampling, the public water system may not challenge the accuracy of the sampling results based on alleged errors in sample collection.

a. A first-draw sample from residential housing shall be collected from the cold-water kitchen tap or cold-water bathroom sink tap.

b. A first-draw sample from a non-residential building shall be collected at an interior tap from which water is typically drawn for consumption.

2. A public water system shall collect each first-draw tap water sample in subsequent monitoring periods from the same sampling site it collected a previous sample. If a public water system cannot gain entry to a sampling site in order to collect a follow-up tap water sample, the public water system may collect the follow-up tap water sample from another sampling site in its sampling pool as long as the new site meets the same targeting criteria and is within reasonable proximity of the original sampling site.

3. A NTNCWS, or a CWS that meets the criteria of R18-4-316(H)(1) and R18-4-316(H)(2), and does not have enough taps that can supply first-draw samples, as defined in subsection (D)(1), may use non-first-draw samples. The NTNCWS or CWS shall collect as many first-draw samples from appropriate taps as possible and identify sampling times and locations that would likely result in the longest standing time for the remaining sites. The NTNCWS or CWS shall report the information required in R18-4-104(E)(3) to the Department. Non-first-draw samples collected in place of first-draw samples shall be one liter in volume and shall be collected at an interior tap from which water is typically drawn for consumption.

E. A public water system deemed to have optimized corrosion control under R18-4-307(B)(3) shall continue tap water monitoring for lead and copper at least once every three years. The public water system shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed in subsection (I).

F. A small or medium water system that does not exceed the action level for lead and the action level for copper in the initial six-month monitoring period shall continue tap water monitoring for a consecutive six-month monitoring period. If the small or medium water system does not exceed the action level for lead and the action level for copper in two consecutive six-month monitoring periods the small or medium water system may reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring to once per year. The small or medium water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed in subsection (I).

G. A small or medium water system that does not exceed the action level for lead and the action level for copper for three consecutive years of monitoring may further reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper to once every three years. The small or medium water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed in subsection (I).

H. A small or medium water system that demonstrates for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods that the 90th percentile tap water lead level is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L and the 90th percentile tap water copper level is less than or equal to 0.65 mg/L may reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper to once every three years. The small or medium water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed under subsection (I).

I. A public water system that samples annually or less frequently shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper during the months of June, July, August, or September in the same calendar year, unless the Department has approved a different sampling period that is no longer than four consecutive months and represents a time of normal operation when the highest levels of lead are most likely to occur. For a NTNCWS that does not operate during June through September, and for which the period of normal operation when the highest levels of lead are most likely to occur is not known, the Department shall designate a period that represents a time of normal operation for the NTNCWS. A reduced monitoring site shall be representative of the sites required for standard monitoring identified in R18-4-309. The Department may specify sampling locations when a public water system is conducting reduced monitoring. A public water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall collect at least one sample from the following number of sites:

<table> System Size (Number of Persons Served) Number of Sites More than 100,000 50 10,001 - 100,000 30 3,301 - 10,000 20 501 - 3,300 10 101 - 500 5 100 or less 5 </table>

J. A small or medium water system conducting reduced tap water monitoring that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall resume tap water monitoring at the frequency specified in subsection (A) and collect the number of samples specified in subsection (C). If the small or medium water system completes two subsequent consecutive six-month monitoring periods that meet the criteria in subsection (F), the small or medium water system may resume annual tap water monitoring for lead and copper at the reduced number of sites specified in subsection (I). The small or medium water system may resume triennial monitoring for lead and copper at the reduced number of sites after it demonstrates through subsequent monitoring periods that it meets the criteria of either subsection (G) or (H).

K. The Department may require a small or medium water system that conducts reduced tap water monitoring that adds a new source of water or changes any water treatment to resume sampling at the frequency specified in subsection (A) and collect the number of samples specified in subsection (C).

L. The Department and the public water system shall consider the results of tap water monitoring for lead and copper conducted by the public water system in addition to the minimum requirements of this Section in making any determinations required by this Article, including calculating the 90th percentile lead and copper levels, treatment technique determination requirements, source water monitoring requirements, lead service line replacement requirements, and lead public education requirements.

M. A small or medium water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall comply with the following:

1. Water quality parameter monitoring requirements prescribed at R18-4-311,

2. Source water monitoring requirements prescribed at R18-4-314, and

3. Lead public education requirements prescribed at R18-4-316 if the small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead.

N. A large water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall comply with the following:

1. Source water monitoring requirements prescribed at R18-4-314;

2. Lead public education requirements prescribed in R18-4-316 if the large water system exceeds the action level for lead; and

3. Lead service line replacement requirements prescribed in R18-4-315 if the large water system exceeds the action level for lead after installation of either corrosion control treatment or source water treatment, or both.

O. A public water system that exceeds the action level for lead shall offer to sample the tap water of any customer who requests that a sample be taken. The public water system is not required to pay for the collection or analysis of the sample. The public water system shall collect, or arrange for a third party to collect, the lead and copper sample. The sample shall be analyzed by a certified laboratory. Any sample that is collected under this subsection shall not be used for purposes of determining compliance.

P. A sample invalidated under this subsection does not count toward determining a lead or copper 90th percentile level or toward meeting the minimum monitoring requirements under subsections (C), (I), and R18-4-313(S).

1. The Department may invalidate a lead or copper tap water sample if at least one of the following conditions is met:

a. The laboratory establishes that improper sample analysis caused erroneous results,

b. The Department determines that the sample was taken from a site that did not meet the site selection criteria of R18-4-309,

c. The sample container was damaged in transit, or

d. There is substantial reason to believe that the sample was subject to tampering.

2. The public water system shall report the results of all samples to the Department and all supporting documentation for samples the public water system believes should be invalidated.

3. The Department shall document in writing its decision to invalidate a sample and the rationale for the decision. The Department shall not invalidate a sample solely because a follow-up sample result is higher or lower than that of the original sample.

4. If after the invalidation of one or more samples, the public water system has too few samples to meet the minimum requirements of subsections (C), (I), and R18-4-313(S), the public water system shall collect replacement samples for any samples invalidated under this subsection. The public water system shall take a replacement sample as soon as possible, but not later than 20 days after the date the Department invalidates the sample or by the end of the applicable monitoring period, whichever occurs later. A replacement sample taken after the end of the applicable monitoring period shall not also be used to meet the monitoring requirements of a subsequent monitoring period. The public water system shall take a replacement sample at the same location as the invalidated sample or, if that is not possible, at a location that meets the same sampling criteria as the original sample. The public water system shall not use a location already used for sampling during the monitoring period.

Q. A small water system that meets the criteria of this subsection may apply to the Department before the beginning of a monitoring period specified in this Section, to reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper under this Section to once every nine years (that is, a "full waiver") if it meets all the materials criteria specified in subsection (Q)(1) and all the monitoring criteria in subsection (Q)(2). A small water system that meets the criteria in subsection (Q)(1) and (Q)(2) only for lead, or only for copper, may apply to the Department for a waiver to reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring to once every nine years for that one contaminant (that is, a "partial waiver").

1. The small water system shall demonstrate that its distribution system and service lines and all drinking water supply plumbing, including plumbing conveying drinking water within all residences and buildings connected to the small water system, are free of either lead-containing materials or copper-containing materials, or both, as follows:

a. To qualify for a full waiver, or a waiver of the tap water monitoring requirements for lead (that is, a "lead waiver"), the small water system shall provide certification and supporting documentation to the Department that the small water system contains no plastic pipes that have lead plasticizers, or plastic service lines that contain lead plasticizers, and it is free of lead service lines, lead pipes, lead soldered pipe joints, and leaded brass or bronze alloy fittings and fixtures, unless the fittings and fixtures meet the specifications of ANSI/NSF Standard 61, Section 9.

b. To qualify for a full waiver, or a waiver of the tap water monitoring requirements for copper (that is, a "copper waiver"), the small water system shall provide certification and supporting documentation to the Department that the small water system contains no copper pipes or copper service lines.

2. The small water system must have completed at least one six-month monitoring period of standard tap water monitoring for lead and copper at sites approved by the Department under R18-4-309 and at the number of sites required in subsection (C). The small water system must demonstrate that the 90th percentile levels for all monitoring periods conducted after the small water system became free of all lead-containing or copper-containing materials, or both, as appropriate, meet the following criteria:

a. Lead levels. To qualify for a full waiver, or a lead waiver, the small water system shall demonstrate that the 90th percentile lead level does not exceed 0.005 mg/L.

b. Copper levels. To qualify for a full waiver, or a copper waiver, the small water system shall demonstrate that the 90th percentile copper level does not exceed 0.65 mg/L.

3. The Department shall notify the small water system, in writing, of the Department's determination regarding the waiver, and explain the basis for its decision and prescribe any condition of the waiver. As a condition of the waiver, the Department may require the small water system to perform specific activities (for example, limited monitoring, periodic outreach to customers to remind them to avoid installation of materials that might void the waiver) to avoid the risk of elevated concentrations of lead or copper in tap water. The small water system shall continue tap water monitoring for lead and copper as required in subsections (A) through (K), as appropriate, until it receives written notification from the Department that the waiver has been approved.

4. A small water system with a full waiver shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper in accordance with subsection (I) at least once every nine years, and provide the materials certification specified in subsection (Q)(1) for both lead and copper to the Department along with these tap water monitoring results.

5. A small water system with a partial waiver shall conduct tap water monitoring for the waived contaminant in accordance with subsection (I) at least once every nine years and provide the materials certification specified in subsection (Q)(1) pertaining to the waived contaminant along with the monitoring results. The small water system shall also continue to monitor for the contaminant that has not been waived under subsections (A) through (K), as appropriate.

6. If a small water system with a full or partial waiver adds a new source of water or changes any water treatment, the Department may require the small water system to add or modify waiver conditions (for example, require recertification that the small water system is free of either lead-containing or copper-containing materials, or both, or require an additional monitoring period) if the Department deems the modifications are necessary to address treatment or source water changes at the small water system.

7. A small water system with a full or partial waiver that becomes aware that it is no longer free of lead-containing or copper-containing materials (for example, as a result of new construction or repairs), shall notify the Department in writing not later than 60 days after becoming aware of the change. The small water system shall explain the circumstances resulting in the lead-containing or copper-containing materials being introduced into the small water system and what corrective action, if any, the small water system plans to remove these materials.

8. If the small water system continues to satisfy the requirements of subsection (Q)(4) to (Q)(7), the waiver will be renewed automatically, unless any of the conditions listed in (a) through (c) of this subsection occur. A small water system that has had its waiver revoked may reapply for a waiver when it again meets the appropriate materials and monitoring criteria of subsection (Q)(1) and (Q)(2).

a. A small water system no longer satisfies the materials criteria of subsection (Q)(1)(a) or has a 90th percentile lead level greater than 0.005 mg/L.

b. A small water system no longer satisfies the materials criteria of (Q)(1)(b) or has a 90th percentile copper level greater than 0.65 mg/L.

c. The Department notifies the small water system, in writing, that the waiver has been revoked, and explains the basis for its decision.

9. A small water system that has had its full or partial waiver revoked by the Department is subject to the corrosion control treatment and lead and copper tap water monitoring requirements, as follows:

a. If the small water system exceeds either the lead or copper action level, the small water system shall implement corrosion control treatment under the deadlines specified in R18-4-307(A), and any other applicable requirements of Sections R18-4-306 through R18-4-316.

b. If the small water system meets both the lead and the copper action level, the small water system must monitor for lead and copper at the tap at least once every three years. The small water system shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed under subsection (I).

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.311" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Water Quality Parameter Monitoring"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="9"><dwc name="lead" times="9">

Lead and Copper; Water Quality Parameter Monitoring

A. A large water system shall monitor for water quality parameters. A small or medium water system shall monitor for water quality parameters only if the small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper. Water quality parameter monitoring includes both tap water monitoring and source water monitoring.

B. A public water system that monitors for water quality parameters shall collect samples for the following parameters:

1. pH (at the time of sample collection),

2. Alkalinity,

3. Calcium,

4. Conductivity,

5. Water temperature (at the time of sample collection),

6. Orthophosphate (when a phosphate-based corrosion inhibitor is used), and

7. Silica (when a silicate-based corrosion inhibitor is used).

C. The public water system shall take tap water samples for water quality parameters at sampling sites that are representative of water quality throughout the distribution system, taking into account the number of persons served, the different sources of water, the different treatment methods employed by the public water system, and seasonal variability. The public water system may take tap water samples for water quality parameters at the same locations as tap water samples for lead and copper or at the same sampling sites used for total coliform sampling. The public water system shall take source water samples for water quality parameters at sampling points as prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through R18-4-218(C).

D. A public water system that monitors for water quality parameters shall collect two tap water samples during each six-month monitoring period from the following number of sites:

<table> System Size (Number of Persons Served) Number of Sites for Water Quality Parameters More than 100,000 25 10,001-100,000 10 3,301 to 10,000 3 501 to 3,300 2 101 to 500 1 100 or less 1 </table>

E. A public water system that monitors for water quality parameters shall collect two source water samples at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through (C) during each six-month monitoring period.

F. A large water system shall conduct tap water and source water monitoring for water quality parameters for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. A small or medium water system shall monitor for water quality parameters only if the small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper. A small or medium water system shall complete tap water and source water monitoring for water quality parameters in the same monitoring period that the small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper.

G. A small or medium water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall recommend installation of one or more of the corrosion control treatments listed in this subsection that the small or medium water system believes constitutes optimal corrosion control. The small or medium water system shall make a recommendation regarding the installation of optimal corrosion control treatment to the Department within six months after the action level was exceeded. The Department may require that a small or medium water system conduct additional monitoring for water quality parameters to assist the Department's review of the system's recommendation regarding optimal corrosion control treatment. Optimal corrosion control treatments include:

1. Alkalinity and pH adjustment,

2. Calcium hardness adjustment, and

3. The addition of a phosphate- or silicate-based corrosion inhibitor at a concentration sufficient to maintain an effective residual concentration in all test tap samples.

H. The Department shall, in writing, either approve the optimal corrosion control treatment recommended by a small or medium water system, designate a different optimal corrosion control treatment from among those listed in subsection (G) for the small or medium water system, or require that the small or medium water system conduct a corrosion control study to identify the optimal corrosion control treatment for the system. If the Department makes the determination that a corrosion control study is not necessary, the Department shall designate the optimal corrosion control treatment for the system within the following time-frames:

1. For medium water systems, within 18 months after the medium water system exceeds the lead or copper action level, or

2. For small water systems, within 24 months after the small water system exceeds the lead or copper action level.

I. The Department and the public water system shall consider the results of any monitoring for water quality parameters conducted by a public water system in addition to the minimum requirements prescribed in this Section and Section R18-4-313 in making a recommendation regarding optimal corrosion control treatment, performance of a corrosion control study, designation of optimal corrosion control treatment or water quality parameters for optimal corrosion control, modification of an optimal corrosion control treatment decision, or reduced monitoring for lead and copper at the tap or for water quality parameters.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.312" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Corrosion Control Studies"> <dwc name="copper" times="5"><dwc name="lead" times="5">

Lead and Copper; Corrosion Control Studies

A. A large water system shall complete a corrosion control study within 18 months after the date that it completed initial tap water monitoring for lead and copper under R18-4-310(A)(1), unless the Department determines that the large water system has optimized corrosion control under R18-4-307(B). The Department may require that a small or medium water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper perform a corrosion control study to identify the optimal corrosion control treatment for the small or medium water system. The Department shall consider factors such as water quality data submitted by the small or medium water system and the water treatment used by the small or medium water system when determining whether a system shall perform a corrosion control study. The Department's decision to require a corrosion control study shall be in writing.

1. The Department shall make a determination of whether a small or medium water system is required to perform a corrosion control study within one year after the small or medium water system exceeds the action level for lead or copper.

2. If the Department determines that a corrosion control study is necessary, the small or medium water system shall complete and submit the study to the Department within 18 months after the date that the Department determines that a study is necessary.

B. A public water system that conducts a corrosion control study shall evaluate the effectiveness of each of the following treatments and, if appropriate, combinations of the following treatments to identify optimal corrosion control treatment for that system:

1. Alkalinity and pH adjustment,

2. Calcium hardness adjustment, and

3. The addition of a phosphate- or silicate-based corrosion inhibitor at a concentration sufficient to maintain an effective residual concentration in all test tap samples.

C. A public water system shall evaluate each of the corrosion control treatments listed in subsection (B) using any of the following:

1. Pipe rig test or pipe loop test;

2. Metal coupon tests;

3. Partial-system tests; or

4. Analyses based on documented analogous treatments with other systems of similar size, water chemistry, and distribution system configuration.

D. A public water system shall measure the following water quality parameters, in any tests conducted under subsection (C), before and after evaluating the corrosion control treatments listed in subsection (B):

1. Lead,

2. Copper,

3. pH (at the time of sample collection),

4. Alkalinity,

5. Calcium,

6. Conductivity,

7. Water temperature (at the time of sample collection),

8. Orthophosphate (when an inhibitor containing a phosphate compound is used),

9. Silicate (when an inhibitor containing a silicate compound is used).

E. A public water system shall identify all chemical or physical constraints that limit or prohibit the use of a particular corrosion control treatment and document the constraints with at least one of the following:

1. Data and documentation showing that a particular corrosion control treatment has adversely affected other water treatment processes when used by another public water system with comparable water quality characteristics, or

2. Data and documentation demonstrating that the public water system has previously attempted to evaluate a particular corrosion control treatment and has found that the treatment is ineffective or adversely affects other water quality treatment processes.

F. A public water system shall evaluate the effect of the chemicals used for corrosion control treatment on other water quality treatment processes.

G. On the basis of an analysis of the data generated during the corrosion control study, a public water system shall recommend to the Department, in writing, the optimal corrosion control treatment for the public water system. The public water system shall provide a rationale for its recommendation along with all supporting documentation required in this Section. If a small or medium water system completes a corrosion control study, the Department shall designate the optimal corrosion control treatment for that system within six months after the completion of the study. A small or medium water system shall install optimal corrosion control treatment within 24 months after the Department designates the treatment for the system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.313" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Corrosion Control Treatment"> <dwc name="copper" times="20"><dwc name="lead" times="22">

Lead and Copper; Corrosion Control Treatment

A. Based upon consideration of available information including, if applicable, a corrosion control study and the public water system's recommendation regarding optimal corrosion control treatment, the Department shall, in writing, either approve the corrosion control treatment recommended by a public water system or designate an alternative corrosion control treatment or treatments from among those listed in R18-4-312(B). When designating optimal corrosion control treatment, the Department shall consider the effects that additional corrosion control treatment will have on water quality parameters and on other water quality treatment processes. The Department shall provide written notice to a large, medium or small water system of its decision regarding optimal corrosion control treatment and explain the basis for its decision. If the Department requests additional information to aid its review, a public water system shall provide the information.

B. A public water system shall properly install and operate throughout its distribution system the optimal corrosion control treatment within 24 months after the date that the Department designates the treatment for the public water system under subsection (A).

C. Each public water system that installs optimal corrosion control treatment shall follow-up with tap water monitoring for lead and copper as specified in R18-4-310(C) and monitor for water quality parameters as specified in subsections (D), (E), and (F) for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods within 36 months after the date that the Department designates optimal corrosion control treatment for the public water system. A small or medium water system shall only conduct monitoring for water quality parameters during each six-month monitoring period in which the small or medium water system exceeds the lead or copper action level.

D. A public water system that installs optimal corrosion control treatment shall follow-up with tap water monitoring for water quality parameters at the number of sites prescribed in R18-4-311(D) in each six-month monitoring period. A public water system shall collect at least two tap water samples at each site for the following water quality parameters:

1. pH (at the time of sample collection);

2. Alkalinity;

3. Orthophosphate, when an inhibitor containing a phosphate compound is used;

4. Silica, when an inhibitor containing a silicate compound is used;

5. Calcium, when calcium carbonate stabilization is used as part of corrosion control.

E. A public water system that installs optimal corrosion control treatment shall conduct follow-up source water monitoring at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through (C) in each six-month monitoring period. A public water system shall take at least one sample no less frequently than every two weeks (biweekly) at each sampling point for the following water quality parameters:

1. pH (at the time of sample collection);

2. When alkalinity is adjusted as part of optimal corrosion control, a reading of the dosage rate of the chemical used to adjust alkalinity, and the alkalinity concentration; and

3. When a corrosion inhibitor is used as part of optimal corrosion control, a reading of the dosage rate of the inhibitor used, and the concentration of orthophosphate or silica (whichever is applicable).

F. A groundwater system may limit monitoring for water quality parameters described in subsection (E) only to those sampling points prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through (C) that represent water quality and treatment conditions throughout the groundwater system. If water from an untreated groundwater source mixes with water from a treated groundwater source, the groundwater system shall monitor for water quality parameters both at representative sampling points receiving treatment and representative sampling points receiving no treatment. Before a groundwater system starts any limited monitoring under this subsection, the groundwater system shall provide the Department with written information identifying the selected representative sampling points and documentation, including information on seasonal variability, sufficient to demonstrate that the selected sites are representative of water quality and treatment conditions throughout the groundwater system.

G. The Department shall evaluate the results of follow-up monitoring for lead and copper and for water quality parameters to determine whether the public water system has properly installed and operated the optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department. After reviewing the results of all tap water monitoring for lead and copper and monitoring for water quality parameters, by the public water system, both before and after a public water system installs optimal corrosion control treatment, the Department shall designate water quality parameters for the public water system that reflect optimal corrosion control treatment. The Department shall notify the public water system in writing of its determination regarding water quality parameters for optimal corrosion control treatment and shall explain the basis for its decision. The Department shall designate water quality parameters that reflect optimal corrosion control within six months after completion of follow-up monitoring. The Department shall designate, at a minimum, the following water quality parameters:

1. A minimum value or a range of values for pH measured at each point-of-entry into the distribution system;

2. A minimum pH value, measured in all tap samples. This value shall be equal to or greater than 7.0, unless the Department determines that meeting a pH level of 7.0 is not technologically feasible or is not necessary for the public water system to optimize corrosion control;

3. If a corrosion inhibitor is used, a minimum concentration or a range of concentrations for the inhibitor, measured at each point-of-entry into the distribution system and in all tap samples, that the Department determines is necessary to form a passivation film on the interior walls of the pipes of the distribution system;

4. If alkalinity is adjusted as part of optimal corrosion control treatment, a minimum concentration or a range of concentrations for alkalinity, measured at each point-of-entry into the distribution system and in all tap samples;

5. If calcium carbonate stabilization is used as part of corrosion control, a minimum concentration or a range of concentrations for calcium, measured in all tap samples;

6. The Department may designate values for additional water quality parameters that the Department determines reflect optimal corrosion control treatment for a public water system.

H. After the Department designates a range of values for water quality parameters that reflect optimal corrosion control treatment for a public water system under subsection (G), a large water system shall monitor for water quality parameters under subsections (D), (E), and (F) and determine compliance with the requirements of subsection (I) every six months, with the first 6-month period beginning on the date that the Department specifies the values for water quality parameters. A small or medium water system shall monitor for water quality parameters under subsections (D), (E), and (F) during each 6-month period specified in this subsection in which the small or medium water system exceeds the lead or copper action level. For a small or medium water system that is conducting lead and copper tap water monitoring on a reduced frequency when an action level is exceeded, the end of the 6-month period under this subsection shall coincide with the end of the reduced monitoring period under R18-4-310. Compliance with Department-designated optimal water quality parameter values shall be determined as specified in subsection (I).

I. A public water system that optimizes corrosion control shall continue to operate and maintain optimal corrosion control treatment, including maintaining water quality parameters at or above the minimum values or within the ranges designated by the Department under subsection (G), for all samples collected under subsections (H) through (N). Compliance with the requirements of this subsection shall be determined every six months, as specified in subsection (H). A public water system is out of compliance with the requirements of this subsection for a 6-month period if it has excursions for any Department-specified parameter on more than nine days during the period. An excursion occurs whenever the daily value for one or more of the water quality parameters measured at a sampling location is below the minimum value or outside the range designated by the Department. The Department shall calculate the daily values as follows, and may delete the result of an obvious sampling error from a calculation:

1. On a day when more than one measurement for the water quality parameter is collected at the sampling location, the daily value shall be the average of all results collected during the day regardless of whether they are collected through continuous monitoring, grab sampling, or a combination of both.

2. On a day when only one measurement for the water quality parameter is collected at the sampling location, the daily value shall be the result of that measurement.

3. On a day when no measurement is collected for the water quality parameter at the sampling location, the daily value shall be the daily value calculated on the most recent day on which the water quality parameter was measured at the sample site.

J. A public water system that maintains the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department under subsection (G) for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods conducted under subsection (H) may reduce the number of sites from which tap water samples for water quality parameters are collected. The public water system shall collect at least two tap water samples from the following number of sites during each six-month monitoring period:

<table> System Size (Number of Persons Served) Reduced Number of Sites for Water Quality Parameters More than 100,000 10 10,001 to 100,000 7 3,301 to 10,000 3 501 to 3,300 2 101 to 500 1 100 or less 1 </table>

K. A public water system that maintains the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department under subsection (G) for three consecutive years of monitoring may reduce the frequency that it collects tap water samples specified in subsection (J) for water quality parameters from every six months to annually. A public water system that conducts annual monitoring shall collect tap water samples for water quality parameters evenly throughout the year so as to reflect seasonal variability.

L. A public water system that maintains the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment, designated by the Department under subsection (G), for three consecutive years of annual monitoring may reduce the frequency that it collects the number of tap water samples specified in subsection (J) for water quality parameters from annually to every three years. A public water system that conducts triennial monitoring shall collect tap water samples for water quality parameters evenly throughout the year so as to reflect seasonal variability.

M. A large water system may reduce the frequency that it collects tap water samples specified in subsection (J) for water quality parameters to every three years if it demonstrates the following for two consecutive monitoring periods:

1. That its 90th percentile for lead in tap water is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L;

2. That its 90th percentile for copper in tap water is less than or equal to 0.65 mg/L; and

3. That it has maintained the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department under subsection (G). A large water system that conducts triennial monitoring shall collect tap water samples for water quality parameters evenly throughout the year so as to reflect seasonal variability.

N. A public water system that is conducting tap water monitoring for water quality parameters on an annual or triennial basis and fails to operate at or above the minimum value or within the range of values for the water quality parameters designated by the Department under subsection (G) for more than nine days in any 6-month period, as specified in subsection (I), shall resume tap water monitoring for water quality parameters in the distribution system at the number and frequency specified in subsection (H). After the public water system has completed two subsequent consecutive 6-month monitoring periods that meet the criteria of subsection (J), it may resume annual tap water monitoring for water quality parameters within the distribution system at the reduced number of sites specified in subsection (J). The public water system may resume triennial tap water monitoring for water quality parameters at the reduced number of sites after it demonstrates through subsequent monitoring periods that it meets the criteria of either subsection (L) or (M).

O. After the Department designates a range of values for water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment for a public water system, the public water system shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper during each subsequent six-month monitoring period, with the first monitoring period to begin on the date that the Department designates the water quality parameters under subsection (G). The public water system shall collect the number of samples specified in R18-4-310(C).

P. A public water system that installs optimal corrosion control treatment and that maintains the range of values for water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department under subsection (G) for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods may reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper to once per year and reduce the number of samples taken if it receives written approval from the Department. The Department shall review monitoring, treatment, and other relevant information submitted by the public water system in accordance with R18-4-104, and shall notify the public water system, in writing, if the Department determines that the public water system is eligible to begin reduced monitoring. The Department shall review, and if appropriate, revise its determination when the public water system submits new monitoring or treatment data, or when other data relevant to the number and frequency of tap water monitoring becomes available. A public water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed under subsection (S).

Q. A public water system that maintains the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflects optimal corrosion control treatment designated by the Department under subsection (G) for three consecutive years of monitoring may reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper to once every three years if it receives written approval from the Department. The Department shall review monitoring, treatment, and other relevant information submitted by the public water system in accordance with R18-4-104, and shall notify the public water system, in writing, if the Department determines that the public water system is eligible to reduce the frequency of monitoring to once every three years. The Department shall review, and if appropriate, revise its determination when the public water system submits new monitoring or treatment data, or when other data relevant to the number and frequency of tap water monitoring becomes available. A public water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed under subsection (S).

R. A public water system that demonstrates for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods that the 90th percentile tap water lead level is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L and the 90th percentile tap water copper level is less than or equal to 0.65 mg/L may reduce the frequency of tap water monitoring for lead and copper to once every three years. The public water system that conducts reduced monitoring shall use the reduced number of sites and follow the sampling requirements listed under subsection (S).

S. A public water system that samples annually or less frequently shall conduct tap water monitoring for lead and copper during the months of June, July, August, or September in the same calendar year, unless the Department has approved a different sampling period. The different sampling period shall be no longer than four consecutive months and must represent a time of normal operation where the highest levels of lead are most likely to occur. For a NTNCWS that does not operate during the months of June through September, and for which the period of normal operation where the highest levels of lead are most likely to occur is not known, the Department shall designate a period that represents a time of normal operation for the NTNCWS. A reduced monitoring site shall be representative of the sites required for standard monitoring identified in R18-4-309. The Department may specify sampling locations when a public water system is conducting reduced monitoring. A public water system conducting reduced monitoring shall collect at least one sample from the following number of sites:

<table> System Size (Number of Persons Served) Number of Sites More than 100,000 50 10,001 - 100,000 30 3,301 - 10,000 20 501 - 3,300 10 500 or less 5 </table>

T. A public water system that is conducting tap water monitoring for lead and copper on an annual or triennial basis and fails to operate at or above the minimum value or within the range of values for the water quality parameters designated by the Department under subsection (G) for more than nine days in any 6-month period as specified in subsection (H) shall resume tap water monitoring for lead and copper at the frequency and number specified in subsection (O). A public water system may resume reduced tap water monitoring for lead and copper under the following conditions:

1. The public water system may resume annual tap water monitoring for lead and copper at the reduced number of sites specified in subsection (S) after it has completed two subsequent 6-month monitoring periods that meet the criteria of subsection (P) and the public water system has received written approval from the Department, or

2. The public water system may resume triennial tap water monitoring for lead and copper at the reduced number of sites specified in subsection (S) after it has conducted subsequent monitoring periods that meet the criteria of subsection (Q) or (R), and the public water system has received written approval from the Department.

U. The Department may require a public water system that conducts reduced tap water monitoring for lead and copper that adds a new source or changes any water treatment to:

1. Resume monitoring at the frequency specified in subsection (O) and collect the number of samples specified in R18-4-310(C), or

2. Increase water quality parameter monitoring.

V. Upon its own initiative or in response to a request by a public water system or other interested party, the Department may modify its determination regarding optimal corrosion control treatment or water quality control parameters for optimal corrosion control treatment. A request for modification shall be in writing, explain why the modification is appropriate, and provide supporting documentation. The Department may modify its determination if it concludes that the change is necessary to ensure that the public water system continues to optimize corrosion control treatment. A revised determination shall be made in writing, set the new treatment requirements, explain the basis for the Department's decision, and provide an implementation schedule for completing the treatment modifications.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.314" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Source Water Monitoring and Treatment"> <dwc name="copper" times="36"><dwc name="lead" times="36">

Lead and Copper; Source Water Monitoring and Treatment

A. A public water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall conduct source water monitoring for lead and copper.

B. Source water monitoring for lead and copper shall be conducted at sampling points as prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through (C). A public water system may composite samples in accordance with R18-4-219.

C. A public water system that exceeds the action level for lead or copper shall collect one sample from each sampling point within six months after the action level for lead or copper was exceeded.

D. Within six months after the action level for lead or copper was exceeded, the public water system shall make a written recommendation to the Department as to whether one of the source water treatments listed in subsection (G) is necessary. The public water system may recommend that no source water treatment be installed if the public water system demonstrates that source water treatment is not necessary to minimize lead or copper levels at taps.

E. The Department shall evaluate the results of all source water samples submitted by a public water system to determine if source water treatment is necessary to minimize lead or copper levels in water delivered to taps. The Department shall make a written determination regarding the necessity of source water treatment within six months after the public water system submits the source water monitoring results.

F. If the Department determines that a public water system is not required to install source water treatment, the public water system shall conduct source water monitoring at one of the following frequencies:

1. A groundwater system shall collect one source water sample at each sampling point for lead and copper once during each compliance period, beginning in the compliance period that the Department determines that source water treatment is not necessary.

2. A surface water system shall collect one source water sample at each sampling point for lead and copper annually. The first annual monitoring period shall begin on the date that the Department determines that source water treatment is not necessary.

G. If the Department requires installation of source water treatment, a public water system shall install treatment within 24 months after the date that the Department makes a determination that source water treatment is necessary. A public water system shall properly install and operate the source water treatment that is approved or designated by the Department. The Department shall either require installation and operation of the source water treatment recommended by the public water system or require the installation and operation of another source water treatment from among the following:

1. Ion exchange,

2. Reverse osmosis,

3. Lime softening, or

4. Coagulation and filtration.

H. The Department may request additional information from a public water system to aid in its source water treatment determination. If the Department requests additional information, a public water system shall provide the information by the date specified by the Department in its request. The Department shall notify a public water system, in writing, of its source water treatment determination and explain the basis for its decision.

I. A public water system that installs source water treatment shall complete follow-up tap water and source water monitoring for lead and copper within 36 months after the date that the Department determines that source water treatment is necessary. A public water system shall collect an additional source water sample from each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218(A) through (C) for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. A public water system shall conduct tap water monitoring for two consecutive six-month monitoring periods. The public water system shall collect the number of tap water samples specified in R18-4-310(C).

J. The Department shall review a public water system's installation and operation of source water treatment and designate a maximum permissible source water level for lead and a maximum permissible source water level for copper for water entering the distribution system within six months after the completion of follow-up monitoring. The Department shall review the source water samples taken by the public water system both before and after the public water system installs source water treatment to determine if the public water system has properly installed and operated the source water treatment designated by the Department. Based upon its review, the Department shall designate a maximum permissible source water level for lead and a maximum permissible source water level for copper that reflect the contaminant removal capability of the source water treatment when it is properly operated and maintained. The Department shall provide written notice to the public water system and explain the basis for its decision.

K. A public water system shall comply with the Department-designated maximum permissible source water level for lead and the maximum permissible source water level for copper and continue source water monitoring. A public water system shall monitor at the following frequencies if the Department designates maximum permissible source water levels:

1. A groundwater system shall collect one sample from each sampling point once during each compliance period, beginning in the compliance period that the Department designates a maximum permissible source water level for lead and a maximum permissible source water level for copper.

2. A surface water system shall collect one sample annually from each sampling point. The first monitoring period shall begin on the date that the Department designates a maximum permissible source water level for lead and a maximum permissible source water level for copper.

L. A public water system shall maintain lead and copper levels below the maximum permissible source water levels designated by the Department at each sampling point. A public water system is out of compliance if the level of lead or copper at any sampling point is greater than the maximum permissible source water level designated by the Department.

M. A public water system is not required to conduct additional source water monitoring for lead or copper if tap water samples do not exceed the action level for that specific contaminant during the entire source water sampling period applicable to the public water system under subsections (F)(1) or (F)(2) or (K)(1) or (K)(2).

N. The Department may modify its source water treatment determination or designation of maximum permissible source water lead and maximum permissible source water copper concentrations for water entering the distribution system on its own initiative or in response to a written request by a public water system or other interested party. A request for modification by a public water system or other interested party shall be in writing, explain why the modification is appropriate, and provide supporting documentation. The Department may modify its determination if it concludes that a change is necessary to ensure that lead and copper concentrations in source water are minimized. A revised determination shall be made in writing, set the new treatment requirements, explain the basis for the Department's decision, and provide an implementation schedule for completing the source water treatment modifications.

O. If a sample exceeds a maximum permissible source water level for lead or copper, the Department may require that the public water system take one confirmation sample at the same sampling point, as soon as possible but no later than two weeks after the initial sample was taken. If a Department-required confirmation sample is taken for lead or copper, the results of the initial and confirmation sample shall be averaged to determine compliance with the maximum permissible source water level. A public water system shall report all lead levels measured between 0.005 mg/L and the method detection limit as measured or as 0.0025 mg/L. A public water systems shall report all copper levels measured between 0.050 mg/L and the method detection limit as measured or as 0.025 mg/L. A public water systems shall report all lead and copper levels measured below the method detection limits for lead and copper as zero.

P. After the Department designates the maximum permissible source water levels for a public water system, the public water system may reduce source water monitoring as follows:

1. A groundwater system that demonstrates that water entering the distribution system has been maintained below the maximum permissible source water level for lead and the maximum permissible source water level for copper designated by the Department for three consecutive compliance periods may reduce the monitoring frequency for lead and copper to once during each compliance cycle.

2. A surface water system that demonstrates that water entering the distribution system has been maintained below the maximum permissible source water level for lead and the maximum permissible source water level for copper designated by the Department for three consecutive years may reduce the monitoring frequency to once during each compliance cycle.

3. A public water system that uses a new source is not eligible for reduced monitoring for lead or copper until concentrations in samples collected from the new source for three consecutive monitoring periods are below the maximum permissible source water levels designated by the Department for that specific contaminant.

Q. If the Department determines that a public water system does not need to install source water treatment, the public water system may reduce the frequency for lead and copper source water monitoring as follows:

1. If a groundwater system demonstrates that for three consecutive compliance periods in which monitoring was conducted under subsection (F) the concentration of lead in the source water is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L and the concentration of copper in the source water is less than or equal to 0.65 mg/L, the source water monitoring frequency for lead and copper may be reduced to once during each compliance cycle.

2. If a surface water system demonstrates that for three consecutive years in which monitoring was conducted under subsection (F) the concentration of lead in the source water is less than or equal to 0.005 mg/L and the concentration of copper in the source water is less than or equal to 0.65 mg/L, the source water monitoring frequency for lead and copper may be reduced to once during each compliance cycle.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.315" level="4" title="Lead and Copper; Lead Service Line Replacement"> <dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="51">

Lead and Copper; Lead Service Line Replacement

A. A public water system that fails to meet the action level for lead in tap water samples after installing either corrosion control or source water treatment, or both, (whichever sampling occurs later) shall replace lead service lines in accordance with the requirements of this Section.

B. If a public water system is out of compliance for failure to install either corrosion control treatment or source water treatment by the date the public water system is required to conduct monitoring under R18-4-313(C) or R18-4-314(I), the Department shall require the public water system to replace the lead service lines if the public water system is not making satisfactory progress towards compliance under a schedule approved by the Department. The Department's decision to require a public water system to replace the lead service lines under this subsection shall be in writing.

C. A public water system shall replace annually at least 7% of the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system. The initial number of lead service lines is the number of lead service lines in place when the replacement program begins. The public water system shall identify the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system including an identification of the portion owned by the public water system, based upon a materials survey, including the materials survey required in R18-4-309(B), and relevant legal authorities (for example, contracts and local ordinances) regarding the portion owned by the public water system. The first year of lead service line replacement shall begin on the date that the action level for lead is exceeded after installation of either corrosion control treatment or source water treatment, or both.

D. A public water system is not required to replace an individual lead service line if the lead concentration in all samples collected from that line is less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L. Each lead service line sample shall be one liter in volume and shall have stood motionless in the lead service line for at least six hours. Lead service line samples shall be collected in one of the following ways:

1. At a tap after flushing the volume of water between the tap and the lead service line. The volume of water that is flushed shall be calculated based on the interior diameter and length of the pipe between the tap and the lead service line;

2. Tapping directly into the lead service line; or

3. If the sampling site is a building constructed as a single-family residence, allowing the water to run until there is a significant change in temperature that would be indicative of water standing in the lead service line.

E. A public water system shall replace the portion of the lead service line that it owns. If the public water system does not own the entire lead service line, the public water system shall notify the owner of the line, or the owner's authorized agent, that the public water system will replace the portion of the service line that it owns and shall offer to replace the owner's portion of the line. A public water system is not required to bear the cost of replacing the privately owned portion of the line, nor is it required to replace the privately owned portion if the owner chooses not to pay the cost of replacing the privately owned portion of the line, or if replacing the privately owned portion would be precluded by state, local or common law. A public water system that does not replace the entire length of the service line also shall complete the following tasks.

1. At least 45 days before beginning the partial replacement of a lead service line, the public water system shall provide a notice to the residents of all buildings served by the line that explains that they may experience a temporary increase of lead levels in their drinking water, along with guidance on the measures consumers can take to minimize their exposure to lead. The Department may allow the public water system to provide this notice fewer than 45 days before beginning partial lead service line replacement if the replacement is in conjunction with emergency repairs. In addition, the public water system shall inform the residents served by the line that the public water system will, at the public water system's expense, collect a sample from each partially replaced lead service line that is representative of the water in the service line for analysis of lead content, under subsection (D), within 72 hours after the completion of the partial replacement of the service line. The public water system shall collect the sample and report the results of the analysis to the owner and the residents served by the line within three business days after receiving the results. Mailed notices postmarked within three business days after receiving the results shall be considered "on time."

2. The public water system shall provide the information required in subsection (E)(1) to the residents of individual dwellings by mail or by another method approved by the Department. If multifamily dwellings are served by the line, the public water system shall have the option to post the information at a conspicuous location.

F. The Department shall require a public water system to replace lead service lines on a faster schedule (that is, more than 7% annually), taking into account the number of lead service lines in the public water system, if a faster replacement schedule is feasible. The Department shall make this determination in writing and notify the public water system of its finding within six months after the public water system is triggered into lead service line replacement.

G. A public water system may cease replacing lead service lines whenever first-draw samples collected under R18-4-310(D) do not exceed the action level for lead for each of two consecutive monitoring periods and the public water system submits the results to the Department. If a first-draw tap water sample collected by the public water system thereafter exceeds the lead action level, the public water system shall resume replacing lead service lines.

H. A public water system shall report the following information to the Department to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this Section:

1. Within 12 months after a public water system exceeds the action level for lead after installation of either corrosion control or source water treatment, or both, the public water system shall demonstrate in writing to the Department that it has conducted a materials survey, and include the information required in the initial materials survey conducted under R18-4-309(B), to identify the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system and shall provide the Department with the system's schedule for replacing annually at least 7% of the initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system.

2. Within 12 months after a public water system exceeds the action level for lead after installation of either corrosion control or source water treatment, or both, and every 12 months thereafter, the public water system shall demonstrate to the Department in writing that the public water system has either:

a. Replaced in the previous 12 months at least 7% of the initial lead service lines (or a greater number of lead service lines specified by the Department under subsection (F)); or

b. Conducted sampling under subsection (D) that demonstrates that the lead concentration in each lead service line sample is less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L. In this case, the total number of lines replaced shall equal at least 7% of the initial number of lead lines in place when the lead service line replacement program began (or the percentage specified by the Department under subsection (F)).

3. The annual letter submitted to the Department under subsection (H)(2) shall contain the following information:

a. The number of lead service lines scheduled to be replaced during the previous year of the system's replacement schedule;

b. The number and location of each lead service line replaced during the previous year of the system's replacement schedule;

c. If measured, the water lead concentration and location of each lead service line sampled, the sampling method, and the date of sampling; and

d. Certification that all partial lead service line replacement activities required in subsection (E) have been completed, if applicable.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.316" level="4" title="Public Education Requirements for Lead"> <dwc name="lead" times="27">

Public Education Requirements for Lead

A. A CWS that exceeds the action level for lead and that is not already repeating public education tasks under subsection (C) or (J) shall, within 60 days after the action level for lead is exceeded, do all of the following:

1. Insert a notice on each customer's water utility bill that states in large print:

"Some Homes in this Community Have Elevated Lead Levels in Their Drinking Water. Lead Can Pose a Significant Risk to Your Health. Please Read the Enclosed Notice for Further Information."

2. Include with each customer's water utility bill a notice that includes the text required in Appendix A.

3. Provide the text required in Appendix A to the editorial departments of the major daily and weekly newspapers circulated throughout the community.

4. Deliver pamphlets or brochures that contain the public education materials related to the health effects of lead, the steps that can be taken in the home to reduce lead exposure, and how to obtain more information on lead in drinking water that are specified in Appendix A, subsections (B), (D), and (E) to facilities and organizations, including the following:

a. Public schools or local school boards;

b. City or county health department or environmental quality departments;

c. Women, Infants, and Children [WIC] and Head Start programs if available;

d. Public and private hospitals and clinics;

e. Pediatricians;

f. Family planning clinics; and

g. Local welfare agencies.

5. Submit a public service announcement to at least five radio and television stations with the largest audiences that broadcast to the community served by the CWS. The public service announcement shall contain the following language:

"Why should everyone want to know the facts about lead and drinking water? Because unhealthy amounts of lead can enter drinking water through the plumbing in your home. That's why I urge you to do what I did. I had my water tested for [insert free or $ per sample]. You can contact the [insert the name of the city or public water system] for information on testing and on simple ways to reduce your exposure to lead in drinking water. To have your water tested for lead, or to get more information about this public health concern, please call [insert the phone number of the city or public water system]."

B. A CWS having a billing cycle that does not include a billing within 60 days of exceeding the action level, or that cannot insert information in the water utility bill without making major changes to its billing system, may use a separate mailing to deliver the information in Appendix A as long as the information is delivered to each customer within 60 days of exceeding the action level. The CWS shall also include the "alert" language specified in subsection (A)(1).

C. A CWS shall repeat the tasks required in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(4) every 12 months and the public service announcement specified in subsection (A)(5) every six months for as long as the CWS exceeds the lead action level.

D. A NTNCWS that exceeds the lead action level shall, within 60 days, unless it already is repeating public education tasks under subsection (E), deliver the public education materials specified in Appendix A or Appendix B as follows:

1. Post informational posters regarding lead in drinking water in a public place or common area in each of the buildings served by the NTNCWS; and

2. Distribute informational pamphlets or brochures on lead in drinking water to each person served by the NTNCWS. The Department may allow the NTNCWS to use electronic transmission instead of, or combined with, printed materials as long as it achieves at least the same coverage.

E. A NTNCWS shall repeat the public education tasks required in subsection (D) at least once during each calendar year for as long as the NTNCWS exceeds the lead action level.

F. A CWS shall include the lead public education text specified in Appendix A in all the printed materials it distributes through its lead public education program. Any additional information presented by a CWS shall be consistent with the information required in Appendix A and be written in plain language that can be understood by persons served by the CWS. In communities with a significant proportion of non-English speaking residents, public education materials shall be multilingual. A CWS may delete information about lead service lines, upon approval by the Department, if no lead service lines exist anywhere in the CWS service area. A CWS may modify public education language in Appendix A (D)(5) and (E)(2) regarding building permit record availability and consumer access to these records, if approved by the Department. A CWS may also continue to use pre-printed materials that meet the public education language requirements in R18-4-316 (1998) and Article 5, Appendix B (1998).

G. A NTNCWS shall include the text specified in either Appendix A or Appendix B in all the printed materials it distributes through its lead public education program. A NTNCWS may delete information about lead service lines, upon approval by the Department, if no lead service lines exist anywhere in the NTNCWS service area. Any additional information presented by a NTNCWS shall be consistent with the information in Appendix B and be in plain language that can be understood by persons served by the NTNCWS. In communities with a significant proportion of non-English speaking residents, public education materials shall be multilingual.

H. A CWS may use the text specified in Appendix B in place of the text in Appendix A and perform the tasks listed in subsection (D) and (E) in place of the tasks in subsection (A) and (C), if:

1. The CWS is a facility, such as a prison or a hospital, where the population served is not capable of or is prevented from making improvements to plumbing or installing a point-of-use treatment device; and

2. The CWS provides water as part of the cost of services provided and does not separately charge for water consumption.

I. A CWS serving 3,300 or fewer persons may omit the task required in subsection (A)(5) as long as it distributes notices containing the information specified in Appendix A to each household served by the CWS. The CWS may further limit its public education programs as follows:

1. A CWS serving 500 or fewer persons may omit the task required in subsection (A)(3). The CWS may also limit the distribution of the public education materials required in subsection (A)(4) to facilities and organizations served by the CWS that are most likely to be visited regularly by pregnant women and children, unless it is notified by the Department in writing that it must make a broader distribution.

2. If approved by the Department in writing, a CWS serving 501 to 3,300 persons may do any of the following:

a. Omit the task required in subsection (A)(3), and

b. Limit the distribution of the public education materials required in subsection (A)(4) to facilities and organizations served by the CWS that are most likely to be visited regularly by pregnant women and children.

J. A CWS serving 3,300 or fewer persons that delivers public education in accordance with subsection (I) shall repeat the required public education tasks at least once during each calendar year in which the CWS exceeds the lead action level.

K. A CWS or NTNCWS may discontinue delivery of public education materials if the system has met the lead action level during the most recent six-month monitoring period. A CWS or NTNCWS shall resume public education in accordance with this Section if it subsequently exceeds the lead action level.

L. Within 10 days after the end of each period the system is required to perform the public education requirements of this Section, a CWS or NTNCWS shall submit a letter to the Department demonstrating that the system has delivered the public education materials that meet the content and delivery requirements specified in this Section. The letter shall include a list of all the newspapers, radio stations, television stations, facilities, and organizations that the CWS or NTNCWS delivered public education materials to during the previous period. If a CWS or NTNCWS has previously submitted to the Department a list of all newspapers, radio stations, television stations, facilities, and organizations to which the system delivered public education materials, the system does not need to resubmit that information to the Department, if the CWS or NTNCWS certifies that there have been no changes to the list and that the public education materials were distributed to the same list submitted previously to the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.317" level="4" title="Treatment Techniques for Acrylamide and Epichlorohydrin"> <dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="lead" times="112"><dwc name="acrylamid" times="4">

Treatment Techniques for Acrylamide and Epichlorohydrin

A. A public water system that uses acrylamide or epichlorohydrin in a public water system, shall not exceed the following levels for the product of the dose and the monomer level:

1. Acrylamide = 0.05% dosed at 1 ppm (or equivalent).

2. Epichlorohydrin = 0.01% dosed at 20 ppm (or equivalent).

B. A public water system that uses acrylamide or epichlorohydrin shall certify annually in writing to the Department, using a third-party or a manufacturer's certification, that the product of the dose and monomer level does not exceed the levels specified in subsection (A).

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Table 1. Repealed

Historical Note

Table 1 adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 1686, effective April 19, 1999 (Supp. 99-2). Table repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix A. Lead Public Education

A public water system that exceeds the lead action level based on tap water samples collected in accordance with R18-4-310 or R18-4-313 shall deliver the public education materials contained in this Appendix in accordance with the public education delivery requirements specified in R18-4-316.

Content of written materials. A public water system shall include the following text in all the printed materials it distributes through its lead public education program. Any additional information presented by a system shall be consistent with the information below and be in plain language that can be understood by laypersons.

A. Introduction. The United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and [insert name of public water system] are concerned about lead in your drinking water. Although most homes have very low levels of lead in their drinking water, some homes in the community have lead levels above the EPA action level of 15 parts per billion (ppb), or 0.015 milligrams of lead per liter of water (mg/L). Under federal law we are required to have a program in place to minimize lead in your drinking water by [insert date when corrosion control will be completed for your system]. This program includes corrosion control treatment, source water treatment, and public education. We are also required to replace the portion of each lead service line that we own if the line contributes lead concentrations of more than 15 ppb after we have completed the comprehensive treatment program. If you have any questions about how we are carrying out the requirements of the lead regulation, please give us a call at [insert water system's phone number]. This brochure explains the simple steps you can take to protect you and your family by reducing your exposure to lead in drinking water.

B. Health effects of lead. Lead is a common metal found throughout the environment in lead-based paint; air; soil; household dust; food; certain types of pottery, porcelain, and pewter; and water. Lead can pose a significant risk to your health if too much of it enters your body. Lead builds up in the body over many years and can cause damage to the brain, red blood cells, and kidneys. The greatest risk is to young children and pregnant women. Amounts of lead that won't hurt adults can slow down the normal mental and physical development of growing bodies. In addition, a child at play often comes into contact with sources of lead contamination, like dirt and dust, that rarely affect an adult. It is important to wash children's hands and toys often and to try to make sure they only put food in their mouths.

C. Lead in Drinking Water. Lead in drinking water, although rarely the sole cause of lead poisoning, can significantly increase a person's total lead exposure, particularly the exposure of infants who drink baby formulas and concentrated juices that are mixed with water. The EPA estimates that drinking water can make up 20% or more of a person's total exposure to lead.

Lead is unusual among drinking water contaminants in that it seldom occurs naturally in water supplies like rivers and lakes. Lead enters drinking water primarily as a result of the corrosion, or wearing away, of materials containing lead in the water distribution system and household plumbing. These materials include lead-based solder used to join copper pipe, brass and chrome-plated brass faucets, and in some cases, pipes made of lead that connect your house to the water main (service lines). In 1986, Congress banned the use of lead solder containing greater than 0.2% lead and restricted the lead content of faucets, pipes, and other plumbing materials to 8.0%.

When water stands in lead pipes or plumbing systems containing lead for several hours or more, the lead may dissolve into your drinking water. This means the first water drawn from the tap in the morning, or later in the afternoon after returning from work or school, can contain fairly high levels of lead.

D. Steps You Can Take in the Home To Reduce Exposure To Lead in Drinking Water.

Despite our best efforts mentioned earlier to control water corrosivity and remove lead from the water supply, lead levels in some homes or buildings can be high. To find out whether you need to take action in your own home, have your drinking water tested to determine if it contains excessive concentrations of lead. Testing the water is essential because you cannot see, taste, or smell lead in drinking water. Some local laboratories that can provide this service are listed at the end of this booklet. For more information on having your water tested, please call [insert phone number of public water system].

If a water test indicates that the drinking water drawn from a tap in your home contains lead above 15 ppb, then you should take the following precautions:

1. Let the water run from the tap before using it for drinking or cooking any time the water in a faucet has gone unused for more than six hours. The longer water resides in your home's plumbing, the more lead it may contain. Flushing the tap means running the cold water faucet until the water gets noticeably colder, usually about 15-30 seconds. If your house has a lead service line to the water main, you may have to flush the water for a longer time, perhaps one minute, before drinking. Although toilet flushing or showering flushes water through a portion of your home's plumbing system, you still need to flush the water in each faucet before using it for drinking or cooking. Flushing tap water is a simple and inexpensive measure you can take to protect your family's health. It usually uses less than one or two gallons of water and costs less than [insert a cost estimate based on flushing two times a day for 30 days] per month. To conserve water, fill a couple of bottles for drinking water after flushing the tap and, whenever possible, use the first-flush water to wash the dishes or water the plants. If you live in a high-rise building, letting the water flow before using it may not work to lessen your risk from lead, because the plumbing systems may have more, and sometimes larger, pipes than smaller buildings. Ask your landlord for help in locating the source of the lead and for advice on reducing the lead level.

2. Try not to cook with, or drink, water from the hot water tap. Hot water can dissolve lead more quickly than cold water. If you need hot water, draw water from the cold tap and heat it on the stove.

3. Remove loose lead solder and debris from the plumbing materials installed in newly constructed homes, or homes in which the plumbing has recently been replaced, by removing the faucet strainers from all taps and running the water from three to five minutes. Thereafter, periodically remove the strainers and flush out any debris that has accumulated over time.

4. If your copper pipes are joined with lead solder that has been installed illegally since it was banned in 1986, notify the plumber who did the work and request that he or she replace the lead solder with lead-free solder. Lead solder looks dull gray and, when scratched with a key, looks shiny. In addition, notify the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality about the violation.

5. Determine whether or not the service line that connects your home or apartment to the water main is made of lead. The best way to determine if your service line is made of lead is by either hiring a licensed plumber to inspect the line or by contacting the plumbing contractor who installed the line. You can identify the plumbing contractor by checking the city's record of building permits which should be maintained in the files of the [insert name of department that issues building permits]. A licensed plumber can at the same time check to see if your home's plumbing contains lead solder, lead pipes, or pipe fittings that contain lead. [Insert name of public water system], the public water system that delivers water to your home also maintains records of the materials located in the distribution system. If the service line that connects your dwelling to the water main contributes more than 15 ppb to drinking water, after our comprehensive treatment program is in place, we are required to replace the portion of the line we own. If the line is only partially owned by the [insert name of the city, county, or water system that controls the line], we are required to provide the owner of the privately owned portion of the line with information on how to replace the privately owned portion of the service line and offer to replace that portion of the line at the owner's expense. If we replace only the portion of the line that we own, we also are required to notify you in advance and provide you with information on the steps you can take to minimize exposure to any temporary increase in lead levels that may result from the partial replacement, to take a follow-up sample at our expense from the line within 72 hours after the partial replacement, and to mail or otherwise provide you with the results of that sample within three business days after receiving the results. Acceptable replacement alternatives include copper, steel, iron, and plastic pipes.

6. Have an electrician check your wiring. If grounding wires from the electrical system are attached to your pipes, corrosion may be greater. Check with a licensed electrician or your local electrical code to determine if your wiring can be grounded elsewhere. DO NOT attempt to change the wiring yourself because improper grounding can cause electrical shock and fire hazards.

7. The steps described above will reduce the lead concentrations in your drinking water. However, if a water test indicates that the drinking water coming from your tap contains lead concentrations in excess of 15 ppb after flushing, or after we have completed our actions to minimize lead levels, then you may want to take the following additional measures:

a. Purchase or lease a home treatment device. Home treatment devices are limited in that each unit treats only the water that flows from the faucet to which it is connected, and all of the devices require periodic maintenance and replacement. Devices such as reverse osmosis systems or distillers can effectively remove lead from your drinking water. Some activated carbon filters may reduce lead levels at the tap; however all lead reduction claims should be investigated. Be sure to check the actual performance of a specific home treatment device before and after installing the unit.

b. Purchase bottled water for drinking and cooking.

E. How to Obtain More Information on Lead in Drinking Water

You can consult a variety of sources for additional information. Your family doctor or pediatrician can perform a blood test for lead and provide you with information about the health effects of lead. State and local government agencies that can be contacted include:

1. [Insert the name of the city or county department of public utilities] at [insert phone number] can provide you with information about your community's water supply and a list of local laboratories that have been licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services for testing water quality;

2. [Insert the name of the city or county department that issues building permits] at [insert phone number] can provide you with information about building permit records that should contain the names of the plumbing contractors that installed the plumbing in your home; and

3. The Arizona Department of Health Services at (602) 230-5830 or the [insert the name of the city or county health department] at [insert phone number] can provide you with information about the health effects of lead and how you can have your child's blood tested.

The following is a list of some ADHS-licensed laboratories in your area that you can call to have your water tested for lead. [Insert names and phone numbers of at least two laboratories].

Historical Note

New Appendix made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix B. Alternate Lead Public Education

A public water system that exceeds the lead action level based on tap water samples collected in accordance with R18-4-310 or R18-4-313 may deliver the public education materials contained in this Appendix in accordance with the public education delivery requirements specified in R18-4-316.

Content of written materials. A public water system shall include the following text in all the printed materials it distributes through its lead public education program. Any additional information presented by a system shall be consistent with the information below and be in plain language that can be understood by laypersons.

A. Introduction. The United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and [insert name of public water system] are concerned about lead in your drinking water. Some drinking water samples taken from this facility have lead levels above the EPA action level of 15 parts per billion (ppb), or 0.015 milligrams of lead per liter of water (mg/L). Under federal law we are required to have a program in place to minimize lead in your drinking water by [insert date when corrosion control will be completed for your system]. This program includes corrosion control treatment, source water treatment, and public education. We are also required to replace the portion of each lead service line that we own if the line contributes lead concentrations of more than 15 ppb after we have completed the comprehensive treatment program. If you have any questions about how we are carrying out the requirements of the lead regulation, please give us a call at [insert water system's phone number]. This brochure explains the simple steps you can take to protect yourself by reducing your exposure to lead in drinking water.

B. Health effects of lead. Lead is a common metal found throughout the environment in lead-based paint; air; soil; household dust; food; certain types of pottery, porcelain, and pewter; and water. Lead can pose a significant risk to your health if too much of it enters your body. Lead builds up in the body over many years and can cause damage to the brain, red blood cells and kidneys. The greatest risk is to young children and pregnant women. Amounts of lead that won't hurt adults can slow down the normal mental and physical development of growing bodies. In addition, a child at play often comes into contact with sources of lead contamination, like dirt and dust, that rarely affect an adult. It is important to wash children's hands and toys often and to try to make sure they only put food in their mouths.

C. Lead in Drinking Water. Lead in drinking water, although rarely the sole cause of lead poisoning, can significantly increase a person's total lead exposure, particularly the exposure of infants who drink baby formulas and concentrated juices that are mixed with water. The EPA estimates that drinking water can make up 20% or more of a person's total exposure to lead.

Lead is unusual among drinking water contaminants in that it seldom occurs naturally in water supplies like rivers and lakes. Lead enters drinking water primarily as a result of the corrosion, or wearing away, of materials containing lead in the water distribution system and household plumbing. These materials include lead-based solder used to join copper pipe, brass and chrome-plated brass faucets, and in some cases, pipes made of lead that connect houses and buildings to water mains (service lines). In 1986, Congress banned the use of lead solder containing greater than 0.2% lead, and restricted the lead content of faucets, pipes and other plumbing materials to 8.0%.

When water stands in lead pipes or plumbing systems containing lead for several hours or more, the lead may dissolve into your drinking water. This means the first water drawn from the tap in the morning, or later in the afternoon if the water has not been used all day, can contain fairly high levels of lead.

D. Steps You Can Take To Reduce Exposure to Lead in Drinking Water. Let the water run from the tap before using it for drinking or cooking any time the water in a faucet has gone unused for more than six hours. The longer water resides in plumbing the more lead it may contain. Flushing the tap means running the cold water faucet for about 15-30 seconds. Although toilet flushing or showering flushes water through a portion of the plumbing system, you still need to flush the water in each faucet before using it for drinking or cooking. Flushing tap water is a simple and inexpensive measure you can take to protect your health. It usually uses less than one gallon of water.

Do not cook with, or drink, water from the hot water tap. Hot water can dissolve lead more quickly than cold water. If you need hot water, draw water from the cold tap and then heat it.

The steps described above will reduce the lead concentrations in your drinking water. However, if you are still concerned, you may wish to use bottled water for drinking and cooking.

You can consult a variety of sources for additional information. Your family doctor or pediatrician can perform a blood test for lead and provide you with information about the health effects of lead. State and local government agencies that can be contacted include:

[insert the name or title of the facility official if appropriate] at [insert phone number] can provide you with information about your facility's water supply; and

The Arizona Department of Health Services at (602) 230-5830 or the [insert the name of the city or county health department] at [insert phone number] can provide you with information about the health effects of lead.

Historical Note

New Appendix made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="SPECIAL MONITORING REQUIREMENTS">

SPECIAL MONITORING REQUIREMENTS

<regElement name="R18.4.401" level="4" title="Special Monitoring for Sodium">

Special Monitoring for Sodium

A. A CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall conduct monitoring for sodium.

B. Each CWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS, shall collect one sample per water treatment plant. Multiple wells drawing raw water from a single aquifer may, with Department approval, be considered one treatment plant for purposes of determining the minimum number of sodium samples required.

C. Each CWS, or a contractor on behalf of the CWS, shall collect and analyze one sample annually for each water treatment plant utilizing a surface water source, in whole or in part. A CWS shall collect and analyze one sample every three years for each water treatment plant utilizing only groundwater sources. The Department may require a public water system to collect and analyze water samples more frequently in locations where the sodium content is variable.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Former Section R18-4-401 repealed; new Section R18-4-401 renumbered from R18-4-402 and amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.402" level="4" title="Special Monitoring for Nickel">

Special Monitoring for Nickel

A. A CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for nickel.

B. A CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for nickel at each sampling point as prescribed in R18-4-218.

C. A CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, may composite samples for nickel as prescribed in R18-4-219.

D. A CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall monitor for nickel as follows:

1. A CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take one sample at each groundwater sampling point once every three years.

2. A CWS and NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take one sample at each surface water sampling point annually.

E. A CWS or NTNCWS shall reduce the required monitoring frequency for nickel when the Department makes one of the following determinations.

1. Groundwater sampling points: The Department shall reduce monitoring frequency from once every three years to a less frequent basis if a CWS or NTNCWS has monitored for nickel at least once every three years for a period of nine years at the groundwater sampling point, and all analytical results were reliably and consistently below 0.1 mg/L in previous samples.

2. Surface water sampling points: The Department shall reduce monitoring frequency from annually to a less frequent basis if a CWS or NTNCWS has monitored annually at the surface water sampling point for at least three consecutive years and all analytical results for nickel were reliably and consistently below 0.1 mg/L in previous samples.

3. The Department may reduce monitoring frequency for nickel for a term not to exceed nine years.

4. If the Department reduces monitoring frequency for nickel, a CWS or NTNCWS, or a contractor on behalf of a CWS or NTNCWS, shall take at least one sample for nickel during the reduced monitoring term.

5. In determining the appropriate reduced monitoring frequency at a sampling point, the Department shall consider the following factors:

a. Reported concentrations of nickel from all previous monitoring;

b. The degree of variation in the reported concentrations of nickel; and

c. Other factors that may affect the concentration of nickel such as changes in groundwater pumping rates, changes in the configuration of the CWS or NTNCWS, or changes in operating procedures, stream flows, or source water characteristics.

6. A decision by the Department to reduce monitoring frequency for nickel at a sampling point shall be in writing and shall explain the grounds for the Department's decision. A CWS or NTNCWS may make a written request for reduced monitoring or the Department may reduce monitoring on its own. A CWS or NTNCWS shall provide documentation of analytical results that supports a request for reduced monitoring. If a CWS or NTNCWS submits new data, or other data relevant to the public water system's appropriate monitoring frequency become available, the Department shall review the data and, if appropriate, revise its determination of monitoring frequency.

7. A new sampling point is not eligible for reduced monitoring until three consecutive monitoring periods from the new sampling point have been completed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Former Section R18-4-402 renumbered to R18-4-401; new Section R18-4-402 renumbered from R18-4-403 and amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.403" level="4" title="Special Monitoring for Turbidity"> <dwc name="turbid" times="7">

Special Monitoring for Turbidity

Effective May 1, 2002, a surface water system serving at least 10,000 people that uses conventional filtration or direct filtration, shall conduct continuous turbidity monitoring on each individual filter.

1. The system shall record the results of individual filter monitoring every 15 minutes.

2. In the event of a failure in the continuous turbidity monitoring equipment, the system shall conduct grab sampling every four hours instead of continuous monitoring. The system shall conduct grab sampling for no more than five working days.

3. For an individual filter that has a measured turbidity level of greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements collected 15 minutes apart, the system shall complete a filter profile within seven days of the event if the system is not able to identify an obvious reason for the abnormal filter performance.

4. For an individual filter that has a measured turbidity level of greater than 0.5 NTU in two consecutive measurements collected 15 minutes apart at or after four hours of continuous filter operation after the filter has been backwashed or otherwise taken offline, the system shall produce a filter profile within seven days of the event if the system is not able to identify an obvious reason for the abnormal filter performance.

5. For an individual filter that has a measured turbidity level of greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements collected 15 minutes apart at anytime in each of three consecutive months, the system shall conduct a self-assessment of the filter within 14 days of the event. A self-assessment of a filter shall contain an assessment of filter performance, development of filter profile, identification and prioritization of factors limiting filter performance, assessment of the applicability of corrections, and preparation of a filter self-assessment report.

6. For an individual filter that has a measured turbidity level of greater than 2.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements collected 15 minutes apart at anytime in each of two consecutive months, the system shall arrange for a comprehensive performance evaluation to be conducted by the Department or a third party approved by the Department no later than 30 days after the event. A system shall make the modifications identified in a comprehensive performance evaluation report, except a system shall not implement a modification identified in a comprehensive performance evaluation if the Department determines that the modification does not improve the performance potential of the system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section repealed; new Section adopted effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5067, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Section R18-4-403 renumbered to R18-4-402 by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.404" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.405" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective December 8, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Article 5 recodified to 18 A.A.C. 5, Article 5 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.501" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-5-501 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.502" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). A.R.S. citation in subsection (D)(4) corrected (Supp. 04-1). Section recodified to R18-5-502 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.503" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-503 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.504" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-504 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.505" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Subsection citation in subsection (B) corrected (Supp. 04-1). Section recodified to R18-5-505 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.506" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-506 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.507" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-507 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.508" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-508 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.509" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Section recodified to R18-5-509 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

Appendix A. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Correction of word "sued" to "used" in subsection (71) (Supp. 96-1). Appendix A amended effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Appendix A repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix B. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Appendix B repealed; new Appendix B renumbered from Appendix C without change effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Appendix B repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix C. Renumbered

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 28, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Appendix C renumbered to Appendix B without change effective June 3, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="CAPACITY DEVELOPMENT REQUIREMENTS FOR A NEW PUBLIC DRINKING WATER SYSTEM">

CAPACITY DEVELOPMENT REQUIREMENTS FOR A NEW PUBLIC DRINKING WATER SYSTEM

<regElement name="R18.4.601" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

This Article applies to new CWSs and new NTNCWSs that begin operation on or after October 1, 1999. This Article does not apply to an existing public water system.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.602" level="4" title="Elementary Business Plan">

Elementary Business Plan

A. To become a new public water system, an owner shall file an elementary business plan for review and approval by the Department, on a form provided by the Department. The elementary business plan shall meet the requirements of and contain all information required in R18-4-603, R18-4-604, and R18-4-605.

B. An owner shall not commence operation of a public water system without Department approval under R18-4-606.

C. If the owner of a new public water system fails to submit a complete application, the Department shall suspend the review process and send a notice of incomplete elementary business plan to the owner. The owner shall submit the missing information to the Department within 60 days of the date of the notice of incomplete elementary business plan. If missing information is not received at the Department within the 60 day time period, the Department shall deny the elementary business plan and return the elementary business plan to the owner.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.603" level="4" title="Technical Capacity Requirements">

Technical Capacity Requirements

An owner of a new public water system shall submit the following to the Department for a determination of technical capacity:

1. Documentation of a drinking water source adequacy minimum of 50 gallons of water per person per day for a period of 100 years, a 100 year water availability designation from the Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR), or a Certificate of Assured Water Supply from ADWR;

2. Documentation that the drinking water served to the public will meet the safe drinking water standards of this Chapter;

3. Documentation that infrastructure, treatment, and storage design meets the requirements of this Chapter, Articles 2, 3, and 5;

4. Documentation that the public water system is operated by a certified operator of the sufficient grade and type; and

5. Documentation that contains at least the following:

a. Day 1 to final build-out technical and engineering needs projections;

b. Proposed water system design specification and proposed uses including commercial and domestic use phases;

c. Information describing the life of the plant;

d. A demonstration that all site-specific components meet nationally recognized standards, such as those established by the American Water Works Association, National Sanitation Foundation, or Underwriter's Laboratory;

e. Manufacturers' specifications on components used in the construction of the water system; and

f. Corrective action plan to address site-specific component replacement or repair protocols based on manufacturer's recommendations or engineer's specification.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.604" level="4" title="Managerial Capacity Requirements">

Managerial Capacity Requirements

An owner of a new public water system shall submit the following information as part of the elementary business plan to the Department for a determination of managerial capacity:

1. A statement of how the public water system is owned, such as by major stockholders, board of directors, sole proprietor cooperative, governmental agency or district, corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability corporation;

2. Name, address, and phone number of owner;

3. Organizational chart of the new public water system;

4. Staff job descriptions and responsibilities;

5. Water system capital improvement plan up to the proposed full system build-out or for a five-year projection, whichever is greater;

6. Certified operator grade and type that will be required by the new public water system, based upon water system design specifications;

7. A statement of the intent to create a CWS or NTNCWS and any intent to transfer ownership of the public water system as part of the construction plan or project phase build-out;

8. Method to ensure provision of information listed in Appendix B, item 4 to subsequent owners; and

9. A disclosure statement signed by the owner setting forth the owner's responsibility to comply with the requirements of this Article and to disclose all information relevant to the operation of the public water system upon transfer of ownership as outlined in Appendix B.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.605" level="4" title="Financial Capacity Requirements">

Financial Capacity Requirements

An owner of a new public water system shall submit information for a five-year financial capacity plan, or a financial capacity plan to the end of the build-out phase, whichever is longer, that demonstrates financial capacity and documents or contains all of the information listed in Appendices C and D.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.606" level="4" title="Review, Approval, Denial Process">

Review, Approval, Denial Process

A. The Department shall review and evaluate technical capacity, based upon the requirements in R18-4-603 and Appendix A.

B. The Department shall review and evaluate managerial capacity, based upon the requirements in R18-4-604 and Appendix A.

C. The Department shall accept a financial determination made by the Arizona Corporation Commission (ACC) as meeting the financial capacity requirements contained in this Article for a new CWS or new NTNCWS under the jurisdiction of the ACC. The applicant shall submit documentation to the Department that verifies ACC approval of the public water system's financial capacity.

D. The Department shall accept a financial determination as set forth in the certificate of assured water supply from the Arizona Department of Water Resources, Active Management Area Program (ADWR) as meeting the financial capacity requirements contained in this Article for a new CWS or new NTNCWS. The owner shall submit documentation to the Department that verifies ADWR approval of its financial capacity.

E. If a new public water system does not fall under financial review jurisdiction of the ACC or ADWR, the new CWS or new NTNCWS shall submit to the Department for review a completed financial capacity portion of the elementary business plan. The Department shall review and evaluate financial capacity, based upon the requirements in R18-4-605 and Appendices A, C, and D.

F. The Department shall notify an owner of a new public water system in writing of a deficiency in the elementary business plan or approve or deny the elementary business plan within 90 days of a receipt of a complete elementary business plan. The owner shall have 60 days from the date of a notice of deficiency to submit to the Department the information necessary to correct the deficiency in the elementary business plan. If the owner of the new public water system fails to send the requested information so that it is received by the Department within 60 days of the date of the notice of deficiency, the Department shall deny the elementary business plan and return it to the owner with a written explanation for the denial and information on the appeal process.

G. If an owner modifies technical or managerial specifications at any time between the approval to construct and the approval of construction, the owner shall notify the Department of the need to modify the elementary business plan in the technical, managerial, and financial capacity documentation. The Department shall revoke approval of the elementary business plan if the owner fails to notify the Department within 30 days of a modification.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.607" level="4" title="Appeals">

Appeals

An owner may appeal denial of an elementary business plan under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092 et seq.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Appendix A

Elementary Business Plan Checklist

<table> Technical Capacity 1. Source Adequacy - Does the documentation demonstrate 50 gallons of water per person per day for 100 years or does the system have an Arizona Department of Water Resources Certificate of assured water supply? 2. Source Adequacy - Does the source approval information demonstrate that the source meets drinking water quality standards or have applicable drinking water technologies been described? 3. Infrastructure - Do the design criteria meet the requirements of R18-4-502 through R18-4-509? 4. Treatment - Do the design criteria include treatment technologies approved by ADEQ in 18 A.A.C. 4, Articles 2, 3, and 5? 5. Does the system have a certified operator of the appropriate grade and type? 6. Does the documentation include an elementary business plan containing technical and engineering needs projections for a time period covering day 1 to final build-out or for a five-year time period, which ever is greater? 7. Does the documentation include the proposed water system design specifications and proposed uses including commercial and domestic use phases? 8. Does the documentation include an elementary business plan containing the information on the components used in the design and construction of the system along with the components life span based upon manufacturer's specifications? 9. Does the documentation include an Operations and Maintenance Plan that contains standards that are nationally recognized on all site-specific components, such as American Water Works Association, National Sanitation Foundation, or Underwriter's Laboratory? 10. Does the documentation include an operation and maintenance plan with the manufacturer's specifications on all components used in the construction of the water system? 11. Does the documentation include an operations and maintenance plan and emergency operation plan to address site-specific component replacement or repair protocols based on manufacturer's recommendations or engineer's specifications? Yes No N/A _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ Managerial Capacity 12. Does the documentation include ownership type? Select all that apply. Sole Proprietor Major Stockholders Board of Directors Cooperative Government Agency or District Corporation Limited Liability Corporation Partnership Other__________________________ 13. Does the documentation include name, address, and telephone number of owner? 14. Does the documentation include an organizational chart of owners, management, and staff with their position or job titles? 15. Does the documentation include staff job descriptions and responsibilities? 16. Does the documentation include a capital improvement plan up to the proposed full system build-out or for a five-year projection, whichever is greater? 17. Does the documentation identify the grade and type of certified operator that will be needed to operate the system according to site-specific components? 18. Does the documentation identify the intent to create a CWS or NTNCWS? 19. Does the documentation transfer the ownership of the water system as part of the build-out phase of the project? 20. Does the documentation identify the policies or mechanisms to ensure that all system-specific technical, managerial, and financial information of the water system is transferred to a new owner? 21. Does the documentation include the owner's signed disclosure statement agreeing to comply with the requirements of these Articles and a general disclosure statement agreeing to disclose all information relevant to the operation of the water system to any transferee of ownership? (See Appendix B). Yes No N/A _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ Financial Capacity 22. Is the system regulated by the Arizona Corporation Commission (ACC) or ADWR? If Yes go to Question 23. If No go to Question 25. 23. Has the system received an approval from the ACC on its fee structure, or ADWR on its financial capacity? 24. Systems regulated by the Arizona Corporation Commission or Department of Water Resources shall provide information required in 22 and 23 for the financial capacity determination review by ADEQ. 25. For New CWSs and NTNCWS NOT regulated by ACC, is all information listed in Appendices C and D included? Yes No N/A _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ </table>

Historical Note

Appendix A adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Appendix B

Drinking Water Capacity Development Statement of Responsibility

<table> Applicant Information: Name: Mailing Address Phone Number: Fax Number: E-mail: Statement Information: 1) Name of Water System:__________________________________________PWS ID#_____________ 2) Ownership Type (Please check all that apply): ____Sole Proprietor ____Major Stockholders ____Board of Directors ____Cooperative ____Government Agency ____District ____Public Entity ____Corporation ____Limited Liability Corporation ____Other (please explain) _________________________________________________________________ 3) Name of Owner(s): (Check one) See below Attach a separate sheet if more space is needed Owner 1: Owner 2: Owner 3: 4) Agencies with rules applicable to the Water System: (Please check all that apply) ____Arizona Department of Environmental Quality ____Arizona Corporation Commission ____Arizona Department of Water Resources ____Arizona Department of Real Estate ____Arizona Department of Commerce ____Arizona Department of Agriculture ____Arizona Department of Corrections ____Office of the Fire Marshal ____Arizona Land Department ____Arizona Department of Revenue ____Arizona Department of Transportation ____Maricopa County Environmental Services ____Pima County Department of Environmental Quality ____Environmental Protection Agency Region IX ____Other(s) please specify___________________________________________________________________ page 1 of 2 </table>

<table> 5) Statement of Intent (Select one): ____It IS the intent of the owner or developer of this NEW CWS or NEW NTNCWS to transfer ownership of the water system. As part of the ownership transfer, it is understood that the owner or developer has a responsibility to disclose and transfer ALL information relevant to the construction and operation of the water system to the new owner. ____It is NOT the intent of the owner to transfer ownership of the NEW CWS or NTNCWS within one year of the completion of construction of the water system. 6) Date owner expects to begin operation: Month_________________ Day _____________ Year______________________ 7) Drinking Water Sources used: (Select all that apply) ____Ground Water ____Purchased Ground Water ____Surface Water ____Purchased Surface Water 8) Table of Contents of Systems Elementary Business Plan (Please check one): ____The Table of Contents of the Elementary Business Plan is attached. ____The Table of Contents of the Elementary Business Plan is summarized below. Summary____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 9) Signature of each current owner: Check if additional signature page is attached.____ I agree to comply with the requirements of 18 A.A.C. 4, Article 6. Print Name:____________________________Signature:__________________________Date:___________ Print Name:____________________________Signature:__________________________Date:___________ Print Name:____________________________Signature:__________________________Date:___________ page 2 of 2 </table>

Historical Note

Appendix B adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Appendix C

Financial Capacity for New CWSs and NTNCWSs

Worksheet 1

Owner:___________________________________________________________________________________

Completed by:_______________________________________________________Date:___________________

<table> 5-Year Financial Projection Year 1 Projection Year 2 Projection Year 3 Projection Year 4 Projection Year 5 Projection Enter Year: 1. Beginning Cash on Hand a. Unmetered Water Revenue b. Metered Water Revenue c. Other Water Revenue d. Total Water Revenues (1a thru 1c) e. Connection Fees f. Interest and Dividend Income g. Other Income h. Total Cash Revenues (1d thru 1g) i. Additional Revenue Needed j. Loans, Grants or other Cash Injection (please specify) 2. Total Cash Balance (1h to 1j) 3. Total Cash Available (1+2) 4. Operating Expenses a. Salaries and wages b. Employee Pensions and Benefits c. Utilities d. Chemicals e. Materials and Supplies f. Laboratory g. Contractual Services h. Insurance i. Miscellaneous j. Total Operations and Maintenance Expenses (4a thru 4i) k. Replacement Expenditures l. Total Operations and Maintenance expenditures plus Replacement expenditures (4j+4k) m. Loan Principal/Capital Lease Payments n. Loan Interest Payments o. Capital Purchases (specify): 5. Total Cash Paid Out (4m thru 4o) 6. Ending Cash Position (3 - 5) 7. Number of Customer Accounts 8. Average Annual User Charge per account (1d/7) 9. Coverage Ratio (1h-4l)/(4m+4n) 10. Operating Ratio (1d/4l) 11. End of Year Operating Cash (6 - 12) 12. End of Year Reserves a. Operating Reserves b. Debt Service Reserve c. Capital Improvement Reserve d. Replacement Reserve e. Other Total Reserves (12a thru 12e) </table>

Appendix C (continued)

Arizona Financial Capacity For New

CWSs and NTNCWSs

Definitions for Worksheet 1

<table> 5-Year Financial Projection Year 1 Projection Year 2 Projection Year 3 Projection Year 4 Projection Year 5 Projection </table>

<table> 1. Beginning Cash on Hand For the current year budget, use the actual cash balance. For all other years, cash on hand should equal item #12 from the previous period. a) Unmetered Water Revenue All cash received or estimated for water supplied to residential, commercial, industrial and public customers where the customer charge is not based on quantity, but is based on other criteria such as diameter of service pipe, room, or foot of frontage. b) Metered Water Revenue All cash received or estimated for water supplied to residential, commercial, industrial, and public customers where the charge is based on quantity of water delivered. c) Other water revenues Other cash received or estimated from sales of water, sales for irrigation, sales for resale, inter-municipal sales, or ad valorem taxes. d) Total Water Revenues Total 1(a) thru 1(c) e) Connection Fee All cash received or estimated for connection of customer service during the year. f) Interest and Dividend Income All cash received or estimated on interest income from securities, loans, notes, and similar instruments, whether the securities are carried as investments or included in sinking or reserve accounts. g) Other income Other revenues collected or estimated during the period (such as disconnection or change in service fees, profit on materials billed to customers, servicing of customer lines, late payment fees, rents, sales of assets, or ad valorem taxes (infrastructure portion). h) Total Cash Revenues Add 1(d) thru 1(g) i) Additional Revenues Needed Additional cash needed to cover cash needs. j) Loans, Grants or other Cash Injections Includes loans or grants from financial institutions, inter-municipal loans, state or federal sources. 2. Total Cash Balance Add items 1(h) thru 1(j) 3. Total Cash Available Add items 1 and 2 4. Operating Expenses Use actual amounts paid when completing the prior year. Estimate the amounts for projected years based on prior year amounts, trends, and other known variables. a) Salaries and wages Cash expenditures made or estimated for salaries, bonuses, and other considerations for work related to the operation and maintenance of the facility, including administration and compensation for officers and directors. b) Employee Pensions and Benefits Paid vacations, paid sick leave, health insurance, unemployment insurance, pension plan, and other similar liabilities. c) Utilities Amounts paid or estimated for all fuel or electrical power. d) Chemicals Amounts paid or estimated for chemicals used in treatment and distribution. e) Materials and Supplies Amounts paid or estimated for materials and supplies used for operation and maintenance of the new public water system other than those under contractual services. f) Laboratory Amounts paid or estimated for laboratory and associated services. g) Contractual Services Amounts paid or estimated for outside engineering, accounting, legal, managerial, and other services. h) Insurance Amounts paid or estimated for vehicle, liability, worker's compensation, and other insurance associated with the public water system. i) Miscellaneous Amounts paid or estimated for all expenses not included elsewhere (such as permit fees, training, and certification fees). j) Total operation and maintenance expenditures Add amounts in lines 4(a) thru 4(i). k) Replacement expenditures Amounts paid or estimated for replacement of equipment to maintain system integrity (capital improvement plan). l) Total Operations and Maintenance expenditures plus Replacement expenditures Add amounts in 4(j) and 4(k) m) Loan Principal, Capital Lease or Loan payment Include cash payments made or estimated for principal and interest on all loans, including vehicle loans and equipment on time payments, and capital lease payments. n) Loan Interest payments Include cash payments made or estimated for interest on all loans, including vehicle loans, and equipment on time payments, and capital lease payments. o) Capital Purchases Amount of cash outlays or estimates for items such as equipment, building, or vehicle purchases and leasehold improvements that were not a part of the initial design of the water system. 5) Total Cash Paid Out Add amounts in 4(m) thru 4(o) 6) Total Cash Available Minus Expenditures Calculation Take Amount in 1 and subtract Amount in 5. If this amount is positive, there is operating cash left over after all calculated expenditure obligations have been met. If the number is negative, there are more expenses than there are funds available to pay for the expenses to operate the water system. 7) Number of Customer Accounts Use most recent system data or expected increases. 8) Average User Charge per Customer Take amount listed in 1(d) and divide it by amount listed in 7. 9) Coverage Ratio Take amount in 1(h) and subtract the amount in 4(l). Then divide that amount with the sum of 4(m) + 4(n). The equation looks like this: [1(h) - 4(l)] ) [4(m) + 4(n)] and measures the sufficiency of net operating profit to cover the debt service requirements of the system. A bond covenant might require the debt service to meet or exceed certain limits. 10) Operating Ratio Take amount in 1(d) and divide it by the amount in 4(l). The equation looks like this: 1(d)) 4(l). This figure measures whether operating revenues are sufficient to cover operation, maintenance, replacement expenses. An operating ratio of 1:0 is the minimum for a self-supporting facility. If there are debt service requirements, the operating ratio would have to be higher. 11) End of Year Operating Cash All non-reserved cash. Add amounts from 6 thru 12. 12) End of Year Reserves Do not include depreciation as a reserve unless there is actually a designated depreciation reserve containing cash set aside for future expansion. a) Operating Cash Reserve Funds set aside to meet cash flow, operating, and seasonal fluctuations. b) Debt Service Reserve Funds specifically set aside to retire debt as it is scheduled. c) Capital Improvement Reserve Funds specifically set aside to meet long-term objectives for a major facility expansion, improvement, or the construction of a new facility. d) Replacement Reserves Funds specifically set aside for the future replacement of equipment needed to maintain the integrity of the facility over the useful life of the equipment. e) Total End of Year Reserves Add amounts 12 (a) thru 12 (d). </table>

Historical Note

Appendix C adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

Appendix D

Water System Financial Viability Tests

Test 1: Will the proposed water system collect sufficient revenues to meet all of its projected expenses?

Measurements:

a. Total Revenues - Total Expenses = Net Income &gt; 0

b. Total Revenues - One-Time Revenues - Interest Income - Other Income = Operating Revenues

c. Total Expenses - One-Time Expenditures - Debt Service - Capital Outlays = Operating Expenditures

d. Operating Revenues - Operating Expenses = Net Revenues &gt; 0

e. Operating Ratio = Operating Expenses &#8804; 1 Operating Revenues

Test 2: Will the proposed water system generate reserves?

The following measurements shall be &gt; 0 at the time submitted:

a. Operating Cash Reserve = $___________

b. Replacement Reserve = $____________

c. Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

Test 3: Are the proposed rates reasonable compared to the median household income of the area to be served?

The following measurement shall be:

Average Annual Rates &lt; Median Household Income* x 2.5%.

*The sources of median household income data include the most recent United States Census Bureau (USCB) data collected by the Department or generated by an impartial third party experienced in collecting income data and supplied to the Department by the applicant seeking viability determinations. Acceptable sources of income data, other than USCB data include feasibility studies, engineering reports, market studies, income surveys, or another source or collection methodology approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Appendix D adopted by final rulemaking effective September 23, 1999; the A.A.R. citation was not available at the time of publication and will appear in Supp. 99-4 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4456, effective September 23, 1999; Test 1(e) amended to correct a manifest clerical error (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="CONSUMER CONFIDENCE REPORTS">

CONSUMER CONFIDENCE REPORTS

<regElement name="R18.4.701" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

This Article applies to CWSs and establishes the minimum requirements for the content of the annual consumer confidence report (CCR) that a CWS shall deliver to its customers. The CWS shall provide accurate and understandable information in the CCR on the quality of the water delivered by the CWS and characterize the risks, if any, from exposure to contaminants detected in the drinking water.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.702" level="4" title="General Requirements">

General Requirements

A. A CWS shall deliver a CCR to each customer annually by July 1.

B. The CCR shall contain water quality data from the previous calendar year.

C. A new CWS shall deliver its first CCR by July 1 of the year after its first full calendar year in operation.

D. A CWS that sells water to another CWS shall deliver the applicable information required in this Article to the purchaser CWS annually by April 1, or on a date mutually agreed upon by the seller and the purchaser, and specifically included in a contract between the parties.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

<regElement name="R18.4.703" level="4" title="Content of Consumer Confidence Reports"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="6">

Content of Consumer Confidence Reports

A. A CWS shall provide to its customers an annual CCR that contains the following information on the source of the water delivered:

1. The type of the water (for example, surface water, ground water); and

2. The name, if any, and location of the body of water.

B. If a source water assessment has been completed, the CCR shall notify consumers of the availability of this information and how to obtain it. If a CWS has received a source water assessment from the Department, the CCR shall contain a brief summary of the assessment findings and the CWS's susceptibility to potential origins of contamination, using language provided by the Department or written by the CWS in consultation with the Department.

C. Each CCR shall contain the following definitions:

1. "Maximum Contaminant Level" or "MCL" means the highest level of a contaminant that is allowed in drinking water. MCLs are set as close to the MCLGs as feasible using the best available treatment technology;

2. "Maximum Contaminant Level Goal" or "MCLG" means the level of a contaminant in drinking water below which there is no known or expected risk to health. MCLGs allow for a margin of safety,

3. "Maximum residual disinfectant level" or "MRDL" means the highest level of a disinfectant allowed in drinking water. There is convincing evidence that addition of a disinfectant is necessary for control of microbial contaminants,

4. "Maximum residual disinfectant level goal" or "MRDLG" means the level of a drinking water disinfectant below which there is no known or expected risk to health. MRDLGs do not reflect the benefits of the use of disinfectants to control microbial contaminants.

D. A CCR for a CWS operating under a variance or an exemption issued by the Department or EPA shall contain the following definition:

"Variance" or "exemption" means permission from the Department or the EPA not to meet a MCL or a treatment technique under certain conditions.

E. A CCR that contains data on a contaminant for which the Department has set a treatment technique or an action level shall contain one or both of the following definitions, as applicable:

1. "Treatment technique" means a required process to reduce the level of a contaminant in drinking water.

2. "Action level" means the concentration of a contaminant that, if exceeded, triggers treatment or other requirements that a community water system shall follow.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.704" level="4" title="Information on Detected Contaminants"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="2"><dwc name="coliform" times="3"><dwc name="turbid" times="4"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect by-product" times="1"><dwc name="bromat" times="1"><dwc name="chlorit" times="1"><dwc name="haloacet acid" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1"><dwc name="alachlor" times="1">

Information on Detected Contaminants

A. A CCR shall contain information on the following detected contaminants:

1. Contaminants subject to a MCL, MRDL, action level, or treatment technique (regulated contaminants), listed in Appendix A of Article 1; and

2. Contaminants listed in Table 1.

B. The CWS shall display in one table, or several adjacent tables, data relating to the detected contaminants in subsection (A). If the CWS includes voluntary monitoring data, those data shall be listed in a table separate from the table of detected contaminants. For detected regulated contaminants, the table shall contain:

1. The MCL for that contaminant;

2. The MCLG for that contaminant expressed in the same units as the MCL;

3. If there is no MCL for a detected contaminant, the table shall indicate that there is a treatment technique, or specify the action level applicable to that contaminant, and the CCR shall include the definitions for "treatment technique" or "action level," as appropriate, specified in R18-4-703(E)(1) and (E)(2);

4. For contaminants subject to a MCL, except turbidity and total coliforms, the highest monitoring result used to determine compliance and the range of monitoring results expressed in the same units as the MCL, as follows:

a. When compliance with the MCL is determined annually or less frequently, the highest monitoring result at any sampling point and the range of detected monitoring results.

b. When compliance with the MCL is determined by calculating a running annual average of all monitoring results taken at a sampling point, the highest average of the monitoring results and the range of all detected monitoring results.

c. When compliance with the MCL is determined on a system-wide basis by calculating a running annual average of all monitoring results at all sampling points, the average and range of detected monitoring results.

5. For turbidity, the highest single measurement and lowest monthly percentage of samples meeting turbidity limits specified in R18-4-302 for the filtration technology being used. The CCR shall include an explanation of the reasons for measuring turbidity;

6. For lead and copper, the 90th percentile value of the most recent sampling period and the number of sampling sites that exceed the action level;

7. For total coliform:

a. The highest number of positive samples collected each month for a CWS that collects fewer than 40 samples per month; or

b. The highest percentage of positive samples collected each month for a CWS that collects at least 40 samples per month.

8. For fecal coliform, the total number of positive samples; and

9. The likely source of detected contaminants. Specific information regarding contaminants may be available in sanitary surveys and source water assessments, and shall be used when available to the CWS. If the CWS lacks specific information on the likely source of contamination, the CCR shall include one or more of the typical origins for that contaminant listed in Appendix A that are most applicable to the CWS.

C. The table shall clearly identify any data indicating a violation of a MCL, MRDL, or treatment technique.

D. The CWS shall derive information in the CCR on detected contaminants from data collected to comply with monitoring and analytical requirements of this Chapter for the previous year. The table for a CWS that monitors less often than once a year for regulated contaminants under this Chapter shall contain the date and results of the most recent sampling. The CCR shall contain a brief statement indicating that the data presented in the CCR are from the most recent testing done within the last five years in accordance with this Chapter.

E. For a detected contaminant listed in Table 1, the CCR table shall contain the average and range at which the contaminant was detected. The CCR may include a brief explanation of the reasons for monitoring for these contaminants.

F. If the CWS distributes water to its customers from multiple hydraulically independent distribution systems that are fed by different raw water sources, the table shall contain a separate column for each service area and the CCR shall identify each separate distribution system. Alternatively, a CWS may produce separate CCRs tailored to include data for each service area. Multiple points-of-entry into a distribution system are not necessarily considered hydraulically independent.

Table 1. EPA Required Monitoring for Unregulated Contaminants

<table> A CWS serving 100,000 or more persons that is required to monitor for the following disinfection by-products and microbial contaminants under 40 CFR 141.142 and 141.143, shall include the results of the most recent sampling in the CCR, and shall report the average and range of results for a contaminant that is detected. Results shall be included in a CCR for five years from the date of the last sample or until any of the detected contaminants becomes regulated and subject to routine monitoring requirements under this Chapter, whichever comes first. Haloacetic Acids* Haloacetilenitrile Haloketones Chlorite* Chloral Hydrate Total Organic Halides Bromate* Chloropicrin Aldehydes Cyanogen Chloride Chlorate Total Culturable Viruses *MCLs and monitoring requirements become effective May 1, 2002 for a CWS that use surface water and serves more than 10,000 people. A CWS required to monitor for the following contaminants under 40 CFR 141.40 shall include the results of the most recent sampling and shall report the average and range of results for the contaminant that was detected. Results from at least the previous year shall be included. Assessment Monitoring 2,4-dinitrotoluene 2,6-dinitrotoluene Acetochlor DCPA Mono-acid Degradate DCPA Di-acid Degradate 4,4'-DDE EPTC Molinate MTBE Nitrobenzene Perchlorate Terbacil Screening Survey 1,2-diphenylhydrazine 2-methyl-phenol 2,4-dichlorophenol 2,4-dinitrophenol 2,4,6-trichlorophenol Diazinon Disulfoton Diuron Fonofos Linuron Low-level Nitrobenzene Prometon Terbufos Alachlor Esa Polonium-210 </table>

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).Clarifying words "of Article 1" added to subsection (A)(1) (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.705" level="4" title="Information on Cryptosporidium and Radon"> <dwc name="cryptosporidium" times="3">

Information on Cryptosporidium and Radon

A. If a CWS has performed monitoring for Cryptosporidium that indicates that Cryptosporidium may be present in the source water or the finished water, the CCR shall contain:

1. A summary of the results of the monitoring, and

2. An explanation of the significance of the results.

B. If a CWS has performed any monitoring for radon that indicates that radon might be present in the finished water, the CCR shall contain:

1. The results of the monitoring, and

2. An explanation of the significance of the results.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.706" level="4" title="Information on Violations"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="3"><dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1"><dwc name="acrylamid" times="1">

Information on Violations

A CCR shall contain a clear, understandable explanation of any violation that occurred during the year covered by the CCR, the length of the violation, an explanation of any potential adverse health effects, the health effects language from Article 1, Appendix A, and the steps the CWS has taken to correct a violation of any of the following:

1. A MCL, MRDL, treatment technique, or action level;

2. Monitoring and reporting of regulated and unregulated compliance data;

3. Filtration and disinfection. For a CWS that has failed to install adequate filtration or disinfection equipment or processes, or has had a failure of filtration or disinfection equipment or processes, that constitutes a violation, the CCR shall contain the following language as part of the explanation of potential adverse health effects:

"Inadequately treated water may contain disease-causing organisms. These organisms include bacteria, viruses, and parasites that can cause symptoms such as nausea, cramps, diarrhea, and associated headaches.";

4. Lead and copper. For a CWS that failed to take one or more actions specified in R18-4-307 through R18-4-308 or R18-4-311 through R18-4-315;

5. Treatment techniques for Acrylamide and Epichlorohydrin. For a CWS that violated the requirements of R18-4-317;

6. Recordkeeping of compliance data; or

7. Violation of the terms of a variance, an exemption, or an administrative or judicial order.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.707" level="4" title="Variances and Exemptions">

Variances and Exemptions

If a CWS is operating under the terms of a variance or an exemption issued by the Department or EPA, the CCR shall contain:

1. An explanation of the reasons for the variance or exemption;

2. The date on which the variance or exemption was issued;

3. A brief status report on the steps the CWS is taking to install a method of treatment, find alternative sources of water, or otherwise comply with the terms and schedules of the variance or exemption; and

4. A notice of any opportunity for public input in the review, or renewal, of the variance or exemption.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.708" level="4" title="Additional Information"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="virus" times="1"><dwc name="inorgan contamin" times="1"><dwc name="radioact" times="2"><dwc name="radioact contamin" times="1">

Additional Information

A. A CCR shall contain a brief explanation regarding contaminants that may reasonably be expected to be found in drinking water. This explanation shall contain, at a minimum, the language of subsections (B) through (E). A CWS may include additional information.

B. The sources of drinking water include rivers, lakes, streams, ponds, reservoirs, springs, and wells. As water travels over the surface of the land or through the ground, it dissolves naturally-occurring minerals and, in some cases, radioactive material, and can pick up substances resulting from the presence of animals or from human activity.

C. Contaminants that may be present in source water include the following:

1. Microbial contaminants, such as viruses and bacteria, that may be from sewage treatment plants, septic systems, agricultural livestock operations, or wildlife;

2. Inorganic contaminants, such as salts and metals, that can be naturally occurring or result from urban storm water runoff, industrial or domestic wastewater discharges, oil and gas production, mining, or farming;

3. Pesticides and herbicides, that may come from a variety of sources such as agriculture, urban storm water runoff, and residential uses;

4. Organic chemical contaminants, including synthetic and volatile organic chemicals, that are by-products of industrial processes and petroleum production, and can also come from gas stations, urban storm water runoff, and septic systems; and

5. Radioactive contaminants, that can be naturally-occurring or can be the result of oil and gas production and mining activities.

D. To ensure that tap water is safe to drink, the United States Environmental Protection Agency prescribes regulations that limit the amount of certain contaminants in water provided by public water systems. The United States Food and Drug Administration regulations establish limits for contaminants in bottled water.

E. Drinking water, including bottled water, may reasonably be expected to contain at least small amounts of some contaminants. The presence of contaminants does not necessarily indicate that water poses a health risk. More information about contaminants in tap water and potential health effects can be obtained by calling the Environmental Protection Agency's Safe Drinking Water Hotline (800-426-4791). Information on bottled water can be obtained from the United States Food and Drug Administration.

F. The CCR shall contain the telephone number of the owner, operator, or designee of the CWS as a source of additional information concerning the CCR.

G. In communities with a large proportion of non-English speaking residents, as determined by the CWS after consultation with the Department, the CCR shall contain information in the appropriate language regarding the importance of the CCR or contain a telephone number or address where these residents may contact the CWS to obtain a translated copy of the CCR or assistance in the appropriate language.

H. The CCR shall contain information about the time and place of regularly scheduled meetings or other opportunities for public participation in decisions that may affect the quality of the water.

I. The CWS may include additional information necessary for public education consistent with, and not detracting from, the purpose of the CCR.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.4.709" level="4" title="Additional Health Information."> <dwc name="cryptosporidium" times="1"><dwc name="arsen" times="9"><dwc name="lead" times="5"><dwc name="nitrat" times="5">

Additional Health Information.

A. A CCR shall prominently display the following language:

"Some people may be more vulnerable to contaminants in drinking water than the general population. Immuno-compromised persons such as persons with cancer undergoing chemotherapy, persons who have undergone organ transplants, persons with HIV, AIDS, or other immune system disorders, some elderly, and infants can be particularly at risk from infections. These people should seek advice about drinking water from their health care providers. United States Environmental Protection Agency and Centers for Disease Control guidelines on appropriate means to lessen the risk of infection by Cryptosporidium and other microbial contaminants are available from the Environmental Protection Agency's Safe Drinking Water Hotline (800-426-4791)."

B. A CWS that detects arsenic above 0.005 mg/L, and up to and including 0.01 mg/L, shall include in its CCR a short informational statement about arsenic. The CWS may create its own informational statement, in consultation with the Department, or the CWS may use the following language:

"While your drinking water meets EPA's standard for arsenic, it does contain low levels of arsenic. EPA's standard balances the current understanding of arsenic's possible health effects against the costs of removing arsenic from drinking water. EPA continues to research the health effects of low levels of arsenic, which is a mineral known to cause cancer in humans at high concentrations and is linked to other health effects such as skin damage and circulatory problems."

C. A CWS that detects arsenic above 0.01 mg/L, and up to and including 0.05 mg/L, shall include in its CCR the arsenic health effects language in Appendix A of Article 1.

D. A CWS that detects nitrate at levels greater than 5 mg/L but less than the MCL shall include a short informational statement about the impacts of nitrate on children. The CWS may create its own informational statement, in consultation with the Department, or the CWS may use the following language:

"Nitrate in drinking water at levels above 10 ppm is a health risk for infants of less than six months of age. High nitrate levels in drinking water can cause blue baby syndrome. Nitrate levels may rise quickly for short periods of time because of rainfall or agricultural activity. If you are caring for an infant you should ask advice from your health care provider."

E. A CWS that detects lead above the action level in more than 5% but less than or equal to 10% of homes sampled shall include a short informational statement about the special impact of lead on children. The CWS may create its own informational statement, in consultation with the Department, or the CWS may use the following language:

"Infants and young children are typically more vulnerable to lead in drinking water than the general population. It is possible that lead levels at your home may be higher than at other homes in the community as a result of materials used in your home's plumbing. If you are concerned about elevated lead levels in your home's water, you may wish to have your water tested and to flush your tap for 30 seconds to two minutes before using tap water. Additional information is available from the Environmental Protection Agency's Safe Drinking Water Hotline (800-426-4791)."

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.4.710" level="4" title="Consumer Confidence Report Delivery and Recordkeeping">

Consumer Confidence Report Delivery and Recordkeeping

A. A CWS shall mail or otherwise directly deliver one copy of the CCR to each customer, except as provided in subsection (H) by July 1 annually.

B. A CWS shall make a good faith effort to notify its consumers who do not get water bills of the availability of the CCR. A good faith effort to notify consumers would include a use of methods appropriate to the particular CWS such as:

1. Posting the CCR on the Internet,

2. Mailing to postal patrons in metropolitan areas,

3. Advertising the availability of the CCR in the news media,

4. Publishing in a local newspaper;,

5. Posting in public places such as cafeterias or lunch rooms of public buildings;

6. Delivering multiple copies for distribution by single-biller customers such as apartment buildings or large private employers, or

7. Delivering to community organizations.

C. A CWS shall deliver a copy of the CCR to the Department not later than the date the CWS delivers the CCR to its customers. A CWS that complies with the requirements of subsection (H) shall deliver a copy of the CCR to the Department by July 1 annually. Within three months of delivery of the CCR to a Department, a CWS shall send a certification to the Department that verifies that the CCR has been distributed to the customers of the CWS, or that the CWS has complied with the requirements of subsection (H). The certification shall also verify that the information in the CCR is correct and consistent with the compliance monitoring data previously submitted to the Department.

D. A CWS that sells water to another CWS shall send written verification to the Department that the seller CWS has complied with the requirements of R18-4-702(D). The written verification shall be sent to the Department within three months of compliance with R18-4-702(D).

E. Each CWS shall make its CCR available to members of the public upon request.

F. Each CWS that serves 100,000 or more persons shall post its current year's CCR to a publicly accessible site on the Internet.

G. Each CWS shall retain a copy of its CCR for at least three years.

H. Mailing waiver. A CWS that serves fewer than 10,000 people may perform the following instead of the requirements of subsection (A):

1. For a CWS that serves, more than 500, but fewer than 10,000 people:

a. Inform customers that the CWS will not provide copies of the CCR by mail or other direct delivery method,

b. Publish the entire CCR annually in at least one local newspaper or other news medium serving areas in which the CWS's customers are located, and

c. Send written notification to the Department that the CWS intends to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

2. For a CWS that serves 500 or fewer people:

a. Inform customers that the CWS will not provide copies of the CCR by mail or other direct delivery method,

b. Provide notice annually that the CCR is available upon request, and

c. Send written notification to the Department that the CWS intends to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2).

Appendix A. Repealed

Historical Note

New Appendix adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Appendix A repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

Appendix B. Repealed

Historical Note

New Appendix adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2019, effective May 10, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Former Appendix B renumbered to Appendix C; new Appendix B made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Appendix B repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

Appendix C. Repealed

Historical Note

New Appendix C renumbered from Appendix B by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 973, effective February 19, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Appendix C repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3046, effective May 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE">

TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE

<regElement name="R18.4.801" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The terms in this Article have the following meanings, unless otherwise specified:

"Capacity" means a public water system's ability to provide safe drinking water.

"Capacity development" means improving public water system technical, managerial, and financial components to improve a system's ability to provide safe drinking water.

"Capacity development report" means an annual report adopted by the Department that describes progress made in improving technical, managerial, or financial capacity of public water systems in Arizona.

"Master priority list" means a list created by the Department that ranks public water systems according to the criteria in R18-4-803.

"Monitoring assistance program" means the program administered by the Department to assist public water systems with mandatory monitoring for contaminants, authorized by A.R.S. &#167; 49-360 and Article 2 of this Chapter.

"Operational assistance" means professional or financial technical assistance provided to a public water system to improve the technical, managerial, or financial operations of the public water system.

"System evaluation assistance" means technical assistance provided to assess the status of the public water system's technical, managerial, and financial components, with emphasis on infrastructure status.

"Technical assistance" means either operational assistance, system evaluation assistance, or both.

"Water Infrastructure Finance Authority" means the entity created under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1201 et seq. to provide financial assistance to political subdivisions, Indian tribes, and eligible drinking water facilities for constructing, acquiring, or improving wastewater treatment facilities, drinking water facilities, nonpoint source projects, and other related water quality facilities and projects.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 262, effective December 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.802" level="4" title="Technical Assistance Plan">

Technical Assistance Plan

The Department shall include a technical assistance plan in the capacity development report it publishes annually. The technical assistance plan shall include a description of the types of technical assistance the Department expects to provide, the sources and uses of technical assistance, and a master priority list.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 262, effective December 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.803" level="4" title="Master Priority List">

Master Priority List

A. Each year the Department shall develop a master priority list that ranks public water systems according to their need for technical assistance.

B. The Department shall rank public water systems on the master priority list based on consideration of the following criteria:

1. Size of population served,

2. Type of public water system,

3. Type of ownership,

4. Water source (surface water or ground water),

5. Participation in the monitoring assistance program,

6. History of major monitoring or reporting deficiencies,

7. History of acute or non-acute MCL violations,

8. History of operation or maintenance violations,

9. Lack of a certified operator,

10. Prior assistance from the Department or the Water Infrastructure Finance Authority within the last five years, and

11. Any or other measurable objective criteria related to the technical, managerial, or financial capacity of a public water system.

C. If all other criteria are equal, the Department shall assign priority to public water systems with the most operation or maintenance violations.

D. The Department shall publish the master priority list annually in the Arizona Administrative Register and hold an oral proceeding to obtain public comment on the master priority list.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 262, effective December 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.4.804" level="4" title="Technical Assistance Awards">

Technical Assistance Awards

A. The Department shall award technical assistance to the public water systems with the highest ranking on the master priority list, as funding permits.

B. The Department may provide technical assistance directly, or the Department may employ a consultant to provide the assistance.

C. If a public water system refuses technical assistance offered by the Department, or the Department determines that a public water system is not able to proceed with technical assistance within the next fiscal year, the Department shall bypass the public water system on the master priority list. The Department shall replace a bypassed public water system with the public water system next in line to receive technical assistance in accordance with the priority criteria in R18-4-803(B).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 262, effective December 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 5" level="2" title="ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEWS AND CERTIFICATION">

ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEWS AND CERTIFICATION

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="CLASSIFICATION OF TREATMENT PLANTS AND CERTIFICATION OF OPERATORS">

CLASSIFICATION OF TREATMENT PLANTS AND CERTIFICATION OF OPERATORS

<regElement name="R18.5.101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The terms in this Article have the following meanings:

"Certified operator" or "operator" means an individual who holds a current certificate issued by the Department in the field of water or wastewater treatment, water distribution, or wastewater collection, and is responsible for the daily onsite operation or the remote operation from a central location of all or a part of a facility.

"Collection system" means a pipeline or conduit, a pumping station, a force main, or any other device or appurtenance used to collect and conduct wastewater to a central point for treatment and disposal.

"Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality or its designated representative.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality or the Director's designated representative.

"Direct responsible charge" means day-to-day decision making responsibility for a facility or a major portion of a facility.

"Distribution system" means a pipeline, appurtenance, or device of a public water system that conducts water from a water source or treatment plant to consumers for domestic or potable use.

"Facility" means a water treatment plant, wastewater treatment plant, distribution system, or collection system.

"Industrial waste" means the liquid, gaseous, or solid waste produced at an industrial operation.

"Onsite operator" means an operator who visits a facility at least daily to ensure that it is operating properly.

"Onsite representative" means a person located at a facility who monitors the daily operation at the facility and maintains contact with the remote operator regarding the facility.

"Operator" has the same meaning as certified operator, defined in this Section.

"PDH" means professional development hour.

"Population equivalent" means the population that would contribute an equal amount of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) computed on the basis of 0.17 pounds of five-day, 20-degree centigrade BOD per capita per day.

"Professional development hour" means one hour of participation in an organized educational activity related to engineering, biological or chemical sciences, a closely related technical or scientific discipline, or operations management.

"Public water system" has the same meaning prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-352.

"Qualifying discipline" means engineering, biology, chemistry, or a closely related technical or scientific discipline.

"Qualifying experience" means experience, skill, or knowledge obtained through prior employment that is applicable to the technical or operational control of all or part of a facility.

"Remote operator" means an operator who is not an onsite operator.

"Validated examination" means an examination that is approved by the Department after being reviewed to ensure that the examination is based on the class and grade of a system or facility.

"Wastewater" means sewage, industrial waste, and all other waterborne waste that may pollute any lands or waters of the state.

"Wastewater treatment plant" means a process, device, or structure used to treat or stabilize wastewater or industrial waste and dispose of the effluent.

"Water treatment plant" means a process, device, or structure used to improve the physical, chemical, or biological quality of the water in a public water system.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-504 repealed, new Section R9-20-504 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-504 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-501, then renumbered as Section R18-4-101 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-101 recodified from R18-4-101 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5079, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.102" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. The rules in this Article apply to owners and operators of facilities in Arizona.

B. The following facilities are exempt from the requirements of this Article:

1. A public water system that meets the nonapplicability criteria in R18-4-102.

2. A septic tank or collection system that discharges to a septic tank.

3. A collection system that serves 2,500 or fewer persons and discharges into a facility that is operated by a certified operator.

4. A collection system that serves a nonresident population and discharges into a collection system operated by a certified operator.

5. An irrigation system, an industrial water facility, or a similar facility in which water is not used for domestic or drinking purposes.

6. An irrigation or industrial wastewater facility used to treat, recycle, or impound industrial or agricultural wastes within the boundaries of the industrial or agricultural property.

7. An industrial waste pretreatment facility in which treated wastewater is released to a collection system or wastewater treatment plant that is regulated by this Article.

8. A facility for treating industrial wastes that are not treatable by biological means.

9. A facility used to impound surface water before the water is conducted to a water treatment plant.

10. A wastewater treatment device that serves a home.

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-502 and renumbered as Section R18-4-102 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-102 recodified from R18-4-102 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5079, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.103" level="4" title="Certification Committee">

Certification Committee

A. Upon the effective date of this rule, the Director shall establish a certification committee to make recommendations and to provide the Department with technical advice and assistance related to this Article when requested.

B. The certification committee shall consist of 11 members as follows:

1. One employee of the Department;

2. One currently employed wastewater treatment plant operator with Grade 4 certification;

3. One currently employed water treatment plant operator with Grade 4 certification;

4. One currently employed wastewater collection system operator with Grade 4 certification;

5. One currently employed water distribution system operator with Grade 4 certification;

6. One faculty member teaching sanitary sciences at an Arizona university or community college;

7. One professional engineer, registered and residing in Arizona, engaged in consulting in the field of sanitary engineering;

8. One elected or appointed municipal official;

9. One representative of an investor-owned water or wastewater facility;

10. One representative of a small public water system; and

11. One currently employed remote operator representative.

C. The Director shall appoint each certification committee member.

D. The certification committee shall meet at least twice a year. At the first meeting of each calendar year, the certification committee shall select, from its membership, a chairperson and other officers as necessary. The Department's certification committee member is the executive secretary, who is responsible for keeping records of all meetings.

E. The term of a certification committee member is three years.

F. A meeting quorum consists of the chairperson or the chairperson's designated representative, the executive secretary or the executive secretary's designated representative, and three other members of the committee.

G. In the event of a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal for cause, the Director shall appoint a successor for the unexpired term.

H. A certification committee member may be reappointed, but a member shall not serve more than three consecutive terms.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-505 repealed, new Section R9-20-505 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-505 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-503, then renumbered as Section R18-4-103 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-103 recodified from R18-4-103 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.104" level="4" title="General Requirements">

General Requirements

A. A facility owner shall ensure that at all times:

1. Only a certified operator can make a decision about process control or system integrity regarding water quality or water quantity that affects public health; however, an administrator who is not a certified operator can make a planning decision regarding water quality or water quantity as long as the decision is not a direct operational process control or system integrity decision that affects public health.

2. The operator in direct responsible charge of the facility is certified for the class of facility at which the operator works, and at or above the grade of the facility for which the operator works;

3. An operator who is in direct responsible charge of more than one facility is certified at or above the grade of the facility with the highest grade;

4. An operator who replaces the operator in direct responsible charge does not begin operation of the facility before being certified for the applicable class and grade of the facility;

5. In the absence of the operator in direct responsible charge, the operator in charge of the facility is certified for the applicable class of facility and at a grade no lower than one grade below the grade of the facility; and

6. The names of all current operators are on file with the Department.

B. If the owner of a facility replaces an operator in direct responsible charge with another operator, the facility owner shall notify the Department in writing within ten days of the replacement.

C. The operator shall notify the Department in writing within ten days of the date the operator either ceases operation of a facility or commences operation of another facility.

D. A facility owner shall ensure that an operator holding certification in a particular class and grade only operates a facility of the same class and the same or lower grade for which the operator is certified.

E. A facility owner shall ensure that a Grade 3 or Grade 4 facility has an onsite operator. An operator holding certification in a particular class and grade may operate one or more Grade 1 or Grade 2 facilities as a remote operator if the facility owner ensures that the following requirements are met:

1. The remote operator is certified at or above the class and grade of each facility operated by the remote operator.

2. There is an onsite representative on the premises of each Grade 1 or Grade 2 facility, except for a Grade 1 water distribution system that serves fewer than 100 people, which is not required to have an onsite representative if the conditions of (E)(8) are met. The onsite representative is not required to be an operator if the facility has a remote operator who is certified at or above the grade of the facility.

3. The remote operator instructs the onsite representative in proper operation and maintenance of each facility, providing written instructions, and ensuring that adequate records are kept.

4. The remote operator provides the onsite representative with a telephone number at which the remote operator can be reached at all times. If the remote operator is not available for any reason, the remote operator shall provide the onsite representative with the name and telephone number of a qualified substitute operator.

5. The remote operator resides no more than 200 miles by ground travel from any facility that the remote operator serves.

6. The remote operator operates each facility in compliance with applicable state and federal laws.

7. The remote operator inspects a facility as often as necessary to assure proper operation and maintenance, but in no case less than:

a. Monthly for a Grade 1 or Grade 2 water treatment plant or distribution system that produces and distributes groundwater;

b. Monthly for a Grade 1 wastewater treatment plant;

c. Twice a month for a collection system that serves fewer than 2,500 people; and

d. Weekly for a Grade 2 wastewater treatment plant or collection system that serves fewer than 1,000 people.

8. For a Grade 1 water distribution system that does not have an onsite representative and serves fewer than 100 people, the following conditions are met:

a. The name and telephone number at which the remote operator can be reached is posted at the facility, enclosed with water bills, or otherwise made readily available to water users. If the remote operator is not available for any reason, the remote operator shall post at the facility the name and telephone number of a substitute operator of the applicable facility class and grade.

b. The remote operator or substitute operator resides no more than 200 miles by ground travel from the facility; and

c. The remote operator inspects the facility weekly.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-506 repealed, new Section R9-20-506 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Amended effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-506 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-504, then renumbered as Section R18-4-104 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-104 recodified from R18-4-104 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5079, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.105" level="4" title="Certification">

Certification

A. The Department shall issue an operator certificate to an applicant if the applicant:

1. Meets the experience and education requirements in R18-5-112 for the applicable class and grade, and

2. Passes a written examination for the applicable class and grade.

B. To apply for operator certification, an applicant shall submit or arrange to have submitted to the Department the following information, as applicable, in a format acceptable to the Department:

1. The applicant's full name, social security number, and operator number;

2. The applicant's current mailing address, home and work telephone numbers, fax number, and e-mail address;

3. The applicant's place of employment, including the facility identification number;

4. The class and grade of the facility where the applicant is employed;

5. Proof of successful completion of the examination for the applicable class and grade; and

6. Documentation of the applicant's experience and education required under R18-5-112.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-507 repealed, new Section R9-20-507 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-507 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-505, then renumbered as Section R18-4-105 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-105 recodified from R18-4-105 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.106" level="4" title="Examinations">

Examinations

A. The Department shall provide for examinations for certification of operators. The Department may contract with third party examiners for administration of examinations, based on its assessment of the quality of the examination services. The Department shall ensure that a list of approved examiners is available upon request.

B. The Department shall validate all examinations before administration. Each examination shall include topics such as treatment technologies, system maintenance, regulatory protocols, safety, mathematics, and general system management.

C. The examiner shall grade the examination and make the results available to the applicant and the Department within seven days of the date of the examination.

D. An applicant shall not be admitted to an examination without a valid picture I.D.

E. An individual shall make a score of 70 percent on the examination in order to attain a passing grade.

Historical Note

Adopted effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-508 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-506, then renumbered as Section R18-4-106 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (F) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-5-106 recodified from R18-4-106 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.107" level="4" title="Certificate Renewal">

Certificate Renewal

A. If the Department renews a certificate, the certificate is renewed for three years, unless the operator requests a shorter renewal period in writing.

B. To renew a certificate, an operator shall maintain documentation and provide it to the Department upon request to verify completion of at least 30 PDHs accumulated during a certification period. The operator shall provide documentation of PDHs that is in a format acceptable to the Department. At least 10 of the PDHs shall directly relate to the specific job functions of the operator. If an operator holds multiple certificates, the required PDHs may be applied to all certificates if the PDHs are acquired within that certification period. The operator's supervisor or the entity that provides the education or training shall verify completion of each PDH in writing.

C. As an alternative to the requirements of subsection (B), an operator may renew a certificate by taking and passing an examination for the applicable class and grade.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-509 repealed, new Section R9-20-509 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-509 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-507, then renumbered as Section R18-4-107 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (B) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-5-107 recodified from R18-4-107 (Supp. 95-1). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.108" level="4" title="Certificate Expiration">

Certificate Expiration

A. A certificate expires on the expiration date printed on the certificate. An operator may reinstate an expired certificate for the same class and grade without examination if the operator files the documentation required in R18-5-107(B) with the Department within 90 days of the certificate expiration date.

B. If an expired certificate is not renewed within 90 days of the certificate expiration date, the Department shall not reinstate the certificate. To be recertified, the operator shall reapply and be reexamined as a new applicant.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-510 repealed, new Section R9-20-510 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-510 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-508, then renumbered as Section R18-4-108 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (D) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-5-108 recodified from R18-4-108 (Supp. 95-2). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.109" level="4" title="Denial and Revocation">

Denial and Revocation

A. The Department shall act under A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10 and 18 A.A.C. 1, Article 2 to deny or revoke a certificate.

B. If it is determining whether to revoke a certificate, the Department shall consider whether the operator:

1. Operates a facility in a manner that violates federal or state law;

2. Negligently supervises the operation of the facility;

3. Fails to comply with Department orders or consent decrees;

4. Obtains a certificate by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation;

5. Knowingly prepares a false or fraudulent report or record regarding the operation or management of the facility; or

6. Endangers the public health, safety, or welfare.

C. In order to be recertified, a person whose certificate is revoked shall reapply and be reexamined as a new applicant. A person whose certificate is revoked is not eligible for admission to a certification examination for 12 months from the effective date of the revocation.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-511 repealed, new Section R9-20-511 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-511 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-509, then renumbered as Section R18-4-109 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-109 recodified from R18-4-109 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.110" level="4" title="Reciprocity">

Reciprocity

The Department shall issue a certificate to an applicant who holds a valid certificate from another jurisdiction, if the applicant:

1. Passes a written, validated examination in Arizona or in another jurisdiction that administers an examination that is substantially equivalent to the examination in Arizona and validated by the Department, and

2. Submits written evidence of the experience and education required under R18-5-112.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-512 repealed, new Section R9-20-512 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-512 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-510, then renumbered as Section R18-4-110 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsection (B) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-5-110 recodified from R18-4-110 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.111" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-511 and renumbered as Section R18-4-111 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-111 recodified from R18-4-111 (Supp. 95-2). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.112" level="4" title="Experience and Education">

Experience and Education

A. The Department shall consider the following criteria to determine whether an applicant has the experience and education required for certification in a specific class and grade:

1. Years of experience at a lower grade;

2. Qualifying experience in the same or a related field; and

3. Education in a qualifying discipline.

B. An applicant shall provide written evidence of education in a qualifying discipline. The applicant shall provide transcripts if the Department determines that the transcripts are necessary to verify completion of the education requirements.

C. An applicant shall provide written evidence of qualifying experience in the applicable facility class.

D. An applicant shall meet the following requirements for admission to a certification examination:

1. For Grade 1, high school graduation or the equivalent.

2. For Grade 2, at least:

a. High school graduation or the equivalent and one year of qualifying experience as a Grade 1 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 1 operator in another jurisdiction;

b. Two years of postsecondary education in a qualifying discipline and one year of qualifying experience, including six months as a Grade 1 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 1 operator in another jurisdiction; or

c. A bachelor's degree in a qualifying discipline and six months of qualifying experience.

3. For Grade 3, at least:

a. High school graduation or the equivalent and two years of qualifying experience, including one year as a Grade 2 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 2 operator in another jurisdiction;

b. Two years of postsecondary education in a qualifying discipline, and 18 months of qualifying experience as a Grade 2 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 2 operator in another jurisdiction; or

c. A bachelor's degree in a qualifying discipline and one year of qualifying experience.

4. For Grade 4, at least:

a. High school graduation or the equivalent and three years of qualifying experience, including one year as a Grade 3 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 3 operator in another jurisdiction;

b. Two years of postsecondary education in a qualifying discipline and 30 months of qualifying experience, including one year as a Grade 3 operator or the equivalent of a Grade 3 operator in another jurisdiction; or

c. A bachelor's degree in a qualifying discipline, and two years of qualifying experience.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-517 repealed, new Section R9-20-517 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Amended effective March 19, 1980 (Supp. 80-2). Former Section R9-20-517 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-512, then renumbered as Section R18-4-112 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-112 recodified from R18-4-112 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5079, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.113" level="4" title="Classes of Facilities">

Classes of Facilities

A. The Department shall classify a facility in one of four classes:

1. Water treatment plant,

2. Water distribution system,

3. Wastewater treatment plant, or

4. Wastewater collection system.

B. The Department shall classify a facility as one of four grades, Grades 1-4. The grade corresponds with the level of system complexity, with Grade 1 being the most simple and Grade 4 being the most complex.

C. For a multi-facility system, the Department shall grade each facility according to complexity and the total population or population equivalent served.

Historical Note

Adopted as Section R9-20-513 and renumbered as Section R18-4-113 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Amended subsections (A) and (C) effective November 30, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). R18-5-113 recodified from R18-4-113 (Supp. 95-2). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.114" level="4" title="Grades of Wastewater Treatment Plants and Collection Systems">

Grades of Wastewater Treatment Plants and Collection Systems

The Department shall grade a wastewater treatment plant or collection system according to population equivalent served, degree of hazard to public health, class of facility, and degree of treatment, as follows:

1. Grade 1 includes:

a. A stabilization pond that serves 2,000 or fewer persons;

b. A wastewater treatment plant not designated as Grade 2, 3, or 4; or

c. A collection system that serves 2,500 or fewer persons.

2. Grade 2 includes:

a. A stabilization pond that is designed to serve more than 2,000 persons;

b. An aerated lagoon;

c. A facility that employs biological treatment based upon the activated sludge principle or trickling filters and is designed to serve 5,000 or fewer persons, except as provided in subsection (3)(c); or

d. A collection system that serves between 2,501 to 10,000 persons.

3. Grade 3 includes:

a. A facility that employs biological treatment based upon the activated sludge principle and is designed to serve 5,001 to 20,000 persons;

b. A facility that employs trickling filtration and is designed to serve 5,001 to 25,000 persons;

c. A variation of biological treatment based on the activated sludge principle that requires specialized knowledge, including contact stabilization, and is designed to serve 20,000 or fewer persons; or

d. A collection system that serves 10,001 to 25,000 persons.

4. Grade 4 includes:

a. A facility that employs biological treatment based upon the activated sludge principle and is designed to serve more than 20,000 persons;

b. A facility that employs trickling filtration and is designed to serve a population equivalent more than 25,000 persons; or

c. A collection system that serves more than 25,000 persons.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-519 repealed, new Section R9-20-519 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-519 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-514, then renumbered as Section R18-4-114 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-114 recodified from R18-4-114 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended to correct manifest typographical error in subsection (3)(d) (Supp. 01-3).

<regElement name="R18.5.115" level="4" title="Grades of Water Treatment Plants and Distribution Systems"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="2"><dwc name="chlorin" times="5"><dwc name="hypochlorit" times="5"><dwc name="chloramin" times="2"><dwc name="chlorin dioxid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1">

Grades of Water Treatment Plants and Distribution Systems

A. Grading of water treatment plants. The Department shall grade a water treatment plant according to the sum of the points it assigns for each plant characteristic.

1. The Department shall assign points for the purpose of grading a water treatment plant as follows:

<table> Plant Characteristics Points Population 1 per 5,000 Maximum Design Capacity 1 per Millions of Gallons per Day up to 10 Groundwater Source 3 Surface or Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water Source 5 Carbon Dioxide 2 pH Adjustment 3 Packed Tower Aeration 6 Air Stripping 6 Stability or Corrosion Control 3 Taste and Odor 8 Iron/Manganese Removal 8 Ion Exchange Softening 10 Chemical Precipitation Softening 15 Coagulant Addition 6 Flocculation 4 Sedimentation 4 Upflow Clarification 2 Fluoridation 5 Activated Alumina 6 Blending 5 Residual Waste Stream 5 Control Systems Technology 2 Biologically Active Filter 20 Granular Media Filter 15 Pressure Filter 15 Gravity Sand Filter 10 Membrane Filtration 15 Chlorine Gas 6 Hypochlorite Liquid 2 Hypochlorite Solid 2 Chloramine 9 Chlorine Dioxide 9 Ozone 12 Ultraviolet 3 </table>

2. The Department shall assign a grade by the total number of points assigned to the facility, as follows:

<table> Grade Point Range Grade 1 1 to 25 Grade 2 26 to 50 Grade 3 51 to 70 Grade 4 More than 70 </table>

B. Grading of water distribution systems. The Department shall grade a distribution system according to the sum of the points it assigns for each system characteristic.

1. The Department shall assign points for the purpose of grading a distribution system as follows:

<table> System Characteristics Points Population 1 per 5,000 Maximum Design Capacity 1 per Millions of Gallons per Day up to 10 Pressure Zones 5 Booster Stations 5 Storage Tanks 3 Blending 5 Fire Protection Systems 5 Cathodic Protection 3 Control System Technologies 2 Chlorine Gas 6 Hypochlorite Liquid 2 Hypochlorite Solid 2 Chloramine 9 Chlorine Dioxide 9 </table>

2. No points are added for Grade 1 small systems that:

a. Only distribute groundwater;

b. Serve fewer than 501 persons;

c. Have no disinfection or disinfect by chlorine gas or hypochlorite only; and

d. Do not store water or store water only in storage tanks.

3. The Department shall assign a grade by the total number of points assigned to the facility, as follows:

<table> Grade Point Range Grade 1 0 Grade 2 1 to 20 Grade 3 21 to 35 Grade 4 More than 35 </table>

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-520 repealed, new Section R9-20-520 adopted effective November 1, 1979 (Supp. 79-6). Former Section R9-20-520 amended, renumbered as Section R9-20-515, then renumbered as Section R18-4-115 effective October 23, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-5-115 recodified from R18-4-115 (Supp. 95-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5079, effective October 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.116" level="4" title="Initial Grading and Regrading of Facilities">

Initial Grading and Regrading of Facilities

A. The Department shall act under A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10 and 18 A.A.C. 1, Article 2 when initially grading or when regrading a facility.

B. If it is determining the initial grade of a facility or whether to regrade a facility, the Department shall consider the facility characteristics in R18-5-114 and R18-5-115, and whether:

1. The facility has special design features or characteristics that make it unusually difficult to operate;

2. The water or wastewater is unusually difficult to treat;

3. The facility uses effluent; or

4. The facility poses a potential risk to public health, safety or welfare.

C. The owner of a facility that is regraded under this Article shall ensure that the facility is operated by an operator, in compliance with this Article, no later than one year from the effective date of the facility regrading.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1171, effective February 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="PUBLIC AND SEMIPUBLIC SWIMMING POOLS AND SPAS">

PUBLIC AND SEMIPUBLIC SWIMMING POOLS AND SPAS

<regElement name="R18.5.201" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="chlorin" times="1">

Definitions

"Air induction system" means a system whereby a volume of air is induced into a hollow ducting in a spa floor, bench, or wall. An air induction system is activated by an air power blower and is separate from the water circulation system.

"Artificial lake" means a man-made lake, lagoon, or basin, lined or unlined, with a surface area equal to or greater than two acres (87,120 square feet), that is used or intended to be used for water contact recreation.

"Backwash" means the process of thoroughly cleaning a filter by the reverse flow of water through the filter.

"Barrier" means a fence, wall, building, or landscaping that obstructs access to a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

"Cartridge filter" means a depth, pleated, or surface-type filter component with fixed dimensions that is designed to remove suspended particles from water flowing through the filter.

"Construct" means to build or install a new public or semipublic swimming pool or spa or to enlarge, deepen, or make a major modification to an existing public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

"Coping" means the cap on a swimming pool or spa wall that provides a finished edge around the swimming pool or spa.

"Cross-connection" means any physical connection or structural arrangement between a potable water system and the piping system for a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa through which it is possible to introduce used water, gas, or any other substance into the potable water system. A bypass arrangement, jumper connection, removable section, swivel or change-over device, or any other temporary or permanent device that may cause backflow is a cross-connection.

"Deck" means a hard surface area immediately adjacent or attached to a swimming pool or spa that is designed for sitting, standing, or walking.

"Deep area" means the portion of a public or semipublic swimming pool that is more than 5 feet in depth.

"Discharge piping" means the portion of the circulation system that carries water from the filter back to the swimming pool or spa.

"Diving area" means the area of a public or semipublic swimming pool that is designated for diving from a diving board, diving platform, or starting block.

"Fill-and-draw swimming pool or spa" means a swimming pool or spa where the principal means of cleaning is the complete removal of the used water and its replacement with potable water.

"Filtration rate" means the rate of water flowing through a filter during the filter cycle expressed in gallons per minute per square foot of effective filter area.

"Flow-through swimming pool or spa" means a swimming pool or spa where new water enters the swimming pool or spa to replace an equal quantity of water that constantly flows out.

"Freeboard" means the vertical wall section of a swimming pool or spa wall between the waterline and the deck.

"Hose bibb" means a faucet with a threaded nozzle to which a hose may be attached.

"Hydrotherapy jet" means a fitting that blends air and water and creates a high-velocity, turbulent stream of air-enriched water for injection into a spa.

"Make-up water" means fresh water used to fill or refill a swimming pool or spa.

"Maximum bathing load" means the design capacity or the maximum number of users that a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa is designed to hold.

"Natural bathing place" means a lake, pond, river, stream, swimming hole, or hot springs which has not been modified by man.

"Operate" means to run, maintain, or otherwise control or direct the functioning of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

"Overflow collection system" means equipment designed to remove water from a swimming pool or spa, including gutters, overflows, surface skimmers, and other surface water collection systems of various designs and manufacture.

"Potable water" means drinking water.

"Private residential spa" means a spa at a private residence used only by the owner, members of the owner's family, and invited guests, or a spa that serves a housing group consisting of no more than three living units [for example, duplexes or triplexes].

"Private residential swimming pool" means a swimming pool at a private residence used only by the owner, members of the owner's family, and invited guests, or a swimming pool that serves a housing group consisting of no more than three living units [for example, duplexes or triplexes].

"Public spa" means a spa that is open to the public with or without a fee, including a spa that is operated by a county, municipality, political subdivision, school district, university, college, or a commercial establishment whose primary business is the operation of a spa.

"Public swimming pool" means a swimming pool that is open to the public with or without a fee, including a swimming pool that is operated by a county, municipality, political subdivision, school district, university, college, or a commercial establishment whose primary business is the operation of a swimming pool.

"Recessed treads" means a series of vertically spaced, preformed stepholes in a swimming pool wall.

"Return inlet" means an aperture or fitting through which filtered water returns to a swimming pool or spa.

"Rope and float line" means a continuous line not less than 3/4 inch in diameter that is supported by buoys and attached to opposite sides of a swimming pool to separate areas of the swimming pool.

"Semi-artificial bathing place" means a natural bathing place that has been modified by man.

"Semipublic spa" means a spa operated for the residents of lodgings such as hotels, motels, resorts, apartments, condominiums, townhouse complexes, trailer courts, mobile home parks, or similar establishments. A semipublic spa includes a spa that is operated by a neighborhood or community association for the residents of the community and their guests and any spa at a country club, health club, camp, or similar establishment where the primary business of the establishment is not the operation of a spa and where the use of the spa is included in the fee for the primary use of the establishment.

"Semipublic swimming pool" means a swimming pool operated for the residents of lodgings such as hotels, motels, resorts, apartments, condominiums, townhouse complexes, trailer courts, mobile home parks, or similar establishments. A semipublic swimming pool includes a swimming pool that is operated by a neighborhood or community association for the residents of the community and their guests and a swimming pool at a country club, health club, camp, or similar establishment where the primary business of the establishment is not the operation of a swimming pool and where the use of the swimming pool is included in the fee for the primary use of the establishment.

"Shallow area" means the portion of a public or semipublic swimming pool that is 5 feet or less in depth.

"Slip-resistant" means a surface that has a static coefficient of friction [wet or dry] of at least 0.50.

"Spa" means an artificial basin, chamber, or tank of irregular or geometric shell design that is intended only for bathing or soaking and that is not drained, cleaned, or refilled for each user. A spa may include features such as hydrotherapy jet circulation, hot water, cold water mineral baths, or an air induction system. Industry terminology for a spa includes "hydrotherapy pool," "whirlpool," "hot tub," and "therapy pool."

"Special use pool" means a swimming pool intended for competitive aquatic events, aquatic exercise, or lap swimming. A special use pool includes a wave action pool, exit pool for a water slide, swimming pool that is part of an attraction at a water recreation park, water volleyball pool, or a swimming pool with special features used for training and instruction.

"Suction outlet" means the aperture or fitting through which water is withdrawn from a swimming pool or spa.

"Suction piping" means the water circulation system piping that carries water from a swimming pool or spa to the filter.

"Swimming pool" means an artificial basin, chamber, or tank that is designed for swimming or diving.

"Turnover rate" means the number of hours required to circulate a volume of water equal to the capacity of the swimming pool or spa.

"User" means a person who uses a swimming pool, spa, or adjoining deck area.

"Wading pool" means a shallow swimming pool used for bathing and wading by small children.

"Water circulation system" means an arrangement of mechanical equipment connected to a swimming pool or spa by piping in a closed loop that directs water from the swimming pool or spa to the filtration and disinfection equipment and returns the water to the swimming pool or spa.

"Water circulation system components" means the mechanical components that are part of a water circulation system of a swimming pool or spa, including pumps, filters, valves, surface skimmers, ion generators, electrolytic chlorine generators, ozone process equipment, and chemical feeding equipment.

"Water level" means either:

a. On swimming pools and spas with skimmer systems, the midpoint of the operating range of the skimmers, or

b. On swimming pools and spas with overflow gutters, the height of the overflow rim of the gutter.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.202" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. This Article applies to public and semipublic swimming pools and spas.

B. This Article does not apply to the following:

1. A private residential swimming pool or spa,

2. A swimming pool or spa used for medical treatment or physical therapy and supervised by licensed medical personnel,

3. A semi-artificial bathing place,

4. A natural bathing place, or

5. An artificial lake.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.203" level="4" title="Design Approval"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="3">

Design Approval

A. A person shall obtain design approval from the Department before starting construction of:

1. A new public or semipublic swimming pool or spa;

2. A major modification to an existing public or semipublic swimming pool or spa. For purposes of this subsection, a major modification means a change to the shape, depth, water circulation system, or disinfection system of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa or the installation of diving equipment at a public or semipublic swimming pool;

3. A change in use from a semipublic swimming pool to a public swimming pool; and

4. A change in use from a private residential swimming pool to a public or semipublic swimming pool.

B. An applicant for a design approval shall submit an ADEQ application form to the Department in quadruplicate with four complete sets of plans and specifications for the swimming pool or spa and the information in subsection (C).

C. The application for design approval shall include four copies of the following:

1. A general plot plan;

2. Plans and specifications showing the size, shape, cross-section, slope, and dimensions of each swimming pool or spa, deck areas, and barriers;

3. Plans and specifications showing the water circulation and disinfection systems, including all piping, fittings, drains, suction outlets, filters, pumps, surface skimmers, return inlets, chemical feeders, disinfection equipment, gauges, flow meters, and strainers;

4. Plans and specifications showing the source of water supply and the method of disposal of filter backwash water; used swimming pool or spa water, and wastewater from toilets, urinals, sinks, and showers;

5. Detailed plans of bathhouses, dressing rooms, equipment rooms, and other appurtenances; and

6. Additional data required by the Department for a complete understanding of the project.

D. A professional engineer, architect, or a swimming pool or spa contractor with a current A-9, A-19, KA-5, KA-6 license shall prepare or supervise the preparation of all plans and specifications submitted to the Department for review.

E. An applicant shall submit an application for design approval to the Department at least 60 days prior to the date that the applicant wishes to begin construction of a swimming pool or spa.

F. The Department shall determine whether the application for design approval is complete within 30 days of the date of receipt of the application by the Department.

G. The Department shall issue or deny the application for design approval within 30 days of the date that the Department determines that the application for design approval is complete.

H. Unless an extension of time is granted in writing by the Department, a design approval is void if construction is not started within one year after the date of its issuance or there is a halt in construction of more than one year.

I. The Department may issue a design approval with conditions. The Department shall not issue an Approval of Construction if the design approval is conditioned and the construction of the swimming pool or spa does not comply with the stated conditions.

J. The Department may issue design approvals in phases to allow a political subdivision to start construction of a public swimming pool or spa without issuing a design approval for the entire construction project. A design approval may be issued in phases provided all of the following conditions are met:

1. A phased design approval is needed to accommodate a design/build contract, phased construction contract, multiple construction contracts, turnkey contract, or special contract that requires construction to begin prior to the completion of design plans and specifications for the entire public swimming pool or spa construction project.

2. The applicant submits a detailed project description for the entire public swimming pool or spa construction project to the Department.

3. There is a written agreement between the applicant and the Department which includes the following:

a. A construction project schedule,

b. A schedule to submit applications and supporting documentation for the phased design approval including any anticipated variance requests,

c. Negotiated time-frames for administrative completeness and substantive review of each application for phased design approval, and

d. A schedule of construction inspections by the Department or third-party certifications by the applicant.

4. The applicant certifies in writing that the applicant understands that the public swimming pool or spa cannot be operated without an Approval of Construction for each phase of the construction project pursuant to R18-5-204.

5. If the applicant and the Department cannot reach agreement regarding a phased design approval or Approval of Construction, then the requirements of R18-5-203(A) through (I) and R18-5-204 apply.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.204" level="4" title="Approval of Construction">

Approval of Construction

A. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall not operate without receiving an Approval of Construction issued by the Department.

B. The construction of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall conform to plans and specifications that have been approved by the Department. If the applicant wishes to make a change to the approved plans and specifications, the applicant shall submit revised plans and specifications with a written statement of the reasons for the change to the Department. The applicant shall obtain Department approval of the revised plans and specifications before starting any work affected by the change.

C. Prior to any construction that will cover the piping arrangement of the swimming pool or spa and at least 30 days prior to the expected date of completion of construction of a public swimming pool or spa, the applicant shall notify the Department to permit a construction inspection. The Department shall inspect the construction of a swimming pool or spa to determine if the swimming pool or spa has been constructed in accordance with Department-approved plans, specifications, and conditions unless a professional engineer, architect, or registered sanitarian certifies that the swimming pool or spa has been constructed in accordance with Department-approved plans, specifications, and conditions.

D. If the swimming pool or spa has been constructed in accordance with Department-approved plans, specifications, and conditions, the Department shall issue the Approval of Construction within 30 days of the date of the construction inspection by the Department or the date the Department receives third-party certification.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.205" level="4" title="Prohibitions">

Prohibitions

A. A fill-and-draw swimming pool or spa shall not be used as a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

B. A private residential spa shall not be used as a public or semipublic spa.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.206" level="4" title="Water Source">

Water Source

Only water from a source that is approved by the Department shall be used in a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa. Reclaimed wastewater shall not be used as make-up water for a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.207" level="4" title="Construction Materials">

Construction Materials

A. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall be constructed of concrete or other structurally rigid material that is equivalent in strength or durability to concrete, except that a public or semipublic spa may be constructed of fiberglass or acrylic.

B. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall be constructed of materials that are nontoxic.

C. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall be constructed of waterproof materials that provide a watertight structure.

D. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall have a smooth and easily cleaned surface, without cracks or joints, excluding structural joints, or to which a smooth, easily cleaned surface finish is applied or attached.

E. All corners in a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall be rounded, including the corners formed by the intersection of a wall and floor.

F. A surface within a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa intended to provide footing for users shall have a slip-resistant surface. The roughness or irregularity of the surface shall not cause injury or discomfort to users' feet during normal use.

G. The color, pattern, or finish of the interior of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall not obscure objects, surfaces within the swimming pool or spa, debris, sediment, or algae. Surface finishes shall be white, pastel, or other light color. The interior finish shall completely line the swimming pool or spa to the coping, tile, or gutter system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.208" level="4" title="Maximum Bathing Load">

Maximum Bathing Load

A. The maximum bathing load for a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall not be exceeded.

B. The maximum bathing load for a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be calculated as the sum of the following:

1. The shallow area of the swimming pool in square feet divided by 10 square feet, plus

2. The deep area of the swimming pool in square feet minus 300 square feet for each diving board divided by 24 square feet.

C. The maximum bathing load for a public swimming pool shall be limited by the number of users for the toilets, showers, or lavatories that are provided in the bathhouses or dressing rooms prescribed in R18-5-242.

D. The maximum bathing load for a public or semipublic spa shall not exceed the area of the spa in square feet divided by 9 square feet.

E. The maximum bathing load for a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall be posted.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.209" level="4" title="Shape">

Shape

A. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa may be any shape except that the designer shall shape a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa to minimize hazards to users and provide adequate circulation of swimming pool or spa water.

B. There shall be no protrusions, extensions, means of entanglement, or other obstructions in a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa that may cause entrapment of or injury to the user. This subsection does not prohibit water features such as water fountains, slides, water play equipment, or water volleyball and basketball nets.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.210" level="4" title="Walls">

Walls

A. Where a racing lane terminates in a swimming pool, the wall shall be plumb to a minimum depth of 5 feet below the waterline. Below the 5-foot depth, the wall shall be radiused to join the floor.

B. There shall be no projections from a swimming pool or spa wall except for coping, cantilevered deck, ladders, and steps.

C. An underwater seat shall comply with the following:

1. The edges of an underwater seat shall be outlined with a sharply contrasting colored tile or other material that is clearly visible from the deck adjacent to the underwater seat;

2. An underwater seat shall have a slip-resistant surface;

3. An underwater seat shall be located outside of the deep area of a swimming pool that is equipped for diving. An underwater seat may be located in the deep area of a swimming pool that is not equipped for diving provided the underwater seat is either completely recessed into the swimming pool wall, shaped to be compatible with the shape of the swimming pool wall, or in a corner of the swimming pool;

4. The maximum depth of an underwater seat is 24 inches below the waterline. The minimum depth of an underwater seat is 12 inches below the waterline; and

5. The maximum width of an underwater seat is 20 inches.

D. If a spa is located immediately adjacent to a swimming pool, the separating wall between the spa and the swimming pool shall be no more than 8 inches wide. The top of the separating wall shall be no lower than the level of the coping of the swimming pool. If a separating wall is more than 8 inches wide, then the deck width shall comply with R18-5-217(D). A spa shall not be located immediately adjacent to the deep area of a swimming pool.

E. Coping or cantilevered deck may project from a swimming pool or spa wall to provide a handhold for users. The coping or deck shall be rounded, have a slip-resistant surface finish, and shall not exceed 3 1/2 inches in thickness. The overhang of the coping or deck shall not exceed 2 inches or be less than 1 inch. All corners created by coping or cantilevered deck shall be rounded in both the vertical and horizontal dimensions to eliminate sharp corners.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.211" level="4" title="Freeboard">

Freeboard

A. The freeboard in a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall not exceed 8 inches, except as provided in subsection (B).

B. The freeboard in a semipublic swimming pool may exceed 8 inches to provide for walls, terraces, or other design features. The Department shall review each request to allow an increase in freeboard on a case-by-case basis. In reviewing the request, the Department shall consider safety, exit distances, alternative exits, and location. The length and height of the section where the freeboard area may be increased is limited. All of the following requirements shall be met:

1. Guard rails or similar devices are provided to prevent any raised area from being used as a diving platform.

2. The vertical surfaces of the freeboard area are constructed of inorganic materials. All vertical surfaces shall be rigid, smooth, and easily cleanable.

3. The horizontal surface areas comply with the provisions of this Article for decks.

4. The vertical surface area is included as surface area of the swimming pool to determine the type, size, location, and numbers of equipment and piping.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.212" level="4" title="Floors">

Floors

A. The slope of the floor of a public or semipublic swimming pool, from the end wall in the shallow area towards the deep area to the point of the first slope change shall be uniform and shall not exceed 1 foot of fall in 10 feet. The floor slope in a public or semipublic spa shall not exceed 1 foot of fall in 10 feet.

B. The floor slope of a public or semipublic swimming pool, from the point of the first slope change to the deepest part of the swimming pool, shall not exceed 1 foot of fall in 3 feet.

C. For a public or semipublic swimming pool that is equipped for diving, the depth of the swimming pool at the point of the first slope change shall be a minimum of 5 feet. For a public or semipublic swimming pool that is not equipped for diving, the depth of the swimming pool at the point of the first slope change shall be a minimum of 4 feet.

D. All portions of a swimming pool or spa floor shall slope towards a main drain.

E. The transitional radius where the floor of a public or semipublic swimming pool joins a wall shall comply with the following:

1. The center of the radius shall be no less than 3 feet below the waterline in the deep area or 2 feet below the waterline in the shallow area.

2. The radius shall be tangent at the point where the radius meets the wall or floor.

3. The radius shall be equal to or greater than the depth of the swimming pool minus the vertical wall depth measured from the waterline minus 3 inches.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.213" level="4" title="Entries and Exits">

Entries and Exits

A. Each public or semipublic swimming pool shall have at least two means of entry or exit consisting of ladders, steps, or recessed treads.

B. There shall be at least one ladder, set of steps, or set of recessed treads for each 75 feet of perimeter of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

C. At least one means of entry and exit shall be provided in the deep area and at least one means of entry and exit shall be provided in the shallow area of a public or semipublic swimming pool. Where the water depth is 2 feet at the swimming pool wall in the shallow area or where there is a zero depth entry pool [for example, an artificial beach], the area shall be considered a means of entry or exit.

D. A set of steps shall be provided in a public or semipublic spa.

E. The location of stairs, ladders, and recessed treads shall not interfere with racing lanes.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.214" level="4" title="Steps">

Steps

A. Each set of steps shall be provided with at least one handrail to serve all treads and risers. Handrails shall be provided at one side or in the center of all steps. Handrails shall be installed in such a way that they can be removed only with tools.

B. Steps shall be permanently marked to be clearly visible from above and below the water level in a swimming pool or spa. The edges of steps shall be outlined with a sharply contrasting colored tile or other material that is clearly visible from the deck adjacent to the steps.

C. Steps may be constructed only in the shallow area of a public or semipublic swimming pool.

D. Steps shall not project into a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa in a manner that creates a hazard to users.

E. All tread surfaces on steps shall have slip-resistant surfaces.

F. Step treads shall have a minimum unobstructed horizontal depth of 10 inches. Risers shall have a maximum uniform height of 12 inches, with the bottom riser height allowed to vary &#177; 2 inches from the uniform riser height.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.215" level="4" title="Ladders">

Ladders

A. At least one ladder shall be provided in the deep area of a public or semipublic swimming pool. If the width of the deep area of a swimming pool is greater than 20 feet, then one ladders shall be located on opposite sides of the deep area.

B. A swimming pool or spa ladder shall be equipped with two handrails.

C. All treads on ladders shall have slip-resistant surfaces.

D. Ladder treads shall have a minimum horizontal depth of 1 1/2 inches. The distance between ladder treads shall range from a minimum of 7 inches to a maximum of 12 inches.

E. Below the waterline, there shall be a clearance of not more than 6 inches and not less than 3 inches between any ladder tread edge and the wall as measured from the side of the tread closest to the wall.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.216" level="4" title="Recessed Treads">

Recessed Treads

A. Recessed treads with handrails may be substituted for ladders.

B. Recessed treads shall be pre-formed, readily cleanable, and designed to drain into the swimming pool or spa to prevent the accumulation of dirt in the recessed treads.

C. Each set of recessed treads shall be equipped with two handrails.

D. All recessed treads shall have slip-resistant surfaces.

E. The vertical distance between the swimming pool or spa coping edge or deck and the uppermost recessed tread shall be a maximum of 12 inches. Recessed treads at the centerline shall have a uniform vertical spacing of 12 inches maximum and 7 inches minimum.

F. Recessed treads shall be at least 5 inches deep and 12 inches wide.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.217" level="4" title="Decks and Deck Equipment">

Decks and Deck Equipment

A. Decks, ramps, coping, and similar step surfaces shall be constructed of concrete or other inorganic material, have a slip-resistant finish, and be easily cleanable.

B. The minimum continuous unobstructed deck width, including the coping, shall be 10 feet for a public swimming pool and 4 feet for a semipublic swimming pool. The dimensional design of decks at public and semipublic swimming pools shall comply with the dimensions shown in Illustration B.

C. A minimum 5 feet of deck width shall be provided on the sides and rear of any diving equipment at a public swimming pool. A minimum 4 feet of deck width shall be provided on the sides and rear of any diving equipment at a semipublic swimming pool. If diving equipment is installed at a public swimming pool, there shall be a minimum 15 feet of deck width from the swimming pool wall to the edge of the deck behind the diving equipment [See Illustration B].

D. A continuous unobstructed deck width of at least 4 feet, which may include the coping, shall be provided on at least two contiguous sides and around at least 50% of the perimeter of a public or semipublic spa.

E. Decks shall be sloped to effectively drain either to perimeter areas or to deck drains. Drainage shall remove splash water, deck cleaning water, and rain water without leaving standing water. The minimum slope of the deck shall be 1/4 inch per 1 foot. The maximum slope of the deck shall be 1 inch per 1 foot, except for ramps.

F. Decks shall be edged to eliminate sharp corners.

G. Site drainage shall be provided to direct all perimeter deck drainage and general site and roof drainage away from a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa. Yard drains may be required to prevent the accumulation or puddling of water in the general area of the deck and related improvements.

H. Hose bibbs shall be provided along the perimeter of the deck so that all parts of the deck may be washed down. At a minimum, each hose bibb shall be protected against back siphonage with an atmospheric vacuum breaker. The Department may approve quick disconnect style hose bibbs.

I. Any valve that is installed in or under any deck shall provide a minimum 10-inch diameter access cover and a valve pit to facilitate the repair and maintenance of the valve.

J. Joints in decks shall be provided to minimize the potential for cracks due to changes in elevations or movement of the slab. The maximum voids between adjoining concrete slabs or between concrete slabs and expansion joint material shall be 3/16 inch of horizontal clearance with a maximum difference in vertical elevation of 1/4 inch. Areas where the deck joins concrete shall be protected by expansion joints to protect the swimming pool or spa from the pressures of relative movements. Construction joints where pool or spa coping meets the deck shall be watertight and shall not allow water to pass through to the underlying ground.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.218" level="4" title="Lighting">

Lighting

A. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa and adjacent deck areas shall be lighted by natural or artificial means when they are in use.

B. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa that is intended to be used at night shall be equipped with artificial lighting that is designed and spaced so that all parts of the swimming pool or spa, including the bottom, may be seen without glare.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.219" level="4" title="Water Depths">

Water Depths

A. Except as provided in subsection (B), the minimum water depth in the shallowest area of a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be 2 feet. The maximum water depth in the shallowest area of a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be 3 feet. In public swimming pools, where racing lanes terminate, the minimum depth shall be 5 feet from the water level to the point where the vertical wall is radiused to join the floor.

B. The Department may approve a depth of less than 2 feet in a wading pool or to allow a zero depth entry swimming pool.

C. The maximum water depth in a public or semipublic spa shall be 42 inches, measured from the water level.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.220" level="4" title="Depth Markers">

Depth Markers

A. Water depths shall be conspicuously and permanently marked at or above the water level on the vertical wall and on the top of the coping or the edge of the deck next to a swimming pool.

1. Depth markers on a vertical wall shall be positioned to be read from the water side.

2. Depth markers on a deck shall be located within 18 inches of the side of the swimming pool and positioned to be read while standing on the deck facing the water. Depth markers that are located on a deck shall be made of slip-resistant materials.

B. Depth markers for a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be installed at points of maximum and minimum water depth and at all points of slope change. Depth markers are required in the shallow area at 1-foot depth intervals to a depth of 5 feet. Thereafter, depth markers shall be installed at 2-foot depth intervals. Depth markers shall not be spaced at distances greater than 25 feet.

C. Depth markers shall be located on both sides and at both ends of a public or semipublic swimming pool.

D. Depth markers shall be in Arabic numerals with a 4-inch minimum height. Arabic numerals shall be of contrasting color to the background.

E. In public swimming pools with racing lanes, approach warning markers shall be placed below the water level on the opposite walls at the ends of each racing lane. Warning markers shall be of contrasting color to the background. Warning markers shall be clearly visible in or out of the water from a minimum distance of 10 feet.

F. The shallow area of a public swimming pool shall be visually set apart from the deep area of the pool by a rope and float line.

G. Depth markers for a public or semipublic spa shall comply with all of the following:

1. A public or semipublic spa shall have permanent depth markers with numbers that are a minimum of 4 inches high. Depth markers shall be plainly and conspicuously visible from all points of entry.

2. The maximum depth of a public or semipublic spa shall be clearly indicated by depth markers.

3. There shall be a minimum of 2 depth markers at each public or semipublic spa.

4. Depth markers shall be spaced at no more than 25-foot intervals and shall be uniformly located around the perimeter of the spa.

5. Depth markers shall be positioned on the deck within 18 inches of the side of the spa. A depth marker shall be positioned so that it can be read by a person standing on the deck facing the water.

6. Depth markers that are on deck surfaces shall be made of slip-resistant material.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.221" level="4" title="Diving Areas and Equipment"> <dwc name="lead" times="2">

Diving Areas and Equipment

A. The dimensions of a diving area in a public or semipublic swimming pool shall comply with minimum requirements for length, width, depth, area, and other dimensions specified in Illustration A. The diving well profile in Illustration A does not apply to a special use pool that is intended for competitive diving and has been approved by Department pursuant to R18-5-248(A).

B. Diving equipment shall be permanently anchored to the swimming pool deck. Equipment shall be rigidly constructed with sufficient bracing to ensure stability. Supports, platforms, steps, and ladders for diving equipment shall be designed to carry anticipated loads.

C. All diving stands higher than 21 inches, measured from the deck to the top of the board, shall be provided with stairs or a ladder.

D. Diving equipment shall have a durable finish. The surface finish shall be free of tears, splinters, or cracks that may be a hazard to users.

E. Steps and ladders leading to diving boards and diving platforms shall be of corrosion-resisting materials and shall have slip-resistant tread surfaces. Step treads shall be self-draining.

F. Diving boards, diving platforms, and starting blocks shall have slip-resistant tread surfaces.

G. Handrails shall be provided at all steps and ladders leading to diving boards that are 1 meter or more above the water.

H. Diving boards and diving platforms that are 1 meter or higher shall be protected with guard rails. Guard rails shall be at least 30 inches above the diving board or diving platform and shall extend to the edge of the swimming pool wall.

I. A label shall be permanently affixed to a diving board and shall include the following:

1. Manufacturer's name and address,

2. Board length, and

3. Fulcrum setting instructions.

J. The maximum diving board height over the water is 3 meters. The maximum height of a diving platform over the water is 10 meters.

K. Starting blocks shall be located in the deep end of a public swimming pool or where the depth of the water is at least 5 feet.

L. There shall be a completely unobstructed clear vertical distance of 13 feet above any diving board measured from the center of the front end of the board. This clear, unobstructed vertical space shall extend horizontally at least 8 feet behind, 8 feet to each side, and 16 feet ahead of the front end of the board.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.222" level="4" title="Prohibition Against Diving; Warning Signs">

Prohibition Against Diving; Warning Signs

A. Diving equipment is prohibited in a public or semipublic swimming pool that does not meet the minimum diving well dimensions specified in Illustration A. If a public or semipublic swimming pool does not meet the dimensional requirements prescribed in Illustration A for diving, then the owner shall prominently display at least one sign that cautions users that the swimming pool is not suitable for diving. The warning sign shall state "NO DIVING" in letters that are 4 inches or larger or display the international symbol for no diving.

B. Diving from the deck of a public or semipublic swimming pool into water that is less than 5 feet deep shall be prohibited. Warning markers indicating in words or symbols that diving is prohibited shall be placed on the deck within 18 inches of the side of the shallow area of the swimming pool. A warning marker shall be positioned so that it can be read by a person standing on the deck facing the water.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.223" level="4" title="Water Circulation System"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Water Circulation System

A. A public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall have a water circulation system that provides complete circulation of water through all parts of the swimming pool or spa and can maintain water chemistry and water clarity requirements.

B. The water circulation system for a public or semipublic swimming pool shall have a turnover rate of at least once every 8 hours. The water circulation system of a public or semipublic spa shall have a turnover rate of at least once every 30 minutes. The water circulation system for a wading pool shall have a turnover rate of at least once every hour. The water circulation system shall be designed to give the proper turnover rate without exceeding the maximum filtration rate for the filter in R18-5-227(E).

C. Water circulation system components shall comply with American National Standard/NSF International Standard Number 50, "Circulation System Components and Related Materials for Swimming Pools, Spas/Hot Tubs," NSF International, 3475 Plymouth Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan [revised July, 1996, and no future editions] which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

D. Water circulation system components shall be accessible for inspection, repair, or replacement.

E. Except as provided by this subsection, water withdrawn from a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa shall not be returned unless it has been filtered and adequately disinfected. Water may be withdrawn from a swimming pool for a water slide or a water fountain without being filtered or disinfected.

F. In a swimming pool complex with more than one swimming pool or where there is a combination of swimming pools and spas, each swimming pool and spa shall have a separate water circulation system.

G. Hydrotherapy jets or other devices which create roiling water or similar effects in a spa shall not be connected to the water circulation system, but shall be operated through a separate system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1). Manifest typographical error corrected in subsection (B) (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.224" level="4" title="Piping and Fittings"> <dwc name="copper" times="1">

Piping and Fittings

A. The water velocity in discharge piping for public and semipublic swimming pools and spas shall not exceed 10 feet per second, except for copper discharge piping where the velocity shall not exceed 8 feet per second. The water velocity in suction piping shall not exceed 6 feet per second. Piping shall be sized to permit the rated flows for filtering and cleaning without exceeding the maximum head of the pump.

B. Water circulation system piping and fittings shall be constructed of materials that are able to withstand 150% of normal operating pressures. Suction piping shall be of sufficient strength so that it does not collapse when there is a complete shutoff of flow on the suction side of the pump. A licensed Arizona contractor shall conduct an induced static hydraulic pressure test of the water circulation system piping at 25 pounds per square inch for at least 30 minutes. The pressure test shall be performed before the deck is poured. Pressure in the water circulation system piping shall be maintained during the deck pour.

C. Water circulation piping and fittings shall be made of nontoxic, corrosion-resistant materials.

D. Water circulation piping and fittings shall be installed so that piping or fittings do not project into a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa in a manner that is hazardous to users.

E. Piping that is subject to damage by freezing shall have a uniform slope in one direction and shall be equipped with valves that will permit the complete drainage of the water in the swimming pool or spa.

F. Piping shall be designed to drain the swimming pool or spa water by removing drain plugs, manipulating valves, or other means.

G. Piping systems shall be identified by color or by stencils or labels located at conspicuous points.

H. Plastic water circulation piping shall comply with American National Standard/NSF International Standard Number 14, "Plastics Piping System Components and Related Materials," NSF International, 3475 Plymouth Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan [revised September, 1996, and no future editions] which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.225" level="4" title="Pumps and Motors">

Pumps and Motors

A. A pump and motor shall be provided for each water circulation system. The pump shall be sized to meet but not to exceed the flow rate required for filtering against the total head developed by the complete water circulation system. The pump shall be sized to comply with the turnover rate prescribed in R18-5-223(B).

B. Pumps and motors shall be readily and easily accessible for inspection, maintenance, and repair. When the pump is below the waterline, valves shall be installed on permanently connected suction and discharge lines. The valves shall be readily and easily accessible for maintenance and removal of the pump.

C. Each motor shall have an open, drip-proof enclosure. Each motor shall be constructed electrically and mechanically to perform satisfactorily and safely under the conditions of load in the environment normally encountered in swimming pool or spa installations. Each motor shall be capable of operating the pump under full load with a voltage variation of &#177; 10% from the nameplate rating. Each motor shall have thermal or current overload protection to provide locked rotor and running protection. Thermal or current overload protection may be built into the motor or in the line starter.

D. The pump shall be equipped with an emergency shut-off switch that is located within the swimming pool or spa enclosure to cut off power to the water circulation system if someone is entrapped on a main drain or suction outlet.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.226" level="4" title="Drains and Suction Outlets">

Drains and Suction Outlets

A. A public and semipublic swimming pool shall be equipped with at least two main drains located in the deepest part of the swimming pool or a single gravity drain that discharges to a surge tank.

B. Each main drain shall be covered by a grate that is not be readily removable by users. The openings in the grate shall have a total area that is at least four times the area of the drain pipe.

C. The spacing of the main drains shall not be greater than 20 feet on centers and not more than 15 feet from each side wall.

D. A minimum of two suction outlets shall be provided for each pump in a suction outlet system for a public or semipublic spa. The suction outlets shall be separated by a minimum of 3 feet or located on two different planes [that is, one suction outlet on the bottom and one on a vertical wall or one suction outlet each on two separate vertical walls]. The suction outlets shall be plumbed to draw water through them simultaneously through a common line to the pump. Suction outlets shall be plumbed to eliminate the possibility of entrapping suction.

E. If the suction outlet system for a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa has multiple suction outlets that can be isolated by valves, then each suction outlet shall protect against user entrapment by either an antivortex cover, a grate, or other means approved by the Department.

F. A public or semipublic spa may be equipped with a single gravity drain which discharges to a surge tank instead of suction outlets. The total velocity of water through grate openings of the drain shall not exceed 2 feet per second.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.227" level="4" title="Filters">

Filters

A. Filters shall be designed, located, and constructed to permit removal of filter manhole covers or heads for inspection, replacement, or repair of filter elements or filter media. No filtration system shall be installed beneath the surface of the ground or within an enclosure without providing adequate access for inspection and maintenance.

B. Pressure-type filters shall be equipped with a means to release internal pressure. Each pressure filter shall be equipped with an air relief piping system connected at an accessible point near the crown. Automatic air relief systems may be used instead of manual systems. The design of a filter with an automatic air relief system as its principal means of air release shall include lids that provide a slow and safe release of pressure. The design of a separation tank used in conjunction with any filter tank shall include a manual means of air release or a lid which provides a slow and safe release of pressure as it is opened.

C. Pressure filter systems shall be equipped with a sight glass installed on the waste discharge pipe.

D. Swimming pool and spa filters shall comply with American National Standard/NSF International Standard Number 50, "Circulation System Components and Related Materials for Swimming Pools, Spas/Hot Tubs," NSF International, 3475 Plymouth Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan [revised July, 1996, and no future editions] which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

E. The maximum filtration rate shall not exceed the design flow rate prescribed by the National Sanitation Foundation Standard 50 for commercial filters. In no case shall the maximum filtration rate exceed the following:

1. The rate of filtration in a high-rate sand filter shall not exceed 25 gallons/minute/square foot.

2. The rate of filtration of a diatomaceous earth filter shall not exceed 2 gallons/minute/square foot.

3. The rate of filtration of a cartridge filter shall not exceed 0.375 gallons/minute/square foot.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.228" level="4" title="Return Inlets">

Return Inlets

A. Adjustable return inlets shall be provided for each public and semipublic swimming pool or spa. Return inlets shall be designed, sized, and installed to produce a uniform circulation of water throughout the swimming pool or spa. Where surface skimmers are used, return inlets on vertical walls shall be located to help bring floating particles within range of the surface skimmers.

B. A public or semipublic swimming pool shall have a minimum of two return inlets, regardless of the size of the swimming pool. The number of return inlets shall be based on two return inlets per 600 square feet of surface area, or fraction thereof.

C. Return inlets in a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be on a closed loop piping system. Public or semipublic spas with three or more return inlets shall be on a closed loop piping system.

D. Where the width of a public or semipublic swimming pool exceeds 30 feet, bottom returns shall be required. Bottom returns shall be flush with the pool bottom or designed to prevent injury to users.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.229" level="4" title="Gauges">

Gauges

A. Pressure gauges shall be installed on the water circulation system for each public and semipublic swimming pool and spa. Pressure gauges shall be installed in accessible locations where they can be read easily.

B. Pressure gauges shall be installed on the inlet and outlet manifold of the filter. Pressure gauges shall read at intervals of 1 pound per square inch [psi].

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.230" level="4" title="Flow meter">

Flow meter

A public swimming pool shall be equipped with, a flow meter which indicates the rate of backwash through the filter. The flow meter shall be installed between the pump and the filter on a straight section of pipe in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications in a location where it can be read easily. The flow meter shall measure the rate of flow through the filter in gallons per minute and shall be accurate to within 5% under all conditions of flow. The flow meter shall have an indicator with a range of at least 150% of the normal flow rate.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.231" level="4" title="Strainers">

Strainers

The water circulation system shall include a removable strainer located upstream of the pump to prevent solids, debris, hair, or lint from reaching the pump and filters. The strainer shall be made of corrosion-resistant material. A strainer shall have openings that have a total area which is equal to at least four times the area of the suction piping.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.232" level="4" title="Overflow Collection Systems">

Overflow Collection Systems

A. An overflow collection system shall be installed in each public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

B. The overflow collection system shall be designed and constructed so that the water level of the swimming pool is maintained at the mid-point of the operating range of the system's rim or weir device.

C. Rim type overflow collection systems shall be installed on at least two opposite sides and have a total length of at least 50% of the perimeter of a public or semipublic swimming pool. The overflow collection system shall be capable of carrying 50% of the design capacity of the water circulation system.

D. If overflow gutters are used, they shall be installed continuously around the swimming pool with the lip of the gutter level throughout its perimeter. Overflow gutters shall be provided with sufficient opening at the top and width at the bottom to permit easy cleaning. The overflow gutter bottom shall be pitched 1/4 inch per foot to drainage outlets located not more than 10 feet apart. Outlet piping shall be sized to circulate at least 50% of the capacity of the water circulation system and be properly covered by a drain grate. The surge tank for the overflow gutters shall be equipped with float controls which regulate the main drain, fill line, and overflow. The system surge capacity shall not be less than one gallon for each square foot of swimming pool surface area. Stainless steel gutters and other specialty gutter systems may be used if they are hydraulically equivalent to overflow gutters.

E. Surface skimmers shall be recessed into the swimming pool or spa wall and shall be installed to achieve effective skimming action throughout the swimming pool or spa.

1. A surface skimmer shall be provided for each 400 square feet of surface area, or fraction thereof, of a public or semipublic swimming pool. A minimum of two surface skimmers are required in a public or semipublic swimming pool. A surface skimmer shall be provided for each 200 square feet of surface area, or fraction thereof, of a public or semipublic spa.

2. The overflow slot shall be set level and shall not be less than 8 inches in width at the narrowest section.

3. The rate of flow through the skimmers shall be a minimum of 75% of the water circulation system capacity. Surface skimmers shall be designed to carry at least 30 gallons per minute per lineal foot of weir throat.

4. Where three or more surface skimmers are used, they must be on a closed loop piping system.

5. At least one surface skimmer shall be located on the side or near the corner of the swimming pool that is downwind of the area's prevailing winds.

6. Main drain piping shall be designed to carry at least 50% of the design flow.

F. Mixed inlet types [for example, surface skimmers and gutters] are prohibited in a public or semipublic swimming pool.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.233" level="4" title="Vacuum Cleaning Systems">

Vacuum Cleaning Systems

A vacuum cleaning system shall be provided for each public and semipublic swimming pool. A vacuum cleaning system shall not create a hazard or interfere with the operation or use of the swimming pool. In integral systems, a sufficient number of vacuum cleaner fittings shall be located in accessible positions at least 10 inches below the water line. Alternatively, vacuum cleaner fittings may be installed as an attachment to the surface skimmers. A pressure cleaning system may be installed in addition to the required vacuum cleaning system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.234" level="4" title="Disinfection"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="23"><dwc name="chlorin" times="30"><dwc name="chloramin" times="1">

Disinfection

A. An adjustable automatic chemical feeder shall be provided to ensure the continuous disinfection of the water in a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa. Timers on disinfection equipment are prohibited. Disinfection shall be accomplished by chlorination or by another method that is approved by the Department. The method of disinfection shall effectively maintain an adequate disinfectant residual in the water which is subject to field testing by methods that are easy to use and accurate.

1. Chlorine disinfection equipment for a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be designed to maintain a free chlorine residual of 1.0 to 3.0 ppm. Chlorine disinfection equipment for a public or semipublic spa shall be designed to maintain a free chlorine residual of 3.0 to 5.0 ppm.

2. Bromine disinfection equipment for a public or semipublic swimming pool shall be designed to maintain a bromine residual of 2.0 to 4.0 ppm. Bromine disinfection equipment for a public or semipublic spa shall be designed to maintain a bromine residual of 3.0 to 5.0 ppm.

B. The use of chlorinated isocyanurates or cyanuric acid stabilizer for disinfection and stabilization is permitted. If used, chlorinated isocyanurates shall be fed so as to maintain required disinfectant residual levels. Cyanuric acid levels, whether from chlorinated isocyanurates or from the separate addition of cyanuric acid stabilizer, shall not exceed 150 ppm.

C. The use of chloramines as a primary disinfectant of swimming pool or spa water is prohibited.

D. The addition of gaseous disinfectant directly into a public or semipublic swimming pool is prohibited. The addition of dry or liquid disinfectant directly into a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa for routine disinfection is prohibited. This prohibition does not prohibit the use of liquid or dry disinfectants for shock treatment of a swimming pool or spa. A chlorine gas disinfection system shall not be used for the disinfection of water in a public or semipublic spa.

E. A common chlorine gas disinfection system may be utilized in separate swimming pools if separate metering and feeding devices are provided for each swimming pool.

F. If gaseous chlorine is used for disinfection, the following shall be provided:

1. The chlorinator, chlorine cylinders, and associated chlorination equipment shall be located in a separate well ventilated enclosure at or above ground level. The enclosure shall be reasonably gas-tight, noncombustible, and corrosion-resistant. The door of the enclosure shall open to the outside and shall not open directly toward the swimming pool.

2. If chlorination equipment is placed in a room, then an exhaust fan or gravity ventilation system shall be provided. Mechanical exhausters shall take suction 6 inches or less above the floor and discharge through corrosion-resistant louvers to a safe outside location. A gravity ventilation system shall be designed and constructed to discharge to the outside from floor level. Fresh air intakes shall be located no closer than 3 feet above the ventilation discharge. Chlorine room exhausts shall be directed away from the swimming pool to an area which is normally unoccupied. Chlorine room fans shall be capable of completely changing the air in the room at least once a minute.

3. Electrical switches to control lighting and ventilation in the chlorine room shall be located on the outside of the enclosure and adjacent to the door.

4. Chlorine cylinders shall be kept in an upright position and securely anchored to prevent them from falling. Chlorine cylinders may be stored indoors or out. If stored outside, chlorine cylinders shall not be stored in direct sunlight. Chlorine cylinders shall not be stored near an elevator, ventilation system, or heat source.

5. A warning sign shall be placed on the outside of the door to the chlorine room which cautions persons of the danger of chlorine gas within the enclosure. The warning shall be in letters 3 inches high or larger. The door to the chlorine room shall be provided with a shatter resistant inspection window.

6. Chlorinators shall be a solution-feed type, capable of delivering chlorine at its maximum rate without releasing chlorine gas to the atmosphere. Chlorinators shall be designed to prevent the backflow of water into the chlorine solution container.

G. Granular, tablet, stick, and other forms of dry disinfectant shall be fed by an adjustable automatic feeding device.

H. Disinfection equipment and chemical feeders shall comply with the requirements set forth in American National Standard/NSF International Standard 50, "Circulation System Components and Related Materials for Swimming Pools, Spas/Hot Tubs," NSF International, 3475 Plymouth Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan [revised July, 1996, and no future editions] which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department.

I. If a chemical feeder is used, it shall be installed to inject solution downstream from the filter and the heater. An erosion-type feeder may be installed to feed solution to the suction side of the pump. A chemical feeder shall be wired so it cannot operate unless the filter pump is running.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.235" level="4" title="Cross-Connection Control">

Cross-Connection Control

A. Cross-connections between the distribution system of a public water system and the water circulation system of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa are prohibited.

B. Potable water for make-up water purposes may be introduced into a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa in any of the following ways:

1. Through an over-the-rim spout with an air-gap of at least twice the diameter of the pipe and not less than 6 inches above the overflow level. If an over-the-rim spout is used, it shall be located so that it does present a tripping hazard. The open end of an over-the-rim spout shall have no sharp edges and shall not protrude more than 2 inches beyond the edge of the swimming pool or spa wall;

2. Through a float controlled make-up water feed tank with an air gap of at least 3 inches above the overflow level; or

3. Through a submerged inlet that is protected against backsiphonage by at least a pressure vacuum breaker that is installed so that the bottom of the backflow prevention assembly is a minimum of 12 inches above the level of the coping.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.236" level="4" title="Disposal of Filter Backwash, Wasted Swimming Pool or Spa Water, and Wastewater">

Disposal of Filter Backwash, Wasted Swimming Pool or Spa Water, and Wastewater

All sewage from plumbing fixtures, including urinals, toilets, lavatories, showers, drinking fountains, floor drains, and other sanitary facilities shall be disposed of in a sanitary manner. Filter backwash and wasted swimming pool or spa water shall be discharged into a sanitary sewer through an approved air gap, an approved subsurface disposal system, or by other means that are approved by the Department. The method of disposal shall comply with applicable disposal requirements established by a county, municipal, or other local authority. There shall be no direct physical connection between the sewer system and the water circulation system of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.237" level="4" title="Lifeguard Chairs">

Lifeguard Chairs

Each public swimming pool shall have at least one elevated lifeguard chair for each 3,000 square feet of pool surface area or fraction thereof. At least one lifeguard chair shall be located close to the deep area of the swimming pool and shall provide a clear, unobstructed view of the swimming pool bottom. If a public swimming pool is provided with more than one lifeguard chair or the width of the public swimming pool is 45 feet or more, then lifeguard chairs shall be located on each side of the public swimming pool.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.238" level="4" title="Lifesaving and Safety Equipment">

Lifesaving and Safety Equipment

A. Public and semipublic swimming pools shall have lifesaving and safety equipment that is conspicuously and conveniently located and maintained ready for immediate use at all times.

B. Each public or semipublic swimming pool shall have one ring buoy or a similar flotation device. Each ring buoy or flotation device shall be attached to 50 feet of 1/4 inch rope.

C. Each semipublic and public swimming pool shall have at least one shepherd crook that is mounted on a rigid 16-foot pole.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.239" level="4" title="Rope and Float Lines">

Rope and Float Lines

A rope and float line shall be installed across each public swimming pool on the shallow side of the break in grade between the shallow and deep portions of the pool [that is, within 1 to 2 feet of the point where the floor slope begins to exceed 1 foot in 10 feet]. The rope shall be a minimum of 3/4 inch in diameter and supported by floats spaced at intervals not greater than 7 feet. The rope and float line shall be securely fastened to wall anchors that are made of corrosion-resistant materials. The wall anchors shall be recessed or have no projection that constitutes a hazard when the float line is removed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.240" level="4" title="Barriers"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="3">

Barriers

A. A public swimming pool or spa and deck shall be entirely enclosed by a fence, wall, or barrier that is at least 6 feet high. A semipublic swimming pool or spa and deck shall be entirely enclosed by a fence, wall, or barrier that is at least 5 feet high. The height of the fence, wall, or barrier shall be measured on the side of the barrier which faces away from the swimming pool or spa.

B. Fences or walls shall:

1. Be constructed to afford no external handholds or footholds;

2. Be of materials that are impenetrable to small children;

3. Have no openings or spacings of a size that a spherical object 4 inches in diameter can pass through; and

4. Be equipped with a gate that opens outward from the swimming pool or spa. The gate shall be equipped with a self-closing and self-latching closure mechanism or a locking closure located at or near the top of the gate, on the pool side of the gate, and at least 54 inches above the floor.

C. The distance between the horizontal components of a fence shall not be less than 45 inches apart. The horizontal members shall be located on the interior side of the fence. Spacing or openings between vertical members shall be of a size that a spherical object 4 inches in diameter cannot pass through.

D. The maximum mesh size for a wire mesh or chain link fence shall be a 1 3/4 inches square.

E. Masonry or stone walls shall not contain indentations or protrusions except for normal construction tolerances and tooled masonry joints.

F. If a wall of a building serves as part of the barrier around a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa, there shall be no direct access to the swimming pool or spa through the wall except as follows:

1. Windows leading to the swimming pool or spa area shall be equipped with a screwed-in place wire mesh screen or a keyed lock that prevents opening the window more than 4 inches.

2. A hinged door leading to the swimming pool or spa area shall be self-closing and shall have a self-latching device. The release mechanism of the self-latching device shall be located at least 54 inches above the floor.

3. If an additional set of doors is required by the fire code allowing access to the swimming pool or spa, they shall be self-closing and self-latching, equipped with panic bars no less than 54 inches from the floor to the bottom of the bar and designated "For Emergency Use Only."

4. Sliding doors leading to the swimming pool or spa area are prohibited except for sliding doors that are self-closing and self-latching.

G. If a barrier is composed of a combination concrete masonry unit and wrought-iron, the wrought iron portion shall be installed flush with the outside vertical surface of the concrete masonry unit. The space between the wrought iron and the concrete masonry unit shall be 1/2 inch or less. The vertical members of the wrought iron shall be spaced 4 inches on center.

H. Filtration, disinfection, and water circulation equipment shall be enclosed by a wall or fence.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.241" level="4" title="Public Swimming Pools; Bathhouses and Dressing Rooms">

Public Swimming Pools; Bathhouses and Dressing Rooms

A. Separate dressing rooms shall be provided for each sex. Dressing rooms shall be equipped with baskets or other checking facilities.

B. All entrances to and exits from the dressing rooms shall be effectively screened to interrupt the line of sight of persons outside the dressing rooms.

C. Walls and partitions of dressing rooms, locker rooms, toilets, and showers shall be light colored, smooth, nonabsorbent, and easily cleanable. Concrete or pumice blocks used for interior wall construction in these locations shall be finished and sealed to provide a smooth and easily cleanable surface. Partitions shall be designed so that a waterway is provided between partitions and the floor to permit thorough cleaning of the walls and floor areas with hoses and brooms.

D. Floors shall be of nonslip construction, free of cracks or openings, and sloped to adequate drains so the surface will be free of standing water and puddles. Floors shall be sloped not less than 1/4 inch per foot toward the drains to ensure positive drainage. Carpeting is prohibited.

E. All furniture shall be of simple character and easily cleanable. Locker compartments, partitions, booths, furniture, and other appurtenances in dressing rooms shall be so installed or raised above the floor to permit washing down the dressing rooms and bathhouse interiors.

F. An adequate number of hose bibs shall be provided for washing down the dressing room or bathhouse interior.

G. Dressing rooms, toilets, and showers shall be provided with adequate lighting and ventilation.

H. Toilet facilities shall be provided for each sex. For male users, there shall be one toilet and one urinal for each 100 bathers or fraction thereof. For female users, there shall be one toilet for each 50 bathers, or fraction thereof. In no case shall less than two toilets be provided for female users. Sanitary napkin dispensers shall be installed in toilet or shower areas designated for female users.

I. Shower and handwashing facilities with hot and cold water and soap shall be provided for each dressing room. Hot and cold water shall be provided at all shower heads. The water heater and thermostatic mixing valve shall be inaccessible to users and shall be capable of providing two gallons per minute of 90&#176;F water to each shower head. A minimum of two shower heads shall be provided in each dressing room. Each dressing room shall have one shower head for each 50 bathers or fraction thereof.

J. One lavatory with an unbreakable mirror shall be provided in each dressing room for the first 100 users. An additional lavatory and unbreakable mirror shall be provided for each additional 100 users or fraction thereof. Soap dispensers for providing either liquid or powdered soap shall be provided at each lavatory. Soap dispensers shall be made of metal or plastic with no glass permitted.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.242" level="4" title="Semipublic Swimming Pools; Toilets and Lavatories">

Semipublic Swimming Pools; Toilets and Lavatories

A. A bathroom with a minimum of one toilet shall be provided for each sex.

B. Each bathroom shall have at least one lavatory. Soap dispensers for providing either liquid or powdered soap shall be provided at each lavatory. Soap dispensers shall be made of metal or plastic with no glass permitted.

C. An establishment that operates a semipublic swimming pool or spa and provides a private room with a toilet and lavatory for bathers shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements of this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.243" level="4" title="Drinking Water Fountains">

Drinking Water Fountains

Drinking water from an approved source and dispensed through one or more drinking fountains shall be located on the deck of each public swimming pool or spa.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.244" level="4" title="Wading Pools"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="3"><dwc name="chlorin" times="1">

Wading Pools

A. A wading pool is a type of public or semipublic swimming pool. The design criteria prescribed in this Article for public or semipublic swimming pools apply, except as provided in this Section.

B. A wading pool shall be physically set apart from public and semipublic swimming pools.

1. A wading pool shall be separated from a public swimming pool by a minimum 4-foot high fence or partition with a self-closing, self-latching gate.

2. A wading pool shall be separated from a semipublic swimming pool by at least 4 feet of deck.

3. A wading pool shall not be located adjacent to the deep area of a public or semipublic swimming pool.

C. A wading pool shall have a maximum depth of 24 inches. Water depths may be reduced from the stated maximums and brought to zero at the most shallow point of the wading pool.

D. The floor of a wading pool shall be uniform with a maximum slope of 1 foot of fall in 10 feet. The floor of a wading pool shall have a slip-resistant surface.

E. All wading pools shall have separate equipment for water circulation and disinfection. There shall be no cross-connection between the water circulation system of a wading pool and a public or semipublic swimming pool. The water in a wading pool shall have a maximum turnover cycle of 1 hour.

F. At least two main drains shall be provided at the deepest point in a wading pool. Each main drain shall be covered by a grate which cannot be removed by users. The openings in the grate shall have a total area that is at least four times the area of the drain pipe. In the alternative, a wading pool may be equipped with a single gravity drain which discharges to a surge tank.

G. Surface skimmers shall be provided on the basis of at least one skimmer for each 200 square feet of wading pool surface area. Surface skimmer flow rates shall be the same as required for public and semipublic swimming pools. Where only one skimmer is provided, the main drain may be connected through the skimmer.

H. Return inlets shall be provided and arranged to produce a uniform circulation of water and maintain a uniform disinfectant residual throughout the wading pool. Where three or more return inlets are required, they shall be on a closed loop piping system.

I. Suction outlets in a wading pool shall have plumbing provisions so as to relieve any possibility of entrapping suction.

J. Gaseous chlorine shall not be used for the disinfection of wading pool water.

K. A drinking fountain at a height convenient to small children or a drinking fountain with a raised step shall be provided in the area of the wading pool.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.245" level="4" title="Timers for Public and Semipublic Spas">

Timers for Public and Semipublic Spas

The timer for a public or semipublic spa which controls the hydrotherapy jets shall be located at least 5 feet from the spa and shall have a maximum time limit of 15 minutes.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.246" level="4" title="Air blower and Air Induction Systems for Public and Semipublic Spas">

Air blower and Air Induction Systems for Public and Semipublic Spas

An air blower system or air induction system for a public or semipublic spa shall comply with the following requirements:

1. The system shall prevent water backflow which could cause an electrical shock hazard.

2. Air intake sources shall not introduce water, dirt, or contaminants into the spa.

3. The system shall be properly sized for a commercial spa application.

4. If the air blower is installed within an enclosure or indoors, then adequate ventilation shall be provided.

5. Integral air passages shall be pressure tested and shall provide structural integrity to a value of 1 1/2 times the intended working pressure.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.247" level="4" title="Water Temperature in Public and Semipublic Spas">

Water Temperature in Public and Semipublic Spas

The temperature of heated water coming into a public or semipublic spa shall not exceed 104&#176;.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.248" level="4" title="Special Use Pools">

Special Use Pools

A. A person who intends to construct a special use pool shall notify the Department and provide plans, specifications, and a description of the intended use of the special use pool. The Department shall use best professional judgment in approving a special use pool, taking into consideration the intended use of the pool, the conditions under which it will operate, and the safety of users. The Department may consider the design requirements prescribed by an official sanctioning athletic body such as the National Collegiate Athletic Association [NCAA], National Federation of State High School Associations [NFSHSA], U.S. Swimming, U.S. Diving, or the Internationale de Natation Amateur [FINA] in using best professional judgement to approve a special use pool that is intended for competitive swimming and diving.

B. A special use pool that is designed with exercise or training bars in the pool shall be restricted to the special use when the bars are located in the pool. The bars shall:

1. Be constructed of durable and corrosion-resistant material;

2. Be sealed, welded shut, or capped at both ends to prevent retention of water within the bars;

3. Bars may be removable. Removable bars shall be wedge anchored in place and the anchors shall be covered. Water-tight anchor plugs [95% efficiency] shall be provided when the bars are removed; and

4. Extend not more than 4 inches from the side of the pool into the water. The minimum clear opening from the inside of the bar to the side of the swimming pool shall not be less than 2 inches.

D. A special use pool that is designed with a ramp shall comply with the following:

1. The ramp shall be constructed of slip-resistant material;

2. The slope of the ramp shall not exceed 1 foot in 12 feet;

3. The width of the ramp shall be at least 3 feet;

4. The ramp shall have a level platform at the top and the bottom of the ramp;

5. The ramp shall be equipped with at least a 3 1/2 foot high guardrail installed on the deck and extending the length of the ramp;

6. The ramp shall be constructed with return inlets located on the pool and ramp walls along the length of the ramp.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.249" level="4" title="Variances">

Variances

A. The Department may grant a variance from a requirement prescribed in this Article upon a demonstration by the applicant that an alternative design, material, appurtenance, or technology is equivalent to a requirement prescribed in this Article. If a variance is granted, it shall be conditioned upon the applicant's use of the approved alternative.

B. The Department shall not grant a variance that results in an unreasonable risk to the health of swimming pool or spa users.

C. The applicant shall request a variance in writing. A variance request shall contain the following information:

1. Identification of the requirement prescribed in this Article for which a variance is requested;

2. Explanation of the reasons why the applicant cannot comply with the requirement;

3. A complete description of the alternative design, material, or technology to be installed and used in the swimming pool or spa, including design plans, specifications, and a description of the cost;

4. A demonstration that the alternative design, material, or technology to be installed and used in the swimming pool or spa is equivalent to the requirement in this Article and will not result in an unreasonable risk to users; and

5. A statement that the applicant will perform reasonable requirements prescribed by the Department that are conditions of a variance.

D. The applicant shall submit a request for a variance with an application for design approval. The Department shall determine whether the application for design approval and the variance request are complete. Within 30 days after the date of the submittal of the application for design approval and the variance request, the Department shall issue a written notice to the applicant that states that the request for a variance and the application for design approval are complete or which states that the request for a variance or the application for design approval is incomplete and identifies specific information deficiencies in the application for design approval or the variance request.

E. The Department may convene an advisory committee consisting of representatives of public and semipublic swimming pool and spa owners, public and semipublic swimming pool and spa building contractors, professional engineers, and county environmental and health departments to make a recommendation on a variance request.

F. If the Department grants the request for a variance, the Department shall identify the requirement for which the variance is granted, specify any conditions to the grant of a variance, and issue a design approval. If the Department denies the request for a variance, the Department shall issue a notice of intent to deny the request for a variance to the applicant. The notice shall state the reasons for the denial of the request for a variance and shall include a description of the applicant's right to request a hearing on the denial of the variance request pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.03 and to request an informal settlement conference pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.06. If the Department denies a request for a variance, the Department may either deny the application for design approval or issue a design approval that requires compliance with the requirement for which the variance is requested.

G. In considering a request for a variance from a requirement prescribed in this Article, the Director shall consider the following factors:

1. The intended use of the public or semipublic swimming pool or spa;

2. The safety of the alternative design, material, or technology for which a variance is requested; and

3. The cost and other economic considerations associated with requiring compliance with the requirement prescribed in this Article as compared to the alternative for which a variance is requested.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.250" level="4" title="Inspections">

Inspections

A. An inspector from the Department, upon presentation of credentials, may enter into any public or semipublic swimming pool or spa to determine compliance with this Article. The inspector may inspect records, equipment, and facilities; take photographs; and take other action reasonably necessary to determine compliance with this Article.

B. The owner or manager of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa may accompany the inspector during an inspection.

C. An inspector from the Department may inspect a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa without giving prior notice of the inspection to the owner or operator of the swimming pool or spa.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.251" level="4" title="Enforcement">

Enforcement

A. If an inspector finds a violation of this Article, the Department may issue a notice of violation to the owner of a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa. A notice of violation shall state specifically the nature of the violation and shall allow a reasonable time for the owner to correct the violation.

B. If the Director has reasonable cause to believe that a person has constructed a public or semipublic swimming pool or spa in violation of this Article, the Director may order the closure of the swimming pool or spa by issuing a cease and desist order by following the procedures for abatement of environmental nuisances in A.R.S. &#167; 49-142.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

Illustration A. Diving Well Dimensions for Swimming Pools

<img src="18-05-1.gif"/>Note: This profile does not apply to a special use pool that is designed for competitive diving.

<table> A. Maximum length of diving board 10 feet B. Maximum height of board above the water 20 inches C. Overhang of the board from wall Minimum: 2 feet Maximum: 3 feet D. Minimum distance to an overhead structure 15 feet E. Minimum depth of water at the plummet 9 feet F. Distance from plummet to start of upslope 18 feet G. Minimum depth of water at start of the upslope Depth of water at plummet minus 6 inches H. Depth of water at the breakpoint Public swimming pool: 5 feet Semipublic swimming pool: 4 feet I. Maximum slope: breakpoint towards deep end 1 foot of fall in 3 feet J. Slope of bottom in shallow area 1 foot of fall in 10 feet Minimum width of pool in diving area 20 feet From plummet to pool wall at the side 10 feet </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

Illustration B. Minimum Distance Requirements for Decks

<img src="18-05-2.gif"/>Historical Note

Adopted effective February 19, 1998 (Supp. 98-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="WATER QUALITY MANAGEMENT PLANNING">

WATER QUALITY MANAGEMENT PLANNING

<regElement name="R18.5.301" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions established in R18-9-101, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan" means a plan prepared by a designated Water Quality Management Planning Agency under Section 208 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (P.L. 92-500) as amended by the Water Quality Act of 1987 (P.L. 100-4), certified by the Governor or the Governor's designee, and approved by the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

2. "Designated management agency" means those entities designated in a Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan to manage sewage treatment facilities and sewage collection systems in their respective area.

3. "Designated water quality planning agency" means the single representative organization designated by the Governor under Section 208 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (P.L. 92-500) as amended by the Water Quality Act of 1987 (P.L. 100-4) as capable of developing effective areawide sewage treatment management plans for the respective area. The state acts as the planning agency for those non-tribal portions of the state for which there is no designated water quality planning agency.

4. "Facility Plan" means the plans, specifications, and estimates for a proposed sewage treatment facility, prepared under Section 201 and 203 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (P.L. 92-500) as amended by the Water Quality Act of 1987 (P.L. 100-4), and submitted to the Department by and for a designated management agency.

5. "General Plan" means a municipal statement of land-development policies that may include maps, charts, graphs, and text that list objectives, principles, and standards for local growth and development enacted under state law.

6. "Service area" means the geographic region specified for a designated management agency by the applicable Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan, Facility Plan, or General Plan.

7. "State water quality management plan" means the following elements:

a. Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plans and amendments;

b. Water quality rules and laws;

c. Final total maximum daily loads approved by the United States Environmental Protection Agency for impaired waters;

d. Water quality priorities established by the Department;

e. Intergovernmental agreements between the Department and a designated water quality planning agency or a designated management agency; and

f. Active management area plans adopted by the Department of Water Resources.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 559, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.302" level="4" title="Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan Approval">

Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan Approval

A designated water quality planning agency shall submit a proposed Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan or plan amendment to the Director for review and approval. Upon approval, the Governor or the Governor's designee shall:

1. Certify that the plan or plan amendment is incorporated into and is consistent with the state water quality management plan, and

2. Submit the plan or plan amendment to the United States Environmental Protection Agency for approval.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 559, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.303" level="4" title="Determination of Conformance">

Determination of Conformance

All sewage treatment facilities, including an expansion of a facility, shall, before construction, conform with the Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan, Facility Plan, and General Plans as specified in subsections (1) and (2).

1. The Department shall make the determination of conformance if the sewage treatment facility or expansion of the facility conforms with the Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan and Facility Plan that prescribe a configuration for sewage treatment and sewage collection system management by a designated management agency within the service area.

2. If the condition specified in subsection (1) is not met, the Department shall make the determination of conformance as follows:

a. If no Facility Plan is applicable and a Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan as described in subsection (1) is available, the Department shall rely on the Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan for the determination of conformance.

b. If no Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan as described in subsection (1) is available, the Department shall make the determination of conformance based on conformance with applicable General Plans and after conferring with the designated water quality planning agency for the area and any responsible and affected governmental unit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 559, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="SUBDIVISIONS">

SUBDIVISIONS

<regElement name="R18.5.401" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In this Article unless the context otherwise requires:

1. "Approved" or "approval" means approved in writing by the Department.

2. "Condominium" means a subdivision established as a horizontal property regime pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 33-551 et seq.

3. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality or its designated representative.

4. "Garbage" means putrescible animal and vegetable wastes resulting from the handling, preparation, cooking and consumption of food.

5. "Refuse" means all putrescible and nonputrescible solid wastes (except body wastes), including garbage, rubbish, ashes, street cleanings, dead animals, abandoned automobiles, and solid market and industrial wastes.

6. "Subdivision" has the meaning defined in A.R.S. &#167; 32-2101.

Historical Note

Correction in subsection (E) citation to A.R.S. should have read &#167; 32-2101. Amended effective June 21, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-1011 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-401 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.402" level="4" title="Approval of plans required">

Approval of plans required

A. No subdivision or portion thereof shall be sold, offered for sale, leased or rented by any corporation, company or person, or offered to the public in any manner, and no permanent building shall be erected thereon until plans and specifications for the water supply, sewage disposal and method of garbage disposal to be provided in or to serve such subdivision shall have been submitted to and approved by the Department.

B. The plans of any proposed water supply and sewage disposal system shall be submitted in quadruplicate on a plat of the subdivision as recorded, or as will be recorded, in the office of the county recorder.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1012 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-402 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.403" level="4" title="Application for approval">

Application for approval

A. An application for approval, prepared in duplicate on forms furnished by the Department, shall be filed at the time the plans are submitted for approval. The form shall be completely filled out unless indicated otherwise.

B. The distance to the nearest public water supply main and to a sewer main of a municipal or community system shall be given.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1013 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-403 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.404" level="4" title="Size of lots">

Size of lots

The minimum size lot approved by the Department will be governed largely by the area necessary for the safe accommodation of individual wells and/or sewage disposal systems. Where both the water supply and sewage disposal system must be developed on the same lot, the minimum size shall be at least one acre, excluding streets, alleys and other rights-of-way. Where water from a central system is provided for residential uses, the lot shall be sufficient to accommodate the sewage disposal system and provide for at least 100 percent expansion of the system based on a four-bedroom house within the bounds of the property allowing a minimum of five feet distance to the property lines. Where lots are zoned for commercial uses, the lot shall be sufficient to accommodate the sewage disposal system and provide for at least 100 percent expansion of the system within the bounds of the property allowing a minimum of five feet distance to the property lines.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1014 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-404 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.405" level="4" title="Responsibility of subdivider">

Responsibility of subdivider

Where plans for a subdivision include a public water supply system, or public sewerage system, it shall be the responsibility of the subdivider to provide the facilities to each lot in the subdivision prior to human occupancy. The installation of such facilities shall be in accordance with plans, or any revisions thereof, approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1015 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-405 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.406" level="4" title="Public water systems">

Public water systems

A. Where water from an approved public water system is proposed for use in a subdivision, the inside diameter, length, and location of all proposed and existing water mains and valves necessary to serve each and every lot shall be shown on the subdivision plat. If the existing main to which a connection will be made is not immediately adjacent to the property, the direction and distance shall be indicated on the plat by an arrow or other suitable means.

B. A letter shall be obtained and submitted with the application for approval of the subdivision from responsible officials of the water system indicating that an agreement has been reached to supply water to each individual lot in the subdivision.

C. Where the owner of a subdivision, or other interested person, firm, company or corporation, proposes to develop a source or sources of supply and to construct a distribution system to furnish water to the subdivision, either free or for charge, complete details of the proposed water system including plans and specifications shall be furnished. Department approval of the supply and proposed system shall first be obtained before an approval for the sale of lots will be granted. The installation of such facilities shall be in accordance with the plans, and any revisions thereof, approved by the Department.

D. Proposed water supply and distribution systems shall comply with A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 4, Article 2, except those distribution lines which are a common element of a condominium shall be exempt from A.A.C. R18-4-234.

E. Where water from an approved public water system is proposed for use in a subdivision, the Department shall issue a Certificate of Approval for Sanitary Facilities for a Subdivision only if the applicant has complied with subsections (A) and (B) of this Section and the public water system is either:

1. in compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 4, Article 2; or

2. making satisfactory progress toward compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 4, Article 2 under a schedule approved by the Department.

F. The Department shall revoke the Certificate of Approval for Sanitary Facilities for a Subdivision and notify the Department of Real Estate of such action if the public water system in use by the subdivision is creating an environmental nuisance pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-141 and is neither:

1. is compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 4, Article 2; nor

2. making satisfactory progress toward compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 4, Article 2 under a schedule approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Amended effective June 21, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-1021 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-406 (Supp. 89-2). Amended effective July 25, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.5.407" level="4" title="Public sewerage systems">

Public sewerage systems

A. Where a public sewerage system is already in existence, or if sewers are proposed and have been approved by the Department, it shall be necessary to show lines indicating the approximate location and size of the sewers on the subdivision plat.

B. Where the proposed sewers will connect to an existing public sewerage system, a letter from officials of the system shall be required stating that acceptable plans have been submitted and that the subdivider has been granted permission to connect to and become a part of the public sewerage system.

C. Proposed sewage disposal facilities shall comply with A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 8, except those drain lines which are a common element of a condominium shall be exempt from R18-5-811.

D. Where a public sewerage system is already in existence, or if sewers are proposed and have been approved by the Department, the Department shall issue a Certificate of Approval for Sanitary Facilities for a Subdivision only if the applicant has complied with subsections (A) and (B) of this Section and the public sewerage system is either:

1. in compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 8; or

2. making satisfactory progress toward compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 8 under a schedule approved by the Department.

E. The Department shall revoke the Certificate of Approval for Sanitary Facilities for a Subdivision and notify the Department of Real Estate of such action if the public sewerage system in use by the subdivision is creating an environmental nuisance pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-141 and is neither:

1. In compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 8; nor

2. Making satisfactory progress toward compliance with the provisions of A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 8 under a schedule approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Amended effective June 21, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-1026 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-407 (Supp. 89-2). Amended effective July 25, 1990 (Supp. 90-3).

<regElement name="R18.5.408" level="4" title="Individual sewage disposal systems">

Individual sewage disposal systems

A. Recommendations are found in the engineering bulletins of the Department and such additional requirements as may be provided by local health departments to assist in approval regarding the design, installation and operation of individual sewage disposal systems. Copies of these bulletins may be obtained from the Department.

B. Where soil conditions and terrain features or other conditions are such that individual sewage disposal systems cannot be expected to function satisfactorily or where groundwater or soil conditions are such that individual sewage disposal systems may cause pollution of groundwater, they are prohibited.

C. Where such installations may create an unsanitary condition or public health nuisance, individual sewage disposal systems are prohibited.

D. The use of cesspools is prohibited.

E. Where an individual sewage disposal system is proposed, the following conditions shall be satisfied:

1. A geological report shall be made by an engineer, geologist or other qualified person. The geological report shall include results from percolation tests and boring logs obtained at locations designated by the county health departments. There shall be a minimum of one percolation test and boring log per acre, or one percolation test and boring log per lot where lots are larger than one acre, except when it can be shown by submission of other reliable data that soil conditions are such that individual disposal systems could reasonably be expected to function properly on each lot in the proposed subdivision. The Department may require additional tests when it deems necessary. The approval of a subdivision, based upon such reports, shall not extend to the plat if it is further subdivided or lot lines are substantially relocated.

2. Results of all tests shall be submitted to the Department and the local health department for review and approval of the subdivision for the use of individual sewage disposal systems.

3. Such approval must be obtained in writing from the local health department and a copy of the approval shall be submitted to the Department with the subdivision application for approval.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1027 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-408 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.409" level="4" title="Refuse disposal">

Refuse disposal

A. The storage, collection, transportation and disposal of refuse and other objectionable wastes shall be governed by A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 5.

B. Where an approved community or private refuse collection service is available, arrangements shall be made to have this service furnished to the subdivision. A letter, from the community or private collection company, stating that the collection service will be made available to the subdivision, is required.

C. Where refuse collection service is not available, it will be the responsibility of the subdivider to notify each purchaser or tenant that the hauling of all refuse is an individual responsibility and that all refuse must be properly stored pending removal and disposed of at disposal areas specified in the plan approved by the Department.

D. Where a collection service or an existing approved disposal area is not available to the subdivision, a plan approval will not be granted unless a separate disposal area is provided by the subdivider or arrangements are made to utilize a new, conveniently located disposal area. Such arrangements shall include, but not be limited to, the written permission of the person responsible for the operation of the new site.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1031 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-409 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.410" level="4" title="Condominiums">

Condominiums

A. New water distribution lines and new wastewater drain lines which are to be used as a common element of a condominium and are not under the ownership and control of a public utility shall be constructed in accordance with applicable provisions of the Uniform Plumbing Code adopted by reference in A.A.C. R9-1-412(D), including the minimum standards for construction contained therein.

B. Plans to be submitted shall include inside diameter, length and location of all proposed and existing common usage water distribution lines and inside diameter, length, slope and location of all proposed and existing common usage wastewater drain lines necessary to serve each and every unit. Plans and specifications should be submitted with sufficient detail to indicate compliance with subsection (A) above.

C. Appropriate sections of the covenants shall be submitted that indicate adequate provisions have been made for the maintenance of water distribution lines and wastewater drain lines in common usage.

D. Approval of existing housing to be converted to condominiums is conditioned upon the water distribution system and wastewater drainage system being:

1. Approved in writing at the time of original construction by the local building inspection authority, or

2. Currently operating under a permit issued by a local building inspection authority, or

3. Certified to be adequate by an Arizona registered professional engineer who has affixed his signature and seal to as-built plans submitted for approval.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 21, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-1032 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-410 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.5.411" level="4" title="Violations">

Violations

Any person, firm, company or corporation who offers for sale, lease or rent any tract of land contrary to these regulations shall be prosecuted in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-142 or as otherwise may be provided by law.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 21, 1978 (Supp. 78-3). Former Section R9-8-1036 renumbered without change as Section R18-5-411 (Supp. 89-2). Amended effective April 2, 1990 (Supp. 90-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="MINIMUM DESIGN CRITERIA">

MINIMUM DESIGN CRITERIA

Article 5, consisting of R18-5-501 through R18-5-509, recodified from 18 A.A.C. 4, Article 5 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.501" level="4" title="Siting Requirements">

Siting Requirements

To the extent practicable, a new public water system or an extension to an existing public water system shall be geographically located to avoid a site which is:

1. Subject to a significant risk from earthquakes, floods, fires, or other disasters which could cause a breakdown of the public water system or portion thereof; or

2. Within the flood plain of a 100-year flood, except for intake structures and properly protected wells.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-501 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.502" level="4" title="Minimum Design Criteria">

Minimum Design Criteria

A. A public water system shall be designed using good engineering practices. A public water system which is designed in a manner consistent with the criteria contained in Engineering Bulletin No. 10, "Guidelines for the Construction of Water Systems," issued by the Arizona Department of Health Services, May 1978 (and no future editions), which is incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State, shall be considered to have been designed using good engineering practices. Other system designs shall be approved if the applicant can demonstrate that the system will function properly and may be operated reliably in compliance with this Chapter. Minimum design criteria which are not subject to modification are listed in this Section.

B. A potable water distribution system shall be designed to maintain and shall maintain a pressure of at least 20 pounds per square inch at ground level at all points in the distribution system under all conditions of flow.

C. Water and sewer mains shall be separated in order to protect public water systems from possible contamination. All distances are measured perpendicularly from the outside of the sewer main to the outside of the water main. Separation requirements are as follows:

1. A water main shall not be placed:

a. Within 6 feet, horizontal distance, and below 2 feet, vertical distance, above the top of a sewer main unless extra protection is provided. Extra protection shall consist of constructing the sewer main with mechanical joint ductile iron pipe or with slip-joint ductile iron pipe if joint restraint is provided. Alternate extra protection shall consist of encasing both the water and sewer mains in at least 6 inches of concrete for at least 10 feet beyond the area covered by this subsection (C)(1)(a).

b. Within 2 feet horizontally and 2 feet below the sewer main.

2. No water pipe shall pass through or come into contact with any part of a sewer manhole. The minimum horizontal separation between water mains and manholes shall be 6 feet, measured from the center of the manhole.

3. The minimum separation between force mains or pressure sewers and water mains shall be 2 feet vertically and 6 feet horizontally under all conditions. Where a sewer force main crosses above or less than 6 feet below a water line, the sewer main shall be encased in at least 6 inches of concrete or constructed using mechanical joint ductile iron pipe for 10 feet on either side of the water main.

4. The separation requirements do not apply to building, plumbing, or individual house service connections.

5. Sewer mains (gravity, pressure, and force) shall be kept a minimum of 50 feet from wells unless the following conditions are met:

a. Water main pipe, pressure tested in place to 50 psi without excessive leakage, is used for gravity sewers at distances greater than 20 feet from water wells; or

b. Water main pipe, pressure tested in place to 150 psi without excessive leakage, is used for pressure sewers and force mains at distances greater than 20 feet from water wells. "Excessive leakage" means any amount of leakage which is greater than that permitted under the AWWA Standard applicable to the particular pipe material or valve type.

6. Requests for authorization to use alternate construction techniques, materials, and joints shall be reviewed by the Department, and such requests may be approved on a case-by-case basis.

D. A public water system shall not construct or add to its system a well which is located:

1. Within 50 feet from existing sewers unless the sewer main has been constructed in accordance with subsection (C)(5)(a) or (b) of this Section;

2. Within 100 feet of any existing septic tank or subsurface disposal system;

3. Within 100 feet of a discharge or activity which is required to obtain an Individual Aquifer Protection Permit, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241(A) through 49-251;

4. Within 100 feet of an underground storage tank as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001; or

5. Within 100 feet of hazardous waste facilities operated by large quantity generators and treatment, storage, and disposal facilities regulated under the Arizona Hazardous Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-502 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.503" level="4" title="Storage Requirements">

Storage Requirements

A. The minimum storage capacity for a CWS or a noncommunity water system that serves a residential population or a school shall be equal to the average daily demand during the peak month of the year. Storage capacity may be based on existing consumption and phased as the water system expands.

B. The minimum storage capacity for a multiple-well system for a CWS or a noncommunity water system that serves a residential population or a school may be reduced by the amount of the total daily production capacity minus the production from the largest producing well.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-503 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.504" level="4" title="Prohibition on the Use of Lead Pipe, Solder, and Flux"> <dwc name="lead" times="3">

Prohibition on the Use of Lead Pipe, Solder, and Flux

Construction materials used in a public water system, including residential and non-residential facilities connected to the public water system, shall be lead-free as defined at R18-4-101. This Section shall not apply to leaded joints necessary for the repair of cast iron pipes.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-504 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.505" level="4" title="Approval to Construct">

Approval to Construct

A. The Department shall only approve an addition or a water main extension to a public water system that is in compliance with this Chapter or is making satisfactory progress towards compliance under a schedule approved by the Department. The Department shall approve a properly designed modification that can be expected to return a public water system to compliance.

B. A person shall not start to construct a new public water system, modify an existing facility, including an extension to an existing public water system, or make an alteration that will affect the treatment, capacity, water quality, flow, distribution, or operational performance of a public water system before receiving an Approval to Construct from the Department. Designing or consulting engineers may confer with the Department before proceeding with detailed designs of complex or innovative facilities. The following provisions shall apply:

1. An application for Approval to Construct, including the following documents and data, shall be submitted to the Department:

a. Detailed construction plans of the site and work to be done, presented in legible form and of sufficient scale, to establish construction requirements to facilitate effective review;

b. Complete specifications to supplement the plans;

c. A design report that describes the proposed construction and basis of design, provides design data and other pertinent information that defines the work to be done, and establishes the adequacy of the design to meet the system demand;

d. Analyses of a proposed new source of water that include:

i. Microbiological; physical; radiochemical; inorganic, organic, and volatile organic chemicals; and

ii. Microscopic particulates if the source meets the criteria of R18-4-301.01(A); and

e. Other pertinent data required to evaluate the application for Approval to Construct.

2. All plans, specifications, and design reports submitted for a public water system shall be prepared by, or under the supervision of, a professional engineer registered in Arizona and have the seal and signature of the engineer affixed to them, except that an engineer not registered in Arizona may design a water treatment plant or additions, modifications, revisions, or extensions, which include extensions to potable water distribution systems, if the total cost of the construction does not exceed $12,500 for material, equipment, and labor, as verified by a cost estimate submitted with plan documents.

3. An existing public water system shall be exempt from the plan review requirements of this Article if the public water system is in compliance with this Chapter or is making satisfactory progress towards compliance under a schedule approved by the Department if the applicable structural revision, addition, extension, or modification:

a. Has a project cost of $12,500 or less; or

b. Is made to a water line that:

i. Is not for a subdivision requiring plat approval by a city, town, or county;

ii. Has a project cost of more than $12,500 but less than $50,000; and

iii. Has a design that is sealed and signed by a professional engineer registered in Arizona and the construction of which is reviewed for conformance with the design by a professional engineer registered in Arizona.

4. Upon completion of a project exempt from the plan review requirements of this Article pursuant to subsection (B)(3), the public water system shall submit a notice of compliance which contains:

a. A fair market value cost estimate for the project,

b. The name of the design engineer and the review engineer, and

c. The project completion date and the total construction time.

C. The Department shall act upon a complete Approval to Construct application submitted for approval within 30 days after its receipt.

D. The Department shall issue an Approval to Construct only when the following conditions have been met:

1. Plans and specifications submitted to the Department demonstrate that the proposed public water system reasonably can be expected to comply with this Chapter, including the MCLs in Article 2; and

2. The water system is in compliance with this Chapter or reasonably can be expected to return to compliance with this Chapter as a result of the proposed construction.

E. An Approval to Construct becomes void if an extension of time is not granted by the Department within 90 days after the passage of one of the following:

1. Construction does not begin within one year after the date the Approval to Construct is issued, or

2. There is a halt in construction of more than one year, or

3. Construction is not completed within three years after the date construction begins.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-505 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.506" level="4" title="Compliance with Approved Plans">

Compliance with Approved Plans

All construction shall conform to approved plans and specifications. In order to make a change in an approved design that will affect water quality, capacity, flow, sanitary features, or performance, a public water system shall submit revised plans and specifications to the Department for review, together with a written statement regarding the reasons for the change. The public water system shall not proceed with the construction affected by the design change without written approval from the Department. Revisions not affecting water quality, capacity, flow, sanitary features, or performance may be permitted during construction without further approval if record drawings documenting these changes, prepared by a professional engineer registered in Arizona, are submitted to the Department under R18-5-508.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-506 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.507" level="4" title="Approval of Construction">

Approval of Construction

A. A person shall not operate a newly constructed facility until an Approval of Construction is issued by the Department.

B. The Department shall not issue an Approval of Construction on a newly constructed public water system, an extension to an existing public water system, or any alteration of an existing public water system that affects its treatment, capacity, water quality, flow, distribution, or operational performance unless the following requirements have been met:

1. A professional engineer registered in Arizona or a person under the direct supervision of a professional engineer registered in Arizona, has completed a final inspection and submitted a Certificate of Completion on a form approved by the Department to which the seal and signature of the professional engineer registered in Arizona have been affixed;

2. The construction conforms to approved plans and specifications, as indicated in the Certificate of Completion, and all changes have been documented by the submission of record drawings under R18-5-508;

3. An operations and maintenance manual has been submitted and approved by the Department if construction includes a new water treatment facility; and

4. An operator, who is certified by the Department at a grade appropriate for each facility, is employed to operate each water treatment plant and the potable water distribution system.

C. The Department may conduct the final inspection required in subsection (B)(1), at a public water system's request, if both of the following notification requirements are met:

1. The public water system notifies the Department at least seven days before beginning construction on a public water system installation, change, or addition that is authorized by an Approval to Construct; and

2. The public water system notifies the Department of completion of construction at least 10 working days before the expected completion date.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-507 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.508" level="4" title="Record Drawings"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Record Drawings

A. A professional engineer registered in Arizona shall clearly and accurately record or mark, on a complete set of working project drawings, each deviation from the original plan and the dimensions of the deviation. The set of marked drawings becomes the record drawings, reflecting the project as actually built.

B. The professional engineer registered in Arizona shall sign, date, and place the engineer's seal on each sheet of the record drawings and submit them to the Department upon completion of the project. The record drawings shall be accompanied by an Engineer's Certificate of Completion, signed by the professional engineer registered in Arizona, and submitted on a form approved by the Department for any project inspected under R18-5-507(B).

C. Quality control testing results and calculations, including pressure and microbiological testing, and disinfectant residual records, shall be submitted with the Engineer's Certificate of Completion together with field notes and the name of the individual witnessing the tests.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-508 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.5.509" level="4" title="Modification to Existing Treatment Process">

Modification to Existing Treatment Process

Before a public water system may make a modification to its existing treatment process, the public water system shall submit and obtain the Department's approval for a detailed plan that explains the proposed modifications and the safeguards that the public water system will implement to ensure that the quality of the water served by the system will not be adversely affected by the modification. The public water system shall comply with the provisions in the approved plans.

Historical Note

Section recodified from R18-4-509 at 10 A.A.R. 585, effective January 30, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

TITLE 18. ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

<regElement name="CHAPTER 6" level="2" title="DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY">

DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

PESTICIDES AND WATER POLLUTION CONTROL

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="NUMERIC VALUES AND INFORMATION SUBMITTAL">

NUMERIC VALUES AND INFORMATION SUBMITTAL

<regElement name="R18.6.101" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="microorgan" times="1"><dwc name="bacteria" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-301, the words and phrases in this Chapter shall have the following meaning:

1. "Active ingredient" means all of the following:

a. In the case of a pesticide other than a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant, an ingredient which will prevent, destroy, repel or mitigate any pest.

b. In the case of a plant regulator, an ingredient which, through physiological action, will accelerate or retard the rate of growth or rate of maturation or otherwise alter the behavior of ornamental or crop plants or the product thereof.

c. In the case of a defoliant, an ingredient which will cause the leaves or foliage to drop from a plant.

d. In the case of a desiccant, an ingredient which will artificially accelerate the drying of plant tissue.

2. "Agricultural use pesticide" means any pesticide intended for use directly in the commercial production of plants and animals. It does not include animal pesticide eartags, or pesticides intended solely for use within and around confined structures.

3. "Applicator" means any person who applies, or causes to have applied, any agricultural use pesticide whether for his own use or on the property of other persons.

4. "Applicator certification number means a number issued by the Arizona Department of Agriculture and assigned to an applicator for the purposes of applying or supervising the application of a restricted use pesticide.

5. "Carcinogenic" means that property of a substance which causes cancer in humans.

6. "Crop" means the commodity upon which a pesticide is to be applied.

7. "Custom applicator license number" means a number issued by the Arizona Department of Agriculture and assigned to a person for the purposes of applying pesticides for hire or by air.

8. "Data generator" means any person providing information to support the registration in this state of an agricultural use product pursuant to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(A).

9. "Dealer" means a person or persons engaging in the distribution and sale of agricultural use pesticides.

10. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

11. "Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality.

12. "EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

13. "Field studies" means studies conducted under actual field conditions that replicate those circumstances under which a pesticide is normally used, to determine the mobility and persistence of the pesticide pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-307 and 49-225.

14. "Final sale" means the final sale prior to the application of the agricultural use pesticide to the agricultural crop.

15. "Formulator" means any person who purchases an EPA- registered pesticide to reformulate or repackage and register for sale in this state.

16. "Grower" means a person who makes purchases of agricultural use pesticides or contracts for the application of agricultural use pesticides to commercial agricultural commodities, as part of the person's normal course of employment or activity as an owner, lessee, sublessee, share cropper or manager of land upon which application of pesticides is made.

17. "Grower's permit number" means a number issued by the Arizona Department of Agriculture and assigned to a particular organization, cooperative, or establishment, for the purpose of purchasing pesticides which are to be used on agricultural commodities for pest control.

18. "Label" means the written, printed, or graphic matter on, or attached to, the pesticide or device or any of its containers or wrappers.

19. "Labeling" means all labels and all other written, printed, or graphic matter either accompanying the pesticide or device at any time or to which reference is made on the label or in literature accompanying the pesticide or device, except to current official publications of the Environmental Protection Agency, the United States Departments of Agriculture and Interior, the Department of Health and Human Services, state experiment stations, state agricultural colleges, and other similar federal or state institutions or agencies authorized by law to conduct research in the field of pesticides.

20. "Mutagenic" means that property of a substance which causes genetic change or alteration in humans.

21. "New pesticide" means any pesticide not registered in Arizona before December 1, 1987. A formulation consisting entirely of a mixture of active or specified ingredients previously registered in Arizona, and for which numeric values required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-303 have been accepted by the Department, shall not be considered a new pesticide.

22. "Nonagricultural use pesticide" means any pesticide not included within the definition of "agricultural use pesticide".

23. "Pest" means any undesirable insect, vertebrate, nematode, fungus, weed, or any other form of terrestrial or aquatic plant or animal life or virus, bacteria, or any other microorganism, except on or in living man, that is, or may be, injurious to vegetation, humans, animals, households or is, or may be, injurious when present in any environment.

24. "Restricted use pesticide" means a pesticide classified as such by the EPA.

25. "Seller's permit number" means a number issued by the Arizona Department of Agriculture and assigned to a particular organization, cooperative or establishment, for the purpose of selling or offering to sell pesticides in the state except as exempted under R3-10-209(B).

26. "Soil-applied" means a pesticide which is intended to be applied to or injected into the soil by ground-based application equipment or by chemigation, or the label of the pesticide requires or recommends that the application be followed within 72 hours by flood or furrow irrigation.

27. "Supplier" means a person engaged in the sale of a pesticide to another person for the purpose of reformulation or repackaging and registering for sale in this state.

18. "Teratogenic" means that property of a substance that can cause fetal malformations in humans.

29. "Toxic to humans" means that property of a substance which causes, when present in sufficient concentration, an adverse effect in humans if ingested, inhaled, or otherwise absorbed into the human body.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2). Amended effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.6.102" level="4" title="Information submittal">

Information submittal

A. An initial information submittal shall consist of a transmittal letter and a completed three-page tabular summary form, with the studies required pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-302 attached. A pesticide registrant shall submit the information specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(A) for each active ingredient in each agricultural use pesticide registered by that pesticide registrant for use in this state. A three-page tabular summary form shall be provided by the Director to facilitate compliance with this requirement. The summary form shall contain the following:

1. Company name and address.

2. Name and telephone number of person making the submittal.

3. Date of filing.

4. Product information (brand name, Environmental Protection Agency registration number, formulation category, and intended use).

5. Active ingredient (technical name, Chemical Abstract Service (CAS) No., and common name), and, in addition to information required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302, the following regarding each active ingredient:

a. Molecular weight.

b. Bulk density.

B. The information required in A.R.S. &#167; 49-302 shall be submitted when an agricultural use pesticide is first registered in the state of Arizona and at the time of the annual registration process if new or amended information is available for a pesticide or active ingredient.

C. The registration of a new pesticide shall not be granted until the Director determines both of the following:

1. That a groundwater protection data gap does not exist for any active ingredient in the new pesticide.

2. Whether the new pesticide will be added to the Groundwater Protection list.

D. A request for a time extension for submitting information required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(A)(6) shall be in writing and shall identify the pesticide registrant, the pesticide product, the address of the registrant, the reason or reasons why such an extension is warranted, and the status of ongoing dissipation studies. Any communication by the Director with a pesticide registrant approving or denying a time extension shall be in writing.

E If a pesticide registrant fails to request an extension as provided by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(D) and (E), fails to submit all of the information as required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(A) and (B), or fails to submit data which is valid, complete and adequate, the pesticide registrant shall be notified by the Department that a groundwater protection data gap exists pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-304. Failure to respond to the notification shall result in cancellation or denial of registration pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-306.

F. If a pesticide registrant fails to submit the information required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302 and this Article, the Director may determine that an active ingredient or pesticide is critical to agricultural production in Arizona. Any interested party may request this determination from the Director. In order to determine that an active ingredient or pesticide is critical to agricultural production in Arizona, the Director shall find either of the following:

1. There is no economical, practical and effective alternative method or practice of pest control available, and the gross dollar value of annual agricultural production supported by the pesticide exceeds the cost of securing the information.

2. The pesticide is needed to support a new or developing crop as identified by a public or private research agency or educational institution.

G. If the Director determines that an active ingredient or a pesticide is critical to agricultural production in this state, and if the Director determines that an appropriate amount of funding is available through the methods described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-306(C), the Director shall obtain and file the information required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302 for that active ingredient or pesticide.

H. Whenever the Director undertakes the filing of information as described in subsections (F) and (G), the Director shall notify in writing the registrant of the pesticide or the active ingredient of his finding and his intent to file the required information. In addition, the Director shall notify any other persons who have requested in writing that they be notified of the Director's determination that a pesticide is critical to agriculture.

I. A dispute regarding costs assessed against a pesticide registrant to cover the costs accrued by the Department in obtaining and filing information in the manner described in subsections (F) and (G) shall be submitted by the registrant or the Director to mediation under the Commercial Mediation Rules, The American Arbitration Association, New York, New York (October 1987) (and no future editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and with the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2). Amended effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.6.103" level="4" title="Specific numeric values">

Specific numeric values

Each pesticide registered for agricultural use in Arizona shall be evaluated on the basis of the following specific numeric values pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-303:

PROPERTY SPECIFIC NUMERIC VALUES

Water solubility No greater than 30 ppm

Soil absorption

coefficient Kd no less than 5

Hydrolysis Half life no greater than 25 weeks

Aerobic soil

metabolism Half life no greater than 3 weeks

Anaerobic soil

metabolism Half life no greater than 3 weeks

Field dissipation Half life no greater than 3 weeks

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2).

<regElement name="R18.6.104" level="4" title="Field studies, monitoring and testing">

Field studies, monitoring and testing

A. The Director shall conduct field studies for pesticides placed upon the Groundwater Protection List as required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-307(A).

B. For each agricultural use pesticide, the Director shall use the results of soil and groundwater monitoring and testing to make the determinations required by AR.S. &#167;&#167; 49-307(C), 49-308(A) and (B), and 49-309(A), (B), or (D).

C. For each nonagricultural use pesticide, the Director shall use the results of soil and groundwater monitoring and testing to make determinations identical to those required by subsection (B) for an agricultural use pesticide.

D. If the determinations listed in subsection (C) cannot be made after study and monitoring, the Director shall follow the procedures for deleting described in R18-6-105.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2).

<regElement name="R18.6.105" level="4" title="Listing or deleting of pesticides on the groundwater protection list">

Listing or deleting of pesticides on the groundwater protection list

A. The Director shall add an agricultural use pesticide to the Groundwater Protection List for any of the following reasons:

1. A complete dissipation study is not submitted for a pesticide as required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-302(A)(6).

2. A pesticide fails to comply with the specific numeric values established in R18-6-103.

3. A pesticide active ingredient is detected consistent with the testing requirements of R18-6-104 and is found under conditions described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-308(A).

4. A pesticide degradation product or other specified ingredient is detected consistent with the requirements of R18-6-104, where the pesticide degradation product or other specified ingredient poses a threat to public health pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-308(A)(3) and has been found under the conditions described in paragraph (3) of this subsection.

B. The Director shall add a nonagricultural use pesticide to the Groundwater Protection List for any of the following reasons:

1. The detection of a pesticide active ingredient under conditions identical to those given for an agricultural use pesticide under A.R.S. &#167; 49-308(A).

2. The detection of a pesticide degradation product or other specified ingredient consistent with the requirements of R18-6-104, where the pesticide degradation product or other specified ingredient poses a threat to public health and has been found under the conditions described in paragraph (1) of this subsection.

C. The Director may remove a pesticide from the Groundwater Protection list under any of the following circumstances:

1. In the case of agricultural use pesticide, the pesticide is no longer considered to have the potential to pollute groundwater due to a change in a specific numeric value established in R18-6-103, or due to a revision in the specific numeric values for an active ingredient established by new research studies.

2. In the case of a nonagricultural use pesticide, the manufacturer has modified the pesticide label and has demonstrated that future applications will not result in a potential to pollute groundwater in this State.

3. In the case of a nonagricultural use pesticide, monitoring and testing results establish that:

a. A degradation product or other specified ingredient of the pesticide does not pose a threat to public health.

b. The pesticide active ingredient, other specified ingredient, or degradation product found in the soil or groundwater, or both, either has not polluted, or does not threaten to pollute, the groundwater of this State.

4. The registration of the pesticide has been cancelled under either of the following circumstances:

a. The State Chemist has cancelled the registration of the pesticide pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 3-343(C), 3-351(1), 49-306, or 49-309.

b. The registration of the pesticide has been voluntarily cancelled by the registrant.

D. Any person may petition the Director to add or delete a pesticide to or from the Groundwater Protection List. Such a request shall be consistent with the procedures for rule making and petitioning prescribed by A.R.S. &#167; 41-1033 and shall consist of a written request to add or delete the substance with reasons for the request. In determining whether to grant or deny the petition, the Director shall consider the following:

1. Whether the petitioner has supported the petition for the adoption of a rule with documentation in the form of information studies, and conclusions, based upon procedures consistent with those described in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-301 through 49-309 and R18-6-104.

2. Whether the supporting documentation demonstrates that the substance should be added to or deleted from the Groundwater Protection List.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2).

<regElement name="R18.6.106" level="4" title="Additional Informational Requirements; Pesticide Formulators">

Additional Informational Requirements; Pesticide Formulators

A. Subject to the provisions of this Section, a pesticide formulator may rely upon the data generated by any person to meet the requirements of R18-6-102. A pesticide formulator shall submit to the Department the name of each source of each active ingredient in each agricultural use pesticide registered by that formulator for use in this state.

B. The Department shall request each source identified by the pesticide formulator to verify within 30 days, in writing, that they provide the pesticide formulator with the active ingredient in question.

C. If the source identified by the pesticide formulator advises the Department that they are not a source of the active ingredient for the pesticide formulator, the Department shall notify the pesticide formulator of that fact and shall require further documentation of a business relationship involving the active ingredient in question. This documentation will take the form of a copy of a confidential statement of formula, a signed contract, or any other documentation of a business arrangement, endorsed by each party.

D. If the pesticide formulator does not produce acceptable documentation of a business relationship pursuant to subsection (C) of this Section or if the source identified by the pesticide formulator is not a data generator for the active ingredient in question, the Department shall find that a data gap exists for the formulator's agricultural use pesticide, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-301(4) and subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-304.

E. Any pesticide formulator relying on data submitted by identified sources shall notify the Department of any changes in a source within 60 days of a similar notification to the EPA.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="PESTICIDE CONTAMINATION PREVENTION">

PESTICIDE CONTAMINATION PREVENTION

<regElement name="R18.6.201" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 27, 1987 (Supp. 87-3). Repealed effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="GROUNDWATER PROTECTION LIST">

GROUNDWATER PROTECTION LIST

<regElement name="R18.6.301" level="4" title="Groundwater Protection List"> <dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="alachlor" times="1"><dwc name="atrazin" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="3"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="picloram" times="4"><dwc name="simazin" times="1">

Groundwater Protection List

The following pesticides are on the Groundwater Protection List because they have been identified pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-305 and 49-303(B)(2) following evaluation on the basis of criteria given in R18-6-103 and R18-6-105.

2,4-D Acid

2,4-D Alkanol-amine salts of ethanol and isopropanol

2,4-D Alkyl amine salt

2,4-D Alkyl amine

2,4-D Butoxyethyl ester

2,4-D Butyl ester

2,4-D DDA (Dodecyclamine salt)

2,4-D Diethanolamine salt

2,4-D Dimethylamine salt

2,4-D Ethylhexyl ester

2,4-D Isobutyl ester

2,4-D Isooctyl (2-Ethyl-4-Methylpentyl) ester

2,4-D Isooctyl (2-Ethylhexyl) ester

2,4-D Isopropylamine salt

2,4-D N-Oleyl-1,3-Propylenediamine salt

2,4-D TDA (Tetradecylamine)

2,4-D Triethylamine salt

2,4-D Triisopropanolamine salt

2,4-DB butoxyethyl ester

2,4-DB, DMA salt

1,2-Dichloropropene

Acephate

Acrolein

Alachlor

Aldicarb

Ametryn

Amitrole

Arsenic Acid

Asulam, sodium salt

Atrazine

Azinphos-methyl

Bendiocarb

Benomyl

Bromacil

Butylate

Cacodylic Acid

Captan

Carbaryl

Carbofuran

Carboxin

Chlorothalonil

Chlorsulfuron

Copper sulfate

Cyanazine

Cycloate

Cyromazine

Diazinon

Dicamba acid

Dicamba, DEA salt

Dicamba, DMA salt

Dicambe, potassium salt

Dicamba, sodium salt

Dichlobenil

Dicloran

Diethathyl ethyl

Difenzoquat methyl sulfate

Dimethoate

Diphenamid

Diquat dibromide

Diuron

DPX-M6316

Endosulfan

Endothall

Endothall, dipotassium salt

Endothall, disodium salt

EPTC

Ethephon

Ethofumesate

Ethoprop

Ethyl parathion

Etridiazole

Fenamiphos

Fenarimol

Fluazifop-p-butyl

Fluazifop-r-butyl

Flucythrinate

Fluometuron

Fluridone

Fosamine ammonium

Fosetyl-Al

Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt

Hexazinone

Imazamethabenz - methyl (meta)

Imazamethabenz - methyl (para)

Imazalil

Imazaquin

Isazofos

Lindane

Linuron

Malathion

Maleic hydrazide, potassium salt

MCPA

MCPA - DMA salt

MCPA - isooctyl ester

MCPA - sodium salt

Mepiquat chloride

Metaldehyde

Metalaxyl

Metam - Na

Methamidophos

Methiocarb

Methomyl

Methyl parathion

Metolachlor

Metribuzin

Metsulfuron methyl

Mevinphos

Monocrotophos

Myclobutanil

Napropamide

Norflurazon

Oryzalin

Oxamyl

Oxydemeton-methyl

Paraquat

Pebulate

Phosmet

Phosphamidon

Picloram

Picloram, isooctyl ester

Picloram, triisopropanalomine salt

Picloram, potassium salt

Piperonyl butoxide

Profenofos

Prometon

Prometryn

Proamide

Propamocarb

Propiconazole

Pyrazon

Sethoxydim

Simazine

Sodium bentazon

Sodium chlorate

Sulfometuron-methyl

Sulprofos

Tebuthiuron

Terbacil

Terbufos

Terbutryn

Thidiazuron

Thiodicarb

Thiophanate-methyl

Thiram

Triadimefom

Trichlorfon

Trichlpyr

Triclopyr, butoxyethyl ester

Triclopyr, triethylamine salt

Triforine

Vernolate

Vinclozolin

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.6.302" level="4" title="Findings and determinations to be made by the Director">

Findings and determinations to be made by the Director

A. If the Director makes the determinations described in R18-6-104(B) or (C), the Director shall immediately notify the registrant in writing of these determinations. The status of the registration of the pesticide shall be determined under A.R.S. &#167; 49-309.

B. If the Department discovers or otherwise becomes aware of the illegal sale or use of any pesticide on the Groundwater Protection List, such sale or use shall be reported by the Director to the appropriate regulatory agency and to the Office of the Attorney General.

C. If an active ingredient, degradation product or other specified ingredient of a pesticide has been detected under conditions specified in R18-6-104 but did not result from use in accordance with the pesticide label, then the Director shall refer any findings to the appropriate state or federal agency responsible for further investigation and enforcement.

D. If the Department discovers a site which may demonstrate pesticide contamination, the Director shall determine whether remedial actions under A.R.S. &#167; 49-282 are appropriate.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 10, 1988 (Supp. 88-2). Amended effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.6.303" level="4" title="Requirements for Reporting on Pesticides on the Groundwater Protection List">

Requirements for Reporting on Pesticides on the Groundwater Protection List

A. A pesticide dealer shall file quarterly reports with the Director postmarked within 30 days after the end of a calendar quarter (March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) indicating the quantity and date of sales of agricultural use pesticides on the Groundwater Protection List that are soil-applied. A report is required only from a pesticide dealer who makes the final sale prior to use. Reports shall be made on forms prescribed by the Director and shall contain all of the following:

1. Name of dealer and seller's permit number;

2. Date of sale;

3. Name of purchaser and grower's permit number;

4. Product brand name and EPA registration number;

5. Active ingredients;

6. Formulation category (e.g., wettable powder, granular, emulsifiable concentrate, etc.);

7. Quantity sold;

8. Signature of dealer, grower or anyone who causes to apply.

B. A pesticide applicator shall report the use of any agricultural use pesticide on the Groundwater Protection List that is soil-applied. A report shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Director and shall be postmarked no later than the first Monday following the date of the pesticide application. If the first Monday following the date of the pesticide application is a holiday, the report shall be postmarked no later than the first working day following the holiday. The form shall contain the following:

1. Name of seller (dealer);

2. Name of grower;

3. Name of pesticide applicator (with applicator certification number, custom applicator license number, or grower permit number);

4. Pest condition to be controlled;

5. Crop and number of acres;

6. Location of use (county, township, range, section);

7. Name of the product used, including EPA Registration number;

8. Date, time, and method of application;

9. Amount of product applied per acre;

10. Signature of applicator.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 23, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 7" level="2" title="REMEDIAL ACTION">

REMEDIAL ACTION

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="EXPIRED">

EXPIRED

Article 1, consisting of Section R18-7-110, expired under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E) at 8 A.A.R. 4298, effective August 31, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.101" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective December 5, 1986, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 86-6). Emergency expired. Adopted, without change, as an emergency effective March 6, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-1). Emergency expired. Former Section R9-20-102 was renumbered as Section R18-7-101, amended and readopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-101 repealed; new Section renumbered from R18-7-110; both by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Summary renumbering action revoked; former numbering of Sections R18-7-101 and R18-7-110 restored effective January 22, 1999. Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.102" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective December 5, 1986, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 86-6). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as an emergency effective March 6, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-1). Emergency expired. Former Section R9-20-104 was renumbered as Section R18-7-102, amended and readopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-102 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.103" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-103 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.104" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-104 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.105" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective December 5, 1986, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 86-6). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as an emergency effective March 6, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-1). Emergency expired. Former Section R9-20-105 was renumbered as Section R18-7-105, amended and readopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-105 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.106" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective December 5, 1986, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 86-6). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as an emergency effective March 6, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-1). Emergency expired. Former Section R9-20-106 was renumbered as Section R18-7-106, amended and readopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-106 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.107" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-107 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.108" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-108 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

Editor's Note: Emergency amendment R18-7-109, removed in Supp. 97-3, was reinstated at the request of the Department. Refer to Supp. 97-1 for emergency rule. This Section was subsequently amended under the regular rulemaking process effective (Supp. 97-4). This Section was repealed by summary action (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.109" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective December 6, 1986, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1003 valid for only 90 days. Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as an emergency effective March 6, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-1). Emergency expired. Former Section R9-20-111 was renumbered as Section R18-7-109, amended and readopted as an emergency effective June 18, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). Section amended by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Amendment adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4). R18-7-109 repealed by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Adopted summary rules filed August 10, 1999; interim effective date of January 22, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.7.110" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Adopted as an emergency effective June 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-2). Emergency expired. Readopted without change as an emergency effective September 17, 1987, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 87-3). Emergency expired. Amended and adopted as a permanent rule effective December 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4). R18-7-110 renumbered by summary action with an interim effective date of January 22, 1999; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 29, 1998 (Supp. 98-4). Summary renumbering action revoked; former numbering of Sections R18-7-101 and R18-7-110 restored effective January 22, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Section expired under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E) at 8 A.A.R. 4298, effective August 31, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

Editor's Note: Emergency adopted Article 2 removed in Supp. 97-3, was reinstated at the request of the Department. Refer to Supp. 97-1 for emergency Sections. New Sections were subsequently adopted under the regular rulemaking process (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="SOIL REMEDIATION STANDARDS">

SOIL REMEDIATION STANDARDS

<regElement name="R18.7.201" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions provided in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-151 and 49-152, the following definitions apply in this Article:

1. "Aquifer Protection Program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3 and A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 9, Article 1.

2. "Background" means a concentration of a naturally occurring contaminant in soils.

3. "Cancer Group" means a category of chemicals listed by a weight-of-evidence assessment by the United States Environmental Protection Agency to evaluate human carcinogenicity. Based on this evaluation, chemicals are placed in one of the following categories: A - known human carcinogen; B1 or B2 - probable human carcinogen; C - possible human carcinogen; D - not classified as to human carcinogenicity; and E - evidence of non-carcinogenicity in humans.

4. "Carcinogen" or "carcinogenic" means a contaminant which has a cancer group designation of Class A, B1, B2, or C, but does not include a substance having cancer group designations D or E. The cancer group designation is found in Appendix A to the rule.

5. "Contact" means exposure to a contaminant through ingestion, inhalation, or dermal absorption.

6. "Contaminant" means a substance regulated by the programs listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B).

7. "Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

8. "Deterministic Risk Assessment Methodology" means a site-specific human health risk assessment, performed using a specific set of input variables, exposure assumptions, and toxicity criteria, represented by point estimates for each receptor evaluated, which results in a point estimate of risk.

9. "Ecological Community" means an assemblage of populations of different species within a specified location in space and time.

10. "Ecological Receptor" means a specific ecological community, population, or individual organism, protected by federal or state laws and regulations, or a local population which provides an important natural or economic resource, function, and value.

11. "Ecological Risk Assessment" is a scientific evaluation of the probability of an adverse effect to ecological receptors from exposure to specific types and concentrations of contaminants. An ecological risk assessment contains four components: identification of potential contaminants; an exposure assessment; a toxicity assessment; and a risk characterization.

12. "Engineering Control" means a remediation method used to prevent or minimize exposure to contaminants, and includes technologies that reduce the mobility or migration of contaminants.

13. "Excess Lifetime Cancer Risk" means the increased risk of developing cancer above the background cancer occurrence levels due to exposure to contaminants.

14. "Exposure" means contact between contaminants and organisms.

15. "Exposure Pathway" means the course a contaminant takes from a source to an exposed organism. Each exposure pathway includes a source or release from a source, an exposure point, and an exposure route. If the exposure point differs from the source, transport/exposure media (that is, air, water) are also included.

16. "Exposure Point" means a location of potential contact between a contaminant and an organism.

17. "Exposure Route" means the way a contaminant comes into contact with an organism (that is, by ingestion, inhalation, or dermal contact).

18. "Greenfields Pilot Program" means the system of requirements prescribed in Laws 1997, Ch. 296, &#167; 11.

19. "Groundwater" means water in an aquifer as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(2).

20. "Hazard Index" means the sum of hazard quotients for multiple substances and/or multiple exposure pathways, or the sum of hazard quotients for chemicals acting by a similar mechanism and/or having the same target organ.

21. "Hazardous Waste Management Program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Ch. 5, Article 2 and 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 2.

22. "Hazard Quotient" means the value which quantifies non-carcinogenic risk for one chemical for one receptor population for one exposure pathway over a specified exposure period. The hazard quotient is equal to the ratio of a chemical-specific intake to the reference dose.

23. "Imminent and substantial endangerment to the public health or the environment" has the meaning found in A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.02(C)(1).

24. "Institutional control" means a legal or administrative tool or action taken to reduce the potential for exposure to contaminants.

25. "Letter of Completion" means a Departmental statement which indicates whether the property in question has met the soil remediation standards set forth in this Article.

26. "Migrate" or "Migration" means the movement of contaminants from the point of release, emission, discharge, or spillage: through the soil profile; by volatilization from soil to air and subsequent dispersion to air; and by water, wind, or other mechanisms.

27. "Non-Residential Site-Specific Remediation Level" means a level of contaminants remaining in soil after remediation which results in a cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10

-6

and 1 x 10

-4

and a Hazard Index no greater than 1 based on non-residential exposure assumptions.

28. "Nuisance" means the activities or conditions which may be subject to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-141 and 49-104(A)(11).

29. "Person" means any public or private corporation, company, partnership, firm, association or society of persons, the federal government and any of its departments or agencies, this state or any of its agencies, departments, political subdivisions, counties, towns, municipal corporations, as well as a natural person.

30. "Population" means an aggregate of individuals of a species within a specified location in space and time.

31. "Probabilistic Risk Assessment Methodology" means a site-specific human health risk assessment, performed using probability distributions of input variables and exposure assumptions which take into account the variability and uncertainty of these values, which results in a range or distribution of possible risk estimates.

32. "Reasonable Maximum Exposure" or "RME" means the highest human exposure case that is greater than the average, but is still within the range of possible exposures to humans at a site.

33. "Remediate" or "remediation" has the meaning found in A.R.S. &#167; 49-151(2).

34. "Repository" means the Department's database, established under A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(D), from which the public may view information pertaining to remediation projects for which a Notice of Remediation has been submitted or a Letter of Completion has been issued.

35. "Residential Site-Specific Remediation Level" means a level of contaminants remaining in the soil after remediation which results in a cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10

-6

and 1 x 10

-4

and a Hazard Index no greater than 1 based on residential exposure assumptions.

36. "Residential Use" has the meaning found in A.R.S. &#167; 49-151(3).

37. "Site-Specific Human Health Risk Assessment" is a scientific evaluation of the probability of an adverse effect to human health from exposure to specific types and concentrations of contaminants. A site-specific human health risk assessment contains four components: identification of potential contaminants; an exposure assessment; a toxicity assessment; and a risk characterization.

38. "Soil" means all earthen materials located between the land surface and groundwater including sediments and unconsolidated accumulations produced by the physical and chemical disintegration of rocks.

39. "Soil Remediation Level" or "SRL" means a pre-determined risk-based standard developed by the Arizona Department of Health Services pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(A)(1)(a) and listed in Appendix A.

40. "Solid Waste Management program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Ch. 4, Article 4 and the rules adopted under those statutes.

41. "Special Waste Management program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Ch. 4, Article 9 and 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 3.

42. "Underground Storage Tank program" or "UST program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Ch. 6, Article 1 and 18 A.A.C. 12.

43. "Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction" or "VEMUR" means, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), a written document, signed by the real property owner and the Department, and recorded with the county recorder on the chain of title for a particular parcel of real property, which indicates that a remediation to a level less protective than residential standards has been completed and, unless subsequently canceled, that the owner agrees to restrict the property to non-residential uses.

44. "Voluntary Remediation Program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-104(A)(17).

45. "Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund" or "WQARF" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. Title 49, Ch. 2, Article 5 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 1.

46. "WQARF Voluntary Program" means the system of requirements prescribed in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-282.05 and 49-285(B).

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-201 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.202" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. This Article applies to a person legally required to conduct soil remediation by any of the following regulatory programs administered by the Department:

1. The Aquifer Protection Permit Program.

2. The Hazardous Waste Management Program.

3. The Solid Waste Management Program.

4. The Special Waste Management Program.

5. The Underground Storage Tank Program.

6. The Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund.

7. Any other program under A.R.S. Title 49 that regulates soil remediation.

B. This Article also applies to a person who is not legally required to conduct soil remediation, but who chooses to do so under any of the following programs administered by the Department:

1. The Greenfields Pilot Program.

2. The Voluntary Remediation Program.

3. The WQARF Voluntary Program.

C. The requirements of this Article apply in addition to any specific requirements of the programs described in subsections (A) or (B).

D. This Article is limited to soil remediation.

E. A person who is remediating soil at a site which is characterized before the effective date of this Article shall comply with either the Soil Remediation Standards adopted as an interim rule on March 29, 1996, or the Soil Remediation Standards adopted in this Article. A site is considered characterized when the laboratory analytical results of the soil samples delineating the nature, degree, and extent of soil contamination have been received by the person conducting the remediation.

F. Nothing in this Article limits the Department's authority to establish more stringent soil remediation levels in response to:

1. A nuisance.

2. An imminent and substantial endangerment to the public health or the environment.

G. This Article does not apply to persons remediating soil to numeric soil remediation levels specified in orders of the Director or orders of any Court that have been entered before the effective date of this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-202 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.203" level="4" title="Remediation Standards">

Remediation Standards

A. A person subject to this Article shall remediate soil so that any concentration of contaminants remaining in the soil after remediation is less than or equal to one of the following:

1. The background remediation standards prescribed in R18-7-204.

2. The pre-determined remediation standards prescribed in R18-7-205.

3. The site-specific remediation standards prescribed in R18-7-206.

B. A person who conducts a soil remediation based on the standards set forth in R18-7-205 or R18-7-206 shall remediate soil so that any concentration of contaminants remaining in the soil after remediation does not:

1. Cause or threaten to cause a violation of Water Quality Standards prescribed in 18 A.A.C. 11. If the remediation level for a contaminant in the soil is not protective of aquifer water quality and surface water quality, the person shall remediate soil to an alternative soil remediation level that is protective of aquifer water quality and surface water quality.

2. Exhibit a hazardous waste characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity as defined in A.A.C. R18-8-261(A). If the remediation level for a contaminant in the soil results in leaving soils that exhibit a hazardous waste characteristic other than toxicity, the person shall remediate soil to an alternative soil remediation level such that the soil does not exhibit a hazardous waste characteristic other than toxicity.

3. Cause or threaten to cause an adverse impact to ecological receptors. If the Department determines that the remediation level for a contaminant in soil may impact ecological receptors based on the existence of ecological receptors and complete exposure pathways, the person shall conduct an ecological risk assessment. If the ecological risk assessment indicates that any concentration of contaminants remaining in the soil after remediation causes or threatens to cause an adverse impact to ecological receptors, the person shall remediate soil to an alternative soil remediation level, derived from the ecological risk assessment, that is protective of ecological receptors.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 59; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-203 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.204" level="4" title="Background Remediation Standards">

Background Remediation Standards

A. A person may elect to remediate to a background concentration for a contaminant.

B. A person who conducts a remediation to a background concentration for a contaminant shall establish the background concentration using all of the following factors:

1. Site-specific historical information concerning land use.

2. Site-specific sampling of soils unaffected by a release, but having characteristics similar to those of the soils affected by the release.

3. A statistical analysis of the background concentrations using the 95th percentile upper confidence limit.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-204 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.205" level="4" title="Pre-Determined Remediation Standards"> <dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1">

Pre-Determined Remediation Standards

A. A person may elect to remediate to the residential or non-residential Soil Remediation Levels (SRLs) set forth in Appendix A.

B. A person who conducts an SRL-based remediation shall remediate to the residential SRL on any property where there is residential use at the time remediation is completed.

C. A pre-determined contaminant standard established by federal law or regulation may be used for polychlorinated biphenyl cleanups regulated pursuant to the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) at 40 CFR 761.120 et seq., however, the Department has no regulatory authority to issue a Letter of Completion in TSCA-regulated cleanups.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-205 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.206" level="4" title="Site-Specific Remediation Standards">

Site-Specific Remediation Standards

A. A person may elect to remediate to a residential or a non-residential site-specific remediation level derived from a site-specific human health risk assessment.

B. A person who conducts a remediation to a residential or a non-residential site-specific remediation level shall use one of the following site-specific human health risk assessment methodologies:

1. A deterministic methodology. If a deterministic methodology is used, reasonable maximum exposures shall be evaluated for future use scenarios.

2. A probabilistic methodology. If a probabilistic methodology is used, it shall be no less protective than the 95th percentile upper bound estimate of the distribution.

3. An alternative methodology commonly accepted in the scientific community. An alternative methodology is considered accepted in the scientific community if it is published in peer-reviewed literature, such as a professional journal or publication of standards of general circulation, and there is general consensus within the scientific community about the methodology.

C. A person who conducts a remediation to a site-specific remediation level shall remediate to the residential site-specific remediation level on any property where there is residential use at the time remediation is completed.

D. With prior approval of the Department, a person may achieve the site-specific remediation levels based on the use of institutional and engineering controls. The approval shall be based, in part, on the demonstration that the institutional and engineering controls will be maintained.

E. A person conducting a remediation to a residential or a non-residential site-specific remediation level shall remediate the contaminants in soil to a cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10

-6

and 1 x 10

-4

and a Hazard Index no greater than 1 taking into account the factors enumerated in this subsection. The person conducting a remediation, and the Department prior to issuing a Letter of Completion, shall select the excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10

-6

and 1 x 10

-4

based upon the following site-specific factors:

1. The presence of multiple contaminants.

2. The existence of multiple pathways of exposure.

3. The uncertainty of exposure.

4. The sensitivity of the exposed population.

5. Other program-related laws and regulations that may apply.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-206 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.207" level="4" title="Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction (VEMUR)">

Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction (VEMUR)

A. A person who remediates to the non-residential SRL, or to the non-residential site-specific remediation level shall submit the information listed in R18-7-208(A)(1) through (5) and a VEMUR signed by the real property owner, as set forth in Appendix B, to the applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B). The VEMUR shall be formatted in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 11-480 and any other specific requirements of the County Recorder of the jurisdiction.

B. The applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) shall evaluate the complete information described in R18-7-207(A) and verify whether the non-residential SRL or the non-residential site-specific remediation level has been achieved. An authorized Departmental representative shall either sign the VEMUR submitted pursuant to subsection (A) of this Section and return the signed VEMUR by certified mail, or request additional information to make the verification.

C. A person described in R18-7-207(A) shall record a VEMUR described in R18-7-207(B) with the County Recorder's office where the property is located within 30 calendar days of receipt of the VEMUR signed by the authorized Departmental representative, as evidenced by the return receipt.

D. A real property owner who remediates to the background concentration of a contaminant, to the residential SRL, or to the residential site-specific remediation level and who wishes to cancel a recorded VEMUR shall submit the information required in R18-7-208(A)(1) through (5) and a signed VEMUR Cancellation, as set forth in Appendix C, to the applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B). The VEMUR Cancellation shall be formatted in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 11-480 and any other specific requirements of the County Recorder of the jurisdiction.

E. The applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) shall evaluate the complete information described in R18-7-207(D) and verify whether the background concentration, the residential SRL, or the residential site-specific remediation level has been achieved. An authorized Departmental representative shall either sign the VEMUR Cancellation submitted pursuant to R18-7-207(D) and return the VEMUR Cancellation via certified mail, or request additional information to make the verification.

F. A person who records a document described in R18-7-207 shall provide a copy of the recorded document to the applicable Departmental program described in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) within 30 calendar days of the date of recording.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-207 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.208" level="4" title="Letter of Completion">

Letter of Completion

A. If a person requests a Letter of Completion, a person shall submit, at a minimum, the following information to the applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B):

1. A description of the actual activities, techniques, and technologies used to remediate soil at the site, including the legal mechanism in place to ensure that any institutional and engineering controls are maintained.

2. Documentation that requirements prescribed in R18-7-203(A) and R18-7-203(B)(1) and (2) have been satisfied.

3. If the Department determines pursuant to R18-7-203(B)(3) that an ecological risk assessment is required, documentation that the requirements prescribed in R18-7-203(B)(3) have been satisfied.

4. Soil sampling analytical results which are representative of the area which has been remediated, including documentation that the laboratory analysis of samples has been performed by a laboratory licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services under A.R.S. &#167; 36-495 et seq. and 9 A.A.C. 14, Article 6.

5. A statement signed by the person conducting the remediation certifying the following: I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments are, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of a fine and imprisonment for knowing violations.

B. The applicable Departmental program described in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) shall evaluate the information described in R18-7-208(A) and R18-7-207(F) to verify compliance with the soil remediation standards set forth under this Article and shall issue a Letter of Completion or request additional information.

C. The applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) may revoke or amend any Letter of Completion if any of the information submitted pursuant to R18-7-208(A) and R18-7-207(F) is inaccurate or if any condition was unknown to the Department when the Department issued the Letter of Completion.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-208 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="R18.7.209" level="4" title="Notice of Remediation and Repository"> <dwc name="chlorin" times="1"><dwc name="antimoni" times="5"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="barium" times="2"><dwc name="beryllium" times="1"><dwc name="cadmium" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="3"><dwc name="copper" times="2"><dwc name="cyanid" times="11"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="nitrat" times="2"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1"><dwc name="selenium" times="1"><dwc name="thallium" times="6"><dwc name="acrylamid" times="1"><dwc name="alachlor" times="1"><dwc name="atrazin" times="1"><dwc name="benzen" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="1"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="1"><dwc name="chlordan" times="1"><dwc name="chlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="dalapon" times="1"><dwc name="methylen chlorid" times="1"><dwc name="dehp" times="1"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="2"><dwc name="tcdd" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="1"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="1"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="1"><dwc name="picloram" times="1"><dwc name="simazin" times="1"><dwc name="styren" times="3"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="toluen" times="4"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="1"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="tce" times="1"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="1"><dwc name="xylen" times="1">

Notice of Remediation and Repository

A. A person conducting soil remediation shall submit a Notice of Remediation to the applicable Departmental program listed in R18-7-202(A) or R18-7-202(B) prior to beginning remediation. A person conducting a soil remediation during an emergency who has notified the Department in accordance with emergency notification requirements prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-284 is not required to submit a Notice of Remediation. Any person who continues or initiates a soil remediation after the initial emergency response shall submit a Notice of Remediation. A Notice of Remediation shall include all of the following information:

1. The name and address of the real property owner;

2. The name and address of the remediating party;

3. A legal description and street address of the property;

4. A list of each contaminant to be remediated;

5. The background concentration, SRL, or site-specific remediation level selected to meet the remediation standards;

6. A description of the current and post-remediation property use as either residential or non-residential;

7. The rationale for the selection of residential or non-residential remediation; and

8. The proposed technologies for remediating the site.

B. The Department shall establish and maintain a repository for information regarding sites where soil is remediated. The Repository shall include a listing of sites for which a Notice of Remediation has been submitted or a Letter of Completion has been issued.

1. For sites where a Notice of Remediation has been filed, the Repository shall contain the date the notice was filed and the information submitted as described in R18-7-209(A).

2. For sites where a Letter of Completion has been issued, the Repository shall contain the following:

a. The name and address of the real property owner;

b. The name and address of the remediating party.

c. A legal description and street address of the property;

d. A listing of each contaminant that was remediated;

e. The background concentration, SRL, or site-specific remediation level selected to meet the remediation standard;

f. A description whether the residential or non-residential standard was achieved;

g. A description of any engineering or institutional control used to remediate the site; and

h. The date when the Letter of Completion was issued.

3. The Repository will be available for public review during the Department's normal business hours. A person who wishes to obtain copies of the Repository shall pay a copying fee established by the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency amendment reinstated at the request of the Department (see Supp. 97-1); historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Section R18-7-208 adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency rule (Supp. 97-4).

Appendix A. Soil Remediation Levels (SRLs)

<table> Chemical Name Cas Number Cancer Group Residential (mg/kg) Non-residential (mg/kg) A 1 Acenaphthene 83-32-9 D 3900.0 41000.0 2 Acephate 30560-19-1 C 260.0 2200.0 3 Acetaldehyde 75-07-0 B2 39.0 150.0 4 Acetochlor 34256-82-1 D 1300.0 14000.0 5 Acetone 67-64-1 D 2100.0 8800.0 6 Acetone cyanohydrin 75-86-5 D 52.0 550.0 7 Acetonitrile 75-05-8 D 220.0 1200.0 8 Acetophenone 98-86-2 D 0.49 1.6 9 Acifluorfen 62476-59-9 D 850.0 8900.0 10 Acrolein 107-02-8 C 0.10 0.34 11 Acrylamide 79-06-1 B2 0.98 4.2 12 Acrylic acid 79-10-7 D 31000.0 290000.0 13 Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 B1 1.9 4.7 14 Alachlor 15972-60-8 B2 55.0 240.0 15 Alar 1596-84-5 D 9800.0 100000.0 16 Aldicarb 116-06-3 D 65.0 680.0 17 Aldicarb sulfone 1646-88-4 D 65.0 680.0 18 Aldrin 309-00-2 B2 0.26 1.1 19 Ally 5585-64-8 D 16000.0 170000.0 20 Allyl alcohol 107-18-6 D 330.0 3400.0 21 Allyl chloride 107-05-1 C 3200.0 33000.0 22 Aluminum 7429-90-5 D 77000.0 1000000.0 23 Aluminum phosphide 20859-73-8 D 31.0 680.0 24 Amdro 67485-29-4 D 20.0 200.0 25 Ametryn 834-12-8 D 590.0 6100.0 26 m-Aminophenol 591-27-5 D 4600.0 48000.0 27 4-Aminopyridine 504-24-5 D 1.3 14.0 28 Amitraz 33089-61-1 D 160.0 1700.0 29 Ammonia 7664-41-7 D 2200.0 58000.0 30 Ammonium sulfamate 7773-06-0 D 13000.0 140000.0 31 Aniline 62-53-3 B2 19.0 200.0 32 Anthracene 120-12-7 D 20000.0 200000.0 33 Antimony and compounds 7440-36-0 D 31.0 680.0 34 Antimony pentoxide 1314-60-9 D 38.0 850.0 35 Antimony potassium tartrate 28300-74-5 D 69.0 1500.0 36 Antimony tetroxide 1332-81-6 D 31.0 680.0 37 Antimony trioxide 1309-64-4 D 31.0 680.0 38 Apollo 74115-24-5 C 850.0 8900.0 39 Aramite 140-57-8 B2 180.0 760.0 40 &#126;Arsenic 7440-38-2 A 10.0 10.0 41 Assure 76578-12-6 D 590.0 6100.0 42 Asulam 3337-71-1 D 3300.0 34000.0 43 Atrazine 1912-24-9 C 20.0 86.0 44 Avermectin B1 65195-55-3 D 26.0 270.0 45 Azobenzene 103-33-3 B2 40.0 170.0 B 46 Barium and compounds 7440-39-3 D 5300.0 110000.0 47 Barium cyanide 542-62-1 D 7700.0 170000.0 48 Baygon 114-26-1 D 260.0 2700.0 49 Bayleton 43121-43-3 D 2000.0 20000.0 50 Baythroid 68359-37-5 D 1600.0 17000.0 51 Benefin 1861-40-1 D 20000.0 200000.0 52 Benomyl 17804-35-2 D 3300.0 34000.0 53 Bentazon 25057-89-0 D 160.0 1700.0 54 Benzaldehyde 100-52-7 D 6500.0 68000.0 55 Benz[a]anthracene 56-55-3 B2 6.1 26.0 56 Benzene 71-43-2 A 0.62 1.4 57 Benzidine 92-87-5 A 0.0019 0.0083 58 Benzo[a]pyrene 50-32-8 B2 0.61 2.6 59 Benzo[b]fluoranthene 205-99-2 B2 6.1 26.0 60 Benzoic acid 65-85-0 D 260000.0 1000000.0 61 Benzo[k]fluoranthene 207-08-9 B2 61.0 260.0 62 Benzotrichloride 98-07-7 B2 0.34 1.5 63 Benzyl alcohol 100-51-6 D 20000.0 200000.0 64 Benzyl chloride 100-44-7 B2 8.0 20.0 65 Beryllium and compounds 7440-41-7 B2 1.4 11.0 66 Bidrin 141-66-2 D 6.5 68.0 67 Biphenthrin (Talstar) 82657-04-3 D 980.0 10000.0 68 1,1-Biphenyl 92-52-4 D 3300.0 34000.0 69 Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 B2 0.43 0.97 70 Bis(2-chloroisopropyl)ether 39638-32-9 C 25.0 67.0 71 Bis(chloromethyl)ether 542-88-1 A 0.0002 0.0004 72 Bis(2-chloro-1-methylethyl)ether 108-60-1 C 63.0 270.0 73 Bis(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate (DEHP) 117-81-7 B2 320.0 1400.0 74 Bisphenol A 80-05-7 D 3300.0 34000.0 75 Boron 7440-42-8 D 5900.0 61000.0 76 Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 B2 6.3 14.0 77 Bromoform (tribromomethane) 75-25-2 B2 560.0 2400.0 78 Bromomethane 74-83-9 D 6.8 23.0 79 Bromophos 2104-96-3 D 330.0 3400.0 80 Bromoxynil 1689-84-5 D 1300.0 14000.0 81 Bromoxynil octanoate 1689-99-2 D 1300.0 14000.0 82 1,3-Butadiene 106-99-0 B2 0.064 0.14 83 1-Butanol 71-36-3 D 6500.0 68000.0 84 Butylate 2008-41-5 D 3300.0 34000.0 85 Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 C 13000.0 140000.0 86 Butylphthalyl butylglycolate 85-70-1 D 65000.0 680000.0 C 87 Cacodylic acid 75-60-5 D 200.0 2000.0 88 Cadmium and compounds 7440-43-9 B1 38.0 850.0 89 Calcium cyanide 592-01-8 D 3100.0 68000.0 90 Caprolactam 105-60-2 D 33000.0 340000.0 91 Captafol 2425-06-1 C 130.0 1400.0 92 Captan 133-06-2 D 1300.0 5500.0 93 Carbaryl 63-25-2 D 6500.0 68000.0 94 Carbazole 86-74-8 B2 220.0 950.0 95 Carbofuran 1563-66-2 E 330.0 3400.0 96 Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 D 7.5 24.0 97 Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 B2 1.6 5.0 98 Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 D 650.0 6800.0 99 Carboxin 5234-68-4 D 6500.0 68000.0 100 Chloral 302-17-0 D 130.0 1400.0 101 Chloramben 133-90-4 D 980.0 10000.0 102 Chloranil 118-75-2 C 11.0 47.0 103 Chlordane 57-74-9 B2 3.4 15.0 104 Chlorimuron-ethyl 90982-32-4 D 1300.0 14000.0 105 Chlorine cyanide 506-77-4 D 3800.0 85000.0 106 Chloroacetic acid 79-11-8 D 130.0 1400.0 107 2-Chloroacetophenone 532-27-4 D 0.56 5.9 108 4-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 D 260.0 2700.0 109 Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 D 65.0 220.0 110 Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 B2 16.0 71.0 111 p-Chlorobenzoic acid 74-11-3 D 13000.0 140000.0 112 4-Chlorobenzotrifluoride 98-56-6 D 1300.0 14000.0 113 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene 126-99-8 D 3.6 12.0 114 1-Chlorobutane 109-69-3 D 710.0 2400.0 115 * 1-Chloro-1,1-difluoroethane 75-68-3 D 2800.0 2800.0 116 * Chlorodifluoromethane 75-45-6 D 2800.0 2800.0 117 Chloroform 67-66-3 B2 2.5 5.3 118 Chloromethane 74-87-3 C 12.0 26.0 119 4-Chloro-2-methylaniline 95-69-2 B2 7.7 33.0 120 4-Chloro-2-methylaniline hydrochloride 3165-93-3 B2 9.7 41.0 121 beta-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 D 5200.0 55000.0 122 o-Chloronitrobenzene 88-73-3 B2 180.0 760.0 123 p-Chloronitrobenzene 100-00-5 B2 250.0 1100.0 124 2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 D 91.0 370.0 125 2-Chloropropane 75-29-6 D 170.0 580.0 126 Chlorothalonil 1897-45-6 B2 400.0 1700.0 127 * o-Chlorotoluene 95-49-8 D 160.0 550.0 128 Chlorpropham 101-21-3 D 13000.0 140000.0 129 Chlorpyrifos 2921-88-2 D 200.0 2000.0 130 Chlorpyrifos-methyl 5598-13-0 D 650.0 6800.0 131 Chlorsulfuron 64902-72-3 D 3300.0 34000.0 132 Chlorthiophos 602-38-56-4 D 52.0 550.0 133 Chromium, Total (1/6 ratio Cr VI/Cr III) N/A D 2100.0 4500.0 134 Chromium III 16065-83-1 D 77000.0 1000000.0 135 Chromium VI 7440-47-3 A 30.0 64.0 136 Chrysene 218-01-9 B2 610.0 2600.0 137 Cobalt 7440-48-4 D 4600.0 97000.0 138 Copper and compounds 7440-50-8 D 2800.0 63000.0 139 Copper cyanide 544-92-3 D 380.0 8500.0 140 Crotonaldehyde 123-73-9 C 0.052 0.11 141 Cumene 98-82-8 D 19.0 62.0 142 Cyanazine 21725-46-2 D 5.3 23.0 143 Cyanide, Free 57-12-5 D 1300.0 14000.0 144 Cyanogen 460-19-5 D 2600.0 27000.0 145 Cyanogen bromide 506-68-3 D 5900.0 61000.0 146 Cyanogen chloride 506-77-4 D 3300.0 34000.0 147 Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 D 330000.0 1000000.0 148 Cyclohexylamine 108-91-8 D 13000.0 140000.0 149 Cyhalothrin/Karate 68085-85-8 D 330.0 3400.0 150 Cypermethrin 52315-07-8 D 650.0 6800.0 151 Cyromazine 66215-27-8 D 490.0 5100.0 D 152 Dacthal 1861-32-1 D 650.0 6800.0 153 Dalapon 75-99-0 D 2000.0 20000.0 154 Danitol 39515-41-8 D 1600.0 17000.0 155 DDD 72-54-8 B2 19.0 80.0 156 DDE 72-55-9 B2 13.0 56.0 157 DDT 50-29-3 B2 13.0 56.0 158 Decabromodiphenyl ether 1163-19-5 C 650.0 6800.0 159 Demeton 8065-48-3 D 2.6 27.0 160 Diallate 2303-16-4 B2 73.0 310.0 161 Diazinon 333-41-5 E 59.0 610.0 162 Dibenz[ah]anthracene 53-70-3 B2 0.61 2.6 163 Dibenzofuran 132-64-9 D 260.0 2700.0 164 1,4-Dibromobenzene 106-37-6 D 650.0 6800.0 165 Dibromochloromethane 124-48-1 C 53.0 230.0 166 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane 96-12-8 B2 3.2 14.0 167 1,2-Dibromoethane 106-93-4 B2 0.049 0.2 168 Dibutyl phthalate 84-74-2 D 6500.0 68000.0 169 Dicamba 1918-00-9 D 2000.0 20000.0 170 * 1,2-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 D 1100.0 3900.0 171 * 1,3-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 D 500.0 2000.0 172 1,4-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 C 190.0 790.0 173 3,3-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 B2 9.9 42.0 174 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 764-41-0 B2 0.074 0.17 175 Dichlorodifluoromethane 75-71-8 D 94.0 310.0 176 1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 C 500.0 1700.0 177 1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 B2 2.5 5.5 178 1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 C 0.36 0.8 179 1,2-Dichloroethylene (cis) 156-59-2 D 31.0 100.0 180 1,2-Dichloroethylene (trans) 156-60-5 D 78.0 270.0 181 1,2-Dichloroethylene (mixture) 540-59-0 D 35.0 120.0 182 2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 D 200.0 2000.0 183 4-(2,4-Dichlorophenoxy)butyric Acid (2,4-DB) 94-82-6 D 520.0 5500.0 184 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic Acid (2,4-D) 94-75-7 D 650.0 6800.0 185 1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 B2 3.1 6.8 186 1,3-Dichloropropene 542-75-6 B2 2.4 5.5 187 2,3-Dichloropropanol 616-23-9 D 200.0 2000.0 188 Dichlorvos 62-73-7 B2 15.0 66.0 189 Dicofol 115-32-2 C 10.0 43.0 190 Dieldrin 60-57-1 B2 0.28 1.2 191 Diethylene glycol, monobutyl ether 112-34-5 D 370.0 3900.0 192 Diethylene glycol, monoethyl ether 111-90-0 D 130000.0 1000000.0 193 Diethylformamide 617-84-5 D 720.0 7500.0 194 Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate 103-23-1 C 3700.0 16000.0 195 Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 D 52000.0 550000.0 196 Diethylstilbestrol 56-53-1 A 0.0001 0.0004 197 Difenzoquat (Avenge) 43222-48-6 D 5200.0 55000.0 198 Diflubenzuron 35367-38-5 D 1300.0 14000.0 199 Diisopropyl methylphosphonate 1445-75-6 D 5200.0 55000.0 200 Dimethipin 55290-64-7 C 1300.0 14000.0 201 Dimethoate 60-51-5 D 13.0 140.0 202 3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine 119-90-4 B2 320.0 1400.0 203 Dimethylamine 124-40-3 D 0.07 0.24 204 N-N-Dimethylaniline 121-69-7 D 130.0 1400.0 205 2,4-Dimethylaniline 95-68-1 C 5.9 25.0 206 2,4-Dimethylaniline hydrochloride 21436-96-4 C 7.7 33.0 207 3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine 119-93-7 B2 0.48 2.1 208 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine 57-14-7 B, C 1.7 7.3 209 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine 540-73-8 B2 0.12 0.52 210 N,N-Dimethylformamide 68-12-2 D 6500.0 68000.0 211 2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 D 1300.0 14000.0 212 2,6-Dimethylphenol 576-26-1 D 39.0 410.0 213 3,4-Dimethylphenol 95-65-8 D 65.0 680.0 214 Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 D 650000.0 1000000.0 215 Dimethyl terephthalate 120-61-6 D 6500.0 68000.0 216 4,6-Dinitro-o-cyclohexyl phenol 131-89-5 D 130.0 1400.0 217 1,3-Dinitrobenzene 99-65-0 D 6.5 68.0 218 1,2-Dinitrobenzene 528-29-0 D 26.0 270.0 219 1,4-Dinitrobenzene 100-25-4 D 26.0 270.0 220 2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 D 130.0 1400.0 221 Dinitrotoluene mixture 25321-14-6 B2 6.5 28.0 222 2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 B2 130.0 1400.0 223 2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 D 65.0 680.0 224 Dinoseb 88-85-7 D 65.0 680.0 225 di-n-Octyl phthalate 117-84-0 D 1300.0 14000.0 226 1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 B2 400.0 1700.0 227 Diphenamid 957-51-7 D 2000.0 20000.0 228 Diphenylamine 122-39-4 D 1600.0 17000.0 229 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 B2 5.6 24.0 230 Diquat 85-00-7 D 140.0 1500.0 231 Direct black 38 1937-37-7 A 0.052 0.22 232 Direct blue 6 2602-46-2 A 0.055 0.24 233 Direct brown 95 16071-86-6 A 0.048 0.21 234 Disulfoton 298-04-4 E 2.6 27.0 235 1,4-Dithiane 505-29-3 D 650.0 6800.0 236 Diuron 330-54-1 D 130.0 1400.0 237 Dodine 2439-10-3 D 260.0 2700.0 E 238 Endosulfan 115-29-7 D 390.0 4100.0 239 Endothall 145-73-3 D 1300.0 14000.0 240 Endrin 72-20-8 D 20.0 200.0 241 Epichlorohydrin 106-89-8 B2 7.5 25.0 242 1,2-Epoxybutane 106-88-7 D 370.0 3900.0 243 EPTC (S-Ethyl dipropylthiocarbamate) 759-94-4 D 1600.0 17000.0 244 Ethephon (2-chloroethyl phosphonic acid) 16672-87-0 D 330.0 3400.0 245 Ethion 563-12-2 D 33.0 340.0 246 2-Ethoxyethanol 110-80-5 D 26000.0 270000.0 247 2-Ethoxyethanol acetate 111-15-9 D 20000.0 200000.0 248 * Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 D 18000.0 39000.0 249 Ethyl acrylate 140-88-5 B2 2.1 4.5 250 * Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 D 1500.0 2700.0 251 Ethylene cyanohydrin 109-78-4 D 20000.0 200000.0 252 Ethylene diamine 107-15-3 D 1300.0 14000.0 253 Ethylene glycol 107-21-1 D 130000.0 1000000.0 254 Ethylene glycol, monobutyl ether 111-76-2 D 370.0 3900.0 255 Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 B1 1.3 3.2 256 Ethylene thiourea (ETU) 96-45-7 B2 5.2 55.0 257 * Ethyl chloride 75-00-3 D 1100.0 4200.0 258 * Ethyl ether 60-29-7 D 3800.0 3800.0 259 * Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 D 210.0 690.0 260 Ethyl p-nitrophenyl phenylphosphorothioate 2104-64-5 D 0.65 6.8 261 Ethylphthalyl ethyl glycolate 84-72-0 D 200000.0 1000000.0 262 Express 101200-48-0 D 520.0 5500.0 F 263 Fenamiphos 22224-92-6 D 16.0 170.0 264 Fluometuron 2164-17-2 D 850.0 8900.0 265 Fluoranthene 206-44-0 D 2600.0 27000.0 266 Fluorene 86-73-7 D 2600.0 27000.0 267 Fluorine (soluble fluoride) 7782-41-4 D 3900.0 41000.0 268 Fluoridone 59756-60-4 D 5200.0 55000.0 269 Flurprimidol 56425-91-3 D 1300.0 14000.0 270 Flutolanil 66332-96-5 D 3900.0 41000.0 271 Fluvalinate 69409-94-5 D 650.0 6800.0 272 Folpet 133-07-3 B2 1300.0 5500.0 273 Fomesafen 72178-02-0 C 23.0 100.0 274 Fonofos 944-22-9 D 130.0 1400.0 275 Formaldehyde 50-00-0 B1 9800.0 100000.0 276 Formic Acid 64-18-6 D 130000.0 1000000.0 277 Fosetyl-al 39148-24-8 C 200000.0 1000000.0 278 Furan 110-00-9 D 2.5 8.5 279 Furazolidone 67-45-8 B2 1.2 5.0 280 Furfural 98-01-1 D 200.0 2000.0 281 Furium 531-82-8 B2 0.089 0.38 282 Furmecyclox 60568-05-0 B2 150.0 640.0 G 283 Glufosinate-ammonium 77182-82-2 D 26.0 270.0 284 Glycidaldehyde 765-34-4 B2 26.0 270.0 285 Glyphosate 1071-83-6 D 6500.0 68000.0 H 286 Haloxyfop-methyl 69806-40-2 D 3.3 34.0 287 Harmony 79277-27-3 D 850.0 8900.0 288 Heptachlor 76-44-8 B2 0.99 4.2 289 Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 B2 0.49 2.1 290 Hexabromobenzene 87-82-1 D 130.0 1400.0 291 Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 B2 2.8 12.0 292 Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 C 13.0 140.0 293 HCH (alpha) 319-84-6 B2 0.71 3.0 294 HCH (beta) 319-85-7 C 2.5 11.0 295 HCH (gamma) Lindane 58-89-9 B2-C 3.4 15.0 296 HCH-technical 608-73-1 B2 2.5 11.0 297 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 D 450.0 4600.0 298 Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin mixture (HxCDD) 19408-74-3 B2 0.00072 0.0031 299 Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 C 65.0 680.0 300 Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 D 20.0 200.0 301 Hexahydro-1,3,5-trinitro-1,3,5-triazine 121-82-4 C 40.0 170.0 302 * n-Hexane 110-54-3 D 120.0 400.0 303 Hexazinone 51235-04-2 D 2200.0 22000.0 304 Hydrazine, hydrazine sulfate 302-01-2 B2 1.5 6.4 305 Hydrocarbons (C 10 to C 32 ) N/A N/A 4100.0 18000.0 306 Hydrogen chloride 7647-01-0 D 370.0 3900.0 307 Hydrogen cyanide 74-90-8 D 11.0 35.0 308 p-Hydroquinone 123-31-9 D 2600.0 27000.0 I 309 Imazalil 35554-44-0 D 850.0 8900.0 310 Imazaquin 81335-37-7 D 16000.0 170000.0 311 Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene 193-39-5 B2 6.1 26.0 312 Iprodione 36734-19-7 D 2600.0 27000.0 313 * Isobutanol 78-83-1 D 11000.0 42000.0 314 Isophorone 78-59-1 C 4700.0 20000.0 315 Isopropalin 33820-53-0 D 980.0 10000.0 316 Isopropyl methyl phosphonic acid 1832-54-8 D 6500.0 68000.0 317 Isoxaben 82558-50-7 C 3300.0 34000.0 K 318 Kepone 143-50-0 B, C 0.25 1.1 L 319 Lactofen 77501-63-4 D 130.0 1400.0 320 #Lead 7439-92-1 B2 400.0 2000.0 321 Lead (tetraethyl) 78-00-2 D 0.0065 0.068 322 Linuron 330-55-2 C 130.0 1400.0 323 Lithium 7439-93-2 D 1500.0 34000.0 324 Londax 83055-99-6 D 13000.0 140000.0 M 325 Malathion 121-75-5 D 1300.0 14000.0 326 Maleic anhydride 108-31-6 D 6500.0 68000.0 327 Maleic hydrazide 123-33-1 D 33000.0 340000.0 328 Malononitrile 109-77-3 D 1.3 14.0 329 Mancozeb 8018-01-7 D 2000.0 20000.0 330 Maneb 12427-38-2 D 330.0 3400.0 331 Manganese and compounds 7439-96-5 D 3200.0 43000.0 332 Mephosfolan 950-10-7 D 5.9 61.0 333 Mepiquat 24307-26-4 D 2000.0 20000.0 334 Mercuric chloride 7487-94-7 C 23.0 510.0 335 Mercury (elemental) 7439-97-6 D 6.7 180.0 336 Mercury (methyl) 22967-92-6 D 6.5 68.0 337 Merphos 150-50-5 D 2.0 20.0 338 Merphos oxide 78-48-8 D 2.0 20.0 339 Metalaxyl 57837-19-1 D 3900.0 41000.0 340 Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 D 2.0 8.1 341 Methamidophos 10265-92-6 D 3.3 34.0 342 Methanol 67-56-1 D 33000.0 340000.0 343 Methidathion 950-37-8 C 65.0 680.0 344 Methomyl 16752-77-5 D 1600.0 17000.0 345 Methoxychlor 72-43-5 D 330.0 3400.0 346 2-Methoxyethanol 109-86-4 D 65.0 680.0 347 2-Methoxyethanol acetate 110-49-6 D 130.0 1400.0 348 2-Methoxy-5-nitroaniline 99-59-2 C 97.0 410.0 349 Methyl acetate 79-20-9 D 21000.0 88000.0 350 Methyl acrylate 96-33-3 D 69.0 230.0 351 2-Methylaniline (o-toluidine) 100-61-8 B2 19.0 79.0 352 2-Methylaniline hydrochloride 636-21-5 B2 25.0 110.0 353 Methyl chlorocarbonate 79-22-1 D 65000.0 680000.0 354 2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid 94-74-6 D 33.0 340.0 355 4-(2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxy) butyric acid 94-81-5 D 650.0 6800.0 356 2-(2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxy) propionic acid 93-65-2 D 65.0 680.0 357 2-(2-Methyl-1,4-chlorophenoxy) propionic acid 16484-77-8 D 65.0 680.0 358 Methylcyclohexane 108-87-2 D 56000.0 590000.0 359 4,4'-Methylenebisbenzeneamine 101-77-9 D 18.0 76.0 360 4,4'-Methylene bis(2-chloroaniline) 101-14-4 B2 34.0 150.0 361 4,4'-Methylene bis(N,N'-dimethyl)aniline 101-61-1 B2 97.0 410.0 362 Methylene bromide 74-95-3 D 650.0 6800.0 363 Methylene chloride 75-09-2 B2 77.0 180.0 364 Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 D 7100.0 27000.0 365 Methyl hydrazine 60-34-4 B, C 4.0 17.0 366 Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 D 770.0 2800.0 367 * Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 D 760.0 2800.0 368 2-Methyl-5-nitroaniline 99-55-8 C 130.0 580.0 369 Methyl parathion 298-00-0 D 16.0 170.0 370 2-Methylphenol 95-48-7 C 3300.0 34000.0 371 3-Methylphenol 108-39-4 C 3300.0 34000.0 372 4-Methylphenol 106-44-5 C 330.0 3400.0 373 Methyl styrene (mixture) 25013-15-4 D 120.0 520.0 374 * Methyl styrene (alpha) 98-83-9 D 890.0 3100.0 375 Methyl tertbutyl ether (MTBE) 1634-04-4 D 320.0 3300.0 376 Metolaclor (Dual) 51218-45-2 D 9800.0 100000.0 377 Metribuzin 21087-64-9 D 1600.0 17000.0 378 Mirex 2385-85-5 B2 2.5 11.0 379 Molinate 2212-67-1 D 130.0 1400.0 380 Molybdenum 7439-98-7 D 380.0 8500.0 381 Monochloramine 10599-90-3 D 6500.0 68000.0 N 382 Naled 300-76-5 D 130.0 1400.0 383 Naphthalene 91-20-3 D 2600.0 27000.0 384 Napropamide 15299-99-7 D 6500.0 68000.0 385 Nickel and compounds 7440-02-0 D 1500.0 34000.0 386 Nickel subsulfide 12035-72-2 A 5100.0 11000.0 387 Nitrapyrin 1929-82-4 D 98.0 1000.0 388 Nitrate 14797-55-8 D 100000.0 1000000.0 389 Nitrite 14797-65-0 D 6500.0 68000.0 390 2-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 D 3.9 41.0 391 Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 D 18.0 94.0 392 Nitrofurantoin 67-20-9 D 4600.0 48000.0 393 Nitrofurazone 59-87-0 B2 3.0 13.0 394 Nitroguanidine 556-88-7 D 6500.0 68000.0 395 N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine 924-16-3 B2 0.22 0.55 396 N-Nitrosodiethanolamine 1116-54-7 B2 1.6 6.8 397 N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 B2 0.03 0.13 398 N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 B2 0.087 0.37 399 N-Nitrosodiphenylamine 86-30-6 B2 910.0 3900.0 400 N-Nitroso di-n-propylamine 621-64-7 B2 0.63 2.7 401 N-Nitroso-N-methylethylamine 10595-95-6 B2 0.20 0.87 402 N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 B2 2.1 9.1 403 m-Nitrotoluene 99-08-1 D 650.0 6800.0 404 p-Nitrotoluene 99-99-0 D 650.0 6800.0 405 Norflurazon 27314-13-2 D 2600.0 27000.0 406 NuStar 85509-19-9 D 46.0 480.0 O 407 Octabromodiphenyl ether 32536-52-0 D 200.0 2000.0 408 Octahydro-1357-tetranitro-1357- tetrazocine 2691-41-0 D 3300.0 34000.0 409 Octamethylpyrophosphoramide 152-16-9 D 130.0 1400.0 410 Oryzalin 19044-88-3 C 3300.0 34000.0 411 Oxadiazon 19666-30-9 D 330.0 3400.0 412 Oxamyl 23135-22-0 E 1600.0 17000.0 413 Oxyfluorfen 42874-03-3 D 200.0 2000.0 P 414 Paclobutrazol 76738-62-0 D 850.0 8900.0 415 Paraquat 4685-14-7 C 290.0 3100.0 416 Parathion 56-38-2 C 390.0 4100.0 417 Pebulate 1114-71-2 D 3300.0 34000.0 418 Pendimethalin 40487-42-1 D 2600.0 27000.0 419 Pentabromo-6-chloro cyclohexane 87-84-3 C 190.0 830.0 420 Pentabromodiphenyl ether 32534-81-9 D 130.0 1400.0 421 Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 D 52.0 550.0 422 Pentachloronitrobenzene 82-68-8 C 17.0 73.0 423 Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 B2 25.0 79.0 424 Permethrin 52645-53-1 D 3300.0 34000.0 425 Phenmedipham 13684-63-4 D 16000.0 170000.0 426 Phenol 108-95-2 D 39000.0 410000.0 427 m-Phenylenediamine 108-45-2 D 390.0 4100.0 428 p-Phenylenediamine 106-50-3 D 12000.0 130000.0 429 Phenylmercuric acetate 62-38-4 D 5.2 55.0 430 2-Phenylphenol 90-43-7 C 2300.0 9800.0 431 Phorate 298-02-2 E 13.0 140.0 432 Phosmet 732-11-6 D 1300.0 14000.0 433 Phosphine 7803-51-2 D 20.0 200.0 434 Phosphorus, white 7723-14-0 D 1.5 34.0 435 Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9 D 130000.0 1000000.0 436 Picloram 1918-02-1 D 4600.0 48000.0 437 Pirimiphos-methyl 23505-41-1 D 650.0 6800.0 438 Polybrominated biphenyls (PBBs) N/A B2 0.46 2.1 439 Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) 1336-36-3 B2 2.5 13.0 440 Potassium cyanide 151-50-8 D 3300.0 34000.0 441 Potassium silver cyanide 506-61-6 D 13000.0 140000.0 442 Prochloraz 67747-09-5 C 30.0 130.0 443 Profluralin 26399-36-0 D 390.0 4100.0 444 Prometon 1610-18-0 D 980.0 10000.0 445 Prometryn 7287-19-6 D 260.0 2700.0 446 Pronamide 23950-58-5 C 4900.0 51000.0 447 Propachlor 1918-16-7 D 850.0 8900.0 448 Propanil 709-98-8 D 330.0 3400.0 449 Propargite 2312-35-8 D 1300.0 14000.0 450 Propargyl alcohol 107-19-7 D 130.0 1400.0 451 Propazine 139-40-2 C 1300.0 14000.0 452 Propham 122-42-9 D 1300.0 14000.0 453 Propiconazole 60207-90-1 D 850.0 8900.0 454 Propylene glycol 57-55-6 D 1000000.0 1000000.0 455 Propylene glycol, monoethyl ether 111-35-3 D 46000.0 480000.0 456 Propylene glycol, monomethyl ether 107-98-2 D 46000.0 480000.0 457 Propylene oxide 75-56-9 B2 19.0 79.0 458 Pursuit 81335-77-5 D 16000.0 170000.0 459 Pydrin 51630-58-1 D 1600.0 17000.0 460 Pyrene 129-00-0 D 2000.0 20000.0 461 Pyridine 110-86-1 D 65.0 680.0 Q 462 Quinalphos 13593-03-8 D 33.0 340.0 463 Quinoline 91-22-5 C 0.37 1.6 R 464 RDX (Cyclonite) 121-82-4 C 40.0 170.0 465 Resmethrin 10453-86-8 D 2000.0 20000.0 466 Ronnel 299-84-3 D 3300.0 34000.0 467 Rotenone 83-79-4 D 260.0 2700.0 S 468 Savey 78578-05-0 D 1600.0 17000.0 469 Selenious Acid 7783-00-8 D 330.0 3400.0 470 Selenium 7782-49-2 D 380.0 8500.0 471 Selenourea 630-10-4 D 330.0 3400.0 472 Sethoxydim 74051-80-2 D 5900.0 61000.0 473 Silver and compounds 7440-22-4 D 380.0 8500.0 474 Silver cyanide 506-64-9 D 6500.0 68000.0 475 Simazine 122-34-9 C 37.0 160.0 476 Sodium azide 26628-22-8 D 260.0 2700.0 477 Sodium cyanide 143-33-9 D 2600.0 27000.0 478 Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate 148-18-5 C 16.0 71.0 479 Sodium fluoroacetate 62-74-8 D 1.3 14.0 480 Sodium metavanadate 13718-26-8 D 65.0 680.0 481 Strontium, stable 7440-24-6 D 46000.0 1000000.0 482 Strychnine 57-24-9 D 20.0 200.0 483 * Styrene 100-42-5 C 3300.0 3300.0 484 Systhane 88671-89-0 D 1600.0 17000.0 T 485 2,3,7,8-TCDD (dioxin) 1746-01-6 B2 0.000038 0.00024 486 Tebuthiuron 34014-18-1 D 4600.0 48000.0 487 Temephos 3383-96-8 D 1300.0 14000.0 488 Terbacil 5902-51-2 E 850.0 8900.0 489 Terbufos 13071-79-9 D 1.6 17.0 490 Terbutryn 886-50-0 D 65.0 680.0 491 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 D 20.0 200.0 492 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 C 23.0 54.0 493 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 C 4.4 11.0 494 Tetrachloroethylene (PCE) 127-18-4 B2 53.0 170.0 495 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 D 2000.0 20000.0 496 p,a,a,a-Tetrachlorotoluene 5216-25-1 B2 0.22 0.95 497 Tetrachlorovinphos 961-11-5 C 190.0 790.0 498 Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate 3689-24-5 D 33.0 340.0 499 Thallic oxide 1314-32-5 D 5.4 120.0 500 Thallium acetate 563-68-8 D 6.9 150.0 501 Thallium carbonate 6533-73-9 D 6.1 140.0 502 Thallium chloride 7791-12-0 D 6.1 140.0 503 Thallium nitrate 10102-45-1 D 6.9 150.0 504 Thallium selenite 12039-52-0 D 6.9 150.0 505 Thallium sulfate 7446-18-6 D 6.1 140.0 506 Thiobencarb 28249-77-6 D 650.0 6800.0 507 2-(Thiocyanomethylthio)- benzothiazole 3689-24-5 D 2000.0 20000.0 508 Thiofanox 39196-18-4 D 20.0 200.0 509 Thiophanate-methyl 23564-05-8 D 5200.0 55000.0 510 Thiram 137-26-8 D 330.0 3400.0 511 Tin and compounds 7440-31-5 D 46000.0 1000000.0 512 * Toluene 108-88-3 D 790.0 2700.0 513 Toluene-2,4-diamine 95-80-7 B2 1.4 6.0 514 Toluene-2,5-diamine 95-70-5 D 39000.0 410000.0 515 Toluene-2,6-diamine 823-40-5 C 13000.0 140000.0 516 p-Toluidine 106-49-0 C 23.0 100.0 517 Toxaphene 8001-35-2 B2 4.0 17.0 518 Tralomethrin 66841-25-6 D 490.0 5100.0 519 Triallate 2303-17-5 D 850.0 8900.0 520 Triasulfuron 82097-50-5 D 650.0 6800.0 521 1,2,4-Tribromobenzene 615-54-3 D 330.0 3400.0 522 Tributyltin oxide (TBTO) 56-35-9 D 2.0 20.0 523 2,4,6-Trichloroaniline 634-93-5 C 130.0 560.0 524 2,4,6-Trichloroaniline hydrochloride 33663-50-2 C 150.0 660.0 525 * 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 D 570.0 4700.0 526 * 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 D 1200.0 4800.0 527 1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 C 6.5 15.0 528 Trichloroethylene (TCE) 79-01-6 B2 27.0 70.0 529 Trichlorofluoromethane 75-69-4 D 380.0 1300.0 530 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 D 6500.0 68000.0 531 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 B2 400.0 1700.0 532 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic Acid 93-76-5 D 650.0 6800.0 533 2-(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) propionic acid 93-72-1 D 520.0 5500.0 534 1,1,2-Trichloropropane 598-77-6 D 15.0 50.0 535 1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 B2 0.014 0.03 536 1,2,3-Trichloropropene 96-19-5 D 11.0 38.0 537 * 1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane 76-13-1 D 10000.0 10000.0 538 Tridiphane 58138-08-2 D 200.0 2000.0 539 Triethylamine 121-44-8 D 23.0 84.0 540 Trifluralin 1582-09-8 C 490.0 2500.0 541 Trimethyl phosphate 512-56-1 B2 120.0 520.0 542 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene 99-35-4 D 3.3 34.0 543 Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine 479-45-8 D 650.0 6800.0 544 2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene 118-96-7 C 33.0 340.0 V 545 Vanadium 7440-62-2 D 540.0 12000.0 546 Vanadium pentoxide 1314-62-1 D 690.0 15000.0 547 Vanadium sulfate 13701-70-7 D 1500.0 34000.0 548 Vernam 1929-77-7 D 65.0 680.0 549 Vinclozolin 50471-44-8 D 1600.0 17000.0 550 Vinyl acetate 108-05-4 D 780.0 2600.0 551 Vinyl bromide 593-60-2 B2 1.9 4.1 552 Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 A 0.016 0.035 W 553 Warfarin 81-81-2 D 20.0 200.0 X 554 * Xylene (mixed) 1330-20-7 D 2800.0 2800.0 Z 555 Zinc 7440-66-6 D 23000.0 510000.0 556 Zinc phosphide 1314-84-7 D 23.0 510.0 557 Zinc cyanide 557-21-1 D 3300.0 34000.0 558 Zineb 12122-67-7 D 3300.0 34000.0 </table>

* = 1% free-phase analysis

# = Based on IEUBK Model

&#126; = Based on natural background

N/A = Not Applicable

CARCINOGENICITY CLASSIFICATIONS:

A = Known human carcinogen

B1 = Probable human carcinogen, with limited data indicating human carcinogenicity.

B2 = Probable human carcinogen, with inadequate or no evidence of carcinogenicity in humans. Sufficient evidence for carcinogenicity in laboratory animals.

C = Possible human carcinogen.

D = Not classifiable as to human carcinogenicity.

E = Evidence of noncarcinogenicity in humans.

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency appendix reinstated at the request of the Department; historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Appendix A adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency appendix (Supp. 97-4). Amended to correct measurement units in columns 5 and 6 from "mg/k" to "mg/kg" (Supp. 01-4).

Appendix B. Notice of Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction By Owner or Owners

When recorded, mail to:

NOTICE OF VOLUNTARY ENVIRONMENTAL MITIGATION

USE RESTRICTION BY OWNER OR OWNERS

Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), the owner or owners __________________________________________________________of the

following described property:

(Please Print)

(insert legal description of entire parcel)

has (have) remediated a portion of the above-described property, which remediated portion is described as follows:

(insert legal description of remediated portion, the source of the release, and the remaining contaminants)

The date when the remediation was completed is:_______________________________________________

The undersigned owner voluntarily agrees to limit and restrict the use of the remediated portion of the property to non-residential uses,

as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-151(A).

____________________________________________

Signature of owner

STATE OF ARIZONA

County of __________________

On this ______ day of _______________, 19____, before me personally appeared _________________________________(name of

signer), whose identity was proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to this

document, and who acknowledged that he/she signed the above document.

_________________________________________________

Notary Public

(Notary Seal) My commission expires: _______________________

____________________________________________(if 2nd owner's signature is required)

Signature of owner

STATE OF ARIZONA

County of __________________

On this ______ day of _______________, 19____, before me personally appeared _________________________________(name of signer), whose identity was proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to this document, and who acknowledged that he/she signed the above document.

_________________________________________________

Notary Public

(Notary Seal) My commission expires: _______________________

Approved: ______________________________

(ADEQ official)

STATE OF ARIZONA

County of __________________

On this ______ day of _______________, 19____, before me personally appeared _________________________________(name of signer), whose identity was proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to this document, and who acknowledged that he/she signed the above document.

________________________________________________

Notary Public

(Notary Seal) My commission expires: _______________________

Please make no marks below this line

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency appendix reinstated at the request of the Department; historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Appendix B adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency appendix (Supp. 97-4).

Appendix C. Cancellation of Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction By Owner or Owners

When recorded, mail to:

CANCELLATION OF VOLUNTARY ENVIRONMENTAL MITIGATION

USE RESTRICTION BY OWNER OR OWNERS

Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(B), the owner or owners_________________________________________________________

of the following described property:

(Please Print)

(insert legal description of entire parcel)

recorded a Notice of Voluntary Mitigation Use Restriction By Owner or Owners in the Office of the County Recorder of ______________ County, Arizona on the ______ day of __________, _____ in Document/Docket ________ at Page _______, affecting the following portion of the above-described property:

(insert legal description of remediated portion)

Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(C), the undersigned hereby cancel or cancels the above-described notice and declare or declares said notice to be of no further force and effect as of this ________ day of __________, ______.

________________________________________

Signature of owner

STATE OF ARIZONA

County of __________________

On this ______ day of _______________, 19____, before me personally appeared _________________________________(name of signer), whose identity was proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to this document, and who acknowledged that he/she signed the above document.

_________________________________________________

Notary Public

(Notary Seal) My commission expires: _______________________

___________________________________________

(ADEQ official)

STATE OF ARIZONA

County of __________________

On this ______ day of _______________, 19____, before me personally appeared _________________________________(name of signer), whose identity was proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to this document, and who acknowledged that he/she signed the above document.

_________________________________________________

Notary Public

(Notary Seal) My commission expires: _______________________

Please make no marks below this line

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Interim emergency appendix reinstated at the request of the Department; historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity. Appendix C adopted permanently effective December 4, 1997, replacing emergency appendix (Supp. 97-4).

Appendix D. Emergency Expired

Historical Note

Adopted by emergency action effective March 29, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5; in effect until permanent rules are adopted and in place no later than August 1, 1997, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and Laws 1995, Ch. 232, &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1). Historical note from Supp. 97-3 stating emergency expired removed for clarity; interim emergency rule reinstated at the request of the Department. Emergency expired effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="PROSPECTIVE PURCHASER AGREEMENT">

PROSPECTIVE PURCHASER AGREEMENT

<regElement name="R18.7.301" level="4" title="Prospective Purchaser Agreement Fees">

Prospective Purchaser Agreement Fees

A. A person entering into a prospective purchaser agreement with the Department pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-285.01 shall pay to the Department the fees prescribed in this Article.

B. A person shall remit a review fee for each prospective purchaser agreement submitted for review. The review fee shall consist of all of the following:

1. An initial fee as prescribed in subsection (C).

2. An hourly fee, if the conditions of subsection (D) apply.

3. The publication costs for the legal notice as prescribed in subsection (E).

C. The Department shall charge an initial fee of $900 for a prospective purchaser agreement requiring minimal review. The initial fee covers direct and indirect Departmental technical review time and direct and indirect Department administrative costs. A prospective purchaser agreement requiring minimal review is one which requires 30 or fewer hours of review time spent by the Department.

D. In addition to the initial fee described above, the Department shall charge a fee of $30 per hour for its review of a prospective purchaser agreement which requires more than 30 hours of Departmental review and shall charge a legal review fee for any prospective purchaser agreement which requires legal review by the Attorney General. The Department shall notify the applicant of any estimated hours over those necessary for the initial review, and whether any legal review is required. The Department shall obtain written authorization from the applicant before expending any billable hours in excess of 30.

E. The Department shall publish a legal notice announcing an opportunity for public comment on the prospective purchaser agreement. The legal notice shall include a general description of the contents of the agreement; the location where information regarding the agreement can be obtained; the name and address of the Departmental contact where comments may be sent; and the time and date that the comment period closes.

F. The initial fee is due when the prospective purchaser agreement is submitted for review. The publication cost and any hourly fees are due within 30 days of billing. Review fees are payable to the state of Arizona, and shall be paid in full before a prospective purchaser agreement is executed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 7, 1997; filed with the Office of the Secretary of State January 14, 1997 (Supp. 97-1).

Editor's Note: The heading for the following Article was amended by exempt rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Editor's Note: The following Article was originally adopted under an exemption from the Arizona Administrative Procedure Act (A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6) pursuant to Laws 1997, Ch. 296, &#167;&#167; 3(E) &amp; (G), 10 &amp; 11. Although exempt from certain provisions of the rulemaking process, the Department was required to submit notice of proposed rulemaking with the Secretary of State for publication in the Arizona Administrative Register and conduct a public hearing (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="GREENFIELDS PILOT PROGRAM">

GREENFIELDS PILOT PROGRAM

<regElement name="R18.7.401" level="4" title="Greenfields Pilot Program Fee">

Greenfields Pilot Program Fee

A. A certified remediation specialist who participates in the Greenfields Pilot Program pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-153 through 49-157 and who submits the documentation that states that no further action is required to remediate the known releases on the site shall remit the review fee required under subsection B together with the documentation.

B. The Department shall charge a flat fee of $2,200 per accepted site participating in the Greenfields Pilot Program.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 5, 1997, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 1997, Ch. 296, &#167;&#167; 3(E) &amp; (G), 10 &amp; 11 (Supp. 97-3). Section R18-7-401 repealed; new Section R18-7-401 adopted effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

Editor's Note: The rules in the following Article were adopted as interim rules under an exemption from the Arizona Administrative Procedure Act (A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6) pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13. Although exempt from certain provisions of the rulemaking process, the Department is required to submit notice of proposed rulemaking with the Secretary of State for publication in the Arizona Administrative Register and conduct a public hearing (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="VOLUNTARY REMEDIATION PROGRAM">

VOLUNTARY REMEDIATION PROGRAM

<regElement name="R18.7.501" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The following definitions shall apply in this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Applicant" means a person who participates in the Voluntary Remediation Program. Participation in the Voluntary Remediation Program begins when the Department receives an application under A.R.S. &#167; 49-173 and continues until any one of the following occurs:

The Department grants the applicant's request for a no further action determination.

The applicant provides the Department with notice of the applicant's intent to withdraw from the program.

The Department terminates the applicant's participation under A.R.S. &#167; 49-178(B).

"Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"Voluntary Remediation Program" means the program authorized under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 1, Article 5.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.502" level="4" title="Application Fee">

Application Fee

A. At the time of filing an application to participate in the Voluntary Remediation Program, the applicant shall pay a nonrefundable application fee in the amount of $2,000.00.

B. The application fee shall be in the form of a company check, cashier's check, certified check, or money order made payable to the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

C. Except as provided in subsection (D), an application does not meet the requirements in A.R.S. &#167; 49-173 unless accompanied by the application fee. The Department shall not review an application until the application fee is paid in full.

D. At the request of an applicant that is a small business as defined under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1001, the Department may review and approve an application upon receipt of a partial payment of the application fee in an amount approved by the Department and an agreement to pay the remainder of the fee in scheduled installments.

E. An applicant that withdraws or is terminated from participation in the Voluntary Remediation Program may reapply to the program by submitting an application that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-173, including payment of the application fee.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.503" level="4" title="Deposit">

Deposit

A. At the time that an applicant submits a work plan under A.R.S. &#167; 49-175 or a report under A.R.S. &#167; 49-181, the applicant shall submit to the Department an initial deposit of $4,000.00.

B. The deposit shall be in the form of a company check, cashier's check, certified check, or money order made payable to the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

C. The Department shall begin review of the applicant's work plan or the report submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-181 upon receipt of the initial deposit.

D. Upon receipt of the initial deposit, the Department shall establish a site-specific deposit account identified by a unique account number. The Department shall charge all incurred reimbursable costs attributable to the applicant's site against the site-specific deposit account.

E. If, at any time during the applicant's participation in the program, the balance in the site-specific deposit account falls below $1,000.00 and the Department reasonably estimates that the reimbursable costs chargeable to the account will exceed the amount available in the account, the Department shall mail or fax a written request that the applicant submit an additional deposit in an amount not to exceed $4,000.00. The Department may request any number of additional deposits, in amounts of $4,000.00 or less, at any time that the conditions of this subsection are met.

F. If any requested additional deposit is not received within 30 days after the Department mails or faxes the request in subsection (E) and the Department determines that the applicant's site specific account balance is insufficient to support continued program participation, the Department shall mail a written notice of deficiency under A.R.S. &#167; 49-178 and shall notify the applicant that work on the site may be suspended until the additional deposit is received. If the Department does not receive the requested additional deposit within 60 days after the notice of deficiency is mailed or faxed and the applicant does not dispute the Department's determination that the site specific account balance is insufficient to support continued program participation, the Department may terminate the applicant's participation in the program. An applicant whose participation is terminated under this subsection may reapply to the program as provided in R18-7-502(E).

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.504" level="4" title="Voluntary Remediation Program Reimbursement">

Voluntary Remediation Program Reimbursement

A. The applicant shall reimburse the Department, at an hourly reimbursement rate established under R18-7-505, for time spent by Voluntary Remediation Program staff on activities specifically related to the applicant's site, including the following:

1. Review of the application submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-173, including review of any modifications requested by the Department or the applicant or additional information submitted by the applicant.

2. Review of the work plan submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-175, including review of any modifications requested by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-177 or by the applicant or the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-180.

3. Review of progress reports submitted as part of a work plan under A.R.S. &#167; 49-175 or as requested by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-177 or A.R.S. &#167; 49-180.

4. Consideration by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-176(D) of written comments submitted in response to a public notice providing an opportunity to comment or a public meeting.

5. Participation in public hearings required by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-176(D).

6. Site inspections under A.R.S. &#167; 49-177 and site investigations under A.R.S. &#167; 49-181, including time spent in travel to and from the site.

7. Review of the report and request for a no further action determination submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-181, including review of any modifications requested by the applicant or the Department.

8. Time spent in reviewing a request submitted by an applicant under A.R.S. &#167; 49-182 for approval of a remedial action under A.R.S. &#167; 49-285.

9. Time spent in meetings or discussions requested by the applicant or the Department.

B. The applicant shall reimburse the Department for the site-specific costs of goods and services contracted by the Department including:

1. Reasonable and necessary attorneys' fees billed to the Department by the Attorney General for legal services, including legal fees billed for representation in regard to appeals or dispute resolution under A.R.S. &#167; 49-185.

2. Costs incurred by the Department for work provided under a contract described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-179(D)(1) or A.R.S. &#167; 49-179(D)(2).

3. Reasonable and necessary travel costs incurred in the performance of activities described in subsections (A)(5), (A)(6), or (A)(9) or performed at the request of the applicant.

4. Other reasonable site related expenses documented in writing by the Department.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.505" level="4" title="Hourly Reimbursement Rate">

Hourly Reimbursement Rate

The hourly reimbursement rate is $110.00 per hour.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.506" level="4" title="Voluntary Remediation Program Accounting">

Voluntary Remediation Program Accounting

Within a reasonable time after the end of each calender quarter, the Department shall mail or fax each applicant a statement itemizing reimbursable costs charged against the site-specific deposit account and a summary of account activity during that quarter. The statement shall be in a form consistent with generally accepted accounting principles.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.507" level="4" title="Account Reconciliation">

Account Reconciliation

A. Within a reasonable time after completion of the remediation work at the site, or after termination or withdrawal of the applicant from participation in the program, the Department shall prepare and mail or fax to the applicant a final statement which shall include:

1. An itemization of site-specific reimbursable costs incurred by the Department but not previously reported in a quarterly statement.

2. The total amount of site-specific reimbursable costs incurred by the Department during the course of the project, including the costs reported in subsection (A)(1).

3. The total amount submitted as deposits by the applicant and applied by the Department to the applicant's site-specific deposit account during the course of the project, plus the amount paid by the applicant as an application fee.

B. If the final statement shows that the amounts submitted or paid during the course of the project are less than the Department's reimbursable costs, the applicant shall be responsible for and shall pay, within 30 days after receipt of the final statement, the difference between the costs incurred and the amounts submitted or paid.

C. If the final statement shows that the amounts submitted or paid during the course of the project are more than the Department's reimbursable costs and the Department's reimbursable costs exceed $2,000.00, the Department shall return to the applicant, within a reasonable time period, the difference between the amounts submitted or paid and the costs incurred.

D. If the final statement shows that the amounts submitted or paid during the course of the project are more than the Department's reimbursable costs and the Department's reimbursable costs total $2,000.00 or less, the Department shall retain the applicant's nonrefundable application fee of $2,000.00 and shall return to the applicant the amount of any deposits submitted.

E. The Department may withhold any program approval or no further action determination until the applicant has paid any amount due and payable under the final statement.

Historical Note

New Section adopted as interim rules, under an exemption from certain provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to Laws 2000, Ch. 225, &#167; 13, at 7 A.A.R. 814, effective February 9, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="DECLARATION OF ENVIRONMENTAL USE RESTRICTION FEE">

DECLARATION OF ENVIRONMENTAL USE RESTRICTION FEE

Article 6, consisting of R18-7-601 through R18-7-606, made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.601" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The following definitions shall apply in this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

"APP mine sites" means mining facilities which are subject to the aquifer protection permit provisions of Arizona Revised Statutes Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3.

"Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"DEUR" means declaration of environmental use restriction, as described in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152 and 49-158. It is an institutional control and a restrictive covenant that runs with and burdens the property, binds the owner and the owner's heirs, successors and assigns, and inures to the benefit of the Department and the state.

"Fee" means the fee authorized by A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152(K) and 49-158(G).

"Engineering control" has the meaning in A.R.S. &#167; 49-151.

"Institutional control" has the meaning in A.R.S. &#167; 49-151.

"Modification" means modification of a DEUR that continues to address the same spill or release, and the same contaminants, as in the original DEUR. No other changes are considered a modification of a DEUR, but would be the subject of a separate DEUR.

"One-time activities" includes reviewing and/or approving legal descriptions, control areas, contaminants, institutional or engineering controls, and draft DEUR documents.

"Ongoing activities" includes reviewing written reports, conducting site inspections, or otherwise verifying maintenance of institutional or engineering controls.

"Underground storage tanks" means those underground storage tanks defined and regulated under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 1.

"WQARF sites" means sites that are listed on the site registry specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01 and are the subject of remedial action pursuant to A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5. A property that is within a registry site boundary, but does not involve a contaminant of concern identified for that registry site and is not the subject of remedial action pursuant to the above Chapter 2, is not a WQARF site for the purpose of this Section.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.602" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

The provisions of this Article apply to properties where the owner has elected to use an institutional control and/or an engineering control to reduce the potential for exposure to contaminants on the property, or to leave contamination on the property that exceeds the applicable residential soil standard for the property. The owner of such property shall record, in each county where the property is located, a restrictive covenant labeled "declaration of environmental use restriction," that contains the information required by A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152 or 49-158, as approved by the Department. The owner shall submit the information on a form provided by the Department.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.603" level="4" title="Fee">

Fee

Except as provided in R18-7-605, before recording the DEUR or DEUR modification, property owners shall pay to the Department a fee as provided in R18-7-604 by company, cashier, or certified check, or money order, or other method approved by the Department.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.604" level="4" title="Fee Calculation">

Fee Calculation

A. Property owners who use only an institutional control shall pay to the Department a fee that is the sum of the following:

1. $825, representing Department costs to perform one-time activities;

2. An amount representing the costs of ongoing activities performed by the Department that is one of the following:

a. For properties contaminated only by a petroleum release from one or more underground storage tanks: $110 multiplied by the number of years the Department projects the property will require ongoing activities, not to exceed 30 years; or

b. For all other properties: $220 multiplied by the number of years the Department projects the property will require ongoing activities, not to exceed 30 years;

3. $770, representing Department costs to review and render a decision on a request to release a DEUR, and to record the release, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152(D) or 49-158(L);

4. $1,985 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to oversee and coordinate its DEUR-related activities; plus

5. $550 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to administer the repository under A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(E).

B. Property owners who use an engineering control without groundwater monitoring shall pay a fee to the Department that is the sum of the following:

1. $1,595, representing Department costs to perform one-time activities;

2. $660, representing Department costs of annual ongoing activities, multiplied by the number of years the Department projects the property will require ongoing activities, not to exceed 30 years;

3. $1,320, representing Department costs to review and render a decision on a request to release a DEUR, and to record the release, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152(D) or 49-158(L);

4. $1,985 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to oversee and coordinate its DEUR-related activities; plus

5. $550 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to administer the repository under A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(E).

C. Property owners who use an engineering control with groundwater monitoring, and owners of WQARF sites and APP mine sites, shall pay to the Department a fee that is the sum of the following:

1. $3,740, representing Department costs for performing one-time activities;

2. A component of the fee to be determined on a case-by-case basis, at $55 per hour, based on both:

a. The number of hours per year that the Department projects will be required for ongoing activities performed by the Department for the property, not to exceed 70 hours per year; and

b. The number of years that the Department projects the property will require ongoing activities, not to exceed 30 years;

3. $1,870, representing Department costs to review and render a decision on a request to release a DEUR, and to record the release, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152(D) or 49-158(L);

4. $1,985 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to oversee and coordinate its DEUR-related activities; plus

5. $550 per site, representing the property owner's pro-rata share of Department costs to administer the repository under A.R.S. &#167; 49-152(E).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.605" level="4" title="Postponement of the Release Portion of the DEUR Fee">

Postponement of the Release Portion of the DEUR Fee

Property owners may elect to postpone payment of the portion of the fee to release the DEUR, described in R18-7-604(A)(3), R18-7-604(B)(3), or R18-7-604(C)(3), on the condition that payment of the reasonable and necessary costs of releasing the DEUR is made with the request to the Department to release the DEUR from the property. Property owners electing to use this option acknowledge that the future amount of the release portion of the DEUR fee will be the amount established by this Article at the time the request for the release of the DEUR is filed with the Department, which may be greater than the amount described in R18-7-604(A)(3), R18-7-604(B)(3), or R18-7-604(C)(3) at the time the DEUR is recorded.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="R18.7.606" level="4" title="DEUR Modification Fee">

DEUR Modification Fee

A property owner who wishes to request a modification to an existing DEUR pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152(I)(2), 49-152(J)(2), 49-158(E), or 49-158(F) shall pay to the Department a fee, representing Department costs to review and render a decision on the request to modify the DEUR. The fee shall accompany the proposed modification, and shall be in the form of company, cashier, or certified check, or money order, or other method approved by the Department. The fee shall be the amount specified in R18-7-604(A)(3), R18-7-604(B)(3), or R18-7-604(C)(3), as appropriate for the category of site as described in R18-7-604(A), R18-7-604(B), or R18-7-604(C).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 10 A.A.R. 573, effective February 20, 2004 (Supp. 04-1).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 8" level="2" title="WASTE MANAGEMENT">

WASTE MANAGEMENT

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="REMEDIAL ACTION REQUIREMENTS">

REMEDIAL ACTION REQUIREMENTS

Article 1, consisting of R18-8-101, adopted permanently through the regular rulemaking process, effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4).

Article 1, consisting of R18-8-101, adopted by emergency action effective March 22, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026; in effect until permanent rules are adopted pursuant to Laws 1995, Chapter 232 &#167; 5 (Supp. 96-1).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.101" level="4" title="Remedial Action Requirements; Level and Extent of Cleanup">

Remedial Action Requirements; Level and Extent of Cleanup

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="HAZARDOUS WASTES">

HAZARDOUS WASTES

Article 2 consisting of Section R18-8-273 adopted effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

Article 2 consisting of Sections R9-8-1860 through R9-8-1866, R9-8-1869 through R9-8-1871, and R9-8-1880 amended and renumbered as Article 2, Sections R18-8-260 through R18-8-266, R18-8-269 through R18-8-271, and R18-8-280 (Supp. 87-2).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.201" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

through

<regElement name="R18.8.259" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.260" level="4" title="Hazardous Waste Management System: General">

Hazardous Waste Management System: General

<regElement name="R18.8.261" level="4" title="Identification and Listing of Hazardous Waste">

Identification and Listing of Hazardous Waste

<regElement name="R18.8.262" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste">

Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste

<regElement name="R18.8.263" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste">

Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste

<regElement name="R18.8.264" level="4" title="Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities">

Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities

<regElement name="R18.8.265" level="4" title="Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities">

Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities

<regElement name="R18.8.266" level="4" title="Standards for the Management of Specific Hazardous Wastes and Specific Hazardous Waste Management Facilities">

Standards for the Management of Specific Hazardous Wastes and Specific Hazardous Waste Management Facilities

<regElement name="R18.8.267" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.268" level="4" title="Land Disposal Restrictions">

Land Disposal Restrictions

<regElement name="R18.8.269" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to the State-owned Hazardous Waste Facility">

Standards Applicable to the State-owned Hazardous Waste Facility

<regElement name="R18.8.270" level="4" title="The Hazardous Waste Permit Program">

The Hazardous Waste Permit Program

<regElement name="R18.8.271" level="4" title="Procedures for Permit Administration">

Procedures for Permit Administration

<regElement name="R18.8.272" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.273" level="4" title="Standards for Universal Waste Management">

Standards for Universal Waste Management

<regElement name="R18.8.274" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.275" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.276" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.277" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.278" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.279" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.280" level="4" title="Compliance">

Compliance

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 3, consisting of Sections R18-8-301 through R18-8-305, R18-8-307, Table A, Exhibit 1, and Appendices A and B, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 13, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Article 3, consisting of Sections R18-8-301 through R18-8-305, adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3).

Article 3, consisting of Section R18-8-306, adopted again by emergency action effective May 26, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-2).

Article 3, consisting of Section R18-8-306, adopted by emergency action effective February 22, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Emergency expired.

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.301" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.302" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.303" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.304" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.305" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.306" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

<regElement name="R18.8.307" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Table A. Recodified

Exhibit 1. Recodified

Appendix A. Recodified

Appendix B. Recodified

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 4, consisting of Section R18-8-402, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 9, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Article 17 consisting of Sections R9-8-1711 and R9-8-1717 renumbered as Article 4, Sections R18-8-401 and R18-8-402 (Supp. 87-3).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.401" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.402" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 5, consisting of Sections R18-8-502 through R18-8-512, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Article 4 consisting of Sections R9-8-411 through R9-8-416, R9-8-421, R9-8-426 through R9-8-428, and R9-8-431 through R9-8-433 renumbered as Article 5, Sections R18-8-501 through R18-8-513 (Supp. 87-3).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.501" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.502" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.503" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.504" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.505" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.506" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.507" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.508" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.509" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.510" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.511" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.512" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.513" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Existing Sections in Article 6 recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 11 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

Article 12 consisting of Sections R9-8-1211 through R9-8-1216, R9-8-1221 through R9-8-1225, R9-8-1231 through R9-8-1236, and R9-8-1241 through R9-8-1244 renumbered as Article 6, Sections R18-8-601 through R18-8-621 (Supp. 87-3).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.601" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.602" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.603" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.604" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.605" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.606" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.607" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.608" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.609" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.610" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.611" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="R18.8.612" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.613" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.614" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.615" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.616" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.617" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.618" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.619" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.620" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.621" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

18 A.A.C. 8, Article 7, consisting of Sections R18-8-701 through R18-8-710, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 12, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Article 7, consisting of Sections R18-8-701 through R18-8-708, adopted permanently with changes effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3).

Article 7, consisting of Sections R18-8-709 and R18-8-710, adopted again by emergency action effective May 6, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-2). Emergency expired.

Article 7, consisting of Sections R18-8-709 and R18-8-710, adopted by emergency action effective February 5, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.701" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.702" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.703" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.704" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.705" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.706" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.707" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.708" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.709" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.710" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 9" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 10" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 11" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 12" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 13" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 14" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 15" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 16" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Article 16, consisting of Sections R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 16 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

Section

<regElement name="R18.8.1601" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1602" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1603" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1604" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1605" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1606" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1607" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1608" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1609" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1610" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1611" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1612" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1613" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="R18.8.1614" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="REMEDIAL ACTION REQUIREMENTS">

REMEDIAL ACTION REQUIREMENTS

<regElement name="R18.8.101" level="4" title="Remedial Action Requirements; Level and Extent of Cleanup">

Remedial Action Requirements; Level and Extent of Cleanup

A. This Article is applicable to Chapter 8 of this Title.

B. In any instance where soil remediation is done under this Chapter, it shall be conducted in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-201 through R18-7-209.

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective March 22, 1996, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-152 and 41-1026; in effect until permanent rules are adopted (Supp. 96-1). Historical note revised to clarify exemptions of emergency adoption (Supp. 97-1 &amp; Supp. 97-3). Adopted permanently through the regular rulemaking process, effective December 4, 1997 (Supp. 97-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="HAZARDOUS WASTES">

HAZARDOUS WASTES

<regElement name="R18.8.201" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

through

<regElement name="R18.8.259" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.260" level="4" title="Hazardous Waste Management System: General"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Hazardous Waste Management System: General

A. Federal regulations cited in this Article are those adopted as of July 1, 2000, unless otherwise noted. 40 CFR 124, 260 through 266, 268, 270 and 273 or parts thereof, are incorporated by reference when so noted. Federal statutes and regulations that are cited within 40 CFR 124, 260 through 270, and 273 that are not incorporated by reference may be used as guidance in interpreting federal regulatory language.

B. Any reference or citation to 40 CFR 124, 260 through 266, 268, 270, and 273, or parts thereof, appearing in the body of this Article and regulations incorporated by reference, includes any modification to the CFR section made by this Article. When federal regulatory language that has been incorporated by reference has been amended, brackets [ ] enclose the new language.

C. All of 40 CFR 260 and the accompanying appendix, as amended as of July 1, 2000, (and no future editions), with the exception of &#167;&#167; 260.1(b)(4) through (6), 260.20(a), 260.21, 260.22, 260.30, 260.31, 260.32, and 260.33, is incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections and are on file with the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) and the Office of the Secretary of State.

D. &#167; 260.2, titled "Availability of information; confidentiality of information" is amended by the following:

1. &#167; 260.2(a). Any information provided to [the DEQ] under [R18-8-260 et seq. shall] be made available to the public to the extent and in the manner authorized by the [Hazardous Waste Management Act (HWMA), A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq.; the Open Meeting Law, A.R.S. &#167; 38-431 et seq.; the Public Records Statute, A.R.S. &#167; 39-121 et seq.; the Administrative Procedure Act, A.R.S. &#167; 41-1001 et seq.; and rules promulgated pursuant to the above-referenced statutes], as applicable.

2. &#167; 260.2(b) is replaced with the following:

a. The DEQ shall make a record or other information, such as a document, a writing, a photograph, a drawing, sound or a magnetic recording, furnished to or obtained by the DEQ pursuant to the HWMA and regulations promulgated thereunder, available to the public to the extent authorized by the Public Records Statute, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 39-121 et seq.; the Administrative Procedure Act, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1001 et seq.; and the HWMA, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-921 et seq. Specifically, the DEQ shall disclose the records or other information to the public unless:

i. A statutory exemption authorizes the withholding of the information; or

ii. The record or other information contains a trade secret concerning processes, operations, style of work, or apparatus of a person, or other information that the Director determines is likely to cause substantial harm to the person's competitive position.

b. Notwithstanding subsection (a):

i. The DEQ shall make records and other information available to the EPA upon request without restriction;

ii. As required by the HWMA and regulations promulgated thereunder the DEQ shall disclose the name and address of a person who applies for, or receives, a HWM facility permit;

iii. The DEQ and any other appropriate governmental agency may publish quantitative and qualitative statistics pertaining to the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste; and

iv. An owner or operator may expressly agree to the publication or to the public availability of records or other information.

c. A person submitting records or other information to the DEQ may claim that the information contains a confidential trade secret or other information likely to cause substantial harm to the person's competitive position. In the absence of such claim, the DEQ shall make the information available to the public on request without further notice. A person making a claim of confidentiality shall assert the claim:

i. At the time the information is submitted to, or otherwise obtained by, the DEQ

ii. By either stamping or clearly marking the words "confidential trade secret" or "confidential information" on each page of the material containing the information. The person may assert the claim only for those portions or pages that actually contain a confidential trade secret or confidential information; and

iii. During the course of a DEQ inspection, or other observation, pursuant to the administration of the HWMA Program, by clearly indicating to the inspector which specific processes, operations, styles of work, or apparatus constitute a trade secret. The inspector shall record the claim on the inspection report and the claimant shall sign the report.

d. The Director shall provide the claimant with an opportunity to submit written comments to demonstrate that the information constitutes a legitimate confidential trade secret or confidential information. The comments shall be limited to confidential use by the DEQ. Pertinent factors to be considered by the Director for making a determination of confidentiality, and that the claimant may address in the claimant's written comments, include the following:

i. Whether the information is proprietary;

ii. Whether the information has been disclosed to persons other than the employees, agents, or other representatives of the owner; and

iii. Whether public disclosure would harm the competitive position of the claimant.

e. The Director shall make a determination of each confidentiality claim using the following procedures:

i. When a claim of confidentiality is asserted for information submitted as part of a HWM facility permit application:

(1) The claimant shall submit written comments demonstrating the legitimacy of the claim of confidentiality; and

(2) The Director shall evaluate the confidentiality claim and notify the claimant of the result of that determination as part of the completeness review pursuant to &#167; 124.3(c) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(C)).

ii. When a claim of confidentiality is asserted for information submitted or obtained during an inspection, or for any other information submitted to or obtained by the DEQ pursuant to this Article, but not as part of a HWM facility permit application:

(1) The claimant may submit written comments demonstrating the legitimacy of the claim of a confidential trade secret or other confidential information within 10 working days of asserting the confidentiality claim; and

(2) If a request for disclosure is made, the Director shall evaluate the confidentiality claim and notify the claimant of the result of that determination. In all other instances, the Director may, on the Director's own initiative, evaluate the confidentiality claim and notify the claimant of the result of that determination within 20 working days after the time for submission of comments.

iii. When any person, hereinafter referred to as the "requestor," submits a request to the DEQ for public disclosure of records or information, the DEQ shall disclose the records or information to the requestor unless the information has been determined to be confidential by the Director, or is subject to a claim of confidentiality that is being considered for determination by the Director.

(1) If a confidentiality claim is under consideration by the Director, the requestor shall be notified that the information requested is under a confidentiality claim consideration and therefore is unavailable for public disclosure pending the Director's determination pursuant to subsection (D)(2)(e)(ii)(2).

(2) When a request for disclosure is made, the claimant shall be notified, within seven working days by certified mail with return receipt requested, that the information under a claim of confidentiality has been requested and is subject to the Director's determination pursuant to subsection (D)(2)(e)(ii)(2).

(3) If the Director disagrees with the confidentiality claim, the claimant shall have 20 working days to submit written comments either agreeing or disagreeing with the Director's evaluation.

(4) If a confidentiality claim is denied by the Director, the Director may request the attorney general to seek a court order authorizing disclosure pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-928.

f. Records or information determined by the Director to be legitimate confidential trade secrets or other confidential information shall not be disclosed by the DEQ at administrative proceedings pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-923(A) unless the following procedure is observed:

i. The DEQ shall notify both the claimant and the hearing officer of its intention to disclose the information at least 30 days prior to the hearing date. The DEQ shall send with the notice a copy of the confidential information that the DEQ intends to disclose;

ii. The claimant and the DEQ shall be allowed 10 days to present to the hearing officer comments concerning the disclosure of such information;

iii. The hearing officer shall determine whether the confidential information is relevant to the subject of the administrative proceeding and shall allow disclosure upon finding that the information is relevant to the subject of the administrative proceeding;

iv. The hearing officer may set conditions for disclosure of confidential and relevant information or the making of protective arrangements and commitments as warranted; and

v. The hearing officer shall give the claimant at least five days' notice before allowing disclosure of the information in the course of the administrative proceeding.

E. &#167; 260.10, titled "Definitions," is amended by adding all definitions from &#167; 270.2 (as incorporated by R18-8-260 and R18-8-270) to this Section, including the following changes, applicable throughout this Article unless specified otherwise:

1. ["Acute Hazardous Waste" means waste found to be fatal to humans in low doses or, in the absence of data on human toxicity, that has been shown in studies to have an oral lethal dose (LD) 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 50 milligrams per kilogram, an inhalation lethal concentration (LC) 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 2 milligrams per liter, or a dermal LD 50 toxicity (rabbit) of less than 200 milligrams per kilogram or that is otherwise capable of causing or significantly contributing to an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness.]

2. ["Application" means the standard United States Environmental Protection Agency forms for applying for a permit, including any additions, revisions or modifications to the forms. Application also includes the information required pursuant to &#167;&#167; 270.14 through 270.29 (as incorporated by R18-8-270, regarding the contents of a Part B HWM facility permit application).]

3. ["Biennial report" means "annual report."]

4. ["Chapter" means "Article" except in &#167; 264.52(b), see R18-8-264, and &#167; 265.52(b), see R18-8-265.]

5. "Closure" means [, for facilities with effective hazardous waste permits, the act of securing a HWM facility pursuant to the requirements of R18-8-264. For facilities subject to interim status requirements, "closure" means the act of securing a HWM facility pursuant to the requirements of R18-8-265.]

6. ["Concentration" means the amount of a substance in weight contained in a unit volume or weight.]

7. ["Department" or "the DEQ" means the Department of Environmental Quality.]

8. "Department of Transportation" or "DOT" means the U.S. Department of Transportation.

9. ["Director" or "state Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality or an authorized representative, except in &#167;&#167; 262.50 through 262.57, 268.5 through 268.6, 268.42(b), and 268.44 which are non-delegable to the state of Arizona.]

10. ["Draft permit" means a document prepared under &#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)) indicating the Director's tentative decision to issue, deny, modify, revoke, reissue, or terminate a permit. A denial of a request for modification, revocation, reissuance or termination, as discussed in &#167; 124.5 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(D)), is not a draft permit.]

11. ["Emergency permit" means a permit that is issued in accordance with &#167; 270.61 (as incorporated by R18-8-270).]

12. ["EPA," "Environmental Protection Agency," "United States Environmental Protection Agency," "U.S. EPA," "EPA HQ," "EPA Regions," and "Agency" mean the DEQ with the following EXCEPTION:

a. Any references to EPA identification numbers;

b. Any references to EPA hazardous waste numbers;

c. Any reference to EPA test methods or documents;

d. Any reference to EPA forms;

e. Any reference to EPA publications;

f. Any reference to EPA manuals;

g. Any reference to EPA guidance;

h. Any reference to EPA Acknowledgment of Consent;

i. References in &#167;&#167; 260.2(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-260(D)(2));

260.10 (definitions of "Administrator," "EPA region," "Federal agency," "Person," and "Regional Administrator" (as incorporated by R18-8-260(E));

260, Appendix I (as incorporated by R18-8-260(C));

260.11(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-260);

261, Appendix IX (as incorporated by R18-8-261(A));

262.32(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A));

262.50 through 262.57 (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A));

262.80 through 262.89 (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A));

262, Appendix (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A));

263.10(a) Note (as incorporated by R18-8-263(A));

264.12(a)(2), 264.71(d), 265.12(a)(2), 265.71(d);

268.1(e)(3) (as incorporated by R18-8-268);

268.5, 268.6, 268.42(b), and 268.44, which are nondelegable to the state of Arizona (as incorporated by R18-8-268);

270.1(a)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

270.1(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(B));

270.2 (definitions of "Administrator," "Approved program or Approved state," "Director," "Environmental Protection Agency," "EPA," "Final authorization," "Permit," "Person," "Regional Adminis-trator," and "State/EPA agreement") (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A));

270.3 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A));

270.5 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A));

270.10(e)(1) through (2) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A) and R18-8-270(D));

270.11(a)(3) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A));

270.32(a) and (c) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(M) and R18-8-270(O));

270.51 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(P));

270.72(a)(5) and (b)(5) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A));

124.1(f) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(B));

124.5(d) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(D));

124.6(e) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E));

124.10(c)(1)(ii) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)); and

124.13 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(L)).]

13. ["Federal Register" means a daily or weekly major local newspaper of general circulation, within the area affected by the facility or activity, except in &#167;&#167; 260.11(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-260) and 270.10(e)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-270 (D)).]

14. ["HWMA" or "State HWMA" means the State Hazardous Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq., as amended.]

15. ["Hazardous Waste Management facility" or "HWM facility" means any facility or activity, including land or appurtenances thereto, that is subject to regulation under this Article.]

16. ["Key employee" means any person employed by an applicant or permittee in a supervisory capacity or empowered to make discretionary decisions with respect to the solid waste or hazardous waste operations of the applicant or permittee. Key employee does not include an employee exclusively engaged in the physical or mechanical collection, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of solid or hazardous waste.]

17. ["National" means "state" in &#167;&#167; 264.1(a) and 265.1(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-264 and R18-8-265).]

18. ["Off-site" means any site that is not on-site.]

19. ["Permit" means an authorization, license, or equivalent control document issued by the DEQ to implement the requirements of this Article. Permit includes "permit-by-rule" in &#167; 270.60 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) and "emergency permit" in &#167; 270.61 (as incorporated by R18-8-270), and it does not include interim status as in &#167; 270.70 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) or any permit which has not yet been the subject of final action, such as a "draft permit" or a "proposed permit."]

20. ["Permit-by-rule" means a provision of this Article stating that a facility or activity is considered to have a HWM facility permit if it meets the requirements of the provision.]

21. ["Physical construction" means excavation, movement of earth, erection of forms or structures, or similar activity to prepare a HWM facility to accept hazardous waste.]

22. ["RCRA," "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act," "Subtitle C of RCRA," "RCRA Subtitle C," or "Subtitle C" when referring either to an operating permit or to the federal hazardous waste program as a whole, mean the "State Hazardous Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq., as amended" with the following EXCEPTION:

a. Any reference to a specific provision of "RCRA," "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act," "Subtitle C of RCRA," "RCRA Subtitle C," or "Subtitle C";

b. References in &#167;&#167; 260.10 (definition of "Act or RCRA") (as incorporated by R18-8-260(E); 260, Appendix I, (as incorporated by R18-8-260(C)); 261, Appendix IX, (as incorporated by R18-8-261(A)); 262, Appendix, (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A)); 270.1(a)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)); 270.2, definition of "RCRA," (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)); and 270.51, "EPA-issued RCRA permit," (as incorporated by R18-8-270(P)).]

23. [Following any references to a specific provision of "RCRA," "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act," or "Subtitle C," the phrase "or any comparable provisions of the state Hazardous Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq., as amended" shall be deemed to be added except in &#167;&#167; 270.72(a)(5) and (b)(5) (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)).]

24. ["RCRA &#167; 3005(a) and (e)" means "A.R.S. &#167; 49-922."]

25. ["RCRA &#167; 3007" means "A.R.S. &#167; 49-922."]

26. ["Recyclable Materials" mean hazardous wastes that are recycled.]

27. ["Region" or "Region IX" means "state" or "state of Arizona."]

28. ["Schedule of compliance" means a schedule of remedial measures included in a permit, including an enforceable sequence of interim requirements, such as actions, operations, or milestone events, leading to compliance with the HWMA and this Article.]

29. ["Site" means the land or water area where any facility or activity is physically located or conducted, including adjacent land used in connection with the facility or activity.]

30. ["State," "authorized state," "approved state," or "approved program" means the state of Arizona with the following EXCEPTION:

References at &#167;&#167; 260.10, definitions of "person," "state," and "United States," (as incorporated by R18-8-260(E)); 262 (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A));

264.143(e)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

264.145(e)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

264.147(a)(1)(ii) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

264.147(b)(1)(ii) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

264.147(g)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

264.147(i)(4) (as incorporated by R18-8-264(A));

265.143(d)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A));

265.145(d)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A));

265.147(a)(1)(ii) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A));

265.147(g)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A));

265.147(i)(4) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A)); and

270.2, definitions of "Approved program or Approved state," "Director," "Final authorization," "Person," and "state" (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)).]

31. ["The effective date of these regulations" means the following dates: "May 19, 1981," in &#167;&#167; 265.112(a) and (d), 265.118(a) and (d), 265.142(a) and 265.144(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-265); "November 19, 1981," in &#167;&#167; 265.112(d) and 265.118(d) (as incorporated by R18-8-265); and "January 26, 1983," in &#167; 270.1(c) (as incorporated by R18-8-270).]

32. ["TSD facility" means a "Hazardous Waste Management facility" or "HWM facility."]

F. &#167; 260.10, titled "Definitions," as amended by subsection (E) also is amended as follows, with all definitions in &#167;&#167; 260.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-260), applicable throughout this Article unless specified otherwise.

1. "Act" or ["the Act" means the state Hazardous Waste Management Act or HWMA, except in R18-8-261(B) and R18-8-262(B).]

2. "Administrator," "Regional Administrator," "state Director," or "Assistant Administrator for Solid Waste and Emergency Response" mean the [Director or the Director's authorized representative, except in &#167; 260.10, definitions of "Administrator," "Regional Administrator," and "hazardous waste constituent" (as incorporated by R18-8-260(E));

3. "Facility" [or "activity" means:

a. Any HWM facility or other facility or activity, including] all contiguous land, structures, appurtenances, and improvements on the land which are used for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste, that is subject to regulation under the HWMA program. A facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal operational units (that is, one or more landfills, surface impoundments, or combinations of them).

b. For the purposes of implementing corrective action under 40 CFR 264.101 (as incorporated by R18-8-264), all contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator seeking a permit under Subtitle C of RCRA. This definition also applies to facilities implementing corrective action under RCRA Section 3008(h).

c. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this definition, a remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to 40 CFR 264.101(as incorporated by R18-8-264), but is subject to corrective action requirements if the site is located within such a facility.

4. "New HWM facility" or "new facility" means a HWM facility which began operation, or for which construction commenced, [after November 19, 1980].

5. "Person" means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, federal agency, corporation, including a government corporation, [or a limited liability corporation], partnership, association, state, municipality, commission, political subdivision of a state, or any interstate body, [state agency, or an agent or employee of a state agency].

6. "United States" means [Arizona except the following:

a. References in &#167;&#167; 262.50, 262.51, 262.53(a), 262.54(c), 262.54(g)(2), 262.54(i), 262.55(a), 262.55(c), 262.56(a)(4), 262.60(a), and 262.60(b)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-262).

b. All references in Part 263 (as incorporated by R18-8-263), except &#167;&#167; 263.10(a) and 263.22(c).]

G. &#167; 260.20(a), titled "General" pertaining to rulemaking petitions, is replaced by the following:

Where the Administrator of EPA has granted a rulemaking petition pursuant to 40 CFR 260.20(a), 260.21, or 260.22, the Director may accept the Administrator's determination and amend the Arizona rules accordingly, if the Director determines the action to be consistent with the policies and purposes of the HWMA.

H. &#167; 260.20(c) and (e) are amended by replacing "Federal Register" with "Arizona Administrative Register."

I. &#167; 260.23, titled "Petitions to amend 40 CFR 273 to include additional hazardous wastes" pertaining to rulemaking petitions, is amended as follows: (a) Any person seeking to add a hazardous waste or a category of hazardous waste to the universal waste regulations of part 273 of this Chapter may petition for a regulatory amendment under this Section, 40 CFR 260.20(b) through (e), and Subpart G of 40 CFR 273.

J. &#167; 260.30, titled "Variances from classification as a solid waste," is replaced by the following: Any person wishing to submit a variance petition shall submit the petition, under this subsection, to the EPA. Where the administrator of EPA has granted a variance from classification as a solid waste under 40 CFR 260.30, 260.31, and 260.33, the director shall accept the determination, if the director determines the action is consistent with the policies and purposes of the HWMA.

K. &#167; 260.32, titled "Variances to be classified as a boiler," is replaced by the following:

Any person wishing to submit a variance petition shall submit the petition, under this subsection, to the EPA. Where the administrator of EPA has granted a variance from classification as a boiler pursuant to 40 CFR 260.32 and 260.33, the director shall accept the determination, if the director determines the action is consistent with the policies and purposes of the HWMA.

L. 40 CFR &#167;&#167; 260.41, titled "Procedures for case-by-case regulation of hazardous waste recycling activities," is amended by deleting the following from the end of the sixth, seventh and eighth sentences of paragraph (a):

"Or unless review by the Administrator is requested. The order may be appealed to the administrator by any person who participated in the public hearing. The Administrator may choose to grant or to deny the appeal."

M. As required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-929, generators and transporters of hazardous waste shall register annually with DEQ and submit the appropriate registration fee, prescribed below, with their registration:

1. A hazardous waste transporter that picks up or delivers hazardous waste in Arizona shall pay $200 by March 1 of the year following the date of the pick-up or delivery;

2. A large-quantity generator that generated 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste in any month of the previous calendar year shall pay $300; or

3. A small-quantity generator that generated 100 kilograms or more but less than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in any month of the previous year shall pay $100.

N. A person shall pay hazardous waste generation fees under A.R.S. &#167; 49-931. The DEQ shall send an invoice to large-quantity generators quarterly and small-quantity generators annually. The person shall pay an invoice within 30 days of the postmark on the invoice.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsections (A), (C), and (E) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsections (A) and (C) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1860 renumbered as Section R18-8-260, and subsections (A) and (C) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsections (D) and (E) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998; R18-8-260 corrected, text was inadvertently omitted (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.261" level="4" title="Identification and Listing of Hazardous Waste"> <dwc name="chromium" times="6"><dwc name="lead" times="1">

Identification and Listing of Hazardous Waste

A. All of 40 CFR 261 and accompanying appendices, as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections, and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. In the above-adopted federal regulations "Section 1004(5) of RCRA" or "Section 1004(5) of the Act" means A.R.S. &#167; 49-921(5).

C. &#167; 261.4, titled "Exclusions," paragraph (a)(4), is amended as follows:

(4) Source, special nuclear or by-product material as defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq. [, provided that when a waste contains both hazardous waste and source, special nuclear or by-product material, the hazardous waste component remains subject to regulation under this Article.]

D. &#167; 261.4, titled "Exclusions," paragraph (b)(6)(i), is amended as follows:

(i) Wastes which fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic because chromium is present or are listed in Subpart D [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)] due to the presence of chromium, which do not fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic for any other constituent or are not listed due to the presence of any other constituent, and which do not fail the test for any other characteristic, if [documentation is provided to the Director] by a waste generator or by waste generators that:

(A) The chromium in the waste is exclusively (or nearly exclusively) trivalent chromium; and

(B) The waste is generated from an industrial process which uses trivalent chromium exclusively (or nearly exclusively) and the process does not generate hexavalent chromium; and

(C) The waste is typically and frequently managed in non-oxidizing environments.

E. &#167; 261.4, titled "Exclusions," is amended by deleting the phrase "in the Region where the sample is collected" in paragraph (e)(3).

F. &#167; 261.5, titled "Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally exempt small quantity generators," paragraph (b) is amended as follows:

(b) Except for those wastes identified in paragraphs (e), (f), (g), and (j) of [&#167; 261.5 (as incorporated by R18-8-261)], a conditionally exempt small quantity generator's hazardous wastes are not subject to regulation under [R18-8-262 through R18-8-266, R18-8-268, R18-8-270, and R18-8-271 of this Article], and the notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA, provided the generator complies with the requirements of paragraphs (f), (g), and (j) of [&#167; 261.5 (as incorporated by R18-8-261)]. [However, the Director may require reports of any conditionally exempt small quantity generator or group of conditionally exempt small quantity generators regarding the treatment, storage, transportation, disposal, or management of hazardous waste if the hazardous waste of such generator or generators poses a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment, when it is improperly treated, stored, transported, disposed, or otherwise managed.]

G. &#167; 261.5, titled "Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally exempt small quantity generators," paragraph (f)(3) is amended as follows:

(3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator may either treat or dispose of [the] acute hazardous waste in an on-site facility or ensure delivery to an off-site treatment, storage, or disposal facility, either of which is:

(i) Permitted under part 270 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-270)];

(ii) In interim status under parts 270 and 265 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-270 and R18-8-265)];

(iii) Authorized to manage hazardous waste by a state with a hazardous waste management program approved under part 271 of this Chapter;

(iv) Permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to manage municipal [or industrial solid waste and approved by the owner or operator of the solid waste facility to accept acute hazardous waste from conditionally exempt small quantity generators that have not been excluded from disposing of their waste at such a facility under applicable provisions of the Solid Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-701 through 49-791 and] is subject to Part 258 of this Chapter;

(v) Permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to manage non-municipal non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a non-municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit after January 1, 1998, is subject to the requirements in &#167;&#167; 257.5 through 257.30 of this chapter; or

(vi) A facility which:

(A) Beneficially uses or reuses, or legitimately recycles or reclaims its waste; or

(B) Treats its waste prior to beneficial use or reuse, or legitimate recycling or reclamation; or

(vii) For universal waste managed under &#167; 273 [(as incorporated by R18-8-273)], a universal waste handler or destination facility subject to the requirements of &#167; 273.

H. &#167; 261.5, titled "Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally exempt small quantity generators," paragraph (g) is amended as follows:

(g) In order for hazardous waste [, other than acute hazardous waste,] generated by a conditionally exempt small quantity generator in quantities of less than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste during a calendar month to be excluded from full regulation under this [subsection], the generator [shall] comply with the following requirements:

(1) &#167; 262.11 [(as incorporated by R18-8-262)];

(2) The conditionally exempt small quantity generator may accumulate hazardous waste on-site. If [such generator] accumulates at any time more than a total of 1,000 kilograms of hazardous wastes, all of those accumulated [hazardous] wastes are subject to regulation under the special provisions of &#167; 262 applicable to generators of between 100 kg and 1000 kg of hazardous waste in a calendar month as well as the requirements of &#167;&#167; 263 through 266, 268, 270, and 124 [as incorporated by R18-8-262, R18-8-263 through R18-8-266, R18-8-268, R18-8-270, and R18-8-271)] and the applicable notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA. The time period of &#167; 262.34(d) [(as incorporated by R18-8-262)] for accumulation of wastes on-site begins for a conditionally exempt small quantity generator when the accumulated wastes exceed 1,000 kilograms;

(3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator may either treat or dispose of [its] hazardous waste in an on-site facility or ensure delivery to an off-site treatment, storage, or disposal facility, either of which is:

(i) Permitted under part 270 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-270)];

(ii) In interim status under parts 270 and 265 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-270 and R18-8-265)];

(iii) Authorized to manage hazardous waste by a State with a hazardous waste management program approved under part 271 of this Chapter;

(iv) Permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to manage municipal [or industrial solid waste and approved by the owner or operator of the solid waste facility to accept hazardous waste from conditionally exempt small quantity generators who have not been excluded from disposing of their waste at such a facility pursuant to applicable provisions of the Solid Waste Management Act, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-701 through 49-791 and] is subject to Part 258 of this Chapter;

(v) Permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to manage non-municipal non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a non-municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit after January 1, 1998, is subject to the requirements in &#167;&#167; 257.5 through 257.30 of this chapter; or

(vi) A facility which:

(A) Beneficially uses or reuses, or legitimately recycles or reclaims its waste; or

(B) Treats its waste prior to beneficial use or reuse, or legitimate recycling or reclamation; or

(vii) For universal waste managed under part 273 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-273)], a universal waste handler or destination facility subject to the requirements of part 273 of this Chapter.

I. &#167; 261.5, titled "Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally exempt small quantity generators," paragraph (j) is amended as follows:

(j) If a conditionally exempt small quantity generator's wastes are mixed with used oil, the mixture is subject to 40 CFR 279 [(as incorporated by A.R.S. &#167; 49-802 into Arizona law)] of this Chapter if it is destined to be burned for energy recovery. Any material produced from such a mixture by processing, blending, or other treatment is also regulated under 40 CFR 279 if it is destined to be burned for energy recovery.

J. &#167; 261.6, titled "Requirements for recyclable materials," paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) are amended as follows:

(a)(1) Hazardous wastes that are recycled are subject to the requirements for generators, transporters, and storage facilities of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, except for the materials listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section. Hazardous wastes that are recycled [shall] be known as "recyclable materials."

(2) The following recyclable materials are not subject to the requirements of this section but are regulated under [40 CFR 266, subparts C, F, G, and H (as incorporated by R18-8-266)] and all applicable provisions in parts 270 and 124 of this Chapter [(as incorporated by R18-8-270 and R18-8-271)]:

(i) Recyclable materials used in a manner constituting disposal (subpart C);

(ii) Hazardous wastes burned for energy recovery in boilers and industrial furnaces that are not regulated under [40 CFR 264 or 265, subpart O (as incorporated by R18-8-264 and R18-8-265)] (subpart H);

(iii) Recyclable materials from which precious metals are reclaimed (subpart F);

(iv) Spent lead-acid batteries that are being reclaimed (subpart G).

(3) The following recyclable materials are not subject to regulation under [40 CFR 262 through 266, 268, 270, or 124 (as incorporated by R18-8-262 through R18-8-266, R18-8-268, R18-8-270, and R18-8-271)] and are not subject to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA:

(i) Industrial ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed except that, unless provided otherwise in an international agreement as specified in &#167; 262.58:

(A) A person initiating a shipment for reclamation in a foreign country, and any intermediary arranging for the shipment, [shall] comply with the requirements applicable to a primary exporter in &#167;&#167; 262.53, 262.56(a)(1)-(4), (6), and (b), and 262.57, export such materials only upon consent of the receiving country and in conformance with the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent as defined in subpart E of part 262, and provide a copy of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent to the shipment to the transporter transporting the shipment for export;

(B) Transporters transporting a shipment for export may not accept a shipment if [the transporter] knows the shipment does not conform to the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent, [shall] ensure that a copy of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent accompanies the shipment and [shall] ensure that [the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent] is delivered to the [subsequent transporter or] facility designated by the person initiating the shipment.

(ii) Scrap metal that is not excluded under &#167; 261.4(a)(13);

(iii) Fuels produced from the refining of oil-bearing hazardous wastes along with normal process streams at a petroleum refining facility if such wastes result from normal petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices (this exemption does not apply to fuels produced from oil recovered from oil-bearing hazardous waste, where such recovered oil is already excluded under &#167; 261.4(a)(12) (as incorporated by R18-8-261);

(iv) (A) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining, production, or transportation practices, or produced from oil reclaimed from such hazardous wastes, where such hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a process that does not use distillation or does not produce products from crude oil so long as the resulting fuel meets the used oil specification under [A.R.S. &#167; 49-801] and so long as no other hazardous wastes are used to produce the hazardous waste fuel;

(B) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous waste from petroleum refining[,] production, and transportation practices, where such hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a refining process after a point at which contaminants are removed, so long as the fuel meets the used oil fuel specification under [A.R.S. &#167; 49-801]; and

(C) Oil reclaimed from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices, which reclaimed oil is burned as a fuel without reintroduction to a refining process, so long as the reclaimed oil meets the used oil fuel specification under [A.R.S. &#167; 49-801].

K. &#167; 261.6, titled "Requirements for recyclable materials," paragraph (c) is amended by adding the following:

[(3) Each facility that recycles hazardous waste received from off-site and that is not otherwise required to submit an annual report under R18-8-262 through R18-8-265 shall submit Form IC, "Identification and Certification," of the Facility Annual Hazardous Waste Report to the Director by March 1 for the preceding calendar year. The annual report shall be mailed to: ADEQ, Hazardous Waste Facilities Assistance Unit, 1110 W. Washington St., Phoenix, AZ 85007. The annual report shall be submitted on a form provided by the DEQ according to the instructions for the form.]

L. &#167; 261.11, titled "Criteria for listing hazardous waste," paragraph (a) is amended as follows:

(a) The [Director] shall list a solid waste as a hazardous waste only upon determining that the solid waste meets one of the following criteria:

(1) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in subpart C [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)].

(2) It has been found to be fatal to humans in low doses or, in the absence of data on human toxicity, it has been shown in studies to have an oral LD 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 50 milligrams per liter, or a dermal LD 50 toxicity (rabbit) of less than 200 milligrams per kilogram or is otherwise capable of causing or significantly contributing to an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness. (Waste listed in accordance with these criteria shall be designated Acute Hazardous Waste.)

(3) It contains any of the toxic constituents listed in Appendix VIII [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)] and, after considering the following factors, the [Director] concludes that the waste is capable of posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed:

(i) The nature of the toxicity presented by the constituent.

(ii) The concentration of the constituent in the waste.

(iii) The potential of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent to migrate from the waste into the environment under the types of improper management considered in (a)(3)(vii) of this [subsection].

(iv) The persistence of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent.

(v) The potential for the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent to degrade into nonharmful constituents and the rate of degradation.

(vi) The degree to which the constituent or any degradation product of the constituent bioaccumulates in ecosystems.

(vii) The plausible types of improper management to which the waste could be subjected.

(viii) The quantities of the waste generated at individual generation sites or on a regional or national basis.

(ix) The nature and severity of the human health and environmental damage that has occurred as a result of the improper management of wastes containing the constituent.

(x) Action taken by other governmental agencies or regulatory programs based on the health or environmental hazard posed by the waste or waste constituent.

(xi) Such other factors as may be appropriate.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsections (A) and (E) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1861 renumbered as Section R18-8-261, and subsections (A), (D) and (F) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.262" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste">

Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste

A. All of 40 CFR 262 and the accompanying appendix, as amended as of July 1, 2000, (and no future editions), are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections, and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. In 40 CFR 262 (as incorporated by R18-8-262(A)):

1. ["Section 3008 of the Act" means A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-923, 49-924 and 49-925.]

2. ["Section 2002(a) of the Act" means A.R.S. &#167; 49-922.]

3. ["Section 3002(6) of the Act" means A.R.S. &#167; 49-922.]

C. &#167; 262.10, titled "Purpose, scope, and applicability," paragraph (i) is amended as follows:

(i) [For the limited time period required to control, mitigate, or eliminate the immediate threat,] persons responding to an explosives or munitions emergency in accordance with 40 CFR 264.1(g)(8)(i)(D) or (iv), or 265.1(c)(11)(i)(D) or (iv), and 270.1(c)(3)(i)(D) or (iii) are not required to comply with the standards of this part. [As soon as the immediate response activities are completed, all standards of this part apply. For purposes of this rule, DEQ does not consider emergency response personnel to be generators of residuals resulting from immediate responses, unless they are also the owner of the object of an emergency response. The owner of the object of an emergency response, the owner of the property on which the object of an emergency rests or where the emergency response initiates, or the requestor for an emergency response is responsible for addressing any residual contamination that results from an emergency response.]

D. &#167; 262.11, titled "Hazardous waste determination," paragraph (c)(1) is amended by deleting the following:

(1) ", or according to an equivalent method approved by the Administrator under 40 CFR 260.21."

E. &#167; 262.12, titled "EPA identification numbers," paragraphs (a) and (b) are amended as follows:

(a) A generator must not treat, store, dispose of, transport, or offer for transportation, hazardous waste without having received an EPA identification number from the [DEQ].

(b) A generator who has not received an EPA identification number may obtain one by applying to the [DEQ] using EPA form 8700-12. [The completed form shall be mailed or delivered to: ADEQ, Hazardous Waste Facilities Assistance Unit, 1110 W. Washington St., Phoenix, AZ 85007.] Upon receiving the request, the [DEQ] will assign an EPA identification number to the generator.

F. &#167; 262.23, titled "Use of the manifest," paragraph (a) is amended by adding the following:

[(4) Submit one (1) copy of each manifest to the DEQ in accordance with R18-8-262(I).]

G. &#167; 262.34, titled "Accumulation time," paragraph (d)(5)(iv)(C) is amended as follows:

(C) In the event of a fire, explosion, or other release which could threaten human health outside the facility or when the generator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water [or when a spill has discharged into a storm sewer or dry well, or such an event has resulted in any other discharge that may reach groundwater], the generator immediately [shall] notify the National Response Center (using their 24-hour toll-free number 800/424-8802) [and the DEQ (using their 24-hour number (602) 771-2330 or 800/234-5677)]. The report [shall contain] the following information:

(1) The name, address, and [the EPA Identification Number] of the generator;

(2) Date, time, [location,] and type of incident (for example, spill or fire);

(3) Quantity and type of hazardous waste involved in the incident;

(4) Extent of injuries, if any; and

(5) Estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials, if any.

H. &#167; 262.41, titled "Biennial report," is amended as follows:

(a) A generator [shall] prepare and submit a single copy of [an annual] report to the [Director] by March 1 [for the preceding calendar] year. The [annual] report [shall] be submitted on [a form provided by the DEQ according to the instructions for the form, shall describe] generator activities during the previous [calendar] year, and shall include the following information:

(1) The EPA identification number, name, [location,] and [mailing] address of the generator.

(2) The calendar year covered by the report.

(3) The EPA identification number, name, and [mailing] address for each off-site [TSD] facility to which waste was shipped during the [reporting] year [, including the name and address of all applicable foreign facilities for exported shipments.]

(4) The name, [mailing address], and the EPA identification number of each transporter used [by the generator] during the reporting year.

(5) A [waste] description, EPA hazardous waste number (from 40 CFR 261, subpart C or D) [(as incorporated by R18-8-261), U.S. Department of Transportation] hazard class, [concentration, physical state,] and quantity of each hazardous waste [:

i. Generated];

ii. Shipped off-site. This information must be listed by EPA identification number of each off-site facility to which waste was shipped; and

iii. Accumulated at the end of the year].

(6) A description of the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce the volume and toxicity of waste generated.

(7) A description of the changes in volume and toxicity of waste actually achieved during the year in comparison to previous years to the extent such information is available for the years prior to 1984.

(8) The certification signed by the generator or [the generator's] authorized representative [, and the date the report was prepared].

(9) [A waste description, EPA hazardous waste number, concentration, physical state, quantity, and handling method of each hazardous waste handled on-site in elementary neutralization or wastewater treatment units.]

(10) [Name and telephone number of facility contact responsible for information contained in the report.]

(b) Any generator who treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste on-site, [and is subject to the HWM facility requirements of R18-8-264, R18-8-265, or R18-8-270,] shall submit [an annual] report covering those wastes in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 264.75 [(as incorporated by R18-8-264(G)], and &#167; 265.75 [(as incorporated by R18-8-265(G).]

I. Manifests required in 40 CFR 262, subpart B, titled "The Manifest," (as incorporated by R18-8-262) shall be submitted to the DEQ in the following manner:

1. A generator initiating a shipment of hazardous waste required to be manifested shall submit to the DEQ, no later than 45 days following the end of the month of shipment, one copy of each manifest with the signature of that generator and transporter, and the signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility, for any shipment of hazardous waste transported or delivered within that month. If a conforming manifest is not available, the generator shall submit an Exception Report in compliance with &#167; 262.42 (as incorporated by R18-8-262).

2. A generator shall designate on the manifest in item I "Waste No.," the EPA hazardous waste number or numbers for each hazardous waste listed on the manifest.

J. &#167; 262.42, titled "Exception reporting," is amended by replacing "The Exception Report must include:" in paragraph (a)(2) with the following: "The Exception Report shall be submitted to DEQ within 45 days following the end of the month of shipment of the waste and shall include:"

K. &#167; 262.42, titled "Exception reporting," paragraph (b) is amended by adding the following sentence to the end of the paragraph: "This submission to DEQ shall be made within 60 days following the end of the month of shipment of the waste."

L. A generator who accumulates ignitable, reactive, or incompatible waste shall comply with 40 CFR 265.17(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-265(A)).

M. Any generator who must comply with 40 CFR 262.34(a)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-262) shall keep a written log of the inspections of container, tank, drip pad, and containment building areas and for the containers, tanks, and other equipment located in these storage areas in accordance with 40 CFR 265.174, 265.195, 265.444, and 265.1101(c)(4) (as incorporated by R18-8-265). The inspection log shall be kept by the generator for three years from the date of the inspection. The generator shall ensure that the inspection log is filled in after each inspection and includes the following information: inspection date, inspector's name and signature, and remarks or corrections.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsections (A) and (D) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1862 renumbered as R18-8-262, and amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.263" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste">

Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste

A. All of 40 CFR 263, as amended as of July 1, 1999 (and no future editions), is incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections of R18-8-263, and on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 263.11, titled "EPA identification numbers," is amended by the following:

(a) A transporter must not transport hazardous wastes without having received an EPA identification number from the [DEQ].

(b) A transporter who has not received an EPA identification number may obtain one by applying to the [DEQ] using EPA form 8700-12. [The completed form shall be mailed or delivered to: ADEQ, Hazardous Waste Technical Programs Unit, 3033 N. Central Ave., Phoenix, AZ 85012.] Upon receiving the request, the [DEQ] will assign an EPA identification number to the transporter.

C. &#167; 263.20, titled "The manifest system," is amended by adding the following:

[A transporter of hazardous waste, with the exception of hazardous waste shipments that originate outside of Arizona, must submit one copy of each manifest to the DEQ, in accordance with R18-8-263(D).]

D. Manifests required in 40 CFR 263, subpart B, titled "Compliance With the Manifest System and Recordkeeping," (as incorporated by R18-8-263) shall be submitted to the DEQ in the following manner:

[A transporter of hazardous waste, unless such hazardous waste shipment originated outside of the state of Arizona, shall submit to the DEQ, no later than 30 days following the end of the month of shipment, copy of each manifest, including the signature of that transporter, for any shipment of hazardous waste transported or delivered within that month.]

E. &#167; 263.30, titled "Immediate action," paragraph (c)(2) is amended by the following:

(2) Report in writing as required by 49 CFR 171.16 to the Director, Office of Hazardous Materials Regulations, Materials Transportation Bureau, Department of Transportation, Washington, DC 20590 [and send a copy to the DEQ, Hazardous Waste Inspections Unit, 3033 N. Central Ave., Phoenix, AZ 85012.]

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsection (A) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-1863 renumbered as R18-8-263, and subsection (A) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (A) effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.264" level="4" title="Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities">

Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities

A. All of 40 CFR 264 and accompanying appendices, as amended as of July 1, 2000, (and no future editions), with the exception of &#167;&#167; 264.1(d) and (f), 264.149, 264.150, and 264.301(l), are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections, and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 264.1, titled "Purpose, scope and applicability," paragraph (g)(1) is amended as follows:

(1) The owner or operator of a facility [with operational approval from the Director] to manage [public, private,] municipal or industrial solid waste [pursuant to R18-8-512, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-104 and 49-762], if the only hazardous waste the facility treats, stores, or disposes of is excluded from regulation under [R18-8-264] pursuant to &#167; 261.5 [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)];

C. &#167; 264.1, titled "Purpose, scope, and applicability," paragraph (g)(8)(i)(D) is amended as follows:

(D) An immediate threat to human health, public safety, property, or the environment, from the known or suspected presence of military munitions, other explosive material, or an explosive device, as determined by an explosive or munitions emergency response specialist as defined in 40 CFR 260.10. [The DEQ Emergency Response Unit shall be notified as soon as possible, using the 24-hour number (602) 771-2330 or (800) 234-5677.]

D. &#167; 264.11, titled "Identification number," is replaced by the following:

1. A facility owner or operator shall not treat, store, dispose of, transport, or offer for transportation, hazardous waste without having received an EPA identification number from the DEQ.

2. A facility owner or operator who has not received an EPA identification number may obtain one by applying to the DEQ using EPA form 8700-12. The completed form shall be mailed or delivered to: ADEQ, Hazardous Waste Facilities Assistance Unit, 1110 W. Washington St., Phoenix, AZ 85007. Upon receiving the request, the DEQ will assign an EPA identification number to the facility owner or operator.

E. &#167; 264.18, titled "Location standards," paragraph (c) is amended by deleting the following:

(c) ", except for the Department of Energy Waste Isolation Pilot Project in New Mexico."

F. &#167; 264.56, titled "Emergency procedures," paragraph (d)(2) is amended as follows:

(2) [The emergency coordinator, or designee, shall] immediately notify [the DEQ at (602) 207-2330 or 800/234-5677, extension 2330, and notify] either the government official designated as the on-scene coordinator for that geographical area, (in the applicable regional contingency plan under 40 CFR 1510) or the National Response Center (using their 24-hour toll free number 800/424-8802). The report [shall include the following]:

(i) Name and telephone number of reporter;

(ii) Name and address of facility;

(iii) Time and type of incident (for example, release, fire);

(iv) Name and quantity of material(s) involved, to the extent known;

(v) The extent of injuries, if any; and

(vi) The possible hazards to human health, or the environment, outside the facility.

G. &#167; 264.71, titled "Use of manifest system," paragraph (a)(4) is amended as follows:

Within 30 days after the delivery, send a copy of the manifest to the generator [and submit one copy of each manifest to the DEQ, in accordance with R18-8-264(I).]

H. &#167; 264.75, titled "Biennial report," is amended as follows:

The owner or operator [of a facility that treated, stored, or disposed of hazardous waste shall] prepare and submit a [single] copy of [an annual report to the Director] by March 1 [for the preceding calendar] year. The [annual] report must be submitted on [a form provided by DEQ according to the instructions for the form.] The report [shall describe treatment, disposal, or storage] activities during the previous calendar year and [shall] include the following information:

(a) Name, [mailing] address, [location] and the EPA identification number of the facility;

(b) The calendar year covered by the report;

(c) [For facilities receiving waste from off-site,] the EPA identification number of each hazardous waste generator from which the facility received a hazardous waste during the year; and, for imported shipments, the report must give the name and address of the foreign generator;

(d) A [waste] description, [EPA hazardous waste number, concentration, physical state], and quantity of each hazardous waste the facility received during the year. For [waste received from off-site], this information must be listed by the EPA identification number of each generator;

(e) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;

(f) Reserved;

(g) The most recent closure cost estimate under &#167; 264.142, [(as incorporated by R18-8-264)], and for disposal facilities, the most recent post-closure cost estimate under &#167; 264.144, [(as incorporated by R18-8-264)];

(h) For generators who treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste on-site, a description of the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce the volume and toxicity of waste generated.

(i) For generators who treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste on-site, a description of the changes in volume and toxicity of waste actually achieved during the year in comparison to previous years to the extent such information is available for the years prior to 1984.

(j) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility, or authorized representative, [and the date the report was prepared];

(k) [Name and telephone number of facility contact responsible for information contained in the report; and]

(l) [If the TSD facility is also a generator, the complete generator annual report as required by &#167; 262.41 (as incorporated by R18-8-262).]

I. Manifests required in 40 CFR 264, Subpart E, titled "Manifest System, Recordkeeping, and Reporting," (as incorporated by R18-8-264) shall be submitted to the DEQ in the following manner:

[1. The TSD facility receiving off-site shipments of hazardous wastes required to be manifested shall submit to the DEQ, no later than 30 days following the end of the month of shipment, one copy of each manifest with the signature, in accordance with &#167; 264.71(a)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-264), of the owner or operator of the facility, or agent, for any shipment of hazardous waste received within that month.

2. If a facility receiving hazardous waste from off-site is also a generator, the owner or operator shall also submit generator manifests as required by R18-8-262(H).]

J. &#167; 264.93, titled "Hazardous constituents," paragraph (c) is amended as follows:

(c) In making any determination under [&#167; 264.93(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-264)] about the use of ground water in the area around the facility, the [Director shall] consider any identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers made under [40 CFR] &#167; 144.7, [and any identification of uses of ground water made pursuant to 18 A.A.C. 9 or 11].

K. &#167; 264.94, titled "Concentration limits," paragraph (c) is amended as follows:

(c) In making any determination under [&#167; 264.94(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-264)] about the use of ground water in the area around the facility, the [Director shall] consider any identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers made under [40 CFR] 144.7, [and any identification of uses of ground water made pursuant to 18 A.A.C. 9 or 11].

L. &#167; 264.143, titled "Financial assurance for closure," paragraph (h), and 264.145, titled "Financial assurance for post-closure care," paragraph (h), are amended by replacing the third sentence in each citation with the following: "Evidence of financial assurance must be submitted to and maintained with the Director for those facilities located in Arizona."

M. &#167; 264.147, titled "Liability requirements," paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(i) are amended by deleting the following from the fourth sentence in each citation: ", or Regional Administrators if the facilities are located in more than one Region."

N. &#167; 264.151, titled "Wording of the instruments," is adopted except any reference to "{of/for} the Regions in which the facilities are located" is deleted and "an agency of the United States Government" is deleted from the second paragraph of the Trust Agreements.

O. &#167; 264.301, titled "Design and operating requirements," is amended by adding the following:

[The DEQ may require that hazardous waste disposed in a landfill operation, be treated prior to landfilling to reduce the water content, water solubility, and toxicity of the waste. The decision by the DEQ shall be based upon the following criteria:

1. Whether the action is necessary to protect public health;

2. Whether the action is necessary to protect the groundwater, particularly where the groundwater is a source, or potential source, of a drinking water supply;

3. The type of hazardous waste involved and whether the waste may be made less hazardous through treatment;

4. The degree of water content, water solubility, and toxicity of the waste;

5. The existence or likelihood of other wastes in the landfill and the compatibility or incompatibility of the wastes with the wastes being considered for treatment;

6. Consistency with other laws, rules and regulations, but not necessarily limited to laws, rules, and regulations relating to landfills and solid wastes.]

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsection (A) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1864 renumbered as Section R18-8-264, and subsection (A) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.265" level="4" title="Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities">

Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities

A. All of 40 CFR 265 and accompanying appendices, as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), with the exception of &#167;&#167; 265.1(c)(2), 265.1(c)(4), 265.149, 265.150, and 265.430, are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections, and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 265.1, titled "Purpose, scope, and applicability," paragraph (c)(5) is amended as follows:

(5) The owner or operator of a facility [with operational approval from the Director] to manage [public, private,] municipal or industrial solid waste [pursuant to R18-8-512, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-104 and 49-762], if the only hazardous waste the facility treats, stores, or disposes of is excluded from regulation under [R18-8-265, pursuant to &#167; 261.5 (as incorporated by R18-8-261)];

C. &#167; 265.1, titled "Purpose, scope, and applicability," paragraph (c)(11)(i)(D) is amended as follows:

(D) An immediate threat to human health, public safety, property, or the environment, from the known or suspected presence of military munitions, other explosive material, or an explosive device, as determined by an explosive or munitions emergency response specialist as defined in 40 CFR 260.10. [The DEQ Emergency Response Unit shall be notified as soon as possible, using the 24-hour number (602) 771-2330 or (800) 234-5677]

D. &#167; 265.11, titled "Identification number," is replaced by the following:

[1. A facility owner or operator shall not treat, store, dispose of, transport, or offer for transportation, hazardous waste without having received an EPA identification number from the DEQ.

2. A facility owner or operator who has not received an EPA identification number may obtain one by applying to the DEQ using EPA form 8700-12. The completed form shall be mailed or delivered to: ADEQ, Hazardous Waste Facilities Assistance Unit, 1110 W. Washington St., Phoenix, AZ 85007. Upon receiving the request, the DEQ shall assign an EPA identification number to the facility owner or operator.]

E. &#167; 265.18, titled "Location standards," is amended by deleting the following:

", except for the Department of Energy Waste Isolation Pilot Project in New Mexico."

F. &#167; 265.56, titled "Emergency procedures," paragraph (d)(2) is amended as follows:

(2) [The emergency coordinator, or designee, immediately shall] notify [the DEQ at (602) 771-2330 or 800/234-5677, and notify] either the government official designated as the on-scene coordinator for that geographical area, (in the applicable regional contingency plan under 40 CFR 1510) or the National Response Center (using their 24-hour toll-free number 800/424-8802). The report [shall include the following]:

(i) Name and telephone number of the reporter;

(ii) Name and address of the facility;

(iii) Time and type of incident (for example, release, fire);

(iv) Name and quantity of material(s) involved, to the extent known:

(v) The extent of injuries, if any; and

(vi) The possible hazards to human health, or the environment, outside the facility.

G. &#167; 265.71, titled "Use of manifest system," paragraph (a)(4) is amended as follows:

Within 30 days after the delivery, send a copy of the manifest to the generator [and submit one copy of each manifest to the DEQ, in accordance with subsection R18-8-265(I)]; and

H. &#167; 265.75, titled "Biennial report," is amended as follows:

The owner or operator [of a facility that treated, stored, or disposed of hazardous waste] shall prepare and submit a copy of [an annual] report to the [Director] by March 1 [for the preceding calendar] year. The [annual] report must be submitted on [a form provided by DEQ according to the instructions for the form]. The report [shall describe] facility activities during the previous calendar year and must include the following information:

(a) Name, [mailing] address, [location], and EPA identification number of the facility;

(b) The calendar year covered by the report;

(c) For [facilities receiving waste from off-site], the EPA identification number of each hazardous waste generator from which the facility received a hazardous waste during the year; [and] for imported shipments, the report must give the name and address of the foreign generator;

(d) A [waste] description, [EPA hazardous waste number, concentration, physical state], and quantity of each hazardous waste the facility received [according to the quantity treated, stored or disposed] during the year. For [waste received from off-site], this information must be listed by EPA identification number of each generator;

(e) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;

(f) Monitoring data under &#167; 265.94(a)(2)(ii) and (iii), and (b)(2) [(as incorporated by R18-8-265)], where required;

(g) The most recent closure cost estimate under &#167; 265.142 [(as incorporated by R18-8-265)], and, for disposal facilities, the most recent post-closure cost estimate under &#167; 265.144 [(as incorporated by R18-8-265,)];

(h) For generators who treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste on-site, a description of the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce the volume and toxicity of waste generated;

(i) For generators who treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste on-site, a description of the changes in volume and toxicity of waste actually achieved during the year in comparison to previous years to the extent such information is available for the years prior to 1984;

(j) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility, or authorized representative, [and the date the report was prepared; and

(k) Name and telephone number of facility contact responsible for information contained in the report.]

I. Manifests required in 40 CFR 265, subpart E, titled "Manifest System, Recordkeeping, and Reporting," (as incorporated by R18-8-265) shall be submitted to the DEQ in the following manner:

The TSD facility receiving off-site shipments of hazardous wastes required to be manifested shall submit to the DEQ, no later than 30 days following the end of the month of shipment, copy of each manifest with the signature, in accordance with &#167; 265.71(a)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-265), of the owner or operator of the facility, or agent, for any shipment of hazardous waste received within that month.

J. &#167; 265.90, titled "Applicability," paragraphs (a) and (d)(1), and &#167; 265.93, titled "Preparation, evaluation, and response," paragraph (3) (as incorporated by R18-8-265), are amended by deleting the following phrase: "within one year"; and &#167; 265.90, titled "Applicability," paragraph (d)(2) (as incorporated by R18-8-265), is amended by deleting the following phrase: "Not later than one year."

K. &#167; 265.112(d), titled "Notification of partial closure and final closure," subparagraph (1) is amended as follows:

1. The owner or operator must submit the closure plan to the [Director] at least 180 days prior to the date on which [the owner or operator] expects to begin closure of the first surface impoundment, waste pile, land treatment, or landfill unit, [tank, container storage, or incinerator unit], or final closure if it involves such a unit, whichever [occurs earlier. The owner or operator with approved closure plans shall notify the Director] in writing at least 60 days prior to the date on which [the owner or operator expects] to begin closure of a surface impoundment, waste pile, landfill, or land treatment unit, or final closure of a facility [if it involves such a unit. The owner or operator] with approved closure plans must notify the [Director] in writing at least 45 days prior to the date on which [the owner or operator expects] to begin final closure of a facility with only tanks, container storage, or incinerator units.

L. &#167;&#167; 265.143, titled "Financial assurance for closure," paragraph (g), and 265.145, titled "Financial assurance for post-closure care," paragraph (g), are amended by replacing the third sentence in each citation with the following: "Evidence of financial assurance must be submitted to and maintained with the Director for those facilities located in Arizona."

M. &#167; 265.193, titled "Containment and detection of releases" (as incorporated by R18-8-265), is amended by adding the following:

[For existing underground tanks and associated piping systems not yet retrofitted in accordance with &#167; 265.193, the owner or operator shall ensure that:

1. A level is measured daily;

2. A material balance is calculated and recorded daily; and

3. A yearly test for leaks in the tank and piping system, using a method approved by the DEQ is performed.]

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsection (A) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1865 renumbered as Section R18-8-265, subsection (A) amended and a new subsection (I) added effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.266" level="4" title="Standards for the Management of Specific Hazardous Wastes and Specific Hazardous Waste Management Facilities">

Standards for the Management of Specific Hazardous Wastes and Specific Hazardous Waste Management Facilities

A. All of 40 CFR 266 and accompanying appendices as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 266.100, titled "Applicability" paragraph (c) is amended as follows:

(c) The following hazardous wastes and facilities are not subject to regulation under this subpart:

(1) Used oil burned for energy recovery that is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of part 261 [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)] of this Chapter. Such used oil is subject to regulation under [A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-801 through 49-818] rather than this subpart;

(2) Gas recovered from hazardous or solid waste landfills when such gas is burned for energy recovery;

(3) Hazardous wastes that are exempt from regulation under &#167;&#167; 261.4 and 261.6(a)(3)(iii)-(iv) [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)] of this Chapter, and hazardous wastes that are subject to the special requirements for conditionally exempt small quantity generators under &#167; 261.5 [(as incorporated by R18-8-261)] of this Chapter; and

(4) Coke ovens, if the only hazardous waste burned is EPA Hazardous Waste No. K087, decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations.

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1866 renumbered as Section R18-8-266, and amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.267" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.268" level="4" title="Land Disposal Restrictions">

Land Disposal Restrictions

All of 40 CFR 268 and accompanying appendices, as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), with the exception of Part 268, Subpart B, are incorporated by reference and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.269" level="4" title="Standards Applicable to the State-owned Hazardous Waste Facility">

Standards Applicable to the State-owned Hazardous Waste Facility

A. This Section applies only to the state owned and contracted site specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-902(A).

B. Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-901 et seq., the DEQ shall develop a facility at the location specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-902(A).

C. Transportation routes.

1. A transporter hauling hazardous waste to or from the state HWM facility shall utilize established public roads and highways that are built and maintained to meet state or county specifications; and

2. The approach to and the departure from the facility shall be from the east or west.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Former Section R9-8-1869 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-269 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsections (A) and (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.270" level="4" title="The Hazardous Waste Permit Program">

The Hazardous Waste Permit Program

A. All of 40 CFR 270, as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), with the exception of &#167;&#167; 270.1(a), 270.1(c)(1)(i), 270.3, 270.10(g)(1)(i), 270.60(a) and (b), and 270.64, is incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections, and is on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 270.1, titled "Purpose and scope of these regulations," paragraph (b) is replaced by the following:

1. [After the effective date of these regulations the treatment, storage, or disposal of any hazardous waste is prohibited except as follows:

a. As allowed under &#167; 270.1(c)(2) and (3) (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

b. Under the conditions of a permit issued pursuant to these regulations; or

c. At an existing facility accorded interim status under the provisions of &#167; 270.70 (as incorporated by R18-8-270).

2. The direct disposal or discharge of hazardous waste into or onto any of the following is prohibited:

a. Waters of the state as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(31), excluding surface impoundments as defined in &#167; 260.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-260); and

b. Injection well, ditch, alleyway, storm drain, leachfield, or roadway.]

C. &#167; 270.1, titled "Purpose and scope of these regulations," paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) is amended as follows:

(D) An immediate threat to human health, public safety, property, or the environment, from the known or suspected presence of military munitions, other explosive material, or an explosive device, as determined by an explosive or munitions emergency response specialist as defined in 40 CFR 260.10. [The DEQ Emergency Response Unit shall be notified as soon as possible, using the 24-hour number (602) 771-2330 or (800) 234-5677.]

D. &#167; 270.10, titled "General application requirements," paragraph (e)(2), is amended as follows:

(2) The [Director] may extend the date by which owners and operators of specified classes of existing [HWM facilities shall submit Part A of their permit application if the Administrator has published in the Federal Register that EPA is granting an extension under 40 CFR &#167; 270.10(e)(2) for those classes of facilities.]

E. &#167; 270.10(g), titled "Updating permit applications," subparagraph (1)(ii) is amended as follows:

(ii) With the [Director] no later than the effective date of regulatory provisions listing or designating wastes as hazardous in [the] state if the facility is treating, storing, or disposing of any of those newly listed or designated wastes; or

F. &#167; 270.10(g), titled "Updating permit applications," subparagraph (1)(iii), is amended as follows:

(iii) As necessary to comply with provisions of &#167; 270.72 [(as incorporated by R18-8-270)] for changes during interim [status]. Revised Part A applications necessary to comply with the provisions of &#167; 270.72 [(as incorporated by R18-8-270) shall be filed with the [Director.]

G. &#167; 270.10, titled "General application requirements," is amended by adding the following:

1. When submitting any of the following applications, an applicant shall remit to the DEQ a permit application fee of $10,000:

a. Initial Part B application submitted pursuant to &#167;&#167; 270.10 and 270.51(a)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

b. Part B permit renewal application submitted pursuant to &#167; 270.10(h) (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

c. Application for a Class 3 Modification according to &#167;&#167; 270.42 (as incorporated by R18-8-270); and

d. Application for a research, development, and demonstration permit.

2. If the reasonable cost of processing the application identified in subsection (1) is less than $10,000, the difference between the reasonable cost and $10,000 shall be refunded to the applicant. If the reasonable cost of processing the application is greater than $10,000, the applicant shall be billed for the difference and the difference shall be paid in full before the DEQ issues the permit.

3. When submitting an application for any one of the permit-related activities described in this subsection, the applicant shall remit to the DEQ $2,500. If the reasonable cost of processing the application is greater than $2,500, the applicant shall be billed for the difference between the fee paid and the reasonable cost of processing the application. A refund shall be paid by the DEQ if the reasonable cost is less than the $2,500 fee, either within 45 days of a valid withdrawal of the permit application or upon permit issuance. This subsection applies to all the following:

a. An application for a modification of a Part B permit pursuant to &#167; 270.41 (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

b. An application for a Class 2 modification of a permit submitted after permit issuance, according to &#167; 270.42 (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

c. An application for approval of a final closure plan that is not submitted as part of a Part B application, including the review and approval of the closure report; and

d. An application for a remedial action plan (RAP) submitted pursuant to 40 CFR 270, Subpart H (as incorporated by R18-8-270).

4. With an application for a partial closure plan for a facility, the applicant shall remit to the DEQ a fee of $2,500 for each hazardous waste management unit involved in the partial closure plan or $10,000, whichever is less. If the reasonable cost of processing the application, including review and approval of the closure report, is more than the initial fee paid, the applicant shall be billed for the difference, and the difference shall be paid in full at the time DEQ completes review and approval of the closure report associated with the permit. If the reasonable cost is less than the fee paid by the applicant, DEQ shall refund the difference within 45 days of the closure report review and approval associated with the permit.

5. The fee for a land treatment demonstration permit issued under &#167; 270.63 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) for hazardous waste applies toward the $10,000 permit fee for a Part B land treatment permit when the owner or operator seeks to treat or dispose of hazardous waste in land treatment units based on the successful treatment demonstration (as incorporated by R18-8-270).

6. An applicant shall remit to the DEQ a permit application fee of $1,000 for any one of the following:

a. An application for a transfer of a Part B permit to a different owner or operator pursuant to &#167; 270.40 (as incorporated by R18-8-270), or

b. An application for a Class 1 permit modification according to &#167; 270.42 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) that is required as a consequence of mitigating hazardous waste compliance violations. If the reasonable cost of processing the transfer application or modification is greater than $1,000, the applicant shall be billed for the difference between the fee paid and the reasonable cost of processing the application.

7. The DEQ shall provide the applicant itemized billings for individual costs of the DEQ employees involved in the processing of applications and all other costs to the DEQ pursuant to the following factors when determining the reasonable cost under R18-8-270(G):

a. Hourly salary and personnel benefit costs;

b. Per diem expenses;

c. Transportation costs;

d. Reproduction costs;

e. Laboratory analysis charges;

f. Public notice advertising and mailing costs;

g. Presiding officer expenses;

h. Court reporter expenses;

i. Facility rentals; and

j. Other reasonable, direct, permit-related expenses documented in writing by the DEQ.

8. Any person who receives a final bill from the DEQ for the processing and issuance or denial of a permit under this Article may request an informal review of all billing items and may pay the bill under protest. If the bill is paid under protest, the DEQ shall issue the permit if it would be otherwise issuable after normal payment. Such a request shall specify each area of dispute, and it shall be made in writing, within 30 days of the date of receipt of the final bill, to the division director of the DEQ for the Office of Waste Programs. The final bill shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested. The informal review shall take place within 30 days of the DEQ's receipt of the request unless agreed otherwise by the DEQ and the applicant. Notice of the time and place of informal review shall be mailed to the requester at least 10 working days prior to the informal review. The division director of the DEQ shall review whether or not the amounts of time billed are correct and reasonable for the tasks involved. Disposition of the informal review shall be mailed to the requester within 10 working days after the informal review.

9. The DEQ's division director's decision after the informal review shall become final within 30 days after receipt of the decision, unless the applicant requests in writing a hearing pursuant to R18-1-202.]

H. &#167; 270.12, titled "Confidentiality of information," paragraph (a) is amended as follows:

(a) In accordance with [R18-8-260(D)(2)], any information submitted to [the DEQ] pursuant to these regulations may be claimed as confidential by the submitter. [Such a claim shall] be asserted at the time of submission in the manner prescribed [in R18-8-260(D)(2)(c)(ii)]. If no [such] claim is made at the time of submission, [the DEQ] may make the information available to the public without further notice. If a claim is asserted, the information [shall] be treated in accordance with the procedures in [R18-8-260(D)(2)(d) and (e).]

I. &#167; 270.13, titled "Contents of Part A of the permit application," paragraph (k)(9) is amended as follows:

(9) Other relevant environmental permits, including [any federal, state, county, city, or fire department] permits.

J. &#167; 270.14, titled "Contents of Part B: General requirements," paragraph (b) is amended by adding the following:

[(23) Any additional information required by the DEQ to evaluate compliance with facility standards and informational requirements of R18-8-264, R18-8-269 and R18-8-270.

(24)(i) A signed statement, submitted on a form supplied by the DEQ that demonstrates:

(A) An individual owner or operator has sufficient reliability, expertise, integrity and competence to operate a HWM facility, and has not been convicted of, or pled guilty or no contest to, a felony in any state or federal court during the five years before the date of the permit application; or

(B) In the case of a corporation or business entity, no officer, director, partner, key employee, other person, or business entity who holds 10% or more of the equity or debt liability has been convicted of, or pled guilty or no contest to, a felony in any state or federal court during the five years before the date of the permit application.

ii. Failure to comply with subsection (i), the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-922(C)(1), and the requirements of &#167; 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) and &#167;&#167; 124.3(d) and 124.5(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-271), may cause the Director to refuse to issue a permit to a TSD facility pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-922(C) as amended, including requirements in &#167; 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) and &#167;&#167; 124.3(d) and 124.5(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-271).]

K. &#167; 270.30, titled "Conditions applicable to all permits" paragraph (L)(10) is amended as follows:

(10) Other noncompliance. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under [&#167; 270.30(L)(4),(5), and (6) (as incorporated by R18-8-270)] at the same time monitoring [(including annual)] reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in [&#167; 270.30(l)(6) (as incorporated by R18-8-270)].

L. &#167; 270.30, titled "Conditions applicable to all permits" paragraph (L) is amended by adding the following:

[All reports listed above (as incorporated by R18-8-270) shall be submitted to the Director in such a manner that the reports are received within the time periods required under this Article.]

M. &#167; 270.32, titled "Establishing permit conditions," paragraph (a), is amended by deleting the following:

"and 270.3 (considerations under Federal law)."

N. &#167; 270.32, titled "Establishing permit conditions," paragraph (b) is amended by deleting the reference to 40 CFR 267.

O. &#167; 270.32, titled "Establishing permit conditions," paragraph (c) is amended by deleting the second sentence.

P. &#167; 270.51, titled "Continuation of expiring permits," paragraph (a) is amended by deleting the following:

"under 5 USC 558(c)."

Q. &#167; 270.65, titled "Research, development, and demonstration permits," is amended as follows:

(a) The [Director] may issue a research, development, and demonstration permit for any hazardous waste treatment facility which proposes to utilize an innovative and experimental hazardous waste treatment technology or process for which permit standards for such experimental activity have not been promulgated under Part 264 or 266 [(as incorporated by R18-8-264 and R18-8-266).] [A research, development, and demonstration] permit shall include such terms and conditions as will assure protection of human health and the environment. Such permits:

(1) Shall provide for the construction of such facilities as necessary, and for operation of the facility for not longer than one year unless renewed as provided in paragraph (d) of this subsection, and

(2) Shall provide for the receipt and treatment by the facility of only those types and quantities of hazardous waste which the [Director] deems necessary for purposes of determining the efficacy and performance capabilities of the technology or process and the effects of such technology or process on human health and the environment, and

(3) Shall include such requirements as the [Director] deems necessary to protect human health and the environment [, including requirements regarding monitoring, operation, financial responsibility, closure, and remedial action, and such requirements as the Director] deems necessary regarding testing and providing of information [relevant] to the [Director] with respect to the operation of the facility.

(b) For the purpose of expediting review and issuance of permits under this Section, the [Director] may, consistent with the protection of human health and the environment, modify or waive permit application and permit issuance requirements [, or add conditions to the permit in accordance with the permitting procedures set forth in R18-8-270 and R18-8-271,] except that there may be no modification or waiver of regulations regarding financial responsibility (including insurance) or of procedures regarding public participation.

(c) The [Director] may order an immediate termination of all operations at the facility at any time [the Director] determines that termination is necessary to protect human health and the environment.

(d) Any permit issued under this subsection may be renewed not more than three times. Each such renewal shall be for a period of not more than one year.

R. &#167; 270.110, titled "What must I include in my application for a RAP?," is amended by adding paragraphs (j) and (k) as follows:

[(j) A signed statement, submitted on a form supplied by DEQ that demonstrates:

(1) An individual owner or operator has sufficient reliability, expertise, integrity and competence to operate a HWM facility, and has not been convicted of, or pled guilty or no contest to, a felony in any state or federal court during the five years before the date of the RAP application.

(2) In the case of a corporation or business entity, no officer, director, partner, key employee, other person or business entity who holds 10% or more of the equity or debt liability has been convicted of, or pled guilty or no contest to, a felony in any state or federal court during the five years before the date of the RAP application.

(k) Failure to comply with subsection (j), the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-922(C)(1), and the requirements of &#167; 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) and &#167;&#167; 124.3(d) and 124.5(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-271), may cause the Director to refuse to issue a permit to a TSD facility pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-922(C) as amended, including requirements in &#167; 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) and &#167;&#167; 124.3(d) and 124.5(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-271).]

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsections (A) and (K) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsection (A) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1870 renumbered as R18-8-270, subsection (A) amended and a new subsection (S) added effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsections (B) and (K) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.271" level="4" title="Procedures for Permit Administration">

Procedures for Permit Administration

A. All of 40 CFR 124 and the accompanying appendix as amended as of July 1, 1999 (and no future editions), relating to HWM facilities, with the exception of &#167;&#167; 124.1(b) through (e), 124.2, 124.4, 124.16, 124.20 and 124.21, are incorporated by reference and modified by the following subsections and are on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. &#167; 124.1, titled "Purpose and scope," paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

[This Section contains the DEQ procedures for issuing, modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating all hazardous waste management facility permits. This section describes the procedures the DEQ shall follow in reviewing permit applications, preparing draft permits, issuing public notice, inviting public comment, and holding public hearings on draft permits. This Section also includes procedures for assembling an administrative record, responding to comments, issuing a final permit decision, and allowing for administrative appeal of the final permit decision. The procedures of this Section also apply to denial of a permit for the active life of a RCRA HWM facility or unit under &#167; 270.29 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)).]

C. &#167; 124.3, titled "Application for a permit," is replaced by the following:

[(a) (1) Any person who requires a permit under this Article shall complete, sign, and submit to the Director an application for each permit required under &#167; 270.1 (as incorporated by R18-8-270). Applications are not required for RCRA permits-by-rule in &#167; 270.60 (as incorporated by R18-8-270).

(2) The Director shall not begin processing a permit until the applicant has fully complied with the application requirements for that permit. (Refer to &#167;&#167; 270.10 and 270.13 as incorporated by R18-8-270).

(3) An applicant for a permit shall comply with the signature and certification requirements of &#167; 270.11, as incorporated by R18-8-270.

(b) Reserved.

(c) The Director shall review for completeness every application for a permit. Each application submitted by a new HWM facility shall be reviewed for completeness by the Director in the order of priority on the basis of hazardous waste capacity established in a list by the Director. The Director shall make the list available upon request. Upon completing the review, the Director shall notify the applicant in writing whether the application is complete. If the application is incomplete, the Director shall list the information necessary to make the application complete. When the application is for an existing HWM facility, the Director shall specify in the notice of deficiency a date for submitting the necessary information. The Director shall notify the applicant that the application is complete upon receiving this information. After the application is completed, the Director may request additional information from an applicant but only when necessary to clarify, modify, or supplement previously submitted material. Requests for additional information do not render an application incomplete.

(d) If an applicant fails or refuses to correct deficiencies in the application, the permit may be denied and the Director may take appropriate enforcement actions against an existing HWM facility pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-923, 49-924 and 49-925.

(e) If the Director decides that a site visit is necessary for any reason in conjunction with the processing of an application, the Director shall notify the applicant and schedule a date for a site visit.

(f) The effective date of an application is the date on which the Director notifies the applicant that the application is complete as provided in paragraph (c) of this subsection.

(g) For each application from a new HWM facility, the Director shall, no later than the effective date of the application, prepare and mail to the applicant a project decision schedule. The schedule shall specify target dates by which the Director intends to do the following:

(1) Prepare a draft permit or Notice of Intent to Deny;

(2) Give public notice;

(3) Complete the public comment period, including any public hearing;

(4) Make a decision to issue or deny a final permit; and

(5) Issue a final decision.

D. &#167; 124.5, titled "Modification, revocation, and reissuance, or termination of permits," is replaced by the following:

[(a) Permits may be modified, revoked, and reissued, or terminated either at the request of any interested person (including the permittee) or upon the Director's initiative. However, permits may only be modified, revoked, and reissued, or terminated for the reasons specified in &#167;&#167; 270.41 or 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270). All requests shall be in writing and shall contain facts or reasons supporting the request.

(b) If the Director decides the request is not justified, the Director shall send the requester a brief written response giving a reason for the decision. Denials of requests for modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination are not subject to public notice, comment, or hearings.

(c) Modification, revocation or reissuance of permits procedures.

(1) If the Director tentatively decides to modify or revoke and reissue a permit under &#167;&#167; 270.41 or 270.42(c) (as incorporated by R18-8-270), the Director shall prepare a draft permit under &#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)), incorporating the proposed changes. The Director may request additional information and, in the case of a modified permit, may require the submission of an updated application. In the case of revoked and reissued permits, the Director shall require the submission of a new application.

(2) In a permit modification under this [subsection], only those conditions to be modified shall be reopened when a new draft permit is prepared. All other aspects of the existing permit shall remain in effect for the duration of the unmodified permit. The permit modification shall have the same expiration date as the unmodified permit. When a permit is revoked and reissued under this subsection, the entire permit is reopened just as if the permit had expired and was being reissued. During any revocation and reissuance proceeding the permittee shall comply with all conditions of the existing permit until a new final permit is reissued.

(3) "Classes 1 and 2 modifications" as defined in &#167; 270.42 (as incorporated by R18-8-270) are not subject to the requirements of this subsection.

(d) If the Director tentatively decides to terminate a permit under &#167; 270.43 (as incorporated by R18-8-270), the Director shall issue a notice of intent to terminate. A notice of intent to terminate is a type of draft permit which follows the same procedures as any draft permit prepared under &#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)). In the case of permits that are processed or issued jointly by both the DEQ and the EPA, a notice of intent to terminate shall not be issued if the Regional Administrator and the permittee agree to termination in the course of transferring permit responsibilities from the EPA to the state.

(e) The Director shall base all draft permits, including notices of intent to terminate, prepared under this subsection on the administrative record as defined in &#167; 124.9 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(H)).]

E. &#167; 124.6, titled "Draft permits," is replaced by the following:

(a) Once an application is complete, the Director shall tentatively decide whether to prepare a draft permit or to deny the application.

(b) If the Director tentatively decides to deny the permit application, the Director shall issue a notice of intent to deny. A notice of intent to deny the permit application is a type of draft permit which follows the same procedures as any draft permit prepared under (e) of this subsection.

(c) Reserved.

(d) If the Director decides to prepare a draft permit, the Director shall prepare a draft permit that contains the following information:

(1) All conditions under &#167;&#167; 270.30 and 270.32 (as incorporated by R18-8-270), unless not required under 40 CFR 264 and 265 (as incorporated by R18-8-264 and R18-8-265);

(2) All compliance schedules under &#167; 270.33 (as incorporated by R18-8-270);

(3) All monitoring requirements under &#167; 270.31 (as incorporated by R18-8-270); and

(4) Standards for treatment, storage, and/or disposal and other permit conditions under &#167; 270.30 (as incorporated by R18-8-270).

(e) All draft permits prepared by the DEQ under this subsection shall be accompanied by a statement of basis (&#167; 124.7, as incorporated by R18-8-271(F)) or fact sheet (&#167; 124.8, as incorporated by R18-8-271(G)), and shall be based on the administrative record (&#167; 124.9, as incorporated by R18-8-271(H)), publicly noticed (&#167; 124.10, as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) and made available for public comment (&#167; 124.11, as incorporated by R18-8-271(J)). The Director shall give notice of opportunity for a public hearing (&#167; 124.12, as incorporated by R18-8-271(K)), issue a final decision (&#167; 124.15, as incorporated by R18-8-271(N)) and respond to comments (&#167; 124.17, as incorporated by R18-8-271(O)).

F. &#167; 124.7, titled "Statement of basis," is replaced by the following:

The DEQ shall prepare a statement of basis for every draft permit for which a fact sheet under &#167; 124.8, (as incorporated by R18-8-271(G)), is not prepared. The statement of basis shall briefly describe the derivation of the conditions of the draft permit and the reasons for them or, in the case of notices of intent to deny or terminate, reasons supporting the tentative decision. The statement of basis shall be sent to the applicant and, on request, to any other person.

G. &#167; 124.8, titled "Fact sheet," is replaced by the following:

(a) The DEQ shall prepare a fact sheet for every draft permit for a new HWM facility, and for every draft permit that the Director finds is the subject of widespread public interest or raises major issues. The fact sheet shall briefly set forth the principal facts and the significant factual, legal, methodological and policy questions considered in preparing the draft permit. The Director shall send this fact sheet to the applicant and, on request, to any other person.

(b) The fact sheet shall include, when applicable:

(1) A brief description of the type of facility or activity that is the subject of the draft permit;

(2) The type and quantity of wastes, that are proposed to be or are being treated, stored, or disposed;

(3) Reserved.

(4) A brief summary of the basis for the draft permit conditions including references to applicable statutory or regulatory provisions and appropriate supporting references to the administrative record required by &#167; 124.9, (as incorporated by R18-8-271(H));

(5) Reasons why any requested variances or alternatives to required standards do or do not appear justified;

(6) A description of the procedures for reaching a final decision on the draft permit including:

(i) The beginning and ending dates of the comment period under &#167;&#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) and the address where comments will be received;

(ii) Procedures for requesting a hearing and the nature of that hearing; and

(iii) Any other procedures by which the public may participate in the final decision; and

(7) Name and telephone number of a person to contact for additional information.

(8) Reserved.

H. &#167; 124.9 titled "Administrative record for draft permits" is replaced by the following:

(a) The provisions of a draft permit prepared under &#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)) shall be based on the administrative record defined in this subsection.

(b) For preparing a draft permit under &#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)), the record consists of:

(1) The application, if required, and any supporting data furnished by the applicant, subject to paragraph (e) of this subsection;

(2) The draft permit or notice of intent to deny the application or to terminate the permit;

(3) The statement of basis under &#167;&#167; 124.7 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(F)) or fact sheet under &#167; 124.8 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(G));

(4) All documents cited in the statement of basis or fact sheet; and

(5) Other documents contained in the supporting file for the draft permit.

(6) Reserved.

(c) Material readily available at the DEQ or published material that is generally available, and that is included in the administrative record under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection, need not be physically included with the rest of the record as long as it is specifically referred to in the statement of basis or the fact sheet.

(d) This subsection applies to all draft permits when public notice was given after the effective date of these rules.

(e) All items deemed confidential pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-928 shall be maintained separately and not disclosed to the public.

I. &#167; 124.10, titled "Public notice of permit actions and public comment period," is replaced by the following:

(a) Scope.

(1) The Director shall give public notice that the following actions have occurred:

(i) A permit application has been tentatively denied under &#167; 124.6(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E));

(ii) A draft permit has been prepared under &#167; 124.6(d) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E)); and

(iii) A hearing has been scheduled under &#167; 124.12 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(K)).

(2) No public notice is required when a request for permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination is denied under &#167; 124.5(b) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(D)). Written notice of that denial shall be given to the requester and to the permittee.

(3) Public notices may describe more than one permit or permit actions.

(b) Timing.

(1) Public notice of the preparation of a draft permit (including a notice of intent to deny a permit application) required under paragraph (a) of this subsection shall allow at least 45 days for public comment.

(2) Public notice of a public hearing shall be given at least 30 days before the hearing. (Public notice of the hearing may be given at the same time as public notice of the draft permit and the two notices may be combined.)

(c) Methods. Public notice of activities described in paragraph (a)(1) of this subsection shall be given by the following methods:

(1) By mailing a copy of a notice to the following persons (any person otherwise titled to receive notice under this subparagraph may waive his or her rights to receive notice for any classes and categories of permits):

(i) An applicant;

(ii) Any other agency which the Director knows has issued or is required to issue a HWM facility permit or any other federal environmental permit for the same facility or activity;

(iii) Federal and state agencies with jurisdiction over fish, shellfish, and wildlife resources, the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation, State Historic Preservation Officers, including any affected states (Indian Tribes). For purposes of this paragraph, and in the context of the Underground Injection Control Program only, the term State includes Indian Tribes treated as States;

(iv) Reserved.

(v) Reserved.

(vi) Reserved.

(vii) Reserved.

(viii) For Class I injection well UIC permits only, state and local oil and gas regulatory agencies and state agencies regulating mineral exploration and recovery;

(ix) Persons on a mailing list developed by:

(A) Including those who request in writing to be on the list;

(B) Soliciting persons for "area lists" from participants in past permit proceedings in that area; and

(C) Notifying the public of the opportunity to be put on the mailing list through periodic publication in the public press and in such publications as regional and state-funded newsletters, environmental bulletins, or state law journals. (The Director may update the mailing list from time to time by requesting written indication of continued interest from those listed. The Director may delete from the list the name of any person who fails to respond to the request.); and

(x) (A) To any unit of local government having jurisdiction over the area where the facility is proposed to be located; and

(B) To each state agency having any authority under state law with respect to the construction or operation of the facility;

(2) By newspaper publication and radio announcement broadcast, as follows:

(i) Reserved.

(ii) For all permits, publication of a notice in a daily or weekly major local newspaper of general circulation within the area affected by the facility or activity, at least once, and in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (b) of this subsection; and

(iii) For all permits, a radio announcement broadcast over two local radio stations serving the affected area at least once during the period two weeks prior to the public hearing. The announcement shall contain:

(A) A brief description of the nature and purpose of the hearing;

(B) The information described in items (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), and (vii) of subparagraph (d)(1) of this subsection;

(C) The date, time, and place of the hearing; and

(D) Any additional information considered necessary or proper; or

(3) Reserved.

(4) Any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice of the action in question to the persons potentially affected by it, including press releases or any other forum or medium to elicit public participation.

(d) (1) Each public notice issued under this Article shall contain the following minimum information:

(i) Name and address of the office processing the permit action for which notice is being given;

(ii) Name and address of the permittee or permit applicant and, if different, of the facility or activity regulated by such permit;

(iii) A brief description of the business conducted at the facility or activity described in the permit application;

(iv) Name, address and telephone number of a person from whom interested persons may obtain further information, including copies of the statement of basis or fact sheet;

(v) A brief description of the comment procedures required by &#167;&#167; 124.11 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(J) and 124.12 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(K)) and the time and place of any hearing that shall be held, including a statement of procedures to request a hearing (unless a hearing has already been scheduled) and other procedures by which the public may participate in the final permit decision;

(vi) The location of the administrative record required by &#167; 124.9 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(H)), the times at which the record will be open for public inspection, and a statement that all data submitted by the applicant (except for confidential information pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-928) is available as part of the administrative record;

(vii) The locations where a copy of the application and the draft permit may be inspected and the times at which these documents are available for public review; and

(viii) Reserved.

(ix) Any additional information considered necessary or proper.

(2) Public notices for hearings. In addition to the general public notice described in paragraph (d)(1) of this subsection, the public notice of a hearing under &#167; 124.12 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(K)) shall contain the following information:

(i) Reference to the date of previous public notices relating to the permit;

(ii) Date, time, and place of the hearing; and

(iii) A brief description of the nature and purpose of the hearing, including the applicable rules and procedures.

(iv) Reserved.

(e) In addition to the general public notice described in paragraph (d)(1) of this subsection, all persons identified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this subsection shall be mailed a copy of the fact sheet or statement of basis, the permit application (if any), and the draft permit (if any).

J. &#167; 124.11, titled "Public comments and requests for public hearings," is replaced by the following:

During the public comment period provided under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)), any interested person may submit written comments on the draft permit and may request a public hearing, if no hearing has already been scheduled. A request for a public hearing shall be in writing and shall state the nature of the issues proposed to be raised in the hearing. All comments shall be considered in making the final decision and shall be answered as provided in &#167; 124.17 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(O)).

K. &#167; 124.12, titled "Public hearings," is replaced by the following:

[(a) (1) The Director shall hold a public hearing whenever the Director finds, on the basis of requests, a significant degree of public interest in a draft permit.

(2) The Director may also hold a public hearing at the Director's discretion whenever, for instance, such a hearing might clarify one or more issues involved in the permit decision.

(3) The Director shall hold a public hearing whenever written notice of opposition to a draft permit and a request for a hearing has been received within 45 days of public notice under &#167; 124.10(b)(1) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)). Whenever possible the Director shall schedule a hearing under this subsection at a location convenient to the nearest population center to the proposed facility.

(4) Public notice of the hearing shall be given as specified in &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)).

(b) Reserved.

(c) Any person may submit oral or written statements and data concerning the draft permit. Reasonable limits may be set upon the time allowed for oral statements, and the submission of statements in writing may be required. The public comment period under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) shall automatically be extended to the close of any public hearing under this subsection. The hearing officer may also extend the comment period by so stating at the hearing.

(d) A tape recording or written transcript of the hearing shall be made available to the public.

(e) Reserved.]

L. &#167; 124.13, titled "Obligation to raise issues and provide information during the public comment period," is replaced by the following:

[All persons, including applicants, who believe any condition of a draft permit is inappropriate or that the Director's tentative decision to deny an application, terminate a permit, or prepare a draft permit is inappropriate, shall raise all reasonably ascertainable issues and submit all reasonably available arguments supporting their position by the close of the public comment period (including any public hearing) under &#167; 124.10, (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)). Any supporting materials that a commenter submits shall be included in full and shall not be incorporated by reference, unless they are already part of the administrative record in the same proceeding or consist of state or federal statutes and regulations, EPA documents of general applicability, or other generally available reference materials. Commenters shall make supporting material not already included in the administrative record available to the DEQ as directed by the Director.]

M. &#167; 124.14, titled "Reopening of the public comment period," is replaced by the following:

(a) (1) The Director may order the public comment period reopened if the procedures of this paragraph could expedite the decision-making process. When the public comment period is reopened under this paragraph, all persons, including applicants, who believe any condition of a draft permit is inappropriate or that the Director's tentative decision to deny an application, terminate a permit, or prepare a draft permit is inappropriate, must submit all reasonably available factual grounds supporting their position, including all supporting material, by a date, not less than 60 days after public notice under paragraph (a)(2) of this subsection, set by the Director. Thereafter, any person may file a written response to the material filed by any other person, by a date, not less than 20 days after the date set for filing of the material, set by the Director.

(2) Public notice of any comment period under this paragraph shall identify the issues to which the requirements of &#167; 124.14(a) (as incorporated by R18-8-271(M)) apply.

(3) On the Director's own motion or on the request of any person, the Director may direct that the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this subsection shall apply during the initial comment period where it reasonably appears that issuance of the permit will be contested and that applying the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this subsection will substantially expedite the decision-making process. The notice of the draft permit shall state whenever this has been done.

(4) A comment period of longer than 60 days will often be necessary in complicated proceedings to give commenters a reasonable opportunity to comply with the requirements of this subsection. Commenters may request longer comment periods and they shall be granted under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) to the extent they appear necessary.

(b) If any data, information, or arguments submitted during the public comment period, including information or arguments required under &#167; 124.13 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(L)), appear to raise substantial new questions concerning a permit, the Director may take one or more of the following actions:

(1) Prepare a new draft permit, appropriately modified, under &#167;&#167; 124.6 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(E));

(2) Prepare a revised statement of basis under &#167; 124.7 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(F)), a fact sheet or revised fact sheet under this &#167; 124.8 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(G)), and reopen the comment period under this subsection; or,

(3) Reopen or extend the comment period under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) to give interested persons an opportunity to comment on the information or arguments submitted.

(c) Comments filed during the reopened comment period shall be limited to the substantial new questions that caused its reopening. The public notice under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) shall define the scope of the reopening.

(d) Reserved.

(e) Public notice of any of the above actions shall be issued under &#167;&#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)).

N. &#167; 124.15, titled "Issuance and effective date of permit," is replaced by the following:

(a) After the close of the public comment period under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)) on a draft permit, the Director shall issue a final permit decision or a decision to deny a permit for the active life of a RCRA hazardous waste management facility or unit under &#167; 270.29 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)). The Director shall notify the applicant and each person who has submitted written comments or requested notice of the final permit decision. This notice shall include reference to the procedures for appealing a decision on a permit or a decision to terminate a permit. For purposes of this subsection, a final permit decision means a final decision to issue, deny, modify, revoke and reissue, or terminate a permit.

(b) A final permit decision or a decision to deny a permit for the active life of a RCRA hazardous waste management facility or unit under &#167; 270.29 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)) becomes effective on the date specified by the Director in the final permit notice.

(1) Reserved.

(2) Reserved.

(3) Reserved.

O. &#167; 124.17, titled "Response to comments," is replaced by the following:

(a) At the time that any final decision to issue a permit is made under &#167; 124.15 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(N)), the Director shall issue a response to comments. This response shall:

(1) Specify which provisions, if any, of the draft permit have been changed in the final permit decision, and the reasons for the change; and

(2) Briefly describe and respond to all significant comments on the draft permit raised during the public comment period, or during any hearing.

(b) Any documents cited in the response to comments shall be included in the administrative record for the final permit decision as defined in &#167; 124.18 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(P)). If new points are raised or new material supplied during the public comment period, the DEQ may document its response to those matters by adding new materials to the administrative record.

(c) The response to comments shall be available to the public.

P. &#167; 124.18, titled "Administrative record for final permit" is replaced by the following:

(a) The Director shall base final permit decisions under &#167; 124.15 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(N)) on the administrative record defined in this subsection.

(b) The administrative record for any final permit shall consist of the administrative record for the draft permit, and:

(1) All comments received during the public comment period provided under &#167; 124.10 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(I)), including any extension or reopening under &#167; 124.14, (as incorporated by R18-8-271(M));

(2) The tape or transcript of any hearing(s) held under &#167; 124.12 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(K));

(3) Any written materials submitted at such a hearing;

(4) The response to comments required by &#167; 124.17 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(O)) and any new material placed in the record under that subsection;

(5) Reserved.

(6) Other documents contained in the supporting file for the permit; and

(7) The final permit.

(c) The additional documents required under (b) of this subsection shall be added to the record as soon as possible after their receipt or publication by the DEQ. The record shall be complete on the date the final permit is issued.

(d) This subsection applies to all final permits when the draft permit was subject to the administrative record requirement of &#167; 124.9 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(H)).

(e) Material readily available at the DEQ, or published materials which are generally available and which are included in the administrative record under the standards of this subsection or of &#167; 124.17 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(O)), ("Response to comments"), need not be physically included in the same file as the rest of the record as long as the materials and their location are specifically identified in the statement of basis or fact sheet or in the response to comments.

Q. &#167; 124.19, titled "Appeal of RCRA, UIC, and PSD permits," is replaced by the following:

A final permit decision (or a decision under &#167; 270.29 (as incorporated by R18-8-270(A)) to deny a permit for the active life of a RCRA hazardous waste management facility or unit issued under &#167; 124.15 (as incorporated by R18-8-271(N)) is an appealable agency action as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1092 and is subject to appeal under A.R.S. &#167; 41, Ch. 6, Art. 10.

R. &#167; 124.31(a) titled "Pre-application public meeting and notice" is amended by deleting the following sentence:

"For the purpose of this section only, `hazardous waste management units over which EPA has permit issuance authority' refers to hazardous waste management units for which the State where the units are located has not been authorized to issue RCRA permits pursuant to 40 CFR 271."

S. &#167; 124.31(a) titled "Public notice requirements at the application stage" is amended by deleting the following sentence:

"For the purpose of this section only, `hazardous waste management units over which EPA has permit issuance authority' refers to hazardous waste management units for which the State where the units are located has not been authorized to issue RCRA permits pursuant to 40 CFR 271."

T. &#167; 124.33(a) titled "Information repository" is amended by deleting the following sentence:

"For the purpose of this section only, `hazardous waste management units over which EPA has permit issuance authority' refers to hazardous waste management units for which the State where the units are located has not been authorized to issue RCRA permits pursuant to 40 CFR 271."

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (A) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Amended subsection (A) effective August 5, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-8-1871 renumbered as R18-8-271; subsections (A), (C), (E), (I), (L) and (M) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (C) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended effective October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective August 14, 1991 (Supp. 91-3). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective December 7, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.272" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.273" level="4" title="Standards for Universal Waste Management">

Standards for Universal Waste Management

All of 40 CFR 273, as amended as of July 1, 2000 (and no future editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the DEQ and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective August 8, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4625, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 3093, effective July 24, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 816, effective April 15, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.274" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.275" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.276" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.277" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.278" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.279" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.8.280" level="4" title="Compliance">

Compliance

A. Inspection and entry. For purposes of ensuring compliance with the provisions of HWMA, any person who generates, stores, treats, transports, disposes of, or otherwise handles hazardous wastes, including used oil that may be classified as hazardous waste pursuant to A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 4, Article 7 shall, upon request of any officer, employee, or representative of the DEQ duly designated by the Director, furnish information pertaining to such wastes and permit such person at reasonable times:

1. To enter any establishment or other place maintained by such person where hazardous wastes are or have been generated, stored, treated, disposed, or transported from;

2. To have access to, and to copy all records relating to such wastes;

3. To inspect any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, and operations, relating to such wastes;

4. To inspect, monitor, and obtain samples from such person of any such wastes and of any containers or labeling for such wastes; and

5. To record any inspection by use of written, electronic, magnetic and photographic media.

B. Penalties. A person who violates HWMA or any permit, rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to HWMA is subject to civil and/or criminal penalties pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-923 through 49-925, as amended. Nothing in this Article shall be construed to limit the Director's or Attorney General's enforcement powers authorized by law including but not limited to the seeking or recovery of any civil or criminal penalties.

C. A certification statement may be required on written submittals to the DEQ in response to Compliance Orders or in response to information requested pursuant to subsection (A) of this Section. In addition, the DEQ may request in writing that a certification statement appear in any written submittal to the DEQ. The certification statement shall be signed by a person authorized to act on behalf of the company or empowered to make decisions on behalf of the company on the matter contained in the document.

D. Site assessment plan.

1. The requirement to develop a site assessment plan shall be contained in a Compliance Order. The Director may require an owner or operator to develop a site assessment plan based on one or more of the following conditions:

a. Unauthorized disposal or discharges of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which have not been remediated.

b. Results of environmental sampling by the DEQ that indicate the presence of a hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents.

c. Visual observation of unauthorized disposal or discharges which cannot be verified pursuant to &#167; 262.11 (as incorporated by R18-8-262), &#167; 264.13 (as incorporated by R18-8-264), or &#167; 265.13 (as incorporated by R18-8-265) as not containing a hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents.

d. Other evidence of disposal or discharges of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents into the environment which have not been remediated.

2. The site assessment plan shall describe in detail the procedures to determine the nature, extent and degree of hazardous waste contamination in the environment.

3. The site assessment plan shall be approved by the DEQ before implementation.

4. The site assessment shall be conducted and the results shall be submitted to the DEQ within the time limitations established by the DEQ.

5. The DEQ may request in writing that a site assessment plan be conducted. The DEQ will review a voluntarily submitted site assessment plan if the plan satisfies the requirements listed in subsections (D)(2) through (4).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 24, 1984 (Supp. 84-4). Amended subsection (B) effective June 27, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-8-1880 renumbered as Section R18-8-280, and subsection (A) amended effective May 29, 1987 (Supp. 87-2). Amended subsection (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Amended October 11, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Amended effective October 6, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective December 2, 1994 (Supp. 94-4). Amended effective June 13, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 3, consisting of Sections R18-8-301 through R18-8-305, R18-8-307, Table A, Exhibit 1, and Appendices A and B, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 13, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.301" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Amended effective March 24, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1301, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.302" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1302, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.303" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1303, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.304" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1304, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.305" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1305, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.306" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective February 22, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Emergency expired. Emergency rule adopted again effective May 26, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-2). Emergency expired. Emergency rule adopted again effective August 30, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-3). Permanent rule adopted effective December 2, 1993 (Supp. 93-4). The permanent rule that was adopted effective December 2, 1993, was inadvertently published without the changes the agency made. Those changes appear here. (Supp. 95-4). Section repealed by summary rulemaking with an interim effective date of July 16, 1999, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State June 25, 1999 (Supp. 99-2). Interim effective date of July 16, 1999 now the permanent effective date (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.307" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective December 21, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-4). Permanent rule adopted with changes effective March 24, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1307, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Table A. Recodified

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective December 21, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-4). Permanent rule adopted with changes effective March 24, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Table A recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Exhibit 1. Recodified

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective December 21, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-4). Permanent rule adopted with changes effective March 24, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Exhibit 1 recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Appendix A. Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Appendix A recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Appendix B. Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective August 16, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Appendix B recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 4, consisting of Section R18-8-402, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 9, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.401" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 21, 1977 (Supp. 77-6). Former Section R9-8-1711 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-401 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.402" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 21, 1977 (Supp. 77-6). Former Section R9-8-1717 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-402 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-902, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Title 18, Chapter 8, Article 5, consisting of Sections R18-8-502 through R18-8-512, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.501" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-411 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-501 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.502" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-412 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-502 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-302, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.503" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-413 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-503 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-303, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.504" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-414 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-504 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-304, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.505" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-415 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-505 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-305, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.506" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-416 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-506 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-306, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.507" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-421 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-507 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-307, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.508" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Amended effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). Former Section R9-8-426 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-508 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-308, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.509" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-427 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-509 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-309, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.510" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-428 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-510 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-310, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.511" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-431 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-511 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-311, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.512" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Amended effective August 6, 1976 (Supp. 76-4). Correction in spelling, paragraph (5), "feeding"; former Section R9-8-432 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-512 (Supp. 87-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-312, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.513" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Adopted effective March 14, 1979 (Supp. 79-2). Former Section R9-8-433 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-513 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Existing Sections in Article 6 recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 11 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.601" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1211 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-601 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.602" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1212 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-602 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-602 recodified to R18-13-1102 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.603" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1213 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-603 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-603 recodified to R18-13-1103 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.604" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1214 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-604 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-604 recodified to R18-13-1104 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.605" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1215 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-605 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.606" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1216 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-606 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-606 recodified to R18-13-1106 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.607" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1221 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-607 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.608" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1222 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-608 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-608 recodified to R18-13-1108 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.609" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1223 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-609 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.610" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1224 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-610 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.611" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1225 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-611 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="R18.8.612" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1231 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-612 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-612 recodified to R18-13-1112 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.613" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1232 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-613 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-613 recodified to R18-13-1113 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.614" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1233 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-614 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-614 recodified to R18-13-1114 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.615" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1234 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-615 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-615 recodified to R18-13-1115 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.616" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1235 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-616 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-616 recodified to R18-13-1116 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.617" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1236 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-617 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-617 recodified to R18-13-1117 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.618" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1241 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-618 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-618 recodified to R18-13-1118 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.619" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1242 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-619 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-619 recodified to R18-13-1119 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.620" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1243 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-620 (Supp. 87-3). Section R18-8-620 recodified to R18-13-1120 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.621" level="4" title="Expired">

Expired

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-1244 renumbered without change as Section R18-8-621 (Supp. 87-3). Section expired pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1056(E), filed in the Office of the Secretary of State February 15, 2000 (Supp. 00-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

18 A.A.C. 8, Article 7, consisting of Sections R18-8-701 through R18-8-710, recodified to Title 18, Chapter 13, Article 12, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.701" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1201, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.702" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1202, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.703" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1203, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.704" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1204, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.705" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1205, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.706" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1206, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.707" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1207, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.708" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 6, 1993 (Supp. 93-3). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1208, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.709" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective February 5, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Emergency rule adopted again effective May 6, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-2). Emergency expired (Supp. 93-3). Emergency rule permanently adopted without change effective February 1, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1209, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.8.710" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective February 5, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Emergency rule adopted again effective May 6, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-2). Emergency expired (Supp. 93-3). Emergency rule permanently adopted without change effective February 1, 1994 (Supp. 94-1). Section recodified to A.A.C. R18-13-1210, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 9" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 10" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 11" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 12" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 13" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 14" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 15" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 16" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Article 16, consisting of Sections R18-8-1601 through R18-8-1614, recodified to 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 16 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1601" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1601 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1602" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1602 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1603" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1603 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1604" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1604 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1605" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1605 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1606" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1606 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1607" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1607 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1608" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1608 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1609" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1609 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1610" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1610 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1611" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1611 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1612" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1612 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1613" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1613 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.8.1614" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 30, 1995 (Supp. 95-2). Section recodified to R18-13-1614 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 9" level="2" title="WATER POLLUTION CONTROL">

WATER POLLUTION CONTROL

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - GENERAL PROVISIONS">

AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - GENERAL PROVISIONS

<regElement name="R18.9.101" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="copper" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions established in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201, the following terms apply to Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter:

1. "Aggregate" means a clean graded hard rock, volcanic rock, or gravel of uniform size, 3/4 inch to 2 1/2 inches in diameter, offering 30% or more void space, washed or prepared to be free of fine materials that will impair absorption surface performance, and has a hardness value of three or greater on the Moh's Scale of Hardness (can scratch a copper penny).

2. "Alert level" means a numeric value, expressing a concentration of a pollutant or a physical or chemical property of a pollutant, that is established in an individual permit and serves as an early warning indicating a potential violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard at the applicable point of compliance or a permit condition.

3. "Aquifer Protection Permit" means an individual or general permit issued under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-203, 49-241 through 49-252, and Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter.

4. "Aquifer Water Quality Standard" means a standard established under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-221 and 49-223.

5. "BADCT" means the best available demonstrated control technology, process, operating method, or other alternative to achieve the greatest degree of discharge reduction determined for a facility by the Director under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243.

6. "Daily flow rate" means the average daily flow calculated for the month that has the highest total flow during a calendar year.

7 "Design capacity" means the volume of a containment feature at a discharging facility that accommodates all permitted flows and meets all Aquifer Protection Permit conditions, including allowances for appropriate peaking and safety factors to ensure sustained reliable operation.

8. "Design flow" means the daily flow rate a facility is designed to accommodate on a sustained basis while satisfying all permit discharge limitations and treatment and operational requirements. The design flow incorporates peaking and safety factors to ensure sustained, reliable operation.

9. "Direct reuse site" means an area where reclaimed water is applied or impounded.

10. "Disposal works" means the system for disposing of treated wastewater generated by the treatment works of a sewage treatment facility or on-site wastewater treatment facility, by surface or subsurface methods.

11. "Drywell" means a well which is a bored, drilled or driven shaft or hole whose depth is greater than its width and is designed and constructed specifically for the disposal of storm water. Drywells do not include class 1, class 2, class 3 or class 4 injection wells as defined by the Federal Underground Injection Control Program (P.L. 93-523, part C), as amended. A.R.S. &#167; 49-331(3)

12. "Final permit determination" means a written notification to the applicant of the Director's final decision whether to issue or deny an Aquifer Protection Permit.

13. "Groundwater Quality Protection Permit" means a permit issued by the Arizona Department of Health Services or the Department. before September 27, 1989 that regulates the discharge of pollutants that may affect groundwater.

14. "Injection well" means a well that receives a discharge through pressure injection or gravity flow.

15. "Intermediate stockpile" means an accumulation of in-process material not intended for long term storage and in transit from one process to another at the mining site. Intermediate stockpile does not include metallic ore concentrate stockpiles or feedstocks not originating at the mining site.

16. "Mining site" means a site assigned one or more of the following primary Standard Industrial Classification Codes: 10, 12, 14, 32, and 33, and includes noncontiguous properties owned or operated by the same person and connected by a right-of-way controlled by that person to which the public is not allowed access.

17. "Notice of Disposal" means a document submitted to the Arizona Department of Health Services or the Department before September 27, 1989, giving notification of the discharge of pollutants that may affect groundwater.

18. "On-site wastewater treatment facility" means a conventional septic tank system or alternative system installed at a site to treat and dispose of wastewater, predominantly of human origin, generated at that site. An on-site wastewater treatment facility does not include a pre-fabricated, manufactured treatment works that typically uses an activated sludge unit process and has a design flow of 3000 gallons per day or more.

19. "Operational life" means the designed or planned useful period during which a facility remains operational while continuing to be subject to permit conditions, including closure requirements. Operational life does not include post closure activities.

20. "Pilot project" means a short term, limited scale test designed to gain information regarding site conditions, project feasibility, or application of a new technology.

21. "Process solution" means a pregnant leach solution, barren solution, raffinate, and other solutions uniquely associated with the mining or metals recovery process.

22. "Residential soil remediation level" means the applicable predetermined standard established in 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2, Appendix A.

23. "Setback" means a minimum horizontal distance maintained between a feature of a discharging facility and a potential point of impact.

24. "Sewage" means untreated wastes from toilets, baths, sinks, lavatories, laundries, and other plumbing fixtures in places of human habitation, employment, or recreation.

25. "Sewage collection system" means a system of pipelines, conduits, manholes, pumping stations, force mains, and all other structures, devices, and appurtenances that collect, contain, and conduct sewage from its sources to the entry of a sewage treatment facility or on-site wastewater treatment facility serving sources other than a single residence.

26. "Sewage treatment facility" means a plant or system for sewage treatment and disposal, except an on-site wastewater treatment facility, that consists of treatment works, disposal works, and appurtenant pipelines, conduits, pumping stations, and related subsystems and devices.

27. "Surface impoundment" means a pit, pond, or lagoon with a surface dimension equal to or greater than its depth, and used for the storage, holding, settling, treatment, or discharge of liquid pollutants or pollutants containing free liquids.

28. "Tracer" means a substance, such as a dye or other chemical, used to change the characteristic of water or some other fluid to detect movement.

29. "Tracer study" means a test conducted using a tracer to measure the flow velocity, hydraulic conductivity, flow direction, hydrodynamic dispersion, partitioning coefficient, or other property of a hydrologic system.

30. "Typical sewage" means sewage in which the total suspended solids (TSS) content does not exceed 430 mg/l, the five-day biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) does not exceed 380 mg/l, and the content of fats, oils, and greases (FOG) does not exceed 75 mg/l.

31. "Underground storage facility" means a constructed underground storage facility or a managed underground storage facility. A.R.S. &#167; 45-802.01(20).

32. "Waters of the United States" means:

a. All waters that are currently used, were used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters that are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide;

b. All interstate waters, including interstate wetlands;

c. All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams (including intermittent streams), mudflats, sandflats, wetlands, sloughs, prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds the use, degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign commerce including any waters:

i. That are or could be used by interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;

ii. From which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce; or

iii. That are used or could be used for industrial purposes by industries in interstate commerce;

d. All impoundments of waters defined as waters of the United States under this definition;

e. Tributaries of waters identified in subsections (32)(a) through (d);

f. The territorial sea; and

g. Wetlands adjacent to waters (other than waters that are themselves wetlands) identified in subsections (32)(a) through (f).

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.102" level="4" title="Facilities to which Articles 1, 2, and 3 Do Not Apply">

Facilities to which Articles 1, 2, and 3 Do Not Apply

Articles 1, 2, and 3 do not apply to:

1. A drywell used solely to receive storm runoff and located so that no use, storage, loading, or treating of hazardous substances occurs in the drainage area;

2. A direct pesticide application in the commercial production of plants and animals subject to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (P.L. 92-516; 86 Stat. 975; 7 United States Code 135 et seq., as amended), or A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-301 through 49-309 and applicable rules, or A.R.S. Title 3, Chapter 2, Article 6 and applicable rules.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.103" level="4" title="Class Exemptions">

Class Exemptions

Class exemptions. In addition to the classes or categories of facilities listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-250(B), the following classes or categories of facilities are exempt from the Aquifer Protection Permit requirements of Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter.

1. Facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste and have been issued a permit or have interim status, under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (P.L. 94-580; 90 Stat. 2796; 42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq., as amended), or have been issued a permit according to the hazardous waste management rules adopted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-922;

2. Underground storage tanks that contain a regulated substance as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001;

3. Facilities for the disposal of solid waste, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01, that are located in unincorporated areas and receive solid waste from four or fewer households;

4. Land application of biosolids in compliance with 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 10.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4). Subsection 4 citation corrected to reflect recodification at 7 A.A.R. 2522 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.104" level="4" title="Transition from Notices of Disposal and Groundwater Quality Protection Permitted Facilities">

Transition from Notices of Disposal and Groundwater Quality Protection Permitted Facilities

A. A person who filed a Notice of Disposal or received a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit shall notify the Department before any cessation. The Director shall specify any measure to be taken by the person to prevent a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard at the point of compliance, determined by the criteria established in A.R.S. &#167; 49-244.

B. A person who owns or operated a facility, for which a Notice of Disposal was filed or a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit was issued, or who owns or operates a facility required to obtain an Aquifer Protection Permit shall, within 90 days from the date on the Director's notification, submit an application for an Aquifer Protection Permit or a closure plan as specified under A.R.S. &#167; 49-252.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.105" level="4" title="Continuance and Transition of Permits">

Continuance and Transition of Permits

A. Continuance.

1. Groundwater Quality Protection Permits.

a. Subject to the other provisions of this Section, a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit issued before September 27, 1989 is valid according to the terms of the permit.

b. A person who owns or operates a facility to which a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit was issued is in compliance with Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3, if the person:

i. Meets the conditions of the Groundwater Quality Protection Permit; and

ii. Is not causing or contributing to the violation of any Aquifer Water Quality Standard at a point of compliance, determined by the criteria in A.R.S. &#167; 49-244.

2. Notice of Disposal. A person who owns or operates a facility for which a Notice of Disposal was filed before September 27, 1989 complies with Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3 if the facility is not causing or contributing to the violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard at a point of compliance, determined by the criteria in A.R.S. &#167; 49-244.

3. Aquifer Protection Permit application submittal. A person who did not file a Notice of Disposal and does not possess a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit or an Aquifer Protection Permit for an existing facility, but submitted the information required in applicable rules before December 27, 1989, is in compliance with Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter only if the person submitted an Aquifer Protection Permit application to the Department before January 1, 2001.

B. Applicability. Subsection (A) applies until the Director:

1. Issues an Aquifer Protection Permit for the facility,

2. Denies an Aquifer Protection Permit for the facility, or

3. Issues a letter of clean closure approval for the facility under A.R.S. &#167; 49-252.

C. Transition.

1. From individual permit to general permit.

a. To qualify for a general permit established in Article 3, an owner or operator of a facility who applied for or was issued an individual permit before January 1, 2001, or who operates a facility described in subsection (A) shall submit the information required by Article 3 and adhere to all applicable general permit conditions.

b. The facility's individual permit is valid and enforceable until the date the Department receives Notification of Intent to Discharge, or until the date the Director issues a written Verification of General Permit Conformance, if required.

c. If the Director does not provide the required verification, the facility's individual permit remains valid and enforceable until its stated date of expiration, if any.

2. Approvals to Construct.

a. Any Approval to Construct a sewerage system issued under 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 8 before January 1, 2001 is valid until its stated date of expiration.

b. The Department shall accept the Approval to Construct instead of the design report requirements specified in R18-9-B202(A) if the individual permit application is in process on January 1, 2001.

c. The Director shall provide a Verification of General Permit Conformance under R18-9-A301(D), for an on-site wastewater treatment facility with a flow of less than 20,000 gallons per day if the facility is constructed according to the specifications in the Approval to Construct.

D. Monitoring. The Director may amend an individual permit to incorporate monitoring requirements to ensure that reclaimed water quality standards developed under A.R.S. &#167; 49-221(E) are met.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Amended effective November 12, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.106" level="4" title="Determination of Applicability">

Determination of Applicability

A. A person who engages or who intends to engage in an operation or an activity that may result in a discharge regulated under Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter may submit a request on a form provided by the Department that the Department determine the applicability of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter to the operation or activity.

B. A person requesting a determination of applicability shall provide the following information:

1. The name of the operation or activity;

2. The location of the operation or activity;

3. The names of the persons who are engaging or who propose to engage in the operation or activity:

4. A description of the operation or activity;

5. A description of the volume, chemical composition, and characteristics of materials stored, handled, used, or disposed of in the operation or activity; and

6. Any other information required by the Director to make the determination of applicability.

C. Within 45 days after receipt of a request for a determination of applicability, the Director shall notify in writing the person making the request that the operation or activity:

1. Is not subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter because the operation or facility does not discharge as described under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241;

2. Is not subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter because the operation or activity is exempted by A.R.S. &#167; 49-250 or R18-9-103;

3. Is eligible for a general permit under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-245.01, 49-245.02 or 49-247 or Article 3 of this Chapter, specifying the particular general permit that applies, provided the person meets the conditions of the general permit; or

4. Is subject to the permit requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter.

D. If, after issuing a determination of applicability under this Section, the Department concludes that its determination or the information relied upon for a determination is inaccurate, the Department may modify or withdraw its determination upon written notice to the person who requested the determination of applicability.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.107" level="4" title="Consolidation of Aquifer Protection Permits">

Consolidation of Aquifer Protection Permits

A. The Director may consolidate any number of individual or general permits into a single individual permit, if:

1. The facilities are part of the same project or operation and are located in a contiguous geographic area, or

2. The facilities are part of an area under the jurisdiction of a single political subdivision.

B. All applicable individual permit requirements established in Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter apply to the consolidation of Aquifer Protection Permits.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.108" level="4" title="Public Notice">

Public Notice

A. Individual permits.

1. The Department shall provide the entities specified in subsection (A)(2), monthly written notification of the following:

a. Individual permit applications,

b. Temporary permit applications,

c. Preliminary and final decisions by the Director whether to issue or deny an individual or temporary permit,

d. Closure plans received under R18-9-A209(B),

e. Significant permit amendments and "other" permit amendments,

f. Permit revocations, and

g. Clean closure approvals.

2. Entities.

a. Each county department of health, environmental services, or comparable department;

b. An affected federal, state, local agency, or council of government; and

c. A person who requested, in writing, notification of the activities described in subsection (A).

3. The Department may post the information referenced in subsections (A)(1) and (A)(2) on the Department web site: www.adeq.state.az.us.

B. General permits. Public notice requirements do not apply.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.109" level="4" title="Public Participation">

Public Participation

A. Notice of Preliminary Decision.

1. The Department shall publish a Notice of Preliminary Decision regarding the issuance or denial of a significant permit amendment or a final permit determination in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located.

2. The Department shall accept written comments from the public before a significant permit amendment or a final permit determination is made.

3. The written public comment period begins on the publication date of the Notice of Preliminary Decision and extends for 30 calendar days.

B. Public hearing.

1. The Department shall provide notice and conduct a public hearing to address a Notice of Preliminary Decision regarding a significant permit amendment or final permit determination if:

a. Significant public interest in a public hearing exists, or

b. Significant issues or information have been brought to the attention of the Department that has not been considered previously in the permitting process.

2. If, after publication of the Notice of Preliminary Decision, the Department determines that a public hearing is necessary, the Department shall schedule a public hearing and publish the Notice of Preliminary Decision at least once, in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located.

3. The Department shall accept written public comment until the close of the hearing record as specified by the person presiding at the public hearing.

C. At the same time the Department notifies a permittee of a significant permit amendment or an applicant of the final permit determination, the Department shall send, through regular mail, a notice of the amendment or determination to any person who submitted comments or attended a public hearing on the significant permit amendment or final permit determination.

D. The Department shall respond in writing to all written comments submitted during the written public comment period.

E. General permits. Public participation requirements do not apply.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.110" level="4" title="Inspections, Violations, and Enforcement">

Inspections, Violations, and Enforcement

A. The Department shall conduct any inspection of a permitted facility as specified under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1009.

B. Except as provided in R18-9-A308, a person who owns or operates a facility contrary to a provision of Articles 1, 2, and 3 of this Chapter, violates a condition of an Aquifer Protection Permit, or violates a Groundwater Quality Protection Permit continued by R18-9-105(A)(1) is subject to the enforcement actions established under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 4.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.111" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.112" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.113" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.114" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.115" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.116" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.117" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.118" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.119" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.120" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Repealed effective July 14, 1998 (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.9.121" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.122" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.123" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Repealed effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.124" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.125" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.126" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.127" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.128" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Repealed effective November 12, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.129" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.130" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 27, 1989 (Supp. 89-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

Appendix I. Repealed

Historical Note

Appendix I repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - INDIVIDUAL PERMITS"> <dwc name="coliform" times="4"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2"><dwc name="chlorin" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="1"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="1">

AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - INDIVIDUAL PERMITS

PART A. APPLICATION AND GENERAL PROVISIONS

R18-9-A201. Application

A. Individual permit application.

1. A person may submit an individual permit application that covers one or more of the following categories:

a. Drywell,

b. Industrial,

c. Mining,

d. Wastewater, or

e. Solid waste disposal.

2. The applicant shall provide the Department with:

a. The following information on an application form:

i. The name and mailing address of the applicant;

ii. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

iii. The name and mailing address of the owner of the facility;

iv. The name and mailing address of the operator of the facility;

v. The legal description of the location of the facility;

vi. The expected operational life of the facility; and

vii. Any other federal or state environmental permit issued to the applicant.

b. A copy of the certificate of disclosure required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-109;

c. Evidence that the facility complies with applicable municipal or county zoning ordinances, codes, and regulations;

d. Two copies of the technical information required in R18-9-A202(A);

e. The financial information required in R18-9-A203;

f. The site-specific conditions specified in R18-9-A202;

g. For a sewage treatment facility, a design report signed and sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer, containing the information required in R18-9-B202;

h. Certification in writing that the information submitted in the application is true and accurate to the best of the applicant's knowledge; and

i. The applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

3. Special provision for underground storage facilities. A person applying for an individual permit for an underground storage facility shall submit the information described in R18-9-A201 through R18-9-A203, except the BADCT information specified in R18-9-A202(A)(5).

a. Upon receipt of the application, the Department shall process the application in coordination with the underground storage facility permit process administered by the Department of Water Resources.

b. The Department shall advise the Department of Water Resources of each permit application received.

B. Pre-application conference. Upon request of the applicant, the Department shall schedule and hold a pre-application conference with the applicant to discuss any requirements in Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter.

C. Draft permit. The Department shall provide the applicant with a draft of the individual permit on or immediately before publication of the Notice of Preliminary Decision specified in R18-9-109.

D. Permit Duration. Except for a temporary permit, an individual permit is valid for the operational life of the facility and any period during which the facility is subject to a post-closure plan under R18-9-A209(C).

E. Permit issuance or denial.

1. The Director shall issue an individual permit if the Director determines, based upon the information obtained by or made available to the Department, that the applicant will comply with A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter.

2. The Director shall provide the applicant with written notification of the final decision to issue or deny the permit application within the overall licensing time-frame requirements under 18 A.A.C. 1, Chapter 5.

3. If the Director denies an individual permit application the Director shall provide the applicant with a written notification that explains:

a. The reason for the denial with reference to the statute or rule on which the denial is based;

b. The applicant's right to appeal the denial, including the number of days the applicant has to file a protest challenging the denial and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process; and

c. The applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

4. Permit applications received before August 16, 1999, not subject to licensing time-frames, shall be issued or denied within 30 days after close of public comment established in the public notice, or if a public hearing is held, within 45 days after the public hearing record is closed.

a. The Director may extend the final decision deadline for not more than 90 days after the close of the public comment period, or, if a public hearing is held, after the public hearing record is closed, if the Director determines that additional information is required to make the decision whether to issue or deny a permit.

b. The Director shall provide the applicant with written notification of a decision to extend the final decision deadline within 15 days after the close of the public comment period or if a public hearing is held, within 15 days after the public hearing record is closed.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A202. Technical Requirements

A. Except as specified in R18-9-A201(A)(3), an applicant shall submit the following technical information as attachments to the individual permit application:

1. A topographic map, or other appropriate map approved by the Department, of the facility location and contiguous land area showing the known use of adjacent properties, all known water well locations found within one-half mile of the facility, and a description of well construction details and well uses, if available;

2. A facility site plan showing all known property lines, structures, water wells, injection wells, drywells and their uses, topography, and the location of points of discharge. The facility site plan shall include all known borings unless the Department determines that borings are numerous and the requirement may be satisfied by a narrative description of the number and location of the borings;

3. The facility design documents indicating proposed or as-built design details and proposed or as-built configuration of basins, ponds, waste storage areas, drainage diversion features, or other engineered elements of the facility affecting discharge. When formal as-built submittals are not available, the applicant shall provide documentation, sufficient to allow evaluation of those elements of the facility affecting discharge, following the demonstration requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B). An applicant seeking an Aquifer Protection Permit for a sewage treatment facility shall submit design documents required in R18-9-B203;

4. A summary of the known past facility discharge activities and the proposed facility discharge activities indicating all of the following:

a. The chemical, biological, and physical characteristics of the discharge;

b. The rate, volume, and frequency of the discharge for each facility; and

c. The location of the discharge.

5. A description of the BADCT to be employed in the facility, including:

a. A statement of the technology, processes, operating methods, or other alternatives that will be employed to meet the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B), (G), or (P), as applicable. The statement shall describe:

i. The alternative discharge control measures considered,

ii. The technical and economic advantages and disadvantages of each alternative, and

iii. The justification for selection or rejection of each alternative.

b. An evaluation of each alternative discharge control technology relative to the amount of discharge reduction achievable, site specific hydrologic and geologic characteristics, other environmental impacts, and water conservation or augmentation;

c. For a new facility, an industry-wide evaluation of the economic impact of implementation of each alternative control technology;

d. For an existing facility, a statement reflecting the consideration of factors listed in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-243(B)(1)(a) through (B)(1)(h);

e. The above requirements do not apply if the Department verifies that a sewage treatment facility meets the BADCT requirements under Article 2, Part B of this Chapter.

6. Proposed points of compliance for the facility based on A.R.S. &#167; 49-244. An applicant shall demonstrate that:

a. The facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of the Aquifer Water Quality Standards at the proposed point of compliance, or

b. If an Aquifer Water Quality Standard for a pollutant has been exceeded in an aquifer at the time of permit issuance, no additional degradation of the aquifer relative to that pollutant and determined at the proposed point of compliance will occur as a result of the discharge from the proposed facility.

7. A contingency plan that meets the requirements of R18-9-A204;

8. A hydrogeologic study that defines the discharge impact area for the expected duration of the facility. The Department may allow the applicant to submit an abbreviated hydrogeologic study or, if warranted, no hydrogeologic study, based upon the quantity and characteristics of the pollutants discharged, the methods of disposal, and the site conditions. Information from a previous study of the affected area may be included to meet a requirement of the hydrogeologic study, if the previous study accurately represents current hydrogeologic conditions. The hydrogeologic study shall demonstrate:

a. That the facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of Aquifer Water Quality Standards at the applicable point of compliance; or

b. If an Aquifer Water Quality Standard for a pollutant has been exceeded in an aquifer at the time of permit issuance that no additional degradation of the aquifer relative to that pollutant and determined at the applicable point of compliance will occur as a result of the discharge from the proposed facility;

c. Based on the quantity and characteristics of pollutants discharged, methods of disposal, and site conditions, the Department may require the applicant to provide:

i. A description of the surface and subsurface geology, including a description of all borings;

ii. The location of any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral surface water bodies;

iii. The characteristics of the aquifer and geologic units with limited permeability, including depth, hydraulic conductivity, and transmissivity;

iv. Rate, volume, and direction of surface water and groundwater flow, including hydrographs, if available, and equipotential maps;

v. The precise location or estimate of the location of the 100-year flood plain and an assessment of the 100-year flood surface flow and potential impacts on the facility;

vi. Documentation of the existing quality of the water in the aquifers underlying the site, including, where available, the method of analysis, quality assurance, and quality control procedures associated with the documentation;

vii. Documentation of the extent and degree of any known soil contamination at the site;

viii. An assessment of the potential of the discharge to cause the leaching of pollutants from surface soils or vadose materials;

ix. Any anticipated changes in the water quality expected because of the discharge;

x. A description of any expected changes in the elevation or flow directions of the groundwater that may be caused by the facility;

xi. A map of the facility's discharge impact area;

xii. The criteria and methodologies used to determine the discharge impact area; or

xiii. The proposed location of each point of compliance.

9. A detailed proposal indicating the alert levels, discharge limitations, monitoring requirements, compliance schedules, and temporary cessation, closure, and post-closure strategies or plans that the applicant will use to satisfy the requirements of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3, and Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter;

10. Any other relevant information required by the Department to determine whether to issue a permit.

B. An applicant shall demonstrate the ability to maintain the technical capability necessary to carry out the terms of the individual permit, including a demonstration that the facility will be operated by a certified operator if a certified operator is required under 18 A.A.C. 5. An applicant shall make the demonstration by submitting the following information for each person principally responsible for designing, constructing, or operating the facility:

1. Pertinent licenses or certifications held by the person;

2. Professional training relevant to the design, construction, or operation of the facility; and

3. Work experience relevant to the design, construction, or operation of the facility.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A203. Financial Requirements

A. Cost estimates. A person applying for an individual permit shall demonstrate financial capability to construct, operate, close, and assure proper post-closure care of the facility in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3; Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter; and the conditions of the individual permit.

1. The applicant shall submit the following cost estimates:

a. Total cost of new facility construction;

b. The operation and maintenance costs of those elements of the facility used to comply with the demonstration under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B);

c. The cost of closure, described in R18-9-A209(B), consistent with the closure plan or strategy submitted under R18-9-A202(A)(9); and

d. The cost of post-closure monitoring and maintenance, described in R18-9-A209(C), consistent with the post closure plan or strategy submitted under R18-9-A202(A)(9).

2. The cost estimates for facility construction, operation, and maintenance shall be derived from competitive bids, construction plan take-offs, or specifications, if available. The cost estimates may be prepared by an engineer, contractor, or accountant and shall be representative of regional fair market costs.

B. Financial demonstration. The applicant's chief financial officer shall submit a statement indicating that the applicant is financially capable of meeting the costs described in subsection (A).

1. The statement shall specify in detail the financial arrangements for meeting the estimated closure and post-closure costs, according to the plans or strategies submitted under R18-9-A202(A)(9).

2. An applicant other than a state or federal agency, county, city, town, or other local government entity, shall further support the demonstration of financial capability with at least one of the following:

a. If a publicly traded corporation, the latest fiscal year-end copy of the applicant's 10K or 20F Form filed under section 13 or 15(d) of the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934;

b. If a non-publicly traded corporation, a report that contains all of the following:

i. A brief description of the applicant's status as a corporation;

ii. A brief description of the applicant's business;

iii. Signed and dated copies of the applicant's U.S. tax returns with all schedules from the two previous tax years and a copy of the most recent year-end financial statement;

iv. A brief description of any civil judgement exceeding $100,000 against the applicant during the last five years preceding the date of the application;

v. A brief description of any bankruptcy proceeding instituted by the applicant during the five years preceding the date of the application; and

vi. The names of the corporation's executive officers and their dates of birth or ages.

c. If the applicant is a partnership or limited liability entity, the name of any principal who owns more than a 20% interest in the business entity;

d. If the person is an individual, non-business applicant, a current financial statement and evidence of current personal income or assets.

C. The Department shall consider an applicant unable to demonstrate the financial capability necessary to fully carry out the terms of the permit, as described in subsection (B), and shall require the applicant to submit a financial assurance mechanism under subsection (D) if any one of the following conditions exists:

1. For a publicly traded corporation:

a. The 10K Form or 20F Form indicates that the company received an adverse opinion, disclaimer of opinion, or other qualified opinion from the independent certified public accountant auditing its financial statements;

b. Standard and Poor's or Moody's Investors Service has assigned the applicant an unsecured debt rating less than investment grade. Unacceptable ratings are Standard and Poor's: BB, B, CCC, C, D or Speculative; Moody's Investors Services: Ba, B, Caa, Ca C, or Speculative or lack of an unsecured credit rating by Standard and Poor's or Moody's Investors Service; or

c. Lack of assets in the United States equal to at least 90% of the total closure and post-closure care cost estimates.

2. For a non-publicly traded corporation:

a. Lack of a financial statement prepared by an independent certified public accountant, including all balance sheet notes and schedules;

b. Lack of assets located in the United States equal to at least 90% of total assets or assets amounting to less than six times the costs of closure and post-closure care; or

c. Lack of net working capital and tangible net worth of at least six times the costs of closure and post-closure care.

D. Financial demonstration option.

1. Instead of the financial demonstration required in subsection (B), an applicant may submit evidence of one or more of the following financial assurance mechanisms, listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-761(J), sufficient to cover the costs described in subsection (A). The applicant shall provide written documentation demonstrating compliance with the listed requirements for each financial assurance mechanism.

a. Performance surety bond.

i. The surety is listed in Department of Treasury, Circular 570, as qualified in the state where the bond is signed; and

ii. The surety's underwriting limit is at least as great as the amount of the surety bond.

b. Certificate of deposit.

i. The Certificate of deposit is issued by a financial institution that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or Federal Savings and Loan Insurance corporation, and

ii. The Certificate of deposit is assigned to the Director.

c. Trust fund with pay-in period.

i. The trustee is an entity who has the authority to act as a trustee, and

ii. The trust operation is regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.

d. Irrevocable letter of credit.

i. The issuing financial institution has authority to issue letters of credit, and

ii. The issuing financial institution is regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.

e. Insurance policy.

i. The insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance or as an excess or surplus lines insurer in one or more states, and

ii. The insurer is a non-captive insurer.

f. Deposit with the state treasurer.

g. Guarantee.

i. A guarantor is the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator; and

ii. A guarantor meets the requirements of subsection (D) and complies with the terms of the guarantee.

h. One or more financial assurance mechanisms; or

i. An additional financial assurance mechanism approved by the Director.

2. A permittee may substitute one financial assurance mechanism for another with prior Director approval.

3. A permittee shall hold the financial assurance mechanism for the duration of the permit or until the permittee is able to demonstrate the financial capability under subsection (B) necessary to carry out the terms of the Aquifer Protection Permit.

E. If, after issuing an individual permit, the Director determines that a permittee is not able to maintain the financial capability required in subsection (B), the permittee shall provide evidence of a financial assurance mechanism within 90 days from the date on the Department's notification.

F. If the Director has reason to believe that a permittee will lose financial capability, the Director may request demonstration of financial capability no more than quarterly throughout the duration of an individual permit. The permittee shall provide the information within 90 days from the date on the request.

G. If a person demonstrates that a financial capability requirement under this Article is duplicative of a financial capability demonstration already made to the state and the Department has access to that information, the person is not required to resubmit that information.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A204. Contingency Plan

A. An individual permit shall specify a contingency plan that defines the actions to be taken if a discharge results in any of the following:

1. A violation of a permit condition,

2. A violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard,

3. An alert level is exceeded,

4. A discharge limitation is exceeded, or

5. An imminent and substantial endangerment to the public health or the environment.

B. The contingency plan may include one or more of the following actions if a discharge results in any of the conditions described in subsection (A):

1. Verification sampling;

2. Notification to downstream or downgradient users who may be directly affected by the discharge;

3. Further monitoring that may include increased frequency, additional constituents, or additional monitoring locations;

4. Inspection, testing, or maintenance of discharge control features of the facility;

5. For sewage treatment facilities, pretreatment evaluation;

6. Preparation of a hydrogeologic study to assess the extent of soil, surface water, or aquifer impact;

7. Corrective action that may include any of the following measures:

a. Control of the source of an unauthorized discharge,

b. Soil cleanup,

c. Cleanup of affected surface waters,

d. Cleanup of affected parts of the aquifer, or

e. Mitigation measures to limit the impact of pollutants on existing uses of the aquifer.

C. Each corrective action proposed under subsection (B)(7) is subject to approval by the Department.

1. Emergency response provisions and corrective actions specifically identified in the contingency plan submitted with a permit application are subject to approval by the Department during the application review process.

2. Corrective actions other than those already identified in the contingency plan may be proposed to the Department by the permittee if a discharge results in any of the conditions identified in subsection (A).

3. The Department shall approve a proposed corrective action if the corrective action returns the facility to compliance with the facility's permit conditions, A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2 and Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter.

4. Approved corrective actions other than those already identified in the contingency plan may be incorporated by the Director into an Aquifer Protection Permit.

D. A contingency plan shall contain emergency response provisions to address an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or the environment including:

1. Twenty-four hour emergency response measures;

2. The name of an emergency response coordinator responsible for implementing the contingency plan;

3. Immediate notification of the Department regarding any emergency response measure taken;

4. A list of names, addresses and telephone numbers of persons to be contacted if an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or the environment arises; and

5. A general description of the procedures, personnel, and equipment that will be used to mitigate unauthorized discharges.

E. A contingency plan required by the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (P.L. 92-500; 86 Stat. 816; 33 U.S.C. 1251, et seq., as amended), or the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580; 90 Stat. 2796; 42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq., as amended), may be amended to meet the requirements of this Section and submitted to the Department for approval instead of a separate aquifer protection contingency plan.

F. A permittee shall maintain at least one copy of the contingency plan required by the individual permit at the location where day-to-day decisions regarding the operation of the facility are made. A permittee shall advise all employees responsible for the operation of the facility of the location of the contingency plan.

G. A permittee shall promptly revise the contingency plan upon any change to the information contained in the plan.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A205. Alert Levels and Discharge Limitations

A. Alert levels.

1. The Department shall establish alert levels in an individual permit. The alert levels shall be based on the site-specific conditions described by the applicant in the application submitted under R18-9-A201(A)(2) or other information available to the Department.

2. The Department may specify an alert level based on a pollutant that indicates the potential appearance of another pollutant.

3. The Department may specify the measurement of an alert level at a location appropriate for the discharge activity, considering the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of the discharge, the particular treatment process, and the site-specific conditions.

B. Discharge Limitations. The Department shall prescribe discharge limitations based on the considerations described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A206. Monitoring Requirements

A. Monitoring.

1. The Department shall determine whether monitoring is required to assure compliance with Aquifer Protection Permit conditions and with the applicable Aquifer Water Quality Standards established under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-221, 49-223, 49-241 through 49-244, and 49-250 through 49-252.

2. If monitoring is required, the Director shall specify to the permittee:

a. The type and method of monitoring to be conducted;

b. The frequency of monitoring;

c. Any requirements for the installation, use, or maintenance of monitoring equipment; and

d. The intervals at which the permittee shall report monitoring results to the Department.

B. Recordkeeping.

1. A permittee shall make a monitoring record for each sample taken as required by the individual permit consisting of all of the following:

a. The date, time, and exact place of a sampling and the name of each individual who performed the sampling;

b. The procedures used to collect the sample;

c. The date sample analysis was completed;

d. The name of each individual or laboratory performing the analysis;

e. The analytical techniques or methods used to perform the sampling and analysis;

f. The chain of custody records; and

g. Any field notes relating to the information described in subsections (B)(1)(a) through (B)(1)(f).

2. A permittee shall make a monitoring record for each measurement made as required by the individual permit consisting of all of the following:

a. The date, time, and exact place of the measurement and the name of each individual who performed the measurement;

b. The procedures used to make the measurement; and

c. Any field notes relating to the information described in subsections (B)(2)(a) and (B)(2)(b).

3. A permittee shall maintain monitoring records for at least 10 years after the date of the sample or measurement.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A207. Reporting Requirements

A. A permittee shall notify the Department within five days after becoming aware of a violation of a permit condition or that an alert level has been exceeded. The permittee shall inform the Department whether the contingency plan described in R18-9-A204 has been implemented.

B. In addition to the requirements in subsection (A), a permittee shall submit a written report to the Department within 30 days after the permittee becomes aware of the violation of a permit condition. The report shall contain:

1. A description of the violation and its cause;

2. The period of violation, including exact date and time, if known, and the anticipated time period the violation is expected to continue;

3. Any action taken or planned to mitigate the effects of the violation or to eliminate or prevent recurrence of the violation;

4. Any monitoring activity or other information that indicates that a pollutant is expected to cause a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard; and

5. Any malfunction or failure of a pollution control device or other equipment or process.

C. A permittee shall notify the Department within five days after the occurrence of any of the following:

1. The permittee's filing of bankruptcy, or

2. The entry of any order or judgment not issued by the Director against the permittee for the enforcement of any environmental protection statute or rule.

D. The Director shall specify the format for submitting results from monitoring conducted under R18-9-A206.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A208. Compliance Schedule

A. A permittee shall follow the compliance schedule established in the individual permit.

1. If a compliance schedule provides that actions are to be taken during a period that exceeds one year from the date of permit issuance, the schedule shall establish interim requirements and dates for their achievement.

2. If the time necessary for completion of an interim requirement is more than one year and is not readily divisible into stages for completion, the permit shall contain interim dates for submission of reports on progress toward completion of the interim requirements and shall indicate a projected completion date.

3. Within 30 days after the applicable date specified in a compliance schedule, a permittee shall submit to the Department a report indicating whether the required action was taken within the time specified.

4. After reviewing the compliance schedule activity the Director may amend the Aquifer Protection Permit, based on changed circumstances relating to the required action.

B. The Department shall consider all of the following factors when setting the compliance schedule requirements:

1. The character and impact of the discharge,

2. The nature of construction or activity required by the permit,

3. The number of persons affected or potentially affected by the discharge,

4. The current state of treatment technology, and

5. The age of the facility.

C. For a new facility, the Department shall not defer to a compliance schedule any requirement necessary to satisfy the criteria under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A209. Temporary Cessation, Closure, Post-closure

A. Temporary cessation.

1. A permittee shall notify the Department before a cessation of operations at the facility of at least 60 days duration.

2. The permittee shall implement any measures specified in the individual permit for the temporary cessation.

3. If the permit does not specify temporary cessation measures, the Department shall require the permittee to submit specifications for each measure for approval by the Department.

B. Closure.

1. A permittee shall notify the Department of the permittee's intent to cease operations without resuming an activity for which the facility was designed or operated.

a. The permittee shall submit a closure plan for Director approval within 90 days following the notification of intent to cease operations with the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14. The closure plan shall describe:

i. The approximate quantity and chemical, biological, and physical characteristics of each material to be removed from the facility;

ii. The destination of the materials to be removed from the facility and documentation that the destination is approved to accept the materials;

iii. The approximate quantity and chemical, biological, and physical characteristics of each material that remains at the facility;

iv. The method to be used to treat any material remaining at the facility;

v. The method to be used to control the discharge of pollutants from the facility;

vi. Any limitations on future land or water uses created as a result of the facility's operations or closure activities;

vii. The methods to be used to secure the facility;

viii. An estimate of the cost of closure;

ix. A schedule for implementation of the closure plan and the submission of a post-closure plan; and

x. Any other relevant information the Department determines to be necessary.

b. Upon receipt of a complete closure plan, the Director shall:

i. Provide written notification of the closure as specified in R18-9-108, and

ii. If the proposed closure plan does not achieve clean closure, publish a Notice of Preliminary Decision for a permit amendment or issuance of an individual permit as specified in R18-9-109.

2. Within 60 days of receipt of a complete closure plan, the Department shall determine whether the closure plan achieves clean closure.

a. If the closure plan achieves clean closure, the Director shall send a letter of approval to the permittee;

b. If the closure plan does not achieve clean closure, the permittee shall submit a post closure plan under subsection (C) and the following documents within 90 days from the date on the Department's notice or as specified under A.R.S. &#167; 49-252(E):

i. An application for an individual permit, or

ii. A request to modify a current individual permit to address closure activities and post-closure monitoring and maintenance at the facility.

3. The Director shall require implementation of the closure plan as a permit condition.

C. Post-closure. A permittee shall describe post-closure monitoring and maintenance activities in a plan and submit it to the Department for approval.

1. The plan shall include:

a. The duration of post-closure care;

b. The monitoring procedures to be implemented by the permittee, including monitoring frequency, type, and location;

c. A description of the operating and maintenance procedures to be implemented for maintaining aquifer quality protection devices, such as liners, treatment systems, pump-back systems, and monitoring wells;

d. A schedule and description of physical inspections to be conducted at the facility following closure;

e. An estimate of the cost of post-closure maintenance and monitoring; and

f. A description of limitations on future land or water uses, or both, at the facility site as a result of facility operations.

2. The Director shall include the post-closure plan submitted under subsection (C)(1) in the individual permit.

D. The permittee shall provide the Department with written notice that a closure plan or a post-closure plan has been fully implemented within 30 calendar days of completion.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A210. Temporary Individual Permit

A. A person may apply for a temporary individual permit for either of the following:

1. A pilot project necessary to develop data for an Aquifer Protection Permit application for the full-scale project, or

2. A temporary facility with a discharge lasting no more than six months.

B. The applicant shall submit a preliminary application containing the information required in R18-9-A201(A)(2)(a).

C. The Department shall, based on the preliminary application and in consultation with the applicant, determine and provide the applicant notice of what additional information in R18-9-A201(A)(2) is necessary to complete the application.

D. Public participation.

1. If the Director issues a temporary individual permit, the Director shall postpone the public participation requirements under R18-9-109.

2. The Director shall not postpone notification of the opportunity for public participation for more than 30 days from the date on the temporary individual permit.

3. The Director may modify or revoke the temporary individual permit after consideration of public comments.

C. A temporary individual permit expires after one year unless it is renewed. A permittee may renew a temporary individual permit no more than one time.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A211. Permit Amendments

A. The Director may amend an individual permit based upon a request or upon the Director's initiative.

1. A permittee shall submit a request for permit amendment in writing on a form provided by the Department with the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14, explaining the facts and reasons justifying the request.

2. The Department shall process amendment requests following the licensing time-frames established under 18 A.A.C. 1, Article 5.

B. Significant permit amendment. The Director shall make a significant amendment to an individual permit if:

1. Part or all of an existing facility becomes a new facility under A.R.S. &#167; 49-201;

2. A physical change in a permitted facility or a change in its method of operation results in:

a. An increase of 10% or more in the permitted volume of pollutants discharged, except a sewage treatment facility;

b. An increase in design flow of a sewage treatment facility as follows:

<table> Permitted Design Flow % Increase in Design Flow 500,000 gallons per day or less 10% Greater than 500,000 gallons per day but less than or equal to five million gallons per day 6% Greater than five million gallons per day but less than or equal to 50 million gallons per day 4% Greater than 50 million gallons per day 2% </table>

c. Discharge of an additional pollutant not allowed by a facility's original individual permit. The Director may consider the addition of a pollutant with a chemical composition substantially similar to a pollutant the permit currently allows by making an "other" amendment to the individual permit as prescribed in subsection (D);

d. For any pollutant not addressed in a facility's individual permit, any increase that brings the level of the pollutant to within 80% or more of a numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standard at the point of compliance;

e. An increase in the concentration in the discharge of a pollutant listed under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I).

3. Based upon available information, the facility can no longer demonstrate that its discharge will comply with A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B)(2) or (3);

4. The permittee requests and the Department makes a monitoring change, not specified in the individual permit, that will reduce the frequency in monitoring or reporting or that will reduce the number of pollutants monitored and the permittee demonstrates that the changes do not affect its ability to remain in compliance with Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter;

5. It is necessary to change the designation of a point of compliance;

6. The permittee requests and the Department makes less stringent discharge limitations and demonstrates that the changes will not affect the permittee's ability to remain in compliance with Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter;

7. It is necessary to make an addition to or a substantial change in closure requirements or to provide for post-closure maintenance and monitoring;

8. Material and substantial alterations or additions to a permitted facility justify a change in permit conditions.

C. Minor permit amendment. The Director shall make a minor amendment to an individual permit to:

1. Correct a typographical error;

2. Change nontechnical administrative information, excluding a permit transfer;

3. Correct minor technical errors, such as errors in calculation, locational information, citations of law, and citations of construction specifications;

4. Increase the frequency of monitoring or reporting, or to revise a laboratory method;

5. Make a discharge limitation more stringent; or

6. Insert calculated alert levels or other permit limits into a permit based on monitoring subsequent to permit issuance, if a requirement to establish the levels or limits and the method for calculation of the levels or limits was established in the original permit.

D. "Other" permit amendment.

1. The Director may make an "other" amendment to an individual permit if the amendment is not a significant or minor permit amendment prescribed in this Section, based on an evaluation of the information relevant to the amendment.

2. Examples of an "other" amendment to an individual permit include:

a. A change in a construction requirement or operational practice, if the alteration complies with the requirements of Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter and provides equal or better performance;

b. A change in an interim or final compliance date in a compliance schedule, if the Director determines just cause exists for changing the date;

c. A change in the permittee's financial assurance mechanism under R18-9-A203(D)(2);

d. Permit transfer under R18-9-A212;

e. Replacement of monitoring equipment, including a well, if the replacement results in equal or greater monitoring effectiveness;

f. Any increase in the volume of pollutants discharged that is less than that described in subsection (B)(2)(a) or (B)(2)(b);

g. An adjustment of the permit to conform to rule or statutory provisions;

h. A combination of two or more permits at the same site as specified under R18-9-107; or

i. An adjustment of monitoring requirements to ensure reclaimed water quality standards developed under A.R.S. &#167; 49-221(E) are met.

E. The public notice and public participation requirements of R18-9-108 and R18-9-109 apply to a significant amendment. The public notice requirements apply to an "other" amendment. A minor amendment does not require a public notice or public participation.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A212. Permit Transfer

A. The owner or operator of a facility subject to the continuance requirements under R18-9-105(A)(1), (A)(2), or (A)(3) shall notify the Department by certified mail within 15 days following a change of ownership. The notice shall include:

1. The name of the transferor owner or operator;

2. The name and social security number of the transferee owner or operator, if the transferee owner operator is an individual;

3. The name and location of the facility;

4. The written agreement between the existing and new permittee indicating a specific date for transfer of all permit responsibility, coverage, and liability;

5. A signed declaration by the new permittee that the permittee has reviewed the permit and agrees to be bound by its terms; and

6. The applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

B. A permittee may transfer an individual permit to a new permittee if the Director amends the permit to identify the new permittee and holds the new permittee responsible for all conditions of the permit. The new permittee shall:

1. Notify the Department by certified mail within 15 days after the change of ownership of the transfer and include a written agreement between the existing and new permittee indicating a specific date for transfer of all permit responsibility, coverage, and liability;

2. Submit the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14;

3. Demonstrate the technical and financial capability necessary to fully carry out the terms of the permit according to R18-9-A202 and R18-9-A203;

4. Submit a signed statement by the new permittee that the permittee has reviewed the permit and agrees to be bound by its terms; and

5. Provide the Department with a copy of the Certificate of Disclosure required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-109.

C. A permittee shall comply with the permit conditions specified under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252, and Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter, regardless of whether the permittee has sold or disposed of the facility, until the Director transfers the permit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A213. Permit Suspension, Revocation, or Denial

A. The Director may suspend or revoke an individual permit or a continuance under R18-9-105(A)(1), (A)(2), or (A)(3) for any of the following:

1. A permittee failed to comply with any applicable provision of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3; Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter; or any permit condition.

2. A permittee's misrepresentation or omission of any fact, information, or data related to an Aquifer Protection Permit application or permit conditions.

3. The Director determines that a permitted activity is causing or will cause a violation of any Aquifer Water Quality Standard at a point of compliance.

4. A permitted discharge is causing or will cause imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or the environment.

B. The Director may deny an individual permit if the Director determines upon completion of the application process that the applicant has:

1. Failed or refused to correct a deficiency in the permit application;

2. Failed to demonstrate that the facility and the operation will comply with the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-241 through 49-252 and Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter. This determination shall be based on:

a. The information submitted in the Aquifer Protection Permit application,

b. Any information submitted to the Department following a public hearing, or

c. Any relevant information that is developed or acquired by the Department.

3. Provided false or misleading information.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

PART B. BADCT FOR SEWAGE TREATMENT FACILITIES

R18-9-B201. General Considerations and Prohibitions

A. Applicability. The requirements in this Article, including BADCT requirements, apply to all sewage treatment facilities, including expansions of existing sewage treatment facilities, that treat wastewater containing sewage, unless the discharge is covered by a general permit under Article 3 of this Chapter.

B. The Director may specify alert levels, discharge limitations, design specifications, and operation and maintenance requirements in the permit that are based upon information provided by the applicant and that meet the requirements under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B)(1).

C. The Director may specify adherence to an operation and maintenance plan as an Aquifer Protection Permit condition, based on consideration of the factors in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B)(1).

D. A person shall not install or maintain a connection between any part of a sewage treatment facility and a potable water supply so that sewage or wastewater contaminates a potable or public water supply.

E. A person shall not bypass untreated sewage from a sewage treatment facility.

F. Reclaimed water dispensed to a direct reuse site from a sewage treatment facility is regulated under Reclaimed Water Quality Standards established under A.R.S. &#167; 49-221(E) and reclaimed water permit requirements under A.R.S. &#167; 49-203(A)(6).

G. The preparation, transport, or land application of any biosolid generated by a sewage treatment facility is regulated under 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 15.

H. The Department shall not publish a Notice of Preliminary Decision to issue an individual permit or amendment under R18-9-A211(B)(2)(b) or an amendment under R18-9-A211(B)(6) for a sewage treatment facility that is not in conformance with the Certified Areawide Water Quality Management Plan and the Facility Plan.

I. The owner or operator of a sewage treatment facility that is a new facility or undergoing a major modification shall provide setbacks from the nearest adjacent property line using the following information:

<table> Sewage Treatment Facility Design Flow (gallons per day) No Noise, Odor, or Aesthetic Controls (feet) Full Noise, Odor, and Aesthetic Controls (feet) 3000 to less than 24,000 250 25 24,000 to less than 100,000 350 50 100,000 to less than 500,000 500 100 500,000 to less than 1,000,000 750 250 1,000,000 or greater 1000 350 </table>

1. Full noise, odor, and aesthetic controls means that all treatment components are fully enclosed, odor scrubbers are installed on all vents, and fencing aesthetically matched to that in the area surrounding the facility

2. The owner or operator may decrease setbacks if setback waivers are obtained from affected property owners in which the property owner acknowledges awareness of the established setbacks, basic design of the sewage treatment facility, and the potential for noise and odor.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-B202. Application Requirements

A. An applicant shall submit a design report sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer. The design report shall include the following information:

1. Wastewater characterization, including quantity, quality, seasonality, and impact of increased flows as the facility reaches design flow;

2. The proposed method of disposal, including solids management;

3. A description of the treatment unit processes and containment structures, including diagrams and calculations that demonstrate that the design meets BADCT requirements and will achieve treatment levels specified in R18-9-B204. If soil aquifer treatment or other aspects of site conditions are used to meet BADCT requirements, the applicant shall document performance of the site in the design report or the hydrogeologic report;

4. A description of planned normal operation;

5. A description of operation and maintenance, an operation and maintenance plan, and a description of contingency and emergency operation of the system;

6. A description of construction management controls;

7. A description of the system startup plan, including pre-operational testing, expected treated wastewater characteristics and monitoring requirements during startup, expected time-frame for meeting performance requirements specified in R18-9-B204(C), and any other special startup condition that may merit consideration in the individual permit;

8. A site diagram depicting compliance with the setback requirements established in R18-9-B201(I);

9. For a sewage treatment facility with design flow under one million gallons per day, a design report and engineering plans and specifications. The Director may waive this requirement if the Director previously approved engineering plans and specifications submitted by the same owner or operator for a sewage treatment facility with design flow of more than one million gallons per day;

10. A certification by an Arizona-registered professional engineer that all other aspects of the design, including pipe coding, auxiliary power sources, and separation requirements, comply with applicable statutes, rules, and codes.

B. In addition to the technical and financial capability requirements specified in R18-9-A202 and R18-9-A203, the following requirements apply if construction or expansion of a private sewage treatment facility has been approved for treatment of sewage from a subdivision under R18-5-402. These requirements do not apply to a subdivision where each lot has an on-site wastewater treatment facility as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201 for sewage disposal:

1. If responsibility for operation of the private sewage treatment facility will be conveyed to a homeowner's association or a private operator after construction, the applicant shall demonstrate that the homeowner's association or private operator is technically capable of carrying out the terms of the permit and all treatment performance requirements specified in R18-9-B204.

2. If responsibility for operation of the private sewage treatment facility will be conveyed to a homeowner's association or a private operator after construction, the applicant shall demonstrate that the homeowner's association or private operator is financially capable of carrying out the terms of the permit and all treatment performance requirements specified in R18-9-B204, including monitoring, recordkeeping, and assuring that the system is under continuous operational control by the correct classification of a certified operator, as specified in 18 A.A.C. 5, Article 1.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-B203. Application Review and Approval

A. To ensure that BADCT requirements are met, the Department shall ask to review engineering plans and specifications for a sewage treatment facility with a design flow of one million gallons per day or greater if:

1. The design report required in R18-9-B202(A) fails to provide sufficient detail to determine adequacy of the proposed sewage treatment facility design;

2. The described design is innovative and does not reflect treatment technologies generally accepted as demonstrated within the industry;

3. The Department's calculations of removal efficiencies based on the design report show that the treatment facility cannot achieve BADCT performance requirements;

4. The design report does not demonstrate:

a. Protection from physical damage due to a 100-year flood,

b. Ability to continuously operate during a 25-year flood, or

c. Provision for a standby power source.

5. The design report shows inconsistency in sizing or compatibility between two or more unit process components of the sewage treatment facility;

6. The designer of the facility has:

a. Designed a sewage treatment facility of at least a similar size on less than three previous occasions,

b. Designed a sewage treatment facility that has been the subject of a Director enforcement action due to the facility design, or

c. Been found by the Board of Technical Registration to have violated a provision of A.R.S. Title 32, Chapter 1.

7. The permittee seeks to expand its sewage treatment facility and the Department believes that BADCT will require upgrades to the design that have not been described and evaluated in the design report.

B. The Department shall review engineering plans and specifications and a design report upon request by an applicant seeking a permit for a sewage treatment facility, regardless of its flow.

C. The Department may inspect an applicant's facility without notice to ensure that construction generally conforms to the design report.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-B204. Treatment Performance Requirements For New Facilities

A. An owner or operator of a new sewage treatment facility shall ensure that the facility meets the following performance requirements upon release of the treated wastewater at the outfall:

1. Secondary treatment levels.

a. Five-day biochemical oxygen demand (BOD

5

) less than 30 mg/l (30-day average) and 45 mg/l (seven-day average), or carbonaceous biochemical oxygen demand (CBOD

5

) less than 25 mg/l (30-day average) or 40 mg/l (seven-day average);

b. Total suspended solids (TSS) less than 30 mg/l (30-day average) and 45 mg/l (seven-day average);

c. pH maintained between 6.0 and 9.0 standard units; and

d. A removal efficiency of 85% for BOD

5

CBOD

5

and TSS.

2. Secondary treatment by waste stabilization ponds is not considered BADCT unless an applicant demonstrates to the Department that site-specific hydrologic and geologic characteristics and other environmental factors are sufficient to justify use of ponds or this method of treatment.

3. Total nitrogen in the treated wastewater is less than 10 mg/l (five-month rolling geometric mean). If an applicant demonstrates, using appropriate monitoring that soil aquifer treatment will produce a total nitrogen concentration of less than 10 mg/l in wastewater that percolates to groundwater, the Department may approve soil aquifer treatment for removal of total nitrogen as an alternative to meeting the performance requirement of 10 mg/l at the outfall.

4. Pathogen removal.

a. A sewage treatment facility with a design flow of less than 250,000 gallons per day. A fecal coliform limit of 200 colony forming units per 100 ml (seven-sample median) and 800 colony forming units per 100 ml (single sample maximum) applies if:

i. Depth to the seasonally high groundwater table is greater than 20 feet, and

ii. The system is not located above karstic or fractured bedrock.

b. Any other sewage treatment facility. A fecal coliform limit, using the membrane filter technique, of 2.2 colony forming units per 100 ml (seven-sample median) and less than 23 colony forming units per 100 ml (single sample maximum), or equivalent numbers using the multiple tube fermentation method, applies. Unit treatment processes, such as chlorination-dechlorination, ultraviolet, and ozone may be used to achieve this standard.

c. The Department may approve soil aquifer treatment for the removal of fecal coliform as an alternative to meeting the performance requirement in subsection (B)(4)(b), if the soil aquifer treatment process will produce a fecal coliform concentration less than that required under subsection (B)(4)(b) in wastewater that percolates to groundwater.

5. Unless governed by A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I), the performance requirement for each constituent regulated under R18-11-406(B) through (E) is the numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standard.

6. The performance requirement for a constituent regulated under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I) is removal to the greatest extent practical regardless of cost.

a. An operator shall minimize trihalomethane compounds generated as disinfection byproducts using chlorination, dechlorination, ultraviolet, or ozone as the disinfection system or using a technology demonstrated to have equivalent or better performance for removing or preventing triahalomethane compounds.

b. For other pollutants regulated by A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I), an operator shall use one of the following methods to achieve industrial pretreatment:

i. Regulate industrial sources of influent to the sewage treatment facility by setting limits on pollutant concentrations, monitoring for pollutants, and enforcing the limits to reduce, eliminate, or alter the nature of a pollutant before release into a sewage collection system; or

ii. Meet the pretreatment requirements of Section 307 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act; or

iii. For sewage treatment facilities without significant industrial input, conduct periodic monitoring to detect industrial discharge.

7. A maximum seepage rate less than 550 gallons per day per acre for all containment structures within the treatment works. A sewage treatment facility that consists solely of containment structures with no other form of discharge complies with this Part by operating below the maximum 550 gallon per day per acre seepage rate.

B. The Director shall incorporate treated wastewater discharge limitations and associated monitoring specified in this Section into the individual permit to ensure compliance with the BADCT requirements.

C. An applicant shall formally request and justify an alternative that allows less stringent performance than that established in this Section, based on the criteria specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B)(1), including in the justification a consideration of site-specific hydrologic and geologic characteristics and other environmental factors, facility size, method of wastewater disposal or direct reuse, proportion of sewage to total industrial wastewater volume, and the seasonality of the service area for the sewage treatment facility. If a request involves treatment or disposal works that are a demonstration, experimental, or pilot project, the Department shall take into account the factors and may issue an individual permit that places greater reliance on monitoring to ensure operational capability.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-B205. Treatment Performance Requirements for Existing Facility

For an existing sewage treatment facility, the BADCT shall conform with the following:

1. The designer shall identify one or more design improvements that brings the facility closer to or within the treatment performance requirements specified in R18-9-B204, considering the factors listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(B)(1)(a) and (B)(1)(c) through (B)(1)(h),

2. The designer may eliminate from consideration alternatives identified in subsection (1) that are more expensive than the number of gallons of design flow times $0.05 per gallon, and

3. The designer shall select as the BADCT for the facility a design that incorporates one or more of the considered alternatives by giving preference to measures that will provide the greatest improvement toward meeting the treatment performance requirements specified in R18-9-B204.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-B206. Treatment Performance Requirements for Expansion of a Permitted Facility

For an expansion of a sewage treatment facility with a current individual permit, the BADCT shall conform with the following:

1. New facility BADCT requirements of R18-9-B204:

a. Continue to apply for the part of the facility that conformed to the BADCT requirements for a new facility at the last permit issuance;

b. Apply to the addition of a process or major piece of production equipment, building, or structure that is physically separate from a facility and causes discharge; and

c. Apply to the part of the facility that has not been required to conform to BADCT requirements for new facilities, if a facility or part of a facility has undergone or will undergo any change identified in R18-9-A211(B)(2).

2. BADCT requirements for existing facilities established in R18-9-B205 apply to expansions not covered by subsections (1)(a), (1)(b), or (1)(c).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4). Amended to correct a manifest typographical error in subsection (1) (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - GENERAL PERMITS"> <dwc name="microorgan" times="6"><dwc name="bacteria" times="2"><dwc name="total coliform" times="21"><dwc name="coliform" times="27"><dwc name="enter" times="15"><dwc name="disinfect" times="25"><dwc name="disinfect byproduct" times="1"><dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="2"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="radioact" times="1">

AQUIFER PROTECTION PERMITS - GENERAL PERMITS

PART A. GENERAL PROVISIONS

R18-9-A301. Discharging Under a General Permit

A. Discharging Requirements.

1. Type 1 General Permit. A person may discharge under a Type 1 General Permit without submitting a Notice of Intent to Discharge if the discharge is authorized by and meets:

a. The requirements of Article 3, Part A of this Chapter; and

b. The specific terms of the applicable Type 1 General Permit, established in Article 3, Part B of this Chapter.

2. Type 2 General Permit. A person may discharge under a Type 2 General Permit if:

a. The discharge is authorized by and meets the requirements of Article 3, Part A of this Chapter and the specific terms of the applicable Type 2 General Permit established in Article 3, Part C of this Chapter;

b. The person files a Notice of Intent to Discharge under subsection (B); and

c. The person submits the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

3. Type 3 General Permit. A person may discharge under a Type 3 General Permit if:

a. The discharge is authorized by and meets the requirements of Article 3, Part A of this Chapter and the specific terms of the applicable Type 3 General Permit established in Article 3, Part D of this Chapter; and

b. The person files a Notice of Intent to Discharge under subsection (B);

c. The person satisfies any deficiency requests from the Department regarding the administrative completeness review and substantive review and receives a written Verification of General Permit Conformance from the Director; and

d. The person submits the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

4. Type 4 General Permit. A person may discharge under a Type 4 General Permit if:

a. The discharge is authorized by and meets the requirements of Article 3, Part A of this Chapter and the specific terms of the applicable Type 4 General Permit, established in Article 3, Part E of this Chapter;

b. The person files a Notice of Intent to Discharge under subsection (B);

c. The person satisfies any deficiency requests from the Department regarding the administrative completeness review and substantive review, including deficiencies relating to the construction of the facility, and receives a written Verification of General Permit Conformance from the Director; and

d. The person submits the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge.

1. A person seeking a general permit under subsections (A)(2), (A)(3), or (A)(4) shall submit, by certified mail, in person, or by another method approved by the Department, a Notice of Intent to Discharge on a form provided by the Department.

2. The Notice of Intent to Discharge shall include:

a. The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;

b. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

c. The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person familiar with the operation of the facility;

d. The name, position, address, and telephone number of the owner or operator of the facility who has overall responsibility for compliance with the permit;

e. The legal description of the discharge areas, including the latitude and longitude coordinates;

f. A narrative description of the facility or project, including expected dates of operation, rate, and volume of discharge;

g. The information required for the general permit;

h. A listing of any other federal or state environmental permits issued for or needed by the facility, including any individual permit, Groundwater Quality Protection Permit, or Notice of Disposal that may have previously authorized the discharge; and

i. A signature on the Notice of Intent to Discharge certifying that the permittee agrees to comply with all requirements of this Article, including specific terms of the applicable general permit.

3. Receipt of a completed Notice of Intent to Discharge by the Department begins the administrative completeness review.

C. Type 3 General Permit review.

1. Inspection. The Department may inspect the facility to determine that the applicable terms of the general permit have been met.

2. Verification issuance.

a. If the Department determines, based on its review and an inspection, if conducted, that the facility conforms with the requirements of the general permit and the applicable requirements of this Article the Director shall issue a Verification of General Permit Conformance.

b. The Verification of General Permit Conformance authorizes the person to discharge under terms of the general permit and applicable requirements of this Article.

3. Verification denial. If the Department determines, based on its review and an inspection, if conducted, that the discharge does not conform to the requirements of the general permit or other applicable requirements of this Article, the Director shall notify the person of its decision not to issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance and the person shall not discharge under the general permit. The notification shall inform the person of:

a. The reason for the denial with reference to the statute or rule on which the denial is based;

b. The person's right to appeal the denial, including the number of days the applicant has to file a protest challenging the denial and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process; and

c. The person's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

D. Type 4 General Permit review.

1. Pre-construction phase and facility construction.

a. Inspection. The Department may inspect the facility site before construction to determine that the applicable terms of the general permit will be met.

b. Review. If the Department determines, based on its review of, design plans, specifications, or other required documents, or an inspection, that the facility does not conform with the requirements of the general permit or other applicable requirements of this Article, the Department shall make a written request for additional information.

c. Notification of provisional verification. If the Department determines, based on the review described in subsection (D)(1)(b) and any additional information submitted in response to a written request, that the facility design conforms with the requirements of the general permit and other applicable requirements of this Article, the Director shall provide a notification of Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance to the person seeking to discharge.

d. Notification of failure to conform to general permit requirements. If the Department determines, based on the review described in subsection (D)(1)(b) and any additional information submitted in response to a written request, that the facility design does not conform to the terms of the general permit and other applicable requirements of this Article, the Director shall notify the person seeking to discharge of its decision not to issue a Verification of General Permit Conformance. The notification shall follow the requirements of subsection (D)(2)(d).

e. Construction.

i. The person seeking to discharge shall not begin facility construction until the Director provides notification of Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance.

ii. The person seeking verification to discharge may take up to two years to complete construction.

iii. Construction shall conform with the plans and documents verified by the Department under subsection (D)(1)(b). A change in location, configuration, dimension, depth, material, or installation procedure does not require approval by the Department if the change continues to conform with the specific standard in this Article used as the basis for the original design.

iv. All changes made during construction, including any changes approved under R18-9-A312(G), shall be recorded on the site plan as specified in R18-9-A309(C)(1) or on applicable documents as specified in R18-9-A309(C)(2), as applicable.

f. Completion of construction.

i. After completing construction of the facility, the person seeking to discharge shall submit to the Department the applicable verification documents specified in R18-9-A309(C). Receipt of the documents by the Department initiates the post-construction review phase.

ii. If the Department receives no verification documents by the end of the two-year construction period, the Notice of Intent to Discharge expires, and the person shall not continue construction or discharge.

iii. If the Notice of Intent to Discharge expires, the person shall submit a new Notice of Intent to Discharge under subsection (B) to begin or continue construction.

2. Post-construction phase.

a. Inspection. The Department may inspect the facility before issuing a Verification of General Permit Conformance to determine that:

i. The construction conforms with the design verified by the Department under subsection (D)(2)(c) and any changes recorded on the site plan as specified by R18-9-A309(C)(1) or other documents as specified by R18-9-A309(C)(2), as applicable;

ii. Terms of the general permit and applicable terms of this Article will be met.

b. Deficiencies. If the Department identifies deficiencies in the constructed facility or in documents submitted in fulfillment of the Verification of General Permit Conformance, the Director shall provide a written explanation of the deficiencies to the person.

c. Verification of General Permit Conformance.

i. Upon satisfactory completion of construction and documents required under R18-9-A309(C)(1) or R18-9-A309(C)(2), as applicable, the Director shall issue a Verification of General Permit Conformance.

ii. The Verification of General Permit Conformance authorizes the person to discharge under terms of the general permit and applicable requirements of this Article.

d. Verification denial. If, after receiving evidence of correction submitted by the person seeking to discharge, the Department determines that the deficiencies are not satisfactorily corrected, the Director shall notify the person of the Director's decision not to issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance and the person shall not discharge under the general permit. The notification shall inform the person of:

i. The reason for the denial with reference to the statute or rule on which the denial is based;

ii. The person's right to appeal the denial, including the number of days the applicant has to file a protest challenging the denial and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process; and

iii. The person's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A302. Point of Compliance

The point of compliance is the point at which compliance with Aquifer Water Quality Standards is determined.

1. Except as provided in this Section or as stated in a specific general permit, the applicable point of compliance at a facility operating under a general permit is a vertical plane downgradient of the facility that extends through the uppermost aquifers underlying that facility.

2. The point of compliance is the limit of the pollutant management area.

a. The pollutant management area is the horizontal plane of the area on which pollutants are or will be placed.

b. If a facility operating under a general permit is located within a larger pollutant management area established under an individual permit issued to the same person, the point of compliance is the applicable point of compliance established in the individual permit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A303. Permit Renewal

A. Unless a general permit is transferred, a facility is authorized to discharge under the general permit for the operational life of the facility, including any closure activities required by a specific general permit.

B. A permittee shall submit the application for renewal on a form provided by the Department with the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14 at least 90 days before the end of the renewal period.

1. The following are the renewal periods for Type 2 General Permits and Type 3 General Permits:

a. 2.01 General Permit, five years;

b. 2.02 General Permit, seven years;

c. 2.03 General Permit, two years;

d. Type 3 General Permits, five years.

2. The renewal period for a Type 2 General Permit begins on the date of the Department's receipt of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

3. The renewal period for a Type 3 General Permit begins on the date that the Director issues the written Verification of General Permit Conformance.

C. If the general permit is not renewed within the renewal period specified in subsection (B)(1), the general permit expires.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A304. Notice of Transfer

A. If a change of ownership occurs for a Type 2, Type 3, or Type 4 General Permit facility, the permittee shall provide a Notice of Transfer to the Department by certified mail within 15 days after the date that ownership changes. The Notice of Transfer shall include:

1. Any information that has changed from the original Notice of Intent to Discharge,

2. Any other transfer requirements specified for the general permit, and

3. The applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

B. The Department may require a Type 2, Type 3, or Type 4 General Permit permittee to submit a new Notice of Intent to Discharge and to obtain new verifications under R18-9-A301(A)(3), and (A)(4), as applicable, if the volume or characteristics of the discharge have changed from the original application.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A305. Facility Expansion

A. A Type 2 General Permit facility may be expanded if, before the expansion, the permittee provides the Department with the following information by certified mail:

1. An updated Notice of Intent to Discharge,

2. A certification signed by the facility owner stating that the expansion continues to meet all the conditions of the applicable general permit, and

3. The applicable fee established under 18 A.A.C. 14.

B. A Type 3 or Type 4 General Permit facility may be expanded contingent on review and verification by the Department of a new Notice of Intent to Discharge.

1. The person submitting the Notice of Intent to Discharge for the expansion may reference the previous Notice of Intent to Discharge if the previous information is identical, but shall provide full and detailed information for any changed items.

2. The Notice of Intent to Discharge shall include:

a. Any applicable fee established by 18 A.A.C. 14, and

b. A certification signed by the facility owner stating that the expansion continues to meet all of the requirements relating to the applicable general permit.

3. Upon receiving the Notice of Intent to Discharge, the Department shall follow the applicable review and verification procedures described in R18-9-A301(A)(3) or (A)(4).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A306. Closure

A. In addition to the closure requirements specified in a general permit, a permittee shall submit the closure plan specified under A.R.S. &#167; 49-252.

B. The closure plan submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-252 meets the clean closure requirement if the permittee:

1. Removes material that may contribute to a continued discharge; and

2. Eliminates, to the greatest degree practical, any reasonable probability of further discharge from the facility and of exceeding Aquifer Water Quality Standards at the applicable point of compliance.

C. For an on-site wastewater treatment facility or a 1.09 General Permit facility, a permittee shall comply with the requirements of R18-9-A309(D) to meet the requirements of this Section.

D. For a facility operating under a general permit and located at a site where an individual area-wide permit has been issued, a permittee may defer some or all closure activities required by this subsection if the Director approves the deferral in writing. The closure activities shall be performed no later than the closure activities identified in the individual area-wide permit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A307. Permit Revocation

A. The Director shall revoke a general permit and require the permittee to obtain an individual permit for any of the following:

1. The permittee fails to comply with the terms of the general permit as described in this Article, or

2. The discharge activity conducted under the terms of a general permit causes or contributes to the violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard at the applicable point of compliance.

B. The Director shall revoke a general permit for any or all facilities within a specific geographic area, if, due to geologic or hydrologic conditions, the cumulative discharge of the facilities has violated or will violate an Aquifer Water Quality Standard established under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-221 and 49-223. Unless the public health or safety is jeopardized, the Director may allow continuation of a discharge for the revoked general permit until the Department:

1. Processes the application for a single individual permit, or

2. Consolidates the general permits and issues a single individual permit to a political subdivision that has jurisdiction over the specific geographic area.

C. Unless allowed under subsection (B), if the Director revokes a permit, the facility shall not discharge.

D. The Director shall notify a permittee by certified mail of its decision to revoke a general permit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A308. Violations and Enforcement For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. A person who owns or operates an on-site wastewater treatment facility contrary to the provisions of a Type 4 General Permit is subject to the enforcement actions under A.R.S. &#167; 49-261;

B. A person who violates this Article or a specific term of a general permit for an on-site wastewater treatment facility is subject to enforcement actions under A.R.S. &#167; 49-261.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A309. General Provisions For Type 4 General Permits Concerning On-site Wastewater Treatment Systems

A. General requirements and prohibitions.

1. Sewage or wastewater that contains sewage shall not be discharged from an on-site wastewater treatment facility except under an Aquifer Protection Permit issued by the Director.

2. A person shall not install, allow to be installed, or maintain a connection between any part of an on-site wastewater treatment facility and a drinking water system or supply so that sewage or wastewater contaminates the drinking water.

3. A person shall not bypass untreated sewage from an on-site wastewater treatment facility.

4. A person shall not use a cesspool for sewage disposal.

5. The Department shall require connection to a sewage collection system if the connection is practical. A connection is practical if the distance to connect to the sewer is 400 feet or less and the total cost of the connection is less than $6000 if capacity is available and performance of the sewage collection system and receiving sewage treatment facility are not impaired.

6. The Department shall prohibit installation of an on-site wastewater treatment facility if the installation will create an unsanitary condition or environmental nuisance or cause or contribute to a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard.

7. A permittee shall service or repair an operating on-site wastewater treatment facility, or install a replacement facility if the facility has created or if its use creates an unsanitary condition or environmental nuisance or has caused or causes a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard.

8. A permittee shall operate the permitted on-site wastewater treatment facility so that:

a. Flows to the facility consist of typical sewage and do not include any motor oil, gasoline, paint, varnish, solvent, pesticide, fertilizer, or other material not generally associated with toilet flushing, food preparation, laundry, and personal hygiene;

b. Flows to the facility from commercial operations do not contain hazardous substances or hazardous wastes, as defined under A.R.S. &#167; 49-921(5);

c. A typical sewage flow with a component of flow from nonresidential food preparation or laundry service is adequately pretreated by an interceptor that complies with R18-9-A315 or another device authorized by a general permit or approved by the Department under R18-9-A312(G);

d. Except as provided in subsection (A)(8)(c), a sewage flow that does not meet the numerical levels for typical sewage is adequately pretreated to meet the numerical levels before entry into an on-site wastewater treatment facility authorized by this Article;

e. Flow to the facility does not exceed the design flow specified in the Verification of General Permit Conformance;

f. Activities at the site do not adversely affect the operation of the facility.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit the following information in a format approved by the Department:

1. A site investigation report that summarizes the results of the site investigation conducted under R18-9-A310(C), including:

a. Results from any soil evaluation, percolation test, or seepage pit performance test; and

b. Any limiting site conditions identified by the site investigation.

2. A site plan that includes:

a. The parcel and lot number, if applicable, the property address or other appropriate legal description, the property size in acres, and the boundaries of the property on which the on-site wastewater treatment facility will be installed;

b. A plan of the site drawn to scale, dimensioned, and with a north arrow that shows:

i. Proposed and existing on-site wastewater treatment facilities; dwellings and other buildings; driveways, swimming pools, tennis courts, wells, ponds, and any other paved, concrete, or water feature; and cut banks, retaining walls, and any other constructed feature that affects proper location, design, construction, or operation of the facility;

ii. Any feature less than 200 feet outside the property boundary that constrains the location of the on-site wastewater treatment facility because of setback limitations specified in R18-9-A312(C);

iii. Topography, delineated with an appropriate contour interval, showing original and post-installation grades;

iv. Location and identification of the treatment and disposal works and connecting pipelines, the reserve disposal area, and location and identification of all sites of percolation testing and soil evaluation performed under R18-9-A310; and

v. Location of any public sewer if 400 feet or less from the property line.

c. For improvements in areas in which occupancy of property may depend on installation of a drinking water well and an on-site wastewater treatment facility, the location of features within the boundaries of each adjoining undeveloped property if setback requirements may mutually constrain well, cut bank, and on-site wastewater treatment facility locations.

3. Design flow, sources of flow, and characteristics of the sewage. The applicant shall calculate the design flow from a list included with the site plan showing the applicable unit sewage flows into the on-site wastewater treatment facility. The applicant shall prepare this list based on Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows and include the number of bedrooms and plumbing fixtures if the facility serves a residence.

4. Construction quality drawings that show the following:

a. Systems, subsystems, and key components, including manufacturer's name, model number, and associated construction notes and inspection milestones, as applicable;

b. A title block, including facility owner, revision date, space for addition of the Department's application number, and page numbers;

c. A plan and profile with the elevations of treatment and disposal components, including calculations justifying the absorption area, to allow Department verification of hydraulic and performance characteristics;

d. Cross sections showing construction details and elevations of treatment and disposal components, original and finished grades of the land surface, seasonal high water table if less than 10 feet below the bottom of a disposal field or 60 feet below the bottom of a seepage pit, and a soil elevation evaluation to allow the Department to verify installation design and performance;

e. Drainage pattern, drainage controls, and erosion protection, as applicable, for the facility; and

f. Construction quality drawings are not required if the entire facility at the site, including treatment and disposal works, is permitted under R18-9-E302.

5. A list of materials, components, and equipment for constructing the on-site wastewater treatment facility. A list is not required if the entire facility at the site, including treatment and disposal works, is permitted under R18-9-E302.

6. An operation and maintenance plan required by R18-9-A313 for the on-site wastewater treatment facility. An operation and maintenance plan is not required if the entire facility at the site, including treatment and disposal works, is permitted under R18-9-E302.

7. Drawings, reports, and other information that are clear, reproducible, and in a size and format specified by the Department. An applicant may submit the drawings in an electronic format approved by the Department.

C. Additional verification of general permit conformance requirements.

1. If the entire on-site wastewater treatment facility at the site, including treatment and disposal works, is permitted under the 4.02 General Permit, the Director shall issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance only if the site plan accurately reflects the final location and configuration of the components of the treatment and disposal works.

2. If the facility is permitted under any 4.03 through 4.23 General Permit, either separately or in some combination of these permits or the 4.02 General Permit, the Director shall issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance only if the following record documents have been submitted:

a. As-built plans;

b. A final list of equipment and materials, if different from the list specified in subsection (B)(5);

c. A final operation and maintenance plan;

d. Other documents, if required by the separate general permits; and

e. A Certificate of Completion signed by the person responsible for assuring that installation of the facility conforms with the design approved under the Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance.

3. The Director shall specify in the Verification of General Permit Conformance:

a. The permitted design flow of the facility,

b. The characteristics of the wastewater sources contributing to the facility, and

c. A list of the record documents accepted by the Department satisfying subsection (C)(2).

D. Closure requirements. A permittee who permanently discontinues use of, wishes to close an on-site wastewater treatment facility, or is ordered by the Director to close an abandoned facility shall:

1. Remove all sewage from the facility and dispose of the sewage in a lawful manner;

2. Disconnect and remove electrical and mechanical components;

3. Remove or collapse the top of any tank or containment structure;

a. Fill the tank or containment structure or any cavity resulting from its removal with earth, sand, gravel, concrete, or other approved material; and

b. Regrade the surface to provide positive drainage.

4. Cut and plug both ends of the abandoned sewer drain pipe between the building and the on-site wastewater treatment facility not more than five feet outside the building foundation if practical, or cut and plug as close to each end as possible; and

5. Notify the applicable county health or environmental department within 30 days of closure.

E. Proprietary and other reviewed products.

1. The Department shall maintain a list of proprietary and other reviewed products that may be used for on-site wastewater treatment facilities to comply with the requirements of this Article. The list shall include appropriate information on the applicability and limitations of each product.

2. The list of proprietary and other reviewed products may include manufactured systems, subsystems, or components within the treatment works and disposal works if the products significantly contribute to the treatment performance of the system or provide the means to overcome site limitations. The Department shall not list components that do not significantly affect treatment performance or provide the means to overcome site limitations.

3. A person may request that the Department add a product to the list of proprietary and other reviewed products. The request may include a proposed reference design for review. The Department may assess fees for product review.

4. The Director may contract for services in administering this subsection.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A310. Site Investigation For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. Definition. For purposes of this Section, "clean water" means water free of colloidal material or additives that could affect chemical or physical properties if the water is used for percolation testing or testing of seepage pit performance.

B. The investigator shall perform a site investigation if an on-site wastewater treatment facility is proposed for installation. The applicant shall submit the following information in a format prescribed by the Department and shall provide sufficient data to:

1. Determine if any of the following limiting conditions exist:

a. The soil absorption rate determined by the requirements of this Article is more than 1.20 gallons per square foot per day;

b. The soil absorption rate determined by the requirements of this Article is less than 0.13 gallons per square foot per day;

c. The vertical separation distance from the bottom of the lowest point of the disposal system to the seasonal high water table is less than the minimum vertical separation specified by R18-9-A312(E), or seasonal saturation at the surface occurs;

d. The surface slope is greater than 15% at the intended location of the on-site wastewater treatment facility;

e. Minimum setback distances are not within acceptable limits as specified in R18-9-A312(C);

f. The vertical separation distance from the bottom of the lowest point of the disposal system to a subsurface condition that will cause surfacing of wastewater at the design flow rate or provide a direct conduit to the aquifer is less than the minimum vertical separation specified by R18-9-A312(E);

g. Surface drainage characteristics at the intended location of the on-site wastewater treatment facility will adversely affect the ability of the facility to function properly; or

h. The vertical separation distance from the bottom of the lowest point of the disposal system to a subsurface condition that will convey wastewater to a water of the state to cause or contribute to a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard established under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 2 is less than the minimum vertical separation specified under R18-9-A312(E).

2. Allow selection of an appropriate on-site wastewater treatment facility for the site considering all limiting conditions that exist;

3. Effectively locate, design, and install a properly operating on-site wastewater treatment facility to serve the anticipated development at the site, whether or not limiting conditions exist.

C. The site investigation shall include the determination of soil characteristics using one or more of the following methods:

1. "Standard Practice for Surface Site Characterization for On-site Septic Systems" published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (D 5879-95

E1

), approved December 10, 1995;

2. "Standard Practice for Subsurface Site Characterization of Test Pits for On-Site Septic Systems," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (D 5921-96

E1

), approved February 10, 1996;

3. "Standard Practice for Soil Investigation and Sampling by Auger Borings," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (D 1452-80), reapproved 1995, if the depth to groundwater may be within the required minimum vertical separation from the bottom of the disposal field.

a. The information listed in subsections (C)(1), (C)(2), and (C)(3) is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter.

b. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.

4. Percolation testing as specified in subsection (E);

5. Seepage pit performance testing as specified in subsection (F);

6. Other methods of soil evaluation, as approved by the Department, that ensure compliance with Aquifer Water Quality Standards through proper system location, selection, design, installation, and operation.

D. Applicability of soil characterization methods.

1. For a seepage pit constructed under the 4.02 General Permit, the investigator shall test seepage pit performance using the procedure specified in subsection (F).

2. Soil characterization using one or more of the American Society for Testing and Materials methods specified in subsections (C)(1), (C)(2), and (C)(3) shall be used if one or more of the following site conditions exists:

a. The natural surface slope at the intended location of the on-site wastewater treatment facility, including the disposal field reserve area, is greater than 15%;

b. Bedrock, or similar consolidated rock formation that cannot be excavated with a shovel, outcrops from the lot or is known to exist less than 10 feet below the land surface;

c. The native soil at the surface or encountered in a boring, trench, or hole consists of more than 35% rock fragments greater than three inches across;

d. The seasonal high water table is known to occur within 10 feet of the natural land surface or seasonal saturation at the natural land surface occurs as indicated by soil mottling, vegetation adapted to near-surface saturated soils, nearby springs, seeps, or surface water bodies, or well records that indicate high water table conditions beneath the intended location; or

e. A percolation test yields results outside the limits specified in subsection (B)(1)(a) and (B)(1)(b).

3. Percolation testing as specified in subsection (C)(4) or another method of soil evaluation approved by the Department under subsection (C)(6) may be used to augment soil characterization specified in subsection (D)(2) if useful to locate or design an on-site wastewater treatment facility.

4. Percolation testing as specified in subsection (C)(4) or another method of soil evaluation approved by the Department under subsection (C)(6) shall be used as the sole method of soil characterization if a soil characterization method specified in subsection (D)(2) is not required.

5. Unless testing under subsection (C)(5) is required, the Department shall accept a soil characterization method specified in subsection (D)(2) as the sole soil characterization method.

E. Percolation testing.

1. Planning and Preparation. The investigator shall:

a. Select a sufficient number of sites for percolation testing to provide adequate and credible information to ensure proper location, selection, design, and installation of a properly working on-site wastewater treatment facility and reserve drainfield. At least two sites shall be selected, one in the primary disposal area and one in the reserve disposal area;

b. Perform percolation testing at each site at appropriate depths within the soil profile to establish the absorption capability of the soil in the primary and reserve disposal areas and to help determine the vertical separation necessary to achieve effective wastewater treatment in the zone of unsaturated flow below the drainfield system. The investigator shall perform percolation tests at multiple depths if there is an indication of an obvious change in soil characteristics that appreciably affect the location, selection, design, installation, or disposal performance of the on-site wastewater treatment facility. The bottom of the percolation test hole is the reference elevation and depth for recordkeeping;

c. Excavate percolation test holes in undisturbed soil at least 12 inches deep with a cross section of 12 inches square, if square, or a diameter of 15 inches, if round. The investigator shall not alter the structure of the soil during the excavation;

d. Place percolation test holes away from site or soil features that yield unrepresentative or misleading data pertaining to the location, selection, design, installation, or performance of the on-site wastewater treatment facility;

e. Scarify smeared soil surfaces within the percolation test holes and remove any loosened materials from the bottom of the hole; and

f. Use buckets with holes in the sides to support the sidewalls of the percolation test hole, if necessary. Any voids between the walls of the hole and the bucket shall be filled with pea gravel to reduce the impact of the enlarged hole.

2. Presoaking procedure. The investigator shall:

a. Fill the percolation test hole to a depth of 12 inches above the bottom of the hole with clean water;

b. Observe the decline of the water level in the hole and record time in minutes for the water to completely drain away;

c. Repeat the steps specified in subsection (E)(2)(a) and (E)(2)(b) if the water drains away in less than 60 minutes. If the water drains away the second time in less than 60 minutes, the inspector shall repeat the steps specified in subsections (E)(2)(a) and (E)(2)(b) again. If the water drains away again in less than 60 minutes, the percolation test shall be performed following subsection (E)(3); and

d. Add clean water to the hole after 60 minutes and maintain the water at a minimum depth of nine inches for at least four more hours if the water drains away in 60 minutes or greater. The inspector shall protect the hole from precipitation and runoff, and the percolation test specified in subsection (E)(3) shall be performed between 16 and 24 hours after presoaking.

3. Conducting the test. The investigator shall:

a. Conduct the percolation test before soil hydraulic conditions established by the presoaking procedure substantially change. Any loose materials in the percolation test hole shall be removed to ensure that the specified dimensions of the hole are maintained and the infiltration surfaces are undisturbed native soil;

b. Fill the test hole to a depth of six inches above the bottom with clean water;

c. Observe the decline of the water level in the percolation test hole and determine and record the time in minutes for the water level to fall exactly one inch from a fixed reference point. The investigator shall immediately refill the hole with clean water to a depth of six inches above the bottom, and shall determine and record the time in minutes for the water level to fall exactly one inch. The hole again shall be immediately refilled with clean water to a depth of six inches above the bottom and the time for the water to fall exactly one inch shall be determined and recorded. The investigator shall ensure that the method for measuring water level depth is accurate and does not significantly affect the percolation rate of the test hole;

d. Use the stabilized percolation rate as the basis for design if, when three consecutive measurements vary by no more than 10%. If three consecutive measurements indicate that the percolation rate results are not stabilizing or the percolation rate is between 60 and 120 minutes per inch, an alternate method based on a graphical solution of the test data shall be used to approximate the stabilized percolation rate; and

e. Record the percolation rate results in minutes per inch. The submittal of percolation test results to the Department shall include a log of the soil formations encountered; the percent of rock fragments; the texture, structure, consistence, mottles, and depth to groundwater; whether and which test hole was reinforced with a bucket; and locations and depths or elevations of the percolation test holes on the site investigation map.

F. Seepage pit performance testing. An investigator shall test seepage pits described in R18-9-E302 as follows:

1. Planning and Preparation. The investigator shall:

a. Identify primary and reserve disposal areas at the site. A test hole at least 18 inches in diameter shall be drilled in the primary disposal area to the depth of the bottom of the proposed seepage pit, at least 30 feet deep;

b. Scarify soil surfaces within the test hole and remove loosened materials from the bottom of the hole.

2. Presoaking procedure. The investigator shall:

a. Fill the bottom six inches of the test hole with gravel, if necessary, to prevent scouring;

b. Fill the test hole with clean water up to three feet below the land surface;

c. Observe the decline of the water level in the hole and determine the time in hours and minutes for the water to completely drain away;

d. Repeat the procedure if the water drains away in less than four hours; If the water drains away the second time in less than four hours, then the seepage pit performance test shall be conducted following subsection (F)(3);

e. Add water to the hole and maintain the water at a depth that leaves at least the top three feet of hole exposed to air for at least four more hours if the water drains away in four or more hours;

f. Not remove the water from the hole before the seepage pit performance test if there is standing water in the hole after at least 16 hours of presoaking.

3. Conducting the test. The investigator shall:

a. Fill the test hole with clean water up to three feet below land surface;

b. Observe the decline of the water level in the hole and determine and record the vertical distance to the water level from a fixed reference point every 10 minutes; The investigator shall ensure that the method for measuring water level depth is accurate and does not significantly affect the rate of fall of the water level in the test hole;

c. Measure the decline of the water level continually until three consecutive 10-minute measurements indicate that the infiltration rates are within 10%. If measurements indicate that infiltration is not approaching a steady rate or if the rate is close to a numerical limit specified in R18-9-A312(E), an alternate method based on a graphical solution of the test data shall be used to approximate the final stabilized infiltration rate;

d. Submit the seepage pit performance test results to the Department, including:

i. Data, calculations, and findings on a form provided by the Department;

ii. The log of the test hole indicating lithologic characteristics and points of change; and

iii. The location of the test hole on the site investigation map.

e. Fill the test hole so that groundwater quality and public safety are not compromised if the seepage pit is drilled elsewhere or if a seepage pit cannot be sited at the location because of unfavorable test results.

G. Soil evaluation procedures. If one or more of the soil evaluation procedures specified by subsection (C)(1), (C)(2), or (C)(3) are used, the following rules apply and the investigator shall:

1. Ensure that the number of test locations selected for soil evaluation are sufficient to provide adequate and credible information to ensure proper location, selection, design, and installation of a properly working on-site wastewater treatment facility and reserve drainfield. The investigator shall select at least two test locations, one in the primary disposal area and one in the reserve disposal area;

2. Perform a soil evaluation at each test location at appropriate depths within the soil profile to establish the capability of the soil in the primary and reserve disposal areas to absorb wastewater, and determine the vertical separation necessary to achieve effective wastewater treatment in the zone of unsaturated flow below the drainfield system;

3. Not conduct soil evaluations near site or soil features that yield unrepresentative or misleading data relating to the location, selection, design, installation, or performance of the on-site wastewater treatment facility;

4. Include the following in a soil evaluation:

a. A log of soil formations for each test location with information on soil type, texture, and classification; percentage of rock; structure; consistence; and mottles;

b. A determination of depth to ground water below the land surface by test holes, published groundwater data, subdivision reports, or relevant well data; and

c. A determination of the water absorption characteristics of the soil, under R18-9-A312(D)(2)(b), sufficient to allow location and design of the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A311. Facility Selection For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. A person seeking to install an on-site wastewater treatment facility described in R18-9-E302 may install the facility if the site investigation conducted under R18-9-A310 indicates that none of the limiting site conditions described in R18-9-A310(B) exist at the site, except as provided in subsection (C).

1. A seepage pit may be installed only in valley-fill sediments in a basin-and-range alluvial basin and only if the seepage pit performance test results meet the criteria specified in R18-9-A312(E).

2. The Notice of Intent to Discharge shall specify that none of the limiting site conditions described in R18-9-A310(B) were identified at the site.

B. The on-site wastewater treatment facility for the site shall be selected, designed, and installed to overcome the identified site limitations.

1. On-site treatment and disposal systems and technologies covered by Type 4 General Permits may be used alone or in combination to overcome the site limitations.

2. An applicant may submit a single Notice of Intent to Discharge for a system consisting of components or technologies covered by multiple general permits if the information submittal requirements of all the general permits are met.

3. The Director shall, except in unusual circumstances, issue a single Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance established under R18-9-A301(D)(2) for the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

C. A person seeking to install an on-site wastewater treatment facility shall select a facility that is appropriate for the site's geographic location, setback limitations, slope, topography, soil classification, wastewater infiltration capability, and depth to seasonally high groundwater table or other limiting subsurface condition. An on-site wastewater treatment facility described in R18-9-E302 shall not be used by itself at a site where limiting site conditions are identified, except the Department shall review and may approve a facility based on the procedures and conditions under R18-9-A312(G) if no more than one of the limiting site conditions specified by R18-9-A310(B)(1)(a), (B)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(d) exists.

D. If an on-site wastewater treatment facility, described in R18-9-E302, is suitable for a site and no limiting site conditions prevent its proper installation and operation, the Department shall not approve a system other than that described in R18-9-E302, unless the applicant supplies a statement with the Notice of Intent to Discharge justifying the use of a system not authorized under R18-9-E302.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A312. Facility Design For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. General design requirements. A person designing the on-site wastewater treatment facility shall:

1. Sign design documents submitted as part of the Notice of Intent to Discharge or subsequently to obtain a Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance, including plans, specifications, drawings, reports, and calculations; and

2. Locate and design the on-site wastewater treatment facility project using good design judgement and rely on appropriate design methods and calculations.

B. Design considerations and flow determination. A person designing the facility shall:

1. Design the facility to satisfy a 20 year operational life;

2. Design the facility based on design flow:

a. General Permits 4.02 through 4.22 apply only to facilities with a design flow of less than 3000 gallons per day.

b. General Permit 4.23 applies only to facilities with a design flow of 3000 gallons per day to less than 24,000 gallons per day;

3. Use Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows, to determine design flow;

4. Apply the following design requirements to on-site wastewater treatment facilities permitted under R18-9-E303 through R18-9-E323, as applicable:

a. Include the power source and power components in construction drawings if electricity or another type of power is necessary for facility operation;

b. Perform a linear loading rate analysis for subsurface wastewater flow if the site investigation indicates that an impermeable layer or seasonal high water table exists less than 10 feet below the bottom of the disposal works;

c. Design components, piping, ports, seals, and appurtenances to withstand installation loads, internal and external operational loads, and buoyant forces. Ports shall be designed for firmness of position, and openings shall be capped or covered for protection;

d. Design tanks, liners, ports, seals, piping, and appurtenances for watertightness under all operational conditions;

e. Provide adequate storage capacity above high operating level to:

i. Accommodate a 24-hour power or pump outage, and

ii. Contain wastewater that is incompletely treated or cannot be released by the disposal works to the native soil.

f. If a fixed media process is used, include the media material, installation specification, bed configuration, and wastewater loading rate at the daily design flow in construction drawings; and

g. Provide a fail-safe wastewater control mechanism, if required by the general permit, for total containment of incompletely treated wastewater.

C. Setbacks. The following setbacks apply unless the Department has authorized a different setback under the procedure specified in subsection (G), or has established a more stringent setback on a site- or area-specific basis to ensure compliance with water quality standards.

<table> Feature of Potential Impact Setback Distance (feet) Septic Tank Disposal Trench, Bed, or Seepage Pit Building (1) 10 10 Property line shared with adjoining land not served by a common drinking water system or an existing well (2) 50 50 All other property lines 5 5 Water supply well (public or private) 100 100 Perennial or intermittent stream (3) 100 100 Lake or reservoir (4) 100 100 Drinking water intake from a surface water source (includes an open water body, downgrade spring or a well tapping streamside saturated alluvium) 200 200 Drainage easement or wash with drainage area more than five acres (5) 50 50 Water main or branch water line 10 10 Domestic service water line (6) 5 5 Downslope cut banks and culvert or roadway ditches (7) 15 15 Driveway (8) 5 5 Swimming pool (9) 5 5 Easement (except drainage easement) 5 5 </table>

Notes:

(1) Includes porches, decks, and steps (covered or uncovered), breezeways, roofed patios, carports, covered walks and driveways, and similar structures and appurtenances.

(2) A common drinking water system is a system that currently serves or is under legal obligation to serve the property and may include a drinking water utility, a well sharing agreement, or other viable water supply agreement. A setback may be reduced to a minimum of five feet from the property line if:

a. The owners of any affected undeveloped adjacent properties agree by an appropriate written document to limit the location of any new well on their property to at least 100 feet from the proposed septic tank and primary and reserve disposal field areas; and

b. The arrangements and documentation are approved by the Department.

(3) Measured from the limit of peak streamflow from a 10-year, 24-hour rainfall event.

(4) Measured from the high water line from a 10-year, 24-hour rainfall event at the lake or reservoir.

(5) Measured from the nearest edge of the defined natural channel bank or drainage easement whichever is less. A setback may be reduced to 25 feet if natural or constructed erosion protection is approved by the appropriate flood plain administrator.

(6) The water line separation from sewer lines shall be as follows:

a. A water line crossing a sewer line at an angle of 45 to 90 degrees shall be one foot above the sewer line.

b. A water line crossing a sewer line at an angle of less than 45 degrees is not allowed.

c. A water line that is one to three feet from a sewer line but does not cross the sewer line shall be one foot above the sewer line and may be on a bench in the same trench or in a separate trench.

d. A water line that is less than one foot from a sewer line but does not cross the sewer line is not allowed.

(7) Measured to the top of the cut bank or ditch or to the nearest sidewall of the culvert. The setback to a disposal trench, bed, or seepage pit is 15 feet or four times the elevation difference between the finished grade of the disposal trench, bed, or seepage pit and the elevation at the cut bank bottom, ditch bottom, or culvert invert, whichever is greater, up to 50 feet.

(8) Measured to the nearest edge of septic tank excavation. A properly reinforced septic tank and cover may be placed at any location relative to a driveway if access openings, risers, and covers carry the design load and are protected from inflow.

(9) A setback may be increased due to soil loading and stability concerns.

__________________________________________________

D. Soil absorption rate (SAR) and disposal field sizing.

1. If soil characterization and percolation test methods yield different SAR values or if multiple applications of the same approach yield different values, the designer of the disposal field shall use the most conservative value unless a less conservative value is proposed and justified to the Department's satisfaction in the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

2. The maximum SAR used to calculate disposal field size for systems described in R18-9-E302 is as follows:

a. The SAR by percolation testing as described in R18-9-A310(E)(3) for shallow and deep disposal fields is determined from the results of percolation tests:

<table> Percolation Rate from Percolation Test (minutes per inch) SAR, Shallow Disposal Field (gal/day/ft 2 ) SAR, Deep Disposal Field (gal/day/ft 2 ) Less than 1.00 See Note See Note 1.00 to less than 3.00 1.20 0.93 3.00 1.10 0.73 4.00 1.00 0.67 5.00 0.90 0.60 7.00 0.75 0.50 10.0 0.63 0.42 15.0 0.50 0.33 20.0 0.44 0.29 25.0 0.40 0.27 30.0 0.36 0.24 35.0 0.33 0.22 40.0 0.31 0.21 45.0 0.29 0.20 50.0 0.28 0.19 55.0 0.27 0.18 55.0+ to 60.0 0.25 0.17 60.0+ to 120 0.20 0.13 Greater than 120 See Note See Note </table>

Note: A disposal field described in R18-9-E302 is not allowed unless approved by the Department under R18-9-A311(C).

b. The maximum SAR for shallow and deep disposal fields using the soil evaluation method described in R18-9-A310(G) is determined by answering the questions in the following table. The questions are read in sequence starting with "A." The first "yes" answer determines the maximum SAR used to calculate disposal field size for systems described in R18-9-E302.

<table> Sequence of Soil Characteristics Questions SAR, Shallow Disposal Field System (gallons per day per square foot) SAR, Deep Disposal Field System (gallons per day per square foot) A. Is the horizon gravelly coarse sand or coarser? See Note See Note B. Is the structure of the horizon moderate or strongly platy? See Note See Note C. Is the texture of the horizon sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam, or finer and the soil structure weak platy? See Note See Note D. Is the moist consistency stronger than firm or any cemented class? See Note See Note E. Is the texture sandy clay, clay, or silty clay of high clay content and the structure massive or weak? See Note See Note F. Is the texture sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam, or silty loam and the structure massive? See Note See Note G. Is the texture of the horizon loam or sandy loam and the structure massive? 0.20 0.13 H. Is the texture sandy clay, clay or silty clay of low clay content and the structure moderate or strong? 0.20 0.13 I. Is the texture sandy clay loam, clay loam, or silty clay loam and the structure weak? 0.20 0.13 J. Is the texture sandy clay loam, clay loam, or silty clay loam and the structure moderate or strong? 0.40 0.27 K. Is the texture sandy loam, loam, or silty loam and the structure weak? 0.40 0.27 L. Is the texture sandy loam, silt loam and the structure moderate or strong? 0.60 0.40 M. Is the texture fine sand, very fine sand, loamy fine sand, or loamy very fine sand? 0.40 0.27 N. Is the texture loamy sand or sand? 0.80 0.53 O. Is the texture coarse sand? 1.20 See Note </table>

Note: A disposal field described in R18-9-E302 is not allowed, unless approved by the Department under R18-9-A311(C) and an applicable SAR is provided.

c. For subsections (D)(2)(a) and (D)(2)(b), a shallow disposal field has a maximum depth below finished grade of five feet or less and a deep disposal field has a depth below finished grade of more than five feet.

3. For on-site wastewater treatment facilities described in a general permit other than R18-9-E302, the SAR is dependent on the ability of the facility to reduce the level of TSS and BOD

5

and is calculated using the following formula:

<img src="18-09-1.gif"/>a. "SAR

a

" is the adjusted soil absorption rate for disposal field design in gallons per day per square foot,

b. "TSS" is the total suspended solids in wastewater delivered to the disposal field in milligrams per liter,

c. "BOD

5

" is the five-day biochemical oxygen demand of wastewater delivered to the disposal field in milligrams per liter, and

d. "SAR" is the soil absorption rate for septic tank wastewater determined by the percolation test or soil evaluation procedure described in R18-9-A310.

4. A person designing the facility shall ensure that the on-site wastewater treatment facility has a reserve disposal field with an area equivalent to at least 100% of the original disposal field determined by subsections (D)(1) through (D)(3) to allow installation of a reserve field if the original disposal field cannot absorb all of the wastewater. A person shall not impair the usefulness of the reserve area by division of the property, construction of structures, or improvements on the property.

E. Minimum vertical separation.

1. The minimum vertical separation from the bottom of the lowest point of the disposal system to the top of the nearest limiting subsurface condition described in R18-9-A310(B)(1)(c), (B)(1)(f), and (B)(1)(h) for on-site wastewater treatment facilities described in R18-9-E302, is dependent on the soil absorption rate and is determined as follows:

<table> MAXIMUM SOIL ABSORPTION RATE (gallons per day per square foot) MINIMUM VERTICAL SEPARATION (feet) Shallow Disposal Field Deep Disposal Field Seepage Pit Shallow or Deep Disposal Field Seepage Pit 1.20+ 0.93+ 1.20+ Not allowed for septic tank effluent Not Allowed 0.63+ to 1.20 0.42 to 0.93 0.63+ to 1.20 10 60 0.20 to 0.63 0.13 to 0.42 0.36 to 0.63 5 25 Less than 0.20 Less than 0.13 Less than 0.36 Not allowed for septic tank effluent Not Allowed </table>

2. The allowable minimum vertical separation from the bottom of the constructed disposal field to the top of the nearest limiting subsurface condition is dependent on the ability of the facility to reduce the level of harmful microorganisms, expressed as total coliform in colony forming units per 100 milliliters (cfu/100 ml) delivered to native soil below the disposal works at least 95% of the time. A treatment works, disposal works, or a combination of these works that achieves a treatment level specified in the following table may be used to determine the corresponding minimum vertical separation:

<table> Total Coliform Concentration, 95th Percentile, Delivered to Natural Soil by the Disposal System (Log 10 of coliform concentration in cfu per 100 milliliters) Minimum Vertical Separation (feet) For SAR*, 0.20 to 0.63 For SAR*, 0.63+ to 1.20 8** 5 10 7 4 8 6 3.5 7 5 3 6 4 2.5 5 3 2 4 2 1.5 3 1 1 2 0*** 0 0 </table>

* Soil absorption rate from percolation testing or soil characterization, in gallons per square foot per day.

** Nominal value for a standard septic tank and disposal field (10

8

colony forming units per 100 ml).

*** Nominally free of coliform bacteria.

3. To determine the minimum vertical separation, the nearest limiting subsurface condition means a property of the soil or a zone in the subsurface that critically restricts or critically and adversely accelerates downward percolation of wastewater. Limiting subsurface conditions may include, but are not limited to, the seasonal high water table capillary fringe, a substantially impermeable layer of soil or rock, fractured rock, or soil with greater than 50% rock fragments.

F. Materials and manufactured system components.

1. Materials. If no materials specifications are required under this Article, aggregate may be used in disposal trenches or for other uses in an on-site wastewater treatment facility.

2. Manufactured components.

a. If manufactured components are used, the on-site wastewater treatment facility shall be designed, installed and operated following the manufacturer's specifications. The process described in subsection (G) shall be used to propose any deviation that is less stringent than the manufacturer's specifications.

b. Treatment and containment components, mechanical equipment, instrumentation, and controls shall have monitoring, inspection, access and cleanout ports or covers, as appropriate, for monitoring and service.

c. Treatment and containment components, pipe, fittings, pumps, and related components and controls shall be durable, watertight, structurally sound, and capable of withstanding stress from installation and operational service.

d. Distribution lines for disposal fields shall be constructed of clay tile laid with open joints, perforated clay pipe, perforated high density polyethylene pipe, perforated ABS pipe, or perforated PVC pipe if the pipe is suitable for wastewater disposal use and sufficient openings are available for distribution of the wastewater into the trench or bed area.

3. Electronics components.

a. Instructions and a wiring diagram shall be mounted on the inside of a control panel cover.

b. The control panel shall be equipped with a multimode operation switch, red alarm light, buzzer, and reset button.

c. The multimode operation switch shall operate in the automatic position for normal system operation.

d. An anomalous condition shall be indicated by a glowing alarm light and sounding buzzer. The continued glowing of the alarm light after pressing the reset button shall signal the need for maintenance or repair of the system at the earliest practical opportunity.

G. Alternative design, installation, or operational features. When a person submits a Notice of Intent to Discharge, the person may request that the Department review and approve a feature of improved or alternative technology, design, setback, installation, or operation that differs from a general permit requirement in this Article.

1. The person shall make the request for an alternative feature of technology, design, installation, or operation on a form provided by the Department and include:

a. A description of the requested change;

b. A citation to the applicable design, installation, or operational requirement for which the change is being requested; and

c. Justification for the requested change, including any necessary supporting documentation.

2. The person shall submit the appropriate fee specified under 18 A.A.C. 14 for each requested change. For calculating the fee, a requested change that is applied multiple times in a similar manner throughout the facility is considered a single request if submitted for concurrent review.

3. The person shall provide sufficient information for the Department to determine that the change achieves equal or better performance compared with the general permit requirement, or addresses site or system conditions more satisfactorily than the requirements of this Article.

4. The Department shall review and may approve the request for change.

5. The Department shall deny the request for the change if the change adversely affects other permittees or causes or contributes to a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard.

6. The Department shall deny the request for the change if the change:

a. Fails to achieve equal or better performance compared to the general permit requirement,

b. Fails to address site or system conditions more satisfactorily than the general permit requirement,

c. Is insufficiently justified based on the information provided in the submittal,

d. Requires excessive review time, research, or specialized expertise by the Department to act on the request, or

e. For any other justifiable cause.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4). Amended to correct a manifest typographical error in subsection (E)(1) (Supp. 01-1).

R18-9-A313. Facility Installation and Operation and Maintenance Plan For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. Facility installation. In addition to installation requirements in the general permit, the applicant shall ensure that the following tasks are performed, as applicable.

1. The facility is installed as described in design documents submitted with the Notice of Intent to Discharge;

2. Components are installed on a firm foundation that supports the components and operating loads;

3. The site is prepared to protect native soil beneath the soil absorption area and in adjacent areas from compaction, prevent smeared absorption surfaces, minimize disturbances from grubbing, and otherwise preclude damage to the disposal area that would impair performance;

4. Components are protected from damage at the construction site and installed in conformance with the manufacturer's instructions if consistent with this Article;

5. Treatment media is placed to achieve uniform density, prevent differential settling, produce a level inlet surface unless otherwise specified, and avoid introduction of construction contaminants;

6. Backfill is placed to prevent damage to geotextile, liner materials, tanks, and other components;

7. Soil cover is shaped to shed rainfall away from the backfill areas and prevent ponding of runoff; and

8. Anti-buoyancy measures are implemented during construction if temporary saturated backfill conditions are anticipated during construction.

B. Operation and maintenance. In addition to operation and maintenance requirements in the general permit or specified in the Operation and Maintenance Plan, the permittee shall perform the following tasks as applicable.

1. Inspect and clean pretreatment and wastewater distribution components;

2. Clean or backwash any effluent filters, and return cleaning water to the pretreatment headworks;

3. Inspect and clean the effluent baffle screen and pump tank, and properly dispose of cleaning residue;

4. Clean the dosing tank effluent screen, pump switches, and floats, and properly dispose of cleaning residue;

5. Flush lateral lines and return flush water to the pretreatment headworks;

6. Inspect, remove and replace, if necessary, and properly dispose of filter media;

7. Rod pressurized wastewater delivery lines and secondary distribution lines (for dosing systems), and return cleaning water to the pretreatment headworks;

8. Inspect and clean pump inlets and controls and return cleaning water to the pretreatment headworks;

9. Implement corrective measures if anomalous ponding, dryness, noise, odor, or differential settling is observed; and

10. Inspect and monitor inspection and access ports, as applicable, to verify that operation is within expected limits for:

a. Influent wastewater quality;

b. Pressurized dosing system operation;

c. Aggregate infiltration bed and mound system operation and performance;

d. Wastewater delivery and engineered pad operation and performance;

e. Pressurized delivery system, filter, underdrain, and native soil absorption system operation and performance;

f. Saturation condition status, operation and performance in peat and other media; and

g. Treatment system components.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A314. Septic Tank Design, Manufacturing, and Installation For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. A septic tanks manufacturer shall assure that septic tanks approved for installation under this Article are:

1. Designed to produce a clarified effluent and provide adequate space for sludge and scum accumulations;

2. Watertight and constructed of solid durable materials not subject to excessive corrosion or decay;

3. Manufactured with at least two compartments unless two separate structures are placed in series. The manufacturer shall ensure that:

a. The inlet compartment of any septic tank not placed in series is nominally 67% to 75% of the total required capacity of the tank,

b. Septic tanks placed in series are considered a unit and meet the same criteria as a single tank,

c. The liquid depth of the septic tank is at least 42 inches,

d. A septic tank of 1000 gallon capacity is at least eight feet long and the tank length of septic tanks of greater capacity is at least two times but not more than three times the width.

4. Provided with at least two access openings to the tank interior, each at least 20 inches in diameter. The manufacturer shall ensure that:

a. One access opening is located over the inlet end of the tank and one access opening is located over the outlet end,

b. Whenever a first compartment exceeds 12 feet in length, another access opening is provided over the baffle wall,

c. Access openings and risers are constructed to ensure accessibility within six inches below finished grade.

5. Manufactured so that the sewage inlet and wastewater outlet openings are not less in size than the connecting sewer pipe. The manufacturer shall ensure that:

a. The vertical leg of round inlet and outlet fittings is at least four inches but not less in size than the connecting sewer pipe,

b. A baffle fitting has the equivalent cross-sectional area of the connecting sewer pipe and not less than a four inch horizontal dimension if measured at the inlet and outlet pipe inverts.

6. Manufactured so that the inlet and outlet pipe or baffle extends four inches above and at least 12 inches below the water surface when the tank is installed according to the manufacturer's instructions consistent with this Chapter. The invert of the inlet pipe shall be at least two inches above the invert of the outlet pipe;

7. Manufactured so that the inlet and outlet fittings or baffles and compartment partitions have a free vent area equal to the required cross-sectional area of the connected sewer pipe to provide free ventilation above the water surface from the disposal field or seepage pit through the septic tank, house sewer, and stack to the outer air;

8. Manufactured so that the side walls extend at least 12 inches above the liquid depth and the cover of the septic tank is at least two inches above the top of the inlet fitting vent opening;

9. Manufactured so that partitions or baffles between compartments are of solid durable material (wooden baffles are prohibited) and extend at least four inches above the liquid level. The manufacturer shall ensure that the open area of the baffle is between one and two times the open area of the inlet pipe or horizontal slot and located at the midpoint of the liquid level of the baffle. If a horizontal slot is used, the slot shall be no more than six inches in height;

10. Structurally designed to withstand all anticipated earth or other loads. The manufacturer shall ensure that:

a. All septic tank covers are capable of supporting an earth load of 300 pounds per square foot;

b. If the top of the tank is greater than two feet below finish grade, the septic tank and cover are capable of supporting an additional load of 150 pounds per square foot for each additional foot of cover;

11. Manufactured or installed so that the influent and effluent ends of the tank are clearly and permanently marked on the outside of the tank with the words "INLET" or "IN," and "OUTLET" or "OUT," above or to the right or left of the corresponding openings;

12. Clearly and permanently marked with the manufacturer's name or registered trademark, or both, the month and year of manufacture, the maximum recommended depth of earth cover in feet, and the design liquid capacity of the tank. The manufacturer shall protect the markings from corrosion so that they remain permanent and readable for the usable life of the tank.

B. Materials used to construct or manufacture septic tanks.

1. A person constructing a concrete septic tank cast-in-place at the site of use shall protect the tank from corrosion by coating the tank with a bituminous coating, constructing the tank using a concrete mix that incorporates 15% to 18% fly ash, or other Department-approved means. The manufacturer shall ensure that:

a. The coating extends at least four inches below the wastewater line and covers all of the internal area above that point.

b. A septic tank cast-in-place complies with the "Building Code Requirements for Structural Concrete (ACI 318-99) and Commentary (ACI 318R-99)," published by the American Concrete Institute, June 1999; and the "Environmental Engineering Concrete Structures (ACI 350R-89)," published by the American Concrete Institute, January 2000. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from American Concrete Institute, P.O. Box 9094, Farmington Hills, MI 48333-9094.

2. A septic tank manufacturer shall ensure that a steel septic tank has a minimum wall thickness of No. 12 U.S. gauge steel and is protected from corrosion, internally and externally, by a bituminous coating or other Department-approved means.

3. A septic tank manufacturer shall ensure that a prefabricated concrete septic tank complies with the "Standard Specification for Precast Concrete Septic Tanks," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (C 1227-00), approved January 10, 2000. This information is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.

4. A septic tank manufacturer shall ensure that materials for fiberglass or polyethylene septic tanks comply with the "Material and Property Standards for Prefabricated Septic Tanks," published by the International Association of Plumbing and Mechanical Officials, (IAPMO PS 1-99), revised January 1999. This information is incorporated by reference, does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter, and is on file with the Office of the Secretary of State. The material may be viewed at the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, or obtained from International Association of Plumbing &amp; Mechanical Officials, 20001 E. Walnut Drive, South, Walnut, CA 91789-2825.

C. If any conflict exists between this Article and the information incorporated by reference in subsections (B)(3) and (B)(4), the requirements of this Article apply. The Department may approve septic tanks constructed of alternative materials under R18-9-A312(G). Tanks constructed of wood, block, or bare steel are prohibited. The Department may inspect septic tanks at the site of manufacturing to verify compliance with subsections (A) through (C).

D. An applicant shall select a septic tank with a design liquid capacity as follows:

1. For a single residence, the design liquid capacity of a septic tank is governed by the following table:

<table> No. of Bedrooms No. of Occupants No. of Baths Maximum Fixture Count Minimum Septic Tank Size (gallons) 2 4 1-2 18 1000 3 6 1-2 18 1000 4 8 2-3 25 1250 5 10 2-4 32 1500 6 12 3-5 39 2000 7 14 3-5 42 2000 </table>

2. For other than a single residence, the recommended design liquid capacity of a septic tank in gallons is 2.1 times the design flow into the tank as determined from Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows.

3. An applicant may place septic tanks in series to meet the septic tank design liquid capacity requirements.

E. New or replacement septic tank installation. An applicant shall:

1. Provide permanent surface markers for locating the septic tank access openings for maintenance;

2. Ensure that septic tanks installed under concrete or pavement have the required access openings extended to grade;

3. Install a septic tank effluent filter on all septic tanks. The applicant shall ensure that the filter:

a. Prevents the passage of solids larger than 1/8 inch in diameter while under two feet of hydrostatic head; and

b. Is constructed of materials that are resistant to corrosion and erosion and sized to accommodate hydraulic and organic loading.

4. Test cast-in-place septic tanks and multi-part septic tanks assembled and sealed at the site of use for watertightness after installation by the water test or the vacuum test and repair, if necessary.

a. Water test.

i. The applicant shall ensure that the tank is filled with clean water to the invert of the outlet and the water left standing in the tank for 24 hours. The applicant shall:

(1) After 24 hours, refill the tank to the invert, if necessary;

(2) Record the initial water level and time; and

(3) After one hour, record the water level and time.

ii. The tank passes the water test if the water level dropped less than 1/4 inch over the one hour period. Any visible leak of flowing water is considered a failure. A damp or wet spot that is not flowing is not considered a failure.

b. Vacuum test.

i. The applicant shall:

(1) Seal the empty tank,

(2) Apply and stabilize a vacuum of two inches of mercury, and

(3) Monitor the vacuum for one hour.

ii. The tank passes the vacuum test if the mercury level dropped no more than 0.2 inches over the one hour period.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A315. Interceptor Design, Manufacturing, and Installation For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. Interceptor requirement. An applicant shall ensure that an interceptor as required by R18-9-A309(A)(8)(c) or necessary due to excessive amounts of grease, garbage, sand, or other wastes in the sewage is installed between the sewage source and the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

B. Interceptor design. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. An interceptor has not less than two compartments with fittings designed for grease retention and capable of removing excessive amounts of grease, garbage, sand, or other wastes. Applicable structural and materials requirements prescribed in R18-9-A314 apply.

2. Interceptors are located as close to the source as possible and are accessible for servicing. The applicant shall ensure that access openings for servicing are at grade level and gas-tight.

3. The applicant shall calculate interceptor size for grease and garbage from non-residential kitchens by the following equation: Interceptor Size (in gallons) = M &#8734; F &#8734; T &#8734; S.

a. "M" is the number of meals per peak hour.

b. "F" is the waste flow rate from Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows.

c. "T" is the estimated retention time:

i. Commercial kitchen waste, dishwasher or disposal: 2.5 hours;

ii. Single service kitchen with utensil wash disposal: 1.5 hours.

d. "S" is the estimated storage factor:

i. Fully equipped commercial kitchen, 8 hour operation: 1.0;

ii. Fully equipped commercial kitchen, 16 hour operation: 2.0;

iii. Fully equipped commercial kitchen, 24 hour operation: 3.0;

iv. Single service kitchen: 1.5.

4. The applicant shall calculate interceptor size for silt and grease from laundries and laundromats by the following equation: Interceptor Size (in gallons) = M &#8734; C &#8734; F &#8734; T &#8734; S.

a. "M" is the number of machines,

b. "C" is the machine cycles per hour (assume 2),

c. "F" is the waste flow rate from Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows,

d. "T" is the estimated retention time (assume 2), and

e. "S" is the estimated storage factor (assume 1.5 that allows for rock filter).

5. The applicant may calculate the size of an interceptor using different factor values than those given in subsections (B)(4) and (B)(5) based on the values justified by the applicant in the Notice of Intent to Discharge submitted to the Department for the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

6. The Department may require installation of a sampling box if the volume or characteristics of the waste will impair the performance of the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-A316. Transfer Inspection For On-site Wastewater Treatment Facilities

A. A person possessing working knowledge of the type of facility and the inspection process shall perform a transfer inspection of an on-site wastewater treatment facility.

B. The applicant shall send the Report of Inspection and Notice of Transfer forms required by R18-9-A304 and approved by the Department, and any applicable fee to the health or environmental agency delegated by the Director to administer the on-site wastewater treatment facility program.

1. The Report of Inspection shall:

a. Indicate that the on-site wastewater treatment facility was inspected within six months before the deed of transfer for the property was recorded, and

b. Address the physical and operational condition of the on-site wastewater treatment facility and identify associated deficiencies.

2. A copy of the Report of Inspection shall be transmitted to the buyer of the property.

C. This Section does not apply to the first sale of a house or property from a developer or subdivider to the buyer of the property.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2002 (Supp. 00-4).

PART B. TYPE 1 GENERAL PERMITS

R18-9-B301. Type 1 General Permit

A. A 1.01 General Permit allows any discharge of wash water from a sand and gravel operation, placer mining operation, or other similar activity, including construction, foundation, and underground dewatering, if only physical processes are employed and only hazardous substances at naturally occurring concentrations in the sand, gravel, or other rock material are present in the discharge.

B. A 1.02 General Permit allows any discharge from hydrostatic tests of a drinking water distribution system and pipelines not previously used, if all the following conditions are met:

1. The quality of the water used for the test does not violate any Aquifer Water Quality Standard;

2. The discharge is not to waters of the United States, unless the discharge is under a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit; and

3. The test site is restored to its natural grade.

C. A 1.03 General Permit allows any discharge from hydrostatic tests of a pipeline previously used for transmission of fluid, other than those previously used for drinking water distribution systems, if all the following conditions are met:

1. All liquid discharge is contained in an impoundment lined with flexible geomembrane material with a thickness of at least 10 mils;

2. The liner material is placed over a layer, at least three inches thick, of well-sorted sand or finer grained material, or over an underliner determined by the Department to provide protection equal to or better than sand or finer grained material;

3. Within 60 days after the end of a hydrostatic test, all test waters are evaporated or removed from the impoundment and taken to a treatment works or landfill approved under 18 A.A.C. 8 to accept the material. Any other methods for removal of the test waters shall be approved in advance by the Department;

4. The liner is removed and disposed of at an approved landfill unless the liner can be reused at another test location without a reduction in integrity; and

5. The test site is restored to its natural grade.

D. A 1.04 General Permit allows any discharge from a facility that, for water quality sampling, hydrologic parameter testing, well development, redevelopment, or potable water system maintenance and repair purposes, receives water, drilling fluids, or drill cuttings from a well if the discharge is to the same aquifer in approximately the same location from which the water supply was originally withdrawn, or the discharge is under a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit, or both.

E. A 1.05 General Permit allows an injection well, surface impoundment, and leach line to receive a discharge only of filter backwash from a potable water treatment system, condensate from a refrigeration unit, overflows from an evaporative cooler, heat exchange system return water, or swimming pool filter backwash if the discharge is less than 1000 gallons per day.

F. A 1.06 General Permit allows the burial of mining industry off-road motor vehicle waste tires at the mine site in a manner consistent with the cover requirements in R18-8-703.

G. A 1.07 General Permit allows the operation of dockside facilities and watercraft if the following conditions are met:

1. Docks that service watercraft equipped with toilets provide sanitary facilities at dockside for the disposal of sewage from watercraft toilets. No wastewater from sinks, showers, laundries, baths, or other plumbing fixtures at a dockside facility is discharged into waters of the state;

2. Docks that service watercraft have conveniently located, toilet facilities for men and women;

3. No boat, houseboat, or other type of watercraft is equipped with a marine toilet constructed and operated to discharge sewage directly or indirectly into waters of the state, nor is any container of sewage placed, left, discharged, or caused to be placed, left, or discharged in or near any water of the state by a person;

4. Watercraft with marine toilets constructed to allow sewage to be discharged directly into waters of the state are locked and sealed to prevent usage. Chemical or other type marine toilets with approved storage containers are permitted if dockside disposal facilities are provided; and

5. No bilge water or wastewater from sinks, showers, laundries, baths, or other plumbing fixtures on houseboats or other watercraft is discharged into waters of the state.

H. A 1.08 General Permit allows for any earth pit privy authorized by a county health or environmental department under A.R.S. Title 36 or a delegation agreement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-107.

I. A 1.09 General Permit allows for a sewage treatment facility with flows less than 20,000 gallons per day operating under a general permit before January 1, 2001. The person who owns or operates the permitted facility shall not:

1. Cause or contribute to a violation of a water quality standard,

2. Expand the facility to accommodate increased flows,

3. Treat flows that are not typical sewage,

4. Treat flows from commercial operations using hazardous substances or creating hazardous wastes, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-921(5), or

5. Create any environmental nuisance condition listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-141.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

PART C. TYPE 2 GENERAL PERMITS

R18-9-C301. 2.01 General Permit: Drywells That Drain Areas Where Hazardous Substances Are Used, Stored, Loaded, or Treated

A. A 2.01 General Permit allows for a drywell that drains an area where hazardous substances are used, stored, loaded, or treated.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the requirements in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. The Department registration number for the drywell or documentation that a drywell registration form was submitted to the Department;

2. For a drywell constructed before January 1, 2001, a certification signed and sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer or geologist that a site investigation has concluded either of the following:

a. Analytical results from sampling of the settling chamber sediment for pollutants reasonably expected to be present do not exceed the residential soil remediation levels or groundwater protection levels, or

b. Soil-borings or groundwater investigations indicate that an Aquifer Water Quality Standard in groundwater beneath the drywell has not been exceeded.

3. A copy of the Best Management Practices Plan described in subsection (D)(5).

C. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Locate the drywell no closer than 100 feet from a water supply well and 20 feet from an underground storage tank;

2. Clearly mark the drywell "Storm Water Only" on the surface grate or manhole cover;

3. Locate the bottom of the drywell hole at least 10 feet above the groundwater table. The applicant shall seal off any zone of perched water above the groundwater table from the drywell following the requirements established under 12 A.A.C. 15, Article 8; and

4. Ensure that the drywell design includes a flow control or pretreatment device, such as an interceptor, sump, or another device or structure designed to remove, intercept, or collect pollutants.

D. Operational requirements.

1. A permittee shall operate the drywell only for the disposal of storm water.

2. The permittee shall implement a Best Management Practices Plan for operation of the drywell and control of detrimental practices in the drywell drainage area.

3. The permittee shall keep the Best Management Practices Plan on-site or at the closest practical place of work and provide the plan to the Department upon request.

4. The permittee may substitute any Spill Prevention Containment and Control Plan, facility response plan, or National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan that meets the requirements of this subsection for a Best Management Practices Plan.

5. The Best Management Practices Plan shall include:

a. A site plan showing surface drainage patterns and the location of floor drains, water supply, monitor wells, underground storage tanks, and chemical and waste usage, storage, loading, and treatment areas. The site plan shall show surface grading details designed to prevent drainage and spills of hazardous substances from leaving the drainage area and entering the drywell;

b. A design plan showing details of drywell design and drainage design, including flow control or pretreatment devices, such as interceptors, sumps, and other devices and structures designed to remove, intercept, and collect pollutants;

c. Procedures to prevent and contain spills and minimize discharges to the drywell;

d. Operational practices that include routine inspection and maintenance of the drywell, periodic inspection of waste storage facilities, and proper handling of hazardous substances to prevent discharges to the drywell; and

e. Procedures for periodic employee training on practices required by the Best Management Practices Plan.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain a log book as part of the Best Management Practices Plan that documents drywell maintenance, inspections, employee training, and sampling activities.

F. Spills. The permittee shall notify the Department within 24 hours of any spill of hazardous substances exceeding the applicable reportable quantity established under 40 CFR 302.4, "Designation of Hazardous Substances," and 40 CFR 302.5, "Determination of Reportable Quantities," July 1, 1999 Edition, into the drywell or of any spill of petroleum products exceeding 25 gallons into the drywell. These regulations are incorporated by reference and do not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-C302. 2.02 General Permit: Intermediate Stockpiles at Mining Sites

A. A 2.02 General Permit allows for intermediate stockpiles not qualifying as inert under A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(19) at a mining site.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge under R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit the construction and operation specifications used to satisfy the requirements in subsection (C)(1).

C. Design and operational requirements.

1. An applicant shall design, construct, and operate the stockpile so that it does not impound water. An applicant may rely on storm water run-on controls or facility design features, such as drains, or both.

2. An applicant shall direct storm runoff contacting the stockpile to a mine pit or a facility covered by an individual or general permit.

3. A permittee shall maintain any engineered feature designed to aid compliance with the permit in good working condition.

4. A permittee shall visually inspect the features described in subsection (C)(1) at least quarterly. Any defects noted during the inspection shall be repaired as soon as practical.

5. A permittee shall not add hazardous substances to the stockpiled material.

D. Closure requirements.

1. If an intermediate stockpile covered under this general permit is permanently closed, a permittee shall remove any remaining material, to the greatest extent practical, and regrade the area to prevent impoundment of water.

2. The permittee shall submit a narrative description of closure measures to the Department within 30 days after closure.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-C303. 2.03 General Permit: Hydrologic Tracer Studies

A. A 2.03 General Permit allows for discharge caused by the performance of tracer studies.

1. This permit does not authorize the use of any hazardous substance, radioactive material, or any substance identified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I) in any tracer study.

2. A single tracer test shall be completed within two years of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. A narrative description of the tracer test including the type and amount of tracer used;

2. A Material Safety Data Sheet for the tracer; and

3. Unless the injection or distribution is within the capture zone of an established passive containment system meeting the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(G), the following information:

a. A narrative description of the impacts that may occur if a solution migrates outside the test area, including a list of downgradient users, if any;

b. The anticipated effects and expected concentrations, if possible to calculate; and

c. A description of the monitoring, including types of tests and frequency.

C. Design and operational requirements. A permittee shall:

1. Ensure that injection into wells inside the capture zone of an established passive containment system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(G) does not exceed the total depth of the influence of the hydrologic sink;

2. Ensure that injection into wells outside the capture zone of an established passive containment system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(G) does not exceed rock fracture pressures during injection of the tracer;

3. Not add substances to wells that are not compatible with their construction;

4. Ensure that a tracer is compatible with the construction materials at the impoundment if a tracer is placed or collected in an existing impoundment;

5. Monitor any wells hydraulically downgradient of the test site for the tracer for at least two years on a quarterly basis if a tracer is used outside the capture zone of an established passive containment system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(G) and less than 85% of the tracer is recovered. This period may be adjusted with the consent of the Department if the applicant can show that the hydraulic gradient causes the tracer to reach the monitoring point in a shorter or longer period of time;

6. Ensure that a tracer does not leave the site in concentrations distinguishable from background water quality; and

7. Monitor the amount of tracer used and recovered and submit a report summarizing the test and results to the Department within 30 calendar days of test completion.

D. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall retain the following information at the site where the facility is located for at least three years after test completion and make it available to the Department upon request.

1. Test protocols,

2. Material Safety Data Sheet information,

3. Recovery records, and

4. A copy of the report submitted to the Department under subsection (C)(7).

E. Closure requirements.

1. If a tracer was used outside the capture zone of an established passive containment system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(G), a permittee shall account for any tracer not recovered through attenuation, modeling, or monitoring.

2. Closure may occur immediately following the test, or if the test area is within a pollutant management area defined in an individual permit, at the conclusion of operations.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-C304. 2.04 General Permit: Drywells that Drain Areas at Motor Fuel Dispensing Facilities Where Motor Fuels are Used, Stored, or Loaded

A. A 2.04 General Permit allows for a drywell that drains an area at a facility for dispensing motor fuel, as defined in A.A.C. R20-2-701(19), including a commercial gasoline station with an underground storage tank.

1. A drywell at a motor fuel dispensing facility using hazardous substances is eligible for coverage under this general permit.

2. A drywell at a vehicle maintenance facility owned or operated by a commercial enterprise or by a federal, state, county, or local government is not eligible for coverage under this general permit, unless the facility design ensures that only motor fuel dispensing areas will drain to the drywell. Areas where hazardous substances other than motor fuels are used, stored, or loaded, including service bays, are not covered under this general permit.

3. For purposes of this Section, "hazardous substances" means substances that are components of commercially packaged automotive supplies, such as motor oil, antifreeze, and routine cleaning supplies such as those used for cleaning windshields, but not degreasers, engine cleaners, or similar products.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge.

1. An applicant shall provide design information to demonstrate that the requirements in subsection (C) are met.

2. In addition to the requirements in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

a. The Department registration number for the drywell or documentation that a drywell registration form was submitted to the Department; and

b. For a drywell constructed more than 90 days before the Notice of Intent to Discharge is submitted, a certification signed and sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer or geologist that a site investigation concluded that the drywell is marked "Stormwater Only" on the surface grate or manhole cover; and

i. The settling chamber does not contain sediment for characterizing and comparison of results to soil remediation levels and the chamber has not been cleaned out within the last six months; or

ii. Analytical results from sampling of the settling chamber sediment for pollutants reasonably expected to be present do not exceed the residential soil remediation levels or groundwater protection levels; or

iii. Soil-borings indicate that neither a soil remediation level nor groundwater protection level is exceeded in soil beneath the drywell.

C. Design requirements.

1. An applicant shall:

a. Include a flow control or pretreatment device, or both, that removes, intercepts, or collects spilled motor fuel or hazardous substances before stormwater enters the drywell injection pipe;

b. Calculate the volume of runoff generated in the design storm event and anticipate the maximum potential contaminant release quantity to design the treatment and holding capacity of the drywell;

c. Follow local codes and regulations to meet retention periods for removing standing water;

d. Locate the drywell at least 100 feet from a water supply well and 20 feet from an underground storage tank; and

e. Locate the bottom of the drywell injection pipe at least 10 feet above the groundwater table. The applicant shall seal off any zone of perched water above the groundwater table from the drywell injection pipe following the requirements in R12-15-816(I)(1) and (2).

2. An applicant that cannot meet the design requirements in subsections (C)(1)(d) and (e) shall provide the Department with the date of drywell construction, the distance from the drywell to the nearest water supply well and from the drywell to the underground storage tank, and the depth to the groundwater from the bottom of the drywell injection pipe.

D. A permittee shall ensure that motor fuels and other hazardous substances are not discharged to the subsurface. A permittee may use any of the following flow control or pretreatment technologies:

1. Flow control. The permittee shall ensure that motor fuel and hazardous substance spills are removed before allowing stormwater to enter the drywell.

a. Normally closed manual or automatic valve. The permittee shall leave a normally closed valve in a closed position except when stormwater is allowed to enter the drywell;

b. Raised drywell inlet. The permittee shall:

i. Raise the drywell inlet at least six inches above the bottom of the retention basin or other storage structure, or install a six-inch asphalt or concrete raised barrier encircling the drywell inlet to provide a non-draining storage capacity within the retention basin or storage structure for complete containment of a spill; and

ii. Ensure that the storage capacity is at least 110 percent of the combined volume of the design storm event required by the local jurisdiction and the maximum releasable quantity of spilled motor fuel;

c. Magnetic mat or cap. The permittee shall ensure that the drywell inlet is sealed with a mat or cap at all times, except after rainfall or storm event when the mat or cap is temporarily removed to allow stormwater to enter the drywell; and that the mat or cap is always used with a retention basin or other type of storage;

d. Primary sump, interceptor, or settling chamber. The permittee may use a primary sump, interceptor, or settling chamber only in combination with another flow control or pre-treatment technology.

i. The permittee shall remove motor fuel or hazardous substances from the sump, interceptor, or chamber before allowing stormwater to enter the drywell.

ii. The permittee shall install a settling chamber or sump and allow the suspended solids to settle before stormwater flows into a drywell; install the drywell injection pipe in a separate chamber and connect the sump, interceptor, or chamber to the drywell inlet by piping and valving to allow the stormwater to enter the drywell.

iii. The permittee may install fuel hydrocarbon detection sensors in the sump, interceptor, or settling chamber that use flow control to prevent fuel from discharging into the drywell;

2. Pretreatment. The permittee shall prevent the bypass of motor fuels and hazardous substances from the pretreatment system to the drywell during periods of high flow.

a. Catch basin inlet filter. The permittee shall:

i. Install a catch basin inlet filter to fit inside a catchment drain to prevent motor fuels and hazardous substances from entering the drywell,

ii. Ensure that a motor fuel spill or a spill during a high rainfall does not bypass the system and directly release to the drywell injection pipe; and

iii. Combine the catch basin inlet filter with a flow control technology to prevent contaminated stormwater from entering the drywell injection pipe;

b. Combined settling chamber and a oil/water separator.

i. The permittee shall install a system that incorporates a catch basin inlet, a settling chamber, and an oil/water separator.

ii. The permittee may incorporate a self-sealing mechanism, such as fuel hydrocarbon detection sensors that activate a valve to cutoff flow to the drywell inlet.

c. Combined settling chamber and oil/water separator, and filter/adsorption. The permittee shall:

i. Allow for adequate collection and treatment capacity for solid and liquid separation; and

ii. Allow a minimum treated outflow from the system to the drywell inlet of 20 gallons per minute. If a higher outflow rate is anticipated, the applicant shall design a larger collection system with storage capacity.

d. Passive skimmer.

i. If a passive skimmer is used, the permittee shall install sufficient hydrocarbon adsorbent materials, such as pads and socks, or suspend the materials on top of the static water level in a sump or other catchment to absorb the entire volume of expected or potential spill.

ii. The permittee may use a passive skimmer only in combination with another flow control or pre-treatment technology.

E. Inspection. A permittee shall:

1. Conduct an annual inspection of the drywell for sediment accumulation in the chambers, and flow control and treatment systems to ensure that the drywell is functioning properly; and

2. If the stormwater fails to drain through the drywell within 36 hours, inspect the treatment system and piping to ensure that it is functioning properly.

F. Operation and maintenance. A permittee shall:

1. Operate the drywell only for the subsurface disposal of stormwater;

2. Remove or treat any motor fuel or hazardous substance spills;

3. Replace the adsorbent material in skimmers when the adsorbent capacity is reached;

4. Maintain valves and associated piping;

5. Maintain magnetic caps and mats;

6. Remove sludge from the oil/water separator and replace the filtration or adsorption materials to maintain treatment capacity;

7. Remove sediment from the catch basin inlet filters and retention basins to maintain required storage capacity;

8. Remove accumulated sediment from the settling chamber annually or when 25 percent of the effective settling capacity is filled, whichever occurs first; and

9. Provide new employee training within one month of hire and annual employee training on how to maintain and operate flow control and pretreatment technology used in the drywell.

G. Closure Requirements.

1. A permittee shall comply with the following closure requirements:

a. Retain a drywell drilling contractor, licensed under 4 A.A.C. 9, to close the drywell;

b. Remove sediments and any drainage components, such as stand pipes and screens from the drywell's settling chamber and backfill the injection pipe with cement grout;

c. Remove the top of the drywell, including the upper settling chamber to a depth of at least six feet below the ground surface. The permittee may use a backhoe or other excavation equipment;

d. Fill the remaining settling chamber with clean, mechanically compacted silt, clay, similar engineered material, or ABC slurry;

e. Place a cement grout plug at least two feet thick with the top set at four feet below the ground surface;

f. Backfill the remainder of the drywell to the land surface with clean silt, clay, or engineered material. Materials containing hazardous substances are prohibited from use in backfilling the drywell; and

g. Mechanically compact the backfill.

2. If a permittee uses procedures other than those listed in subsection (G)(1) in closure, the permittee shall demonstrate to the Department that those procedures are equivalent to the procedures listed in subsection (G)(1) and will prevent any fluid migration from the ground surface to an aquifer and obtain approval before implementation;

3. Within 30 days of closure, the permittee shall submit written verification of the closure procedures the permittee used to the Department with the drywell registration number or a completed registration form. The written verification shall specify:

a. The reason for the closure;

b. The materials and methods used to abandon the drywell;

c. The name of the contractor who performed the closure;

d. The completion date;

e. Any sampling data collected from the drywell investigation if performed or if required by the Department; and

f. Sump construction details, if a sump is constructed to replace the abandoned drywell.

4. The Department may require additional investigations or corrective actions if any of the following conditions exist:

a. The permittee has not satisfied the closure requirements in R18-9-A306,

b. The permittee provided incorrect or inaccurate information or there is relevant information missing from the permit application or closure reports,

c. The permittee has not eliminated discharges from the facility through closure activities, or

d. Closure and decommissioning activities have not demonstrated or achieved compliance with aquifer water quality standards.

5. If no motor fuel or hazardous substance spill enters the drywell, the permittee complies with the closure requirements under R18-9-A306 by satisfying the requirements in subsections (G)(1) or (2).

6. If a motor fuel or hazardous substance spill has entered the injection pipe, the permittee shall comply with the requirements in A.R.S. &#167; 49-252, R18-9-A306, and subsection (H)(1)(c) to close the drywell.

H. Spills.

1. A permittee shall:

a. Notify the Department within 24 hours of any spill of motor fuel or hazardous substances that enters into the drywell or exceeds the treatment capacity of the pretreatment system;

b. Contain, cleanup, and dispose of, according to local, state, and federal requirements, any spill or leak of motor fuel and hazardous substance in the drywell drainage area and basin drainage area; and

c. If the spill reaches the injection pipe, drill a soil boring within five feet of the drywell inlet chamber and sample in five-foot increments to a depth extending at least 10 feet below the base of the injection pipe to determine whether a soil remediation level or groundwater protection level has been exceeded in the subsurface.

2. The Department may require additional investigations or corrective actions based on its assessment of whether an exceedance of a soil remediation level or groundwater protection level in the soil boring poses a risk of noncompliance with human health or water quality standards.

I. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain for at least 10 years, the following documents on-site, or at the closest practical place of work, and make the documents available to the Department upon request:

1. A log book that documents drywell maintenance, inspections, employee training, and sampling activities;

2. A site plan showing surface drainage patterns and the location of floor drains, water supply wells, monitor wells, underground storage tanks, and places where motor fuel and hazardous substances are used, stored, or loaded;

3. A design plan showing details of drywell design and drainage design, including one or a combination of the pre-approved flow control and pretreatment technologies; and

4. An operations and maintenance manual that includes:

a. Procedures to prevent and contain spills and minimize discharges to the drywell and a list of actions and specific methods that will be used for motor fuel and hazardous substance spills or leaks;

b. A method and procedures for inspection and operation and maintenance activities;

c. The procedure for spill response; and

d. A description of the employee training program.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4096, effective September 15, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

PART D. TYPE 3 GENERAL PERMITS

R18-9-D301. 3.01 General Permit: Lined Impoundments

A. A 3.01 General Permit allows a lined surface impoundment and a lined secondary containment structure. A permittee shall:

1. Ensure that inflow to the lined surface impoundment or lined secondary containment structure does not contain organic pollutants identified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I);

2. Ensure that inflow to the lined surface impoundment or lined secondary containment structure is from one or more of the following sources:

a. Evaporative cooler overflow in excess of 1000 gallons per day;

b. Wastewater that does not contain sewage, temporarily stored for short periods of time due to process upsets or rainfall events, provided the wastewater is promptly removed from the facility as required under subsection (D)(5). Facilities that continually contain wastewater as a normal function of facility operations are not covered under this general permit;

c. Storm water runoff that is not permitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-245.01 because the facility does not receive solely storm water or because the runoff is regulated under the Clean Water Act but is not considered storm water under the Act;

d. Emergency fire event water;

e. Wastewater from air pollution control devices at asphalt plants if the wastewater is routed through a sedimentation trap or sump and an oil/water separator before discharge;

f. Non-contact cooling tower blowdown and non-contact cooling water, except discharges from electric generating stations with more than 100 megawatts generating capacity;

g. Boiler blowdown;

h. Wastewater derived from a potable water treatment system including clarification sludge, filtration backwash, lime and lime softening sludge, ion exchange backwash, and reverse osmosis spent waste;

i. Wastewater from food washing;

j. Heat exchanger return water in excess of 1000 gallons per day; and

k. Wastewater from industrial laundries.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. A listing and description of all sources of inflow;

2. A representative chemical analysis of each expected source of inflow. If a sample is not available before facility construction, a permittee shall provide the chemical analysis of each inflow to the Department within 60 days of each inflow to the facility;

3. A narrative description of how the conditions of this general permit is satisfied. The narrative shall include a Quality Assurance/Quality Control program for liner installation, impoundment maintenance and repair, impoundment operational procedures; and

4. A contingency plan that specifies actions to be taken in case of an accidental release from the facility, overtopping of the impoundment, or breach of the berm, and unauthorized inflows into the impoundment or containment structure.

C. Design and installation requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Design and construct surface water controls. The applicant shall:

a. Ensure that the impoundment or secondary containment structure maintains, using design volume or mechanical systems, normal operating volumes, if any, and any inflow from the 100-year, 24-hour storm event. The facility shall maintain two feet of freeboard or an alternative level of freeboard that the applicant demonstrates is reasonable, considering the size of the impoundment and meteorologic and other site-specific factors; and

b. Direct any surface water run-on from the 100-year 24-hour storm event not intended for capture by facility design around the facility.

2. Ensure that the facility accommodates any significant geologic hazard, addressing static and seismic stability. The applicant shall document any design adjustments for this reason in the Notice of Intent to Discharge;

3. Ensure that site preparation includes, as appropriate, clearing the area of vegetation, grubbing, grading and embankment, and subgrade preparation. The applicant shall ensure that supporting surface slopes and foundation are stable and structurally sound;

4. Impoundment lining requirements. The applicant shall:

a. Ensure that the liner is at least a 30-mil geomembrane liner or a 60-mil liner if High Density Polyethylene is used, or an alternative, and that the liner's calculated seepage rate is less than 550 gallons per acre per day:

i. If a synthetic liner is used, the applicant shall anchor the liner by securing it in an engineered anchor trench; and

ii. The applicant shall ensure that the liner is ultraviolet resistant if it is regularly exposed to sunlight.

b. If a soil liner is used, ensure it resists swelling, shrinkage, and cracking. The applicant shall:

i. Ensure that the soil is at least one foot thick and compacted to a uniform density of 95% to meet the "Standard Test Method for Laboratory Compaction Characteristics of Soil Using Standard Effect (12,400 ft-lbf/ft

3

)," (D 698-91), published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, reapproved 1998. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; and

ii. Upon installation, protect the soil liner to prevent desiccation.

c. For new facilities, develop and implement a construction Quality Assurance/Quality Control program that addresses site and subgrade preparation, inspection procedures, field testing, laboratory testing, and final inspection after construction of the liner to ensure functional integrity.

D. Operational requirements. A permittee shall:

1. Maintain sufficient freeboard to manage the 100-year, 24-hour storm event plus two feet of freeboard under normal operating conditions. Management of the 100-year, 24-hour storm event may be through design, pumping, or a combination of both;

2. Remove accumulated residues, sediments, debris, and vegetation to maintain the integrity of the liner material and design capacity;

3. Perform and document a visual inspection for damage to the liner material and for accumulation of residual material at least monthly. The operator shall conduct an inspection within 72 hours after the facility receives a significant volume of storm water inflow;

4. Repair damage to the liner following the Quality Assurance/Quality Control Plan required under subsection (B)(3); and

5. Remove all inflow from the impoundment as soon as practical, but no later than 60 days after a temporary event, for facilities designed to contain inflow only for temporary events, such as process upsets.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available;

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure:

3. Capacity design criteria;

4. A list of standard operating procedures;

5. The construction Quality Assurance/Quality Control program documentation; and

6. Records of any inflow into the impoundment other than those permitted by this Section.

F. Reporting requirements.

1. If the liner is breached, as evidenced by a drop in water level not attributable to evaporation, or if the impoundment breaches or is overtopped due to a catastrophic or other significant event, the permittee shall report the circumstance to the Department within five days of discovery and implement the contingency plan required in subsection (B)(4). The permittee shall submit a final report to the Department within 60 days of the event summarizing the circumstances of the problem and corrective actions taken.

2. The permittee shall report unauthorized flows into the impoundment to the Department within five days of discovery and implement the contingency plan required in subsection (B)(4).

G. Closure requirements. The permittee shall notify the Department of the intent to close the facility permanently. Within 90 days following closure notification the permittee shall comply with the following requirements, as applicable:

1. Remove any solid residue on the liner material and dispose of it appropriately;

2. Inspect the liner material for evidence of holes, tears, or defective seams that could have leaked;

3. If evidence of leakage is discovered, remove the liner in the area of suspected leakage and sample potentially impacted soil. If soil remediation levels are exceeded, the permittee shall, within 60 days, notify the Department and submit an action plan for the Department's approval before implementing the plan;

4. If there is no evidence of holes, tears, or defective seams that could have leaked:

a. Cover the liner in place or remove it for disposal or reuse if the impoundment is an excavated impoundment,

b. Remove and dispose of the liner elsewhere if the impoundment is bermed, and

c. Grade the facility to prevent the impoundment of water.

5. Notify the Department within 60 days following closure that the action plan has been implemented and the closure is complete.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D302. 3.02 General Permit: Process Water Discharges from Water Treatment Facilities

A. A 3.02 General Permit allows filtration backwash and discharges obtained from sedimentation and coagulation in the water treatment process from facilities that treat water for industrial process or potable uses.

1. The discharge shall meet all numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standards for inorganic chemicals, organic chemicals, and pesticides established in R18-11-406(B) through (D);

2. The discharge shall meet one of the following criteria for microbiological contaminants:

a. A fecal coliform limit, using the membrane filter technique, of two colony forming units per 100 ml (seven-sample median) and a single-sample maximum limit of 23 colony forming units per 100 ml, or equivalent numbers using the multiple tube fermentation method; or

b. A seven-sample median limit of 200 colony forming units per 100 ml and a single-sample maximum limit of 800 colony forming units per 100 ml for fecal coliform, provided the average daily flow processed by the water treatment facility is less than 250,000 gallons.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. A characterization of the discharge, including a representative chemical and biological analysis of expected discharges and all source waters; and

2. The design capacity of any impoundment covered by this general permit.

C. Design and siting requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that the depth to the static groundwater table is greater than 20 feet;

2. Not locate the area of discharge immediately above karstic or fractured bedrock;

3. Maintain a minimum horizontal setback of 100 feet between the facility and any water supply well;

4. Design and construct an impoundment, used to manage process water discharges, to maintain, using design volume or mechanical systems, normal operating volumes, if any, and any inflow from the 100-year, 24-hour storm event or may discharge to surface water under the conditions of a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit. The applicant shall:

a. Design the facility to maintain two feet of freeboard or an alternative level of freeboard that the applicant demonstrates is reasonable, considering the size of the impoundment, meteorologic, and other site-specific factors; and

b. Divert any surface water run-on from the 100-year, 24-hour storm event not intended for capture by facility design around the facility.

5. Manage off site disposal of sludges according to A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 4.

D. Operational requirements.

1. Inorganic chemical, organic chemical, and pesticide monitoring:

a. The permittee shall monitor any discharge annually to determine compliance with the requirements of subsection (A)(1).

b. If the concentration of any constituent exceeds the numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standard, the permittee shall submit a report to the Department with a proposal for mitigation and shall increase monitoring frequency for that pollutant to quarterly.

c. If the condition in subsection (D)(1)(b) persists for two additional quarters, the permittee shall submit an application for an individual permit.

2. Microbiological contaminants monitoring:

a. The permittee shall monitor any discharge annually to determine compliance with the requirements of subsection (A)(2).

b. If the concentration of any constituent exceeds the limits established in subsection (A)(2), the permittee shall submit a report to the Department with a proposal for mitigation and increase monitoring frequency for that pollutant to monthly.

c. If the condition in subsection (D)(2)(b) persists for three additional months, the permittee shall submit an application for an individual permit.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available;

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure;

3. Water quality data collected under subsection (D);

4. Standard operating procedures; and

5. Records of any discharge other than those identified by subsection (B).

F. Reporting requirements. The permittee shall report unauthorized flows into the impoundment to the Department within five days of discovery.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D303. 3.03 General Permit: Vehicle and Equipment Washes

A. A 3.03 General Permit allows a facility that discharges water from washing vehicle exteriors and vehicle equipment. This general permit does not authorize:

1. Discharge water that typically results from the washing of vehicle engines unless the discharge is to a lined surface impoundment;

2. Direct discharges of sanitary sewage, vehicle lubricating oils, antifreeze, gasoline, paints, varnishes, solvents, pesticides, or fertilizers;

3. Discharges resulting from washing the interior of vessels used to transport fuel products or chemicals, or washing equipment contaminated with fuel products or chemicals; or

4. Discharges resulting from washing the interior of vehicles used to transport mining concentrates that originate from the same mine site, unless the discharge is to a lined surface impoundment.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit a narrative description of the facility and a design of the disposal system and wash operations.

C. Design, installation, and testing requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Design and construct the wash pad:

a. To drain and route wash water to a sump or similar sediment settling structure and an oil/water separator;

b. Of concrete or material chemically compatible with the wash water and its constituents; and

c. To support the maximum weight of the vehicle or equipment being washed with an appropriate safety factor.

2. Not use unlined ditches or natural channels to convey wash water;

3. Ensure that a surface impoundment meets the requirements in R18-9-D301(C)(1) and (C)(3). The applicant shall ensure that berms or dikes at the impoundment can withstand wave action erosion and are adequately compacted to a uniform density not less than 95%;

4. Ensure that a surface impoundment required for wash water described in subsection (A)(1) meets the design and installation requirements in R18-9-D301(C);

5. If wash water is received by an unlined surface impoundment or engineered subsurface disposal system, the applicant shall:

a. Ensure that the annual daily average flow is less than 3000 gallons per day;

b. Maintain a minimum horizontal setback of 100 feet between the impoundment or subsurface disposal system and any water supply well;

c. Ensure that the bottom of the surface impoundment or subsurface disposal system is at least 50 feet above the static groundwater level and the intervening material does not consist of karstic or fractured rock;

d. Ensure that the wash water receives primary treatment before discharge through, at a minimum, a sump or similar structure for settling sediments or solids and an oil/water separator designed to reduce oil and grease in the wastewater to 15 mg/l or less;

e. Withdraw the separated oil from the oil/water separator using equipment such as adjustable skimmers, automatic pump-out systems, or level sensing systems to signal manual pump-out; and

f. If a subsurface disposal system is used, design the system to prevent surfacing of the wash water.

D. Operational requirements. The permittee shall:

1. Inspect the oil/water separator before operation to ensure that there are no leaks and that the oil/water separator is in operable condition;

2. Inspect the entire facility at least quarterly. The inspection shall, at a minimum, consist of a visual examination of the wash pad, the sump or similar structure, the oil/water separator, and all surface impoundments;

3. Visually inspect each surface impoundment at least monthly, to ensure the volume of wash water is maintained within the design capacity and freeboard limitation;

4. Repair damage to the integrity of the wash pad or impoundment liner as soon as practical;

5. Maintain the oil/water separator to achieve the operational performance of the separator;

6. Remove accumulated sediments in all surface impoundments to maintain design capacity; and

7. Use best management practices to minimize the introduction of chemicals not typically associated with the wash operations. Only biodegradable surfactant or soaps are allowed. Products that contain chemicals in concentrations likely to cause a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard at the applicable point of compliance are prohibited.

E. Monitoring requirements.

1. If wash water is discharged to an unlined surface impoundment or other area for subsurface disposal, the permittee shall monitor the wash water quarterly at the point of discharge for pH and for the presence of C

10

through C

32

hydrocarbons using a Department of Health Services certified method.

2. If pH is not between 6.0 and 9.0 or the concentration of C

10

through C

32

hydrocarbons exceeds 50 mg/l, the permittee shall submit a report to the Department with a proposal for mitigation and shall increase monitoring frequency to monthly.

3. If the condition in subsection (E)(2) persists for three additional months, the permittee shall submit an application for an individual permit.

F. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available;

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure; and

3. The Material Safety Data Sheets for the chemicals used in the wash operations and any required monitoring results.

G. Closure requirements. A permittee shall comply with the closure requirements specified in R18-9-D301(G) if a liner has been used. If no liner is used the permittee shall grade the facility to prevent impoundment of water.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D304. 3.04 General Permit: Non-storm Water Impoundments at Mining Sites

A. A 3.04 General Permit allows discharges to lined surface impoundments, lined secondary containment structures, and associated lined conveyance systems at mining sites.

1. A discharge may include one or more of the following:

a. Seepage from tailing impoundments, unleached rock piles, or process areas;

b. Process solution temporarily stored for short periods of time due to process upsets or rainfall, provided the solution is promptly removed from the facility as required under subsection (D);

c. Storm water runoff not permitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-245.01 because the facility does not receive solely storm water or because the runoff is regulated under the Clean Water Act and is not considered storm water under the Act; and

d. Wash water specific to sand and gravel operations not covered by R18-9-B301(A).

2. Facilities that continually contain process solution as a normal function of facility operations are not eligible for coverage under this general permit. If a normal process solution contains a pollutant regulated under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(I) this general permit does not apply if the pollutant will compromise the integrity of the liner.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. A description of the sources of inflow to the facility. An applicant shall include a representative chemical analysis of expected sources of inflow to the facility unless a sample is not available, before facility construction, in which case the applicant shall provide a chemical analysis of solution present in the facility to the Department within 90 days after the solution first enters the facility;

2. Documentation demonstrating that plans have been reviewed by a mining engineer or an Arizona-registered professional engineer before submission to the Department; and

3. A contingency plan that specifies actions to be taken in case of an accidental release from the facility, overtopping of the impoundment or breach of the berm, and unauthorized inflows into the impoundment or containment structure.

C. Design, construction, and installation requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Design and construct the impoundment or secondary containment structure as specified under R18-9-D301(C)(1);

2. Ensure that conveyance systems are capable of handling the peak flow from the 100-year storm;

3. Construct the liner as specified in R18-9-D301(C)(4)(a);

4. Develop and implement a Quality Assurance/Quality Control program that meets or exceeds the liner manufacturer's guidelines. The program shall address site and subgrade preparation, inspection procedures, field testing, laboratory testing, repair of seams during installation, and final inspection of the completed liner for functional integrity;

5. If the facility is located in the 100-year flood plain, design the facility so it is protected from damage or flooding as a result of 100-year, 24-hour peak streamflows;

6. Design and manage the facility so groundwater does not come into contact with the liner;

7. Ensure that the facility accommodates any significant geologic hazard addressing static and seismic stability. The applicant shall document any design adjustments for this reason in the Notice of Intent to Discharge;

8. Ensure that the site preparation includes, as appropriate, clearing the area of vegetation, grubbing, grading and embankment, and subgrade preparation. The applicant shall ensure that supporting surface slopes and foundation are stable and structurally sound;

9. Ensure that the liner is anchored by being secured in an engineered anchor trench. If regularly exposed to sunlight, the applicant shall ensure that the liner is ultraviolet resistant; and

10. Use compacted clay subgrade in areas with shallow groundwater conditions.

D. Operational requirements. The permittee shall:

1. Maintain the freeboard required in subsection (C)(1) through design, pumping, or both;

2. Remove accumulated residues, sediments, debris, and vegetation to maintain the integrity and the liner to maintain design capacity;

3. Document a visual inspection for cracks, tears, perforations and residual build-up at least monthly. The operator shall conduct an inspection after the facility receives significant volumes of storm water inflow;

4. Report cracks, tears, and perforations in the liner to the Department, and repair them as soon as practical, but no later than 60 days under normal operating conditions, after discovery of the crack, tear, or perforation;

5. For facilities that temporarily contain a process solution due to process upsets, remove the process solution from the facility as soon as practical, but no later than 60 days after cessation of the upset;

6. For facilities that temporarily contain a process solution due to rainfall, remove the process solution from the facility as soon as practical.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available;

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results and facility closure:

3. Capacity design criteria;

4. List of standard operating procedures;

5. The Quality Assurance/Quality Control program required under subsection (C)(4); and

6. Records of any unauthorized flows into the impoundment.

F. Reporting requirements.

1. If the liner is breached, as evidenced by a drop in water level not attributable to evaporation, or if the impoundment breaches or is overtopped due to a catastrophic or other significant event, the permittee shall report the circumstance to the Department within five days of discovery and implement the contingency plan required in subsection (B)(3). The permittee shall submit a final report to the Department within 60 days of the event summarizing the circumstances of the problem and corrective actions taken.

2. The permittee shall report unauthorized flows into the impoundment to the Department within five days of discovery and implement the contingency plan required in subsection (B)(3).

G. Closure requirements. The permittee shall notify the Department of the intent to close the facility permanently. Within 90 days following closure notification the permittee shall comply with the following requirements, as applicable:

1. Remove any solid residue on the liner material and dispose of it appropriately;

2. Inspect the liner material for evidence of holes, tears, or defective seams that could have leaked;

3. If evidence of leakage is discovered, remove the liner in the area of suspected leakage and sample potentially impacted soil. If soil remediation levels are exceeded, the permittee shall, within 60 days notify the Department and submit an action plan for the Department's approval before implementing the plan.

4. If there is no evidence of holes, tears, or defective seams that could have leaked:

a. Cover the liner in place or remove it for disposal or reuse if the impoundment is an excavated impoundment,

b. Remove and dispose of the liner elsewhere if the impoundment is bermed, and

c. Grade the facility to prevent the impoundment of water.

5. Notify the Department within 60 days following closure that the action plan has been implemented and the closure is complete.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D305. 3.05 General Permit: Disposal Wetlands

A. A 3.05 General Permit allows discharges of reclaimed water into constructed or natural wetlands, including waters of the United States, waters of the state, and riparian areas, for disposal. This general permit does not apply if the purpose of the wetlands is to provide treatment.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit the name and individual permit number of the facility providing the reclaimed water.

C. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that the reclaimed water released into the wetland meets numeric and narrative Aquifer Water Quality Standards for all parameters except for coliform bacteria and is Class A+ reclaimed water. A+ reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment established under R18-9-B204(B)(1), filtration, and meets a total nitrogen concentration less than 10 mg/l and fecal coliform limits under R18-9-B204(B)(4)(b);

2. Maintain a minimum horizontal separation of 100 feet between any water supply well and the maximum wetted area of the wetland;

3. Post signs at points of access and every 250 feet along the perimeter of the wetland stating, "CAUTION. THESE WETLANDS CONTAIN RECLAIMED WATER. DO NOT DRINK." The applicant shall ensure that the signs are in English and Spanish, or in English with inclusion of the international "do not drink" symbol; and

4. Ensure that wetland siting is consistent with local zoning and land use requirements.

D. Operational requirements.

1. A permittee shall manage the wetland to minimize vector problems.

2. The permittee shall submit to the Department and implement a Best Management Practices Plan for operation of the wetland. The Best Management Practices Plan shall include:

a. A site plan showing the wetland footprint, point of inflow, storm water drainage, and placement of vegetation;

b. Management of flows into and through the wetland to minimize erosion and damage to vegetation;

c. Management of visitation and use of the wetlands by the public;

d. A management plan for vector control;

e. A plan or criteria for enhancing or supplementing of wetland vegetation; and

f. Management of shallow groundwater conditions on existing on-site wastewater treatment facilities.

3. The permittee shall perform quarterly inspections to review bank integrity, erosion evidence, the condition of signage and vegetation, and correct any problem noted.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available; and

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure.

F. Reporting requirements. The permittee shall provide the Department with an annual assessment of the biological condition of the wetland, including the volume of inflow to the wetland in the past year.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D306. 3.06 General Permit: Constructed Wetlands to Treat Acid Rock Drainage at Mining Sites

A. A 3.06 General Permit allows the operation of constructed wetlands that receive, with the intent to treat, acid rock drainage from a closed facility.

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit a design, including information on the quality of the influent, the treatment process to be used, the expected quality of the wastewater, and the nutrients and other constituents that will indicate wetland performance.

C. Design, construction, and installation. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that:

a. Water released into the wetland is compatible with construction materials and vegetation;

b. Water released from the wetland meets numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standards, pH is between 6.0 and 9.0, and sulfate concentration is less than 1000 mg/l; and

c. Water released from the wetland complies with and is released under an individual permit and a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System Permit, if required.

2. Construct the treatment wetland with a liner, using low hydraulic conductivity artificial liner material, site-specific liner material, or both, to achieve a calculated seepage rate of less than 550 gallons per acre per day. The applicant shall:

a. Ensure that, if an artificial liner material is used, such as geomembrane, the material is underlain by at least six inches of prepared and compacted subgrade;

b. Anchor the liner along the perimeter of the wetland; and

c. Manage the plants in the wetland to prevent species with root penetration that impairs liner performance.

3. Design the treatment wetland for optimum:

a. Sizing appropriate for the anticipated treatment,

b. Cell configuration,

c. Vegetative species composition, and

d. Berm configuration.

4. Construct and locate the treatment wetland so that it:

a. Maintains physical integrity during a 100-year, 24-hour storm event; and

b. Operates properly during a 25-year, 24-hour storm event.

5. Ensure that the bottom of the treatment wetland is at least 20 feet above the seasonal high groundwater table.

6. If public access to the wetland is anticipated or encouraged, post signs at points of access and every 250 feet along the perimeter of the wetland stating, "CAUTION. THESE WETLANDS CONTAIN MINE DRAINAGE WATER. DO NOT DRINK." The permittee shall ensure that the signs are in English and Spanish, or in English with inclusion of the international "do not drink" symbol.

D. Operational requirements.

1. The permittee shall monitor the water leaving the wetlands at least quarterly for the standards specified in subsection (C)(1)(b). Monitoring shall include nutrients or other constituents used as indicators of wetland performance.

2. The permittee shall submit to the Department and implement a Best Management Practices Plan for operation of the wetland. The Best Management Practices Plan shall include:

a. A site plan showing the wetland footprint, point of inflow, storm water drainage, and placement of vegetation;

b. A contingency plan to address problems, including treatment performance, wash-out and vegetation die-off, and a plan to apply for an individual permit if the wetland is unable to achieve the treatment standards in subsection (C)(1)(b) on a continued basis;

c. Management of flows into and through the wetland to minimize erosion and damage to vegetation;

d. A description of the measures for restricting access to the wetlands by the public;

e. A management plan for vector control; and

f. A plan or criteria for enhancing or supplementing wetland vegetation.

3. The permittee shall perform quarterly inspections to review the bank and liner integrity, erosion evidence, and the condition of signage and vegetation, and correct any problems noted.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available; and

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure.

F. Reporting requirements.

1. If preliminary laboratory result indicates that the quality of the water leaving the wetlands does not meet the standards specified in subsection (C)(1)(b), the permittee may request that the laboratory re-analyze the sample before reporting the results to the Department. The permittee shall:

a. Conduct verification sampling within 15 days of receiving final laboratory results,

b. Conduct verification sampling only for parameters that are present in concentrations greater than the standards specified in subsection (C)(1)(b), and

c. Notify the Department in writing within five days of receiving final laboratory results.

2. If the final laboratory result confirms that the quality of the water leaving the wetlands does not meet the standards in subsection (C)(1)(b), the permittee shall implement the contingency plan required by subsection (D)(2)(b) and notify the Department that the plan is being implemented.

3. The permittee shall provide the Department with an annual assessment of the biological condition of the wetland, including the volume of inflow to the wetland in the past year.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-D307. 3.07 General Permit: Tertiary Treatment Wetlands

A. A 3.07 General Permit allows constructed wetlands that receive with the intent to treat, discharges of reclaimed water that meet the secondary treatment level requirements specified in R18-9-B204(B)(1).

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. The name and individual permit number of any facility that provides the reclaimed water to the wetland;

2. The name and individual permit number of any facility that receives water released from the wetland;

3. The design of the wetland construction and management project, including information on the quality of the influent, the treatment process, and the expected quality of the wastewater;

4. A Best Management Practices Plan that includes:

a. A site plan showing the wetland footprint, point of inflow, storm water drainage, and placement of vegetation;

b. A contingency plan to address any problem. including treatment performance, wash-out, and vegetation die-off;

c. A management plan for flows into and through the wetland to minimize erosion and damage to vegetation;

d. A description of the measures for restricting access to the wetlands by the public;

e. A management plan for vector control; and

f. A plan or criteria for enhancing or supplementing wetland vegetation.

C. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Release water from the wetland under an individual permit and a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit, if required. The applicant shall release water from the wetland only to a direct reuse site if the site is permitted to receive reclaimed water of the quality generated under the individual permit specified in subsection (B)(1);

2. Construct and locate the treatment wetland so that it:

a. Maintains physical integrity during a 100-year, 24-hour storm event, and

b. Operates properly during a 25-year, 24-hour storm event.

3. Ensure that the bottom of the treatment wetland is at least 20 feet above the seasonal high groundwater table;

4. Maintain a minimum horizontal separation of 100 feet between any water supply well and the maximum wetted area of the wetland;

5. Maintain a minimum 1000 foot setback between the property boundary at the site and the maximum wetted area of the wetland;

6. Fence the wetland area to prevent unauthorized access;

7. Post signs at points of access stating "CAUTION. THESE WETLANDS CONTAIN RECLAIMED WATER, DO NOT DRINK." The applicant shall ensure that the signs are in English and Spanish, or in English with inclusion of the international "do not drink" symbol;

8. Construct the treatment wetland with a liner using low hydraulic conductivity artificial liner material, site-specific liner material, or both, to achieve a calculated seepage rate of less than 550 gallons per acre per day. The applicant shall:

a. Ensure that if an artificial liner material is used, such as geomembrane, the material is underlain by at least six inches of prepared and compacted subgrade;

b. Anchor the liner along the perimeter of the wetland; and

c. Manage the plants in the wetland to prevent species with root penetration that impairs liner performance.

9. Calculate the size and depth of the wetland so that the rate of flow allows adequate treatment detention time. The applicant shall design the wetland with at least two parallel treatment cells to allow for efficient system operation and maintenance;

10. Ensure that the wetland vegetation includes cattails, bulrush, common reed, or other species of plants with high pollutant treatment potential to achieve the intended water quality identified in subsection (B)(3); and

11. Ensure that construction and operation of the wetlands is consistent with local zoning and land use requirements.

D. Operational requirements. The permittee shall:

1. Implement an approved Best Management Practices Plan;

2. Monitor wastewater leaving the treatment wetland to ensure that discharge water quality meets the intended treatment specified in subsection (A)(3). The permittee shall ensure that analyses of wastewater samples are conducted by a laboratory certified by the Department of Health Services, following the Department's Quality Assurance/Quality Control requirements;

3. Follow the prescribed measures as required in the contingency plan under subsection (B)(4)(b) and report to the Department within five days if verification sampling demonstrates that an alert level or discharge limit is exceeded;

4. Inspect the wetlands at least quarterly for bank and liner integrity, erosion evidence, and condition of signage and vegetation, and correct any problem discovered; and

5. Ensure that the wetland is operated by a certified operator.

E. Recordkeeping. A permittee shall maintain the following information for at least 10 years and make it available to the Department upon request:

1. Construction drawings and as-built drawings, if available; and

2. A log book or similar documentation to record inspection results, repair and maintenance activities, monitoring results, and facility closure.

F. Reporting requirements. The permittee shall provide the Department with an annual assessment of the biological condition of the wetland including the volume of inflow to the wetland in the past year.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

PART E. TYPE 4 GENERAL PERMITS

R18-9-E301. 4.01 General Permit: Sewage Collection Systems

A. A 4.01 General Permit allows a new sewage collection system or an expansion of an existing sewage collection system involving new construction.

1. A sewer collection system includes all sewer lines and associated structures, devices, and appurtenances that:

a. Are owned or controlled by a public or private sewer utility extending from the treatment works to the upstream points in the system where private owners assume ownership or control; or

b. Serve multiple private users from the upstream points where the individual users assume ownership or control to the downstream point where the sewer delivers wastewater to a sewage collection system owned or controlled by a public or private sewer utility, or to a sewage treatment facility.

2. A sewer collection system repair is not an expansion of the system that requires a Notice of Intent to Discharge. Repairs include work performed in response to deterioration of existing structures, devices, and appurtenances with the intent to maintain or restore the system to its original operational characteristics.

B. Performance. An applicant shall design, construct, and operate a sewage collection system so that it:

1. Provides adequate wastewater flow capacity for the planned service;

2. Minimizes sedimentation, blockage, and erosion through maintenance of proper flow velocities throughout the system;

3. Prevents sanitary sewer overflows through appropriate sizing, capacities, and inflow and infiltration prevention measures throughout the system;

4. Protects water quality through minimization of exfiltration losses from the system;

5. Provides for adequate inspection, maintenance, testing, visibility, and accessibility; and

6. Maintains system structural integrity.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit the following information:

1. A statement, signed by the owner or operator of the sewage treatment facility that treats or processes the sewage from the proposed sewer collection system.

a. The owner or operator shall affirm that the additional volume of wastewater delivered to the facility by the proposed sewer collection system will not cause any flow or effluent quality limits of the individual permit for the facility to be exceeded.

b. If the facility is classified as a groundwater protection permit facility under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241.01(C), or if no flow or effluent limits are applicable, the owner or operator shall affirm that the design flow of the facility will not be exceeded.

2. If the proposed sewage collection system delivers wastewater to a downstream sewer collection system under different ownership or control, a statement, signed by the owner or operator of the downstream sewer collection system, affirming that the downstream system can maintain the performance required by subsection (B) if it receives the increased flows associated with the new system or the expansion;

3. A general site plan showing the boundaries and key aspects of the project;

4. Construction quality drawings that provide overall details of the site and the engineered works comprising the project including:

a. Relevant plans and profiles of sewer lines, force mains, manholes, and lift stations with sufficient detail to allow Department verification of design and performance characteristics;

b. Relevant cross sections showing construction details and elevations of key components of the sewer collection system to allow Department verification of design and performance characteristics, including the slope of each gravity sewer segment stated as a percentage; and

c. Drainage features and controls, and erosion protection as applicable, for the components of the project.

5. Documentation of design flows for significant components of the sewage collection system and the basis for calculating the design flows;

6. An operation and maintenance plan if the project has a design flow of more than 10,000 gallons per day;

7. Drawings, reports, and other information that are clear, reproducible, and in a size and format specified by the Department. The applicant may submit the drawings in a Department-approved electronic format; and

8. Design documents, including plans, specifications, drawings, reports, and calculations that are signed and sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer unless prohibited by law. The designer shall use good engineering judgement following engineering standards of practice, and rely on appropriate engineering methods, calculations, and guidance.

D. Design requirements.

1. General Provisions. An applicant shall ensure that the design, installation, and testing of a new sewage collection system or an expansion to an existing sewage collection system involving new construction complies with the following rules. An applicant shall:

a. Base design flows for components of the system on unit flows specified in Table 1, Unit Daily Design Flows. If documented by the applicant, the Department may accept lower unit flow values in the served area due to significant use of low flow fixtures.

b. Use the "Uniform Standard Specifications for Public Works Construction," referenced in this Section and published by the Maricopa Association of Governments, revisions through 2000, or the "Pima County Wastewater Management," November 1994 Edition, as the applicable design and construction criteria, unless the Department approved alternative design standards or specifications authorized by a delegation agreement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-107.

c. Use gravity sewer lines, if appropriate. The applicant shall design gravity sewer lines and all other sewer collection system components, including force mains, manholes, lift stations, and appurtenant devices and structures to accommodate maximum sewage flows as determined by the method specified in subsections (D)(1)(c)(i) or (D)(1)(c)(ii) that yields the greatest calculated flow:

i. Any point in a sewer main when flowing full can accommodate an average flow of 100 gallons per capita per day for all populations upstream from that point, or

ii. Any point in a sewer collection system can accommodate a peak flow for all populations upstream from that point as tabulated below:

<table> Upstream Population Peaking Factor 100 3.62 200 3.14 300 2.90 400 2.74 500 2.64 600 2.56 700 2.50 800 2.46 900 2.42 1000 2.38 1001 to 10,000 PF = (6.330 x p -0.231 ) + 1.094 10,001 to 100,000 PF = (6.177 x p -0.233 ) + 1.128 More than 100,000 PF = (4.500 x p -0.174 ) + 0.945 PF = Peaking Factor p = Upstream Population </table>

d. Ensure the separation of sewage collection system components from drinking water distribution system components under R18-4-502.

e. Request review and approval of an alternative to a design feature specified in this Section by following the requirements of R18-9-A312(G).

2. Gravity sewer lines. An applicant shall:

a. Ensure that any sewer line that runs between manholes, if not straight, is of constant horizontal curvature with a radius of curvature not less than 200 feet;

b. Cover each sewer line with at least three feet of backfill meeting the requirements of subsection (D)(2)(h)(i). The applicant shall:

i. Include at least one note specifying this requirement in construction plans;

ii. If site-specific limitations prevent three feet of earth cover, provide the maximum cover attainable, and construct the sewer line of ductile iron pipe or other materials of equivalent or greater tensile and compressive strength;

iii. If ductile iron pipe is not used, design and construct the sewer line pipe with restrained joints or an equivalent feature; and

iv. Ensure that the design of the pipe and joints can withstand crushing or shearing from any expected load. Construction plans shall note locations requiring these measures.

c. If sewer lines cross floodways, place the lines at least two feet below the 100-year storm scour depth and construct the lines using ductile iron pipe or pipe with equivalent tensile strength, compressive strength, shear resistance, and scour protection. The applicant shall ensure that sewer lines constructed in this manner extend at least 10 feet beyond the boundary of the 100-year storm scouring. Construction plans shall note locations requiring these measures.

d. Ensure that each sewer line is eight inches in diameter or larger except:

i. The first 400 feet of a dead end sewer line with no potential for extension may be six inches in diameter if the design flow criteria specified in subsection (D)(1)(c) are met. If the line is ever extended, the applicant seeking the extension shall replace the entire length with larger pipe to accommodate the new design flow; or

ii. The sewer lines for a sewage collection system for a manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle park are not less than four-inches in diameter for up to 20 units, five-inches in diameter for 21 to 36 units, and six-inches in diameter for 37 to 60 units.

e. Design sewer lines with at least the minimum slope calculated from Manning's Formula using a coefficient of roughness of 0.013 and a sewage velocity of two feet per second when flowing full.

i. An applicant may request a smaller minimum slope under R18-9-A312(G) if the smaller slope is justified by a quarterly program of inspections, flushings, and cleanings.

ii. If a smaller minimum slope is requested, the slope shall not be less than 50% of that calculated from Manning's formula using a coefficient of roughness of 0.013 and a sewage velocity of two feet per second.

f. Design sewer lines to avoid a slope that creates a sewage velocity greater than 10 feet per second. The applicant shall construct any sewer line carrying a flow with a normal velocity of greater than 10 feet per second using ductile iron pipe or pipe with equivalent erosion resistance, and structurally reinforce the receiving manhole or sewer main.

g. Design and install sewer lines, connections, and fittings with materials that meet or exceed manufacturer's specifications not inconsistent with this Chapter to:

i. Limit inflows, infiltration, and exfiltration;

ii. Resist corrosion in the project electrochemical environment;

iii. Withstand anticipated live and dead loads; and

iv. Provide internal erosion protection.

h. Indicate trenching and bedding details applicable for each pipe material and size in the design plans. Sewer lines shall be placed in trenches and bedded following the specifications established in subsections (D)(2)(h)(i) and (D)(2)(h)(ii). This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the Maricopa Association of Governments, 302 N. 1st Avenue, Suite 300, Phoenix, Arizona 85003, or from Pima County Wastewater Management, 201 N. Stone Avenue, Tucson, Arizona 85701-1207.

i. "Trench Excavation, Backfilling, and Compaction" (Section 601), published in the "Uniform Standard Specifications for Public Works Construction," published by the Maricopa Association of Governments, revisions through 2000; and

ii. "Rigid Pipe Bedding for Sanitary Sewers" (WWM 104), and "Flexible Pipe Bedding for Sanitary Sewers" (WWM 105), published by Pima County Wastewater Management, revised November 1994.

i. Perform a deflection test of the total length of all sewer lines made of flexible materials to ensure that the installation meets or exceeds the manufacturer's recommendations and record the results.

j. Test each segment of the sewer line for leakage using the applicable method below and record the results:

i. "Standard Test Method for Installation of Acceptance of Plastic Gravity Sewer Lines Using Low-Pressure Air" published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (F 1417-92), reapproved 1998;

ii. "Standard Practice for Testing Concrete Pipe Sewer Lines by Low-Pressure Air Test Method" published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (C 924-89), reapproved 1997;

iii. "Standard Test Method for Low-Pressure Air Test of Vitrified Clay Pipe Lines" published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (C 828-98), approved March 10, 1998; or

iv. The material listed in subsections (D)(2)(j)(i), (D)(2)(j)(ii), and (D)(2)(j)(iii) is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.

k. Test the total length of the sewer line for uniform slope by lamp lighting, remote camera or similar method approved by the Department, and record the results.

3. Manholes.

a. An applicant shall install manholes at all grade changes, all size changes, all alignment changes, all sewer intersections, and at any location necessary to comply with the following spacing requirements:

<table> Sewer Pipe Diameter (inches) Maximum Manhole Spacing (feet) 4 to less than 8 300 8 to less than 18 500 18 to less than 36 600 36 to less than 60 800 60 or greater 1300 </table>

b. The Department shall allow greater manhole spacing following the procedure provided in R18-9-A312(G) if documentation is provided showing the operator possesses or has available specialized sewer cleaning equipment suitable for the increased spacing.

c. The applicant shall ensure that manhole design is consistent with "Pre-cast Concrete Sewer Manhole" (#420), "Offset Manhole for 8" - 30" Pipe" (#421), and "Brick Sewer Manhole and Cover Frame Adjustment" (#422), 1998, including revisions through 2000, published by the Maricopa Association of Governments; and "Manholes and Appurtenant Items" (WWM 201 through WWM 211), Standard Details for Public Improvements, 1994 Edition, published by Pima County Wastewater Management.

d. The material specified in subsection (D)(3)(c) is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the Maricopa Association of Governments, 302 N. 1st Avenue, Suite 300, Phoenix, Arizona 85003, or from Pima County Wastewater Management, 201 N. Stone Avenue, Tucson, Arizona 85701-1207.

e. The applicant shall not locate manholes in areas subject to more than incidental runoff from rain falling in the immediate vicinity unless the manhole cover assembly is designed to restrict or eliminate storm water inflow.

f. The applicant shall test manholes using one of the following test protocols:

i. Watertightness testing by filling the manhole with water. The applicant shall ensure that the drop in water level does not exceed 0.001 of total manhole volume in one hour.

ii. Air pressure testing using the "Standard Test Method for Concrete Sewer Manholes by Negative Air Pressure (Vacuum) Test," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (C 1244-93), approved August 15, 1993. This material is incorporated by reference, does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter, and is on file with the Office of the Secretary of State. The material may be viewed at the Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, or obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.

g. The applicant shall perform manhole testing under subsection (D)(3)(f) after installation of the manhole cone to verify watertightness of the manhole from the top of the cone down.

i. Upon satisfactory test results, the applicant shall install the manhole ring and any spacers, complete the joints, and seal the manhole to a watertight condition.

ii. If the manhole cone, spacers, and ring can be installed to final grade without disturbance or adjustment by later construction, the applicant may perform the testing from the top of the manhole ring on down.

h. The applicant shall locate a manhole to provide adequate visibility and vehicular maintenance accessibility after the manhole has been built.

4. Force mains. If it is impractical to install a gravity sewer line system, an applicant may install a force main if it meets the following design, installation, and testing requirements. The applicant shall:

a. Design force mains to maintain a minimum flow velocity of three feet per second and a maximum flow velocity of seven feet per second.

b. Ensure that force mains have the appropriate valves and controls required to prevent drainback to the lift station. If drainback is necessary during cold weather to prevent freezing, the control system may allow manual or automatic drainback.

c. Incorporate air release valves or other appropriate components in force mains at all high points along the line to eliminate air accumulation. If engineering calculations provided by the applicant demonstrate that air will not accumulate in a given high point under typical flow conditions, the Department shall waive the requirement for an air release valve.

d. Provide thrust blocks or restrained joints if needed to prevent excessive movement of the force main. Construction plans shall show thrust block or restrained joint locations and details. The documentation submitted to the Department for verification of the general permit shall include calculations and analysis of water hammer potential and surge control measures and shall be signed and sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer.

e. If a force main is proposed to discharge directly to a sewage treatment facility without entering a flow equalization basin, include in the Notice of Intent to Discharge a statement from the owner or operator of the sewage treatment facility that the design is acceptable.

f. Design a force main to withstand, and upon completion test the force main for leakage, at a pressure of 50 pounds per square inch or more above the design working pressure.

g. Supply flow to a force main using a lift station that meets the requirements of subsection (D)(5).

5. Lift stations. An applicant shall:

a. Secure a lift station to prevent tampering and affix on its exterior, or on the nearest vertical object if the lift station is entirely below grade, at least one warning sign that includes the 24-hour emergency phone number of the owner or operator of the collection system;

b. Protect lift stations from physical damage from a 100-year flood event. Construction of a lift station is prohibited in a floodway;

c. Lift station wet well design. The applicant shall:

i. Ensure that the minimum wet well volume in gallons shall be 1/4 of the product of the minimum pump cycle time, in minutes, and the total pump capacity, in gallons per minute;

ii. Protect the wet well against corrosion to provide at least a 20-year design life;

iii. Ensure that wet well volume does not allow the sewage retention time to exceed 30 minutes unless the sewage is aerated, chemicals are added to prevent or eliminate hydrogen sulfide formation, or adequate ventilation is provided. Notwithstanding these measures, the applicant shall not allow the septic condition of the sewage to adversely affect downstream collection systems or sewage treatment facility performance;

iv. Ensure that excessively high or low levels of sewage in the wet well trigger an audible or visual alarm at the wet well site and at the system control center; and

v. Ensure that a wet well designed to accommodate more than 5000 gallons per day has a horizontal open cross-sectional area of at least 20 square feet.

d. Equip a lift station wet well with at least two pumps. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. The pumps are capable of passing a 2.5-inch sphere or are grinder pumps;

ii. The lift station is capable of operating at design flow with any one pump out of service; and

iii. Piping, valves, and controls are arranged to allow independent operation of each pump.

e. Not use suction pumps if the sewage lift is more than 15 feet. The applicant shall ensure that other types of pumps are self-priming and that pump water brake horsepower is at least 0.00025 times the product of the required discharge, in gallons per minute, and the required total dynamic head, in feet;

f. For safety during operation and maintenance, design lift stations to conform with all applicable state and federal confined space requirements; and

g. For lift stations receiving an average flow of more than 10,000 gallons per day, include a standby power source in the lift station design that may be put into service immediately and remain available for 24 hours per day.

E. Additional Verification of General Permit Conformance requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Supply a signed and sealed Engineer's Certificate of Completion, unless prohibited by law, in a format approved by the Department that provides the following:

a. Confirmation that the project was completed in compliance with the requirements of this Chapter, as described in the plans and specifications corresponding to the Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance issued by the Director, or with changes that are reflected in as-built plans submitted with the Engineer's Certificate of Completion;

b. As-built plans, if required, that are properly identified and numbered; and

c. Confirmation of satisfactory test results from deflection, leakage, and uniform slope testing.

2. Provide any other relevant information required by the Department to determine that the facility conforms to the terms of this general permit; and

3. If the project has a design flow of more than 10,000 gallons per day, provide a final operation and maintenance plan that includes the 24-hour emergency number of the owner or operator of the system.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements.

1. The permittee of a sewage collection system that includes a force main and lift station or that has a design flow of more than 10,000 gallons per day shall maintain, and revise as needed, an operation and maintenance plan for the system at the system control center.

2. The permittee shall ensure that the operation and maintenance plan is the basis for operation and continuing maintenance of the sewer collection system.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E302. 4.02 General Permit: Septic Tank With Disposal by Trench, Bed, Chamber Technology, or Seepage Pit, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.02 General Permit allows for a system consisting of a septic tank dispensing wastewater to an approved means of disposal described in this Section. Only gravity flow of wastewater from the septic tank to the disposal field is authorized by this general permit.

1. The standard septic tank and disposal field design specified in this general permit is intended to serve most sites where no site limitations are identified by the site investigation conducted under R18-9-A310.

2. If site conditions allow, this general permit authorizes the discharge of wastewater from a septic tank meeting the requirements of R18-9-A314 to one of the following disposal fields:

a. Shallow trench,

b. Deep trench,

c. Bed,

d. Disposal field using chamber technology, or

e. Seepage pit.

B. Performance. An applicant shall design a system consisting of a septic tank and one of the disposal fields listed in subsection (A)(2) on the basis that treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 75 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 150 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000,000 (Log

10

8) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Design and installation requirements.

1. General provisions. The applicant shall:

a. Ensure that the septic tank meets the requirements specified in R18-9-A314;

b. Before placing aggregate or drain lines in a prepared excavation, remove all smeared or compacted surfaces from trenches by raking to a depth of one inch and removing loose material. The applicant shall:

i. Place aggregate in the trench to the depth and grade specified in subsection (C)(2);

ii. Place the drain pipe on aggregate and cover it with aggregate to the minimum depth specified in subsection (C)(2); and

iii. Cover the aggregate with landscape filter material, geotextile, or similar porous material to prevent filling of voids with earth backfill.

c. Use a grade board stake placed in the trench to the depth of the aggregate if the distribution line is constructed of drain tile or flexible pipe that will not maintain alignment without continuous support;

d. If two or more drain lines are installed, install a distribution box approved by the Department of sufficient size to receive all lateral lines and flows at the head of each disposal field. The applicant shall:

i. Ensure that the inverts of all outlets are level and the invert of the inlet is at least one inch above the outlets;

ii. Design distribution boxes to ensure equal flow and install the boxes on a stable level surface such as a concrete slab or native or compacted soil; and

iii. Protect concrete distribution boxes from corrosion by coating them with an appropriate bituminous coating, constructing the boxes with concrete that has a 15 to 18% fly ash content, or by using other allowable means.

e. Construct all lateral pipes running from a distribution box to the disposal field with watertight joints and ensure that multiple disposal field laterals, wherever practical, are of uniform length;

f. Lay pipe connections between the septic tank and a distribution box on natural ground or compact fill and construct the pipe connections with watertight joints;

g. Construct steps within distribution line trenches or beds, if necessary, to maintain a level disposal pipe on sloping ground. The lines between each horizontal section shall be constructed with watertight joints and installed on natural or unfilled ground; and

h. Ensure that a disposal field consisting of trenches, beds, chamber technology, or seepage pits is not paved over or covered by concrete or any material that can reduce or inhibit possible evaporation of wastewater through the soil to the land surface.

2. Shallow and deep trenches.

a. The applicant may, in computing the trench bottom absorption, include a trench sidewall area between 12 and 36 inches below the distribution line.

b. The applicant shall ensure that trench bottoms are level. The applicant shall calculate trench sizing for shallow and deep trenches from the soil absorption rate specified under R18-9-A312(D).

c. The following design criteria for shallow and deep trenches apply:

<table> Shallow and Deep Trenches Minimum Maximum Number of trenches 1 (2 are recommended) ---- Length of trench ---- 100 feet Bottom width of trench 12 inches 36 inches Depth of cover over distribution pipe 9 inches 24 inches 1 Aggregate material under pipe 12 inches ---- Aggregate material over pipe 2 inches 2 inches Slope of distribution pipe Level Level Distribution pipe diameter 3 inches 4 inches Spacing of distribution pipe 2 times effective depth 2 or five feet, whichever is greater ---- Notes: 1. For more than 24 inches, SDR 35 or equivalent strength pipe is required. 2. The distance between the bottom of the distribution pipe and the bottom of the trench bed. </table>

3. Beds. An applicant shall:

a. If a bed is installed instead of a trench, ensure that the area of each bed is at least 50% greater than the tabular dimensions required for a trench. The applicant may, in computing the bed bottom absorption area, include a perimeter sidewall area between 12 and 36 inches below the distribution line.

b. Ensure that the bottom of a bed is level and calculate bed sizing from the soil absorption rate as specified by R18-9-A312(D).

c. The following design criteria for beds apply:

<table> Gravity Beds Minimum Maximum Number of distribution pipes 2 -- Length of bed -- 100 feet Distance between pipes 4 feet 6 feet Width of bed 10 feet 12 feet Distance from pipe to sidewall 3 feet 3 feet Depth of cover over pipe 9 inches 14 inches Aggregate material under pipe 12 inches -- Aggregate material over pipe 2 inches 2 inches Slope of distribution pipe Level Level Distribution pipe diameter 3 inches 4 inches </table>

4. Disposal field using chamber technology. An applicant shall:

a. If leaching chambers are proposed instead of trenches or beds installed with distribution pipes, calculate an equivalent effective chamber absorption area to size the disposal field area and the number of chambers needed. The effective absorption area of each chamber is calculated as follows:

A = (1.43 &#8734; B &#8734; L) + (2 &#8734; V &#8734; L)

i. "A" is the effective absorption area of each chamber,

ii. "B" is the nominal width of the open bottom absorption surface of the chamber,

iii. "V" is the vertical height of the chamber sidewall, and

iv. "L" is the length of the chamber.

b. Calculate the disposal field size and number of chambers from the effective absorption area of each chamber and the soil absorption rates specified in R18-9-A312(D), taking care to use the appropriate value, depending on whether the proposed chamber installation is shallow or deep. Example calculations for effective chamber absorption area, disposal field size, and number of required chambers are on file with the Department.

c. Ensure that the sidewall of the chamber provides at least 35% open area for sidewall credit and that the design and construction minimizes the movement of fines into the chamber area. The use of filter fabric or geotextile against the sidewall openings is prohibited.

5. Seepage pits. The applicant shall:

a. If allowed by R18-9-A311, design a seepage pit to comply with R18-9-A312(E)(1) for minimum vertical separation distance;

b. Ensure that multiple seepage pit installations are served through a distribution box approved by the Department or connected in series with a watertight connection laid on undisturbed or compacted soil. The applicant shall ensure that the outlet from the pit has a sanitary tee with the vertical leg extending at least 12 inches below the inlet;

c. Ensure that each seepage pit is circular and has an excavated diameter of four to six feet. The applicant may use the alternative design procedure specified in R18-9-A312(G) for a proposed seepage pit more than six feet in diameter;

d. For a gravel filled seepage pit, backfill the entire pit with aggregate. The applicant shall ensure that each pit has a breather conductor pipe that consists of a perforated pipe at least four inches in diameter, placed vertically within the backfill of the pit. The pipe shall extend from the bottom of the pit to within 12 inches below ground level;

e. For a lined, hollow seepage pit, lay a concrete liner or a liner of a different approved material in the pit on a firm foundation and fill excavation voids behind the liner with at least nine inches of aggregate;

f. For the cover of a lined seepage pit use an approved one or two piece reinforced concrete slab with a minimum compressive strength of 2500 pounds per square inch. The applicant shall ensure that the cover:

i. Is at least five inches thick and designed to support an earth load of at least 400 pounds per square foot;

ii. Has a 12 inch square or diameter minimum access hole with a plug or cap that is coated on the underside with an approved bituminous seal, constructed of concrete with 15% to 18% fly ash content, or made of other nonpermeable protective material; and

iii. Has a four inch or larger inspection pipe placed vertically not more than six inches below ground level;

g. Ensure that the top of the seepage pit cover is four to 18 inches below the surface of the ground;

h. Install a vented inlet fitting in every seepage pit to prevent flows into the seepage pit from damaging the sidewall.

i. An applicant may use a 1/4 bend fitting placed through an opening in the top of the slab cover if a one or two piece concrete slab cover inlet is used; or

ii. For multiple seepage pit installations, an applicant shall install the outlet fittings following a reference design drawing on file with the Department.

i. Bore seepage pits five feet deeper than the proposed pit depth to verify underlying soil characteristics and backfill the five feet of overdrill with low permeability drill cuttings or other suitable material;

j. Backfill seepage pits that terminate in gravelly, coarse sand zones five feet above the beginning of the zone with low permeability drill cuttings or other suitable material;

k. Determine the minimum sidewall area for a seepage pit from the design flow and the soil absorption rate derived from the testing procedure described in R18-9-A310(F). The effective absorption surface for a seepage pit is the sidewall area only. The sidewall area is calculated by the following formula:

A = 3.14 &#8734; D &#8734; H

i. "A" is the minimum sidewall area in square feet needed for the design flow and soil absorption rate for the installation;

ii. "D" is the diameter of the proposed seepage pit in feet;

iii. "H" is the vertical height in feet in the seepage pit through which wastewater infiltrates native soil. The applicant shall ensure that H is at least 10 feet for any seepage pit.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E303. 4.03 General Permit: Composting Toilet, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.03 General Permit allows a composting toilet.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "composting toilet" means a treatment technology that receives human waste from a waterless toilet directly into an aerobic composting tank where dehydration and biological activity reduce the volume and the content of nutrients and harmful microorganisms to an appropriate level for later disposal at the site or elsewhere.

2. An applicant shall use a composting toilet system only if a wastewater system or gray water system is used to accommodate wastewater that does not originate from toilets.

3. An applicant may use a composting toilet if:

a. Limited water availability prevents use of other types of on-site wastewater treatment facilities,

b. Environmental constraints prevent the discharge of wastewater or nutrients to a sensitive area,

c. Inadequate space prevents use of other systems, or

d. Severe site limitations exist that make other forms of treatment or disposal unacceptable.

B. Restrictions. An applicant shall:

1. Not install a composting toilet if the composting chamber temperature cannot be maintained between 60&#176; F and 70&#176; F or for any seven day average the temperature of the chamber is less than 55&#176; F or greater than 80&#176; F, and

2. Ensure that a composting toilet system receives only human excrement.

C. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a composting toilet:

1. Prevents discharge of blackwater to the native soil through containment in the composting toilet system,

2. Manages gray water as provided in this Article or under 18 A.A.C., and

3. Prevents vectors.

D. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), the applicant shall submit:

1. The name and address of the composting toilet system manufacturer;

2. A copy of the manufacturer's warranty, installation, and operation and maintenance plans;

3. The product model number;

4. The rate of composting and capacity calculations.

5. Documentation of listing by a national listing organization indicating that the composting toilet meets the stated manufacturer's specifications for loading, treatment performance, and operation;

6. The method of vector control; and

7. The calculation of waste volume and planned method for disposing of the composted human excrement residue.

E. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that the composting tank is double-walled for leak protection;

2. Ensure that the composting tank has airtight seals to prevent odor or toxic gas from escaping into the building. The system may be vented to the outside;

3. Base the rate of composting and capacity calculations on the lowest monthly average tank temperature, unless a temperature control device is installed;

4. Unless a temperature control device is installed, ensure that the capacity of the composting facility provides adequate storage for all waste produced during the months when the average temperature is below 55&#176; F, if the manufacturer allows operation at this temperature; and

5. Dispose of the composted product at the end of the treatment process as provided under 18 A.A.C. 8 and 18 A.A.C. 13.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. A permittee shall:

1. Provide adequate mixing, ventilation, temperature control, moisture, and bulk to reduce fire hazard and prevent anaerobic conditions;

2. If consistent with this Chapter, follow the manufacturer's recommendations regarding use of an organic bulking agent to control liquid drainage, promote aeration, or provide additional carbon;

3. If consistent with this Chapter, follow the manufacturer's recommendations for operation, maintenance, and recordkeeping regarding rotating tines used to control the movement of material to the bottom of the composting chamber;

4. If batch system containers are mounted on a carousel, place a new container in the toilet area if the previous one is full;

5. Ensure that only human waste, paper approved for septic tank use, and the amount of bulking material required for proper maintenance is introduced to the composting tank. The applicant shall immediately remove all other materials or trash. If allowed by the manufacturer's specifications and consistent with this Chapter, other nonliquid compostable residues, such as fruit and vegetable peels, may be added to the toilet;

6. Ensure that liquid end product that does not evaporate is sprayed back onto the composting waste material or removed by a permitted or licensed waste hauler;

7. Remove and dispose of composted waste, at least annually, using a permitted or licensed waste hauler if the waste is not placed in a disposal area for burial;

8. Before ending use for an extended period take measures to assure that moisture is maintained to sustain bacterial activity and free liquids in the tank do not freeze; and

9. After an extended period of non-use, empty the composting tank of solid end product and inspect all mechanical components to verify that the mechanical components are operating as designed.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E304. 4.04 General Permit: Pressure Distribution System, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.04 General Permit allows pressurized distribution of wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "pressure distribution system" means a tank, pump, controls, and piping that conducts wastewater under pressure in controlled amounts and intervals to a disposal field, bed, trench, or other means of disposal authorized by a general permit for an on-site wastewater treatment facility.

2. An applicant may use a pressure distribution systems if a gravity flow system is unsuitable, inadequate, unfeasible, or cost prohibitive because of site limitations or other conditions or if needed to optimally disperse wastewater to some types of disposal systems.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a pressure distribution system:

1. Has Department-approved dispersing components that provide proper dispersal of wastewater so that loading rates are optimized for the particular system, and

2. Prevents ponding on the land surface.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), the applicant shall submit:

1. A copy of operation, maintenance, and warranty materials for the principal components; and

2. A copy of dosing specifications, including pump curves, dispersing component curves, and float switch settings.

D. Design requirements.

1. An applicant shall ensure that pumps:

a. Are rated for effluent service by the manufacturer and certified by Underwriters Laboratories,

b. Achieve the minimum design flow rate and total dynamic head requirements for the particular site, and

c. Incorporate a quick disconnect using compression-type unions for pressure connections. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. Quick-disconnects are accessible in the pressure piping, and

ii. A pump has adequate lift attachments for removal and replacement of the pump and switch assembly without entering the dosing tank.

2. Switches, controls, alarms, and electrical components. An applicant shall ensure that:

a. Switches and controls accommodate the minimum and maximum dose capacities of the distribution network design. Pressure diaphragm level control switches are prohibited;

b. Controls designed for fail-safe treatment or flow equalization functions are field-tested to assure compliance with the design and operation specifications. The applicant shall include counters or flow meters if critical to control functions, such as timed dosing;

c. Control panels and alarms:

i. Are mounted in an exterior location visible from the dwelling,

ii. Provide manual pump switch and alarm test features, and

iii. Include written instructions covering standard operation and alarm events.

d. Audible and visual alarms are used for all critical control functions, such as pump failures, treatment failures, and excess flows. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. The visual portion of the signal is conspicuous from a distance 50 feet from the system and its appurtenances,

ii. The audible portion of the signal is between 70 and 75 db at 5 feet and is discernible from a distance of 50 feet from the system and its appurtenances, and

iii. Alarms, test features, and controls are on a non-dedicated electrical circuit associated with a frequently used household lighting fixture and separate from the dedicated circuit for the pump.

e. All electrical wiring complies with the National Electrical Code, 1999 Edition, published by the National Fire Protection Association. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101. The applicant shall ensure:

i. Connections are made using National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA) 4x junction boxes certified by Underwriters Laboratories; and

ii. All controls are in NEMA 3r, 4, or 4x enclosures for outdoor use.

3. Dosing tanks and wastewater distribution components. An applicant shall:

a. Design dosing tanks to withstand anticipated internal and external loads under full and empty conditions, and design concrete tanks to meet the "Standard Specification for Precast Concrete Water and Wastewater Structures," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (C 913-98), approved December 10, 1998. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959;

b. Design dosing tanks to be easily accessible and have secured covers;

c. Install risers to provide access to the inlet and outlet of the tank and to service internal components;

d. Ensure that the volume of the dosing tank accommodates bottom depth below maximum drawdown, maximum design dose, including any drainback, volume to high water alarm, and a reserve volume above the high water alarm level that is not less than the daily design flow volume. If the tank is time dosed, the applicant shall ensure that the combined surge capacity and reserve volume above the high water alarm is not less than the daily design flow volume; and

e. Ensure that dosing tanks are watertight and anti-buoyant.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant may use a septic tank second compartment or a second septic tank in series as a dosing tank if all dosing tank requirements of this Section are met and a screened vault is used instead of the septic tank effluent filter. An applicant shall:

1. Install switches, controls, alarms, and electrical components for easy access for routine monitoring and maintenance; and

2. Compact berms around the disposal area to 85% and ensure that the berms are adequate to retain wastewater and rainwater from a 10-year, 24-hour rainfall event within the disposal field.

F. Additional Verification of General Permit Conformance requirements. An installer shall provide copies of instructions for the critical controls of the system to the homeowner and the Department before issuance of the Verification of General Permit Conformance.

G. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, a permittee shall ensure that:

1. The operation and maintenance plan for the on-site wastewater treatment facility that supplies the wastewater to the pressure distribution system specifies inspection and maintenance needed for the following items:

a. Sludge level in the bottom of the treatment and dosing tanks,

b. Watertightness,

c. Condition of electrical and mechanical components, and

d. Piping and other components functioning within design limits.

2. All critical control functions are specified in the Operation and Maintenance Plan for testing to demonstrate compliance with design specifications, including:

a. Alarms, test features, and controls;

b. Float switch level settings;

c. Dose rate, volume, and frequency, if applicable;

d. Distal pressure or squirt height, if applicable; and

e. Voltage test on pumps, motors, and controls, as applicable.

3. The finished grade is observed and maintained for proper surface drainage. The applicant shall observe the levelness of the tank for differential settling. If there is settling, the applicant shall grade the facility to maintain surface drainage.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E305. 4.05 General Permit: Gravelless Trench, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.05 General Permit allows a gravelless trench receiving wastewater treated to a quality equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank. This general permit authorizes the discharge of wastewater from a septic tank that meets the requirements of R18-9-A314 to the gravelless pipe system described in this Section.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "gravelless trench" means a disposal technology characterized by installation of a proprietary pipe, chamber, and geocomposite or other substitute media into native soil instead of the distribution pipe and aggregate fill used in a conventional disposal field trench.

2. A permittee may use a gravelless trench if suitable gravel or volcanic rock aggregate is unavailable, excessively expensive, or if adverse site conditions make movement of gravel difficult, damaging, or time consuming.

B. Performance. An applicant shall design a gravelless trench on the basis that treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 75 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 150 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, 5-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000,000 (Log

10

8) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit the following:

1. The soil absorption area that is required if a conventional disposal field trench filled with aggregate is used,

2. The configuration and size of the proposed gravelless disposal field, and

3. The manufacturer's installation instructions and warranty of performance for absorbing wastewater into the native soil.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that the top of the gravelless disposal pipe or similar disposal mechanism is at least six inches below the surface of the native soil and 12 to 36 inches below finished grade if approved fill is placed on top of the installation;

2. Calculate the infiltration surface as follows:

a. For eight inch diameter pipe, two square feet of absorption area is allowed per linear foot;

b. For 10 inch diameter pipe, three square feet of absorption area is allowed per linear foot;

c. For bundles of two pipes of the same diameter, the absorption area is calculated as 1.67 times the absorption area of one pipe; and

d. For bundles of three pipes of the same diameter, the absorption area is calculated as 2.00 times the absorption area of one pipe.

3. Use a pressure distribution system meeting the requirements of R18-9-E304 in medium sand, coarse sand, and coarser soils; and

4. Construct the drainfield of material that will not decay, deteriorate, or leach chemicals or byproducts if exposed to sewage or the subsurface soil environment.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Install the gravelless pipe material according to manufacturer's instructions if the instructions are consistent with this Chapter,

2. Ensure that the installed disposal system can withstand the physical disturbance of backfilling and the load of any soil cover above natural grade placed over the installation, and

3. Shape any backfill and soil cover in the area of installation to prevent settlement and ponding of rainfall for the life of the disposal field.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall inspect the finished grade in the vicinity of the gravelless disposal field for maintenance of proper drainage and protection from damaging loads.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E306. 4.06 General Permit: Natural Seal Evapotranspiration Bed, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.06 General Permit allows a natural seal evapotranspiration bed receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank. This general permit authorizes the discharge of wastewater from a septic tank that meets the requirements of R18-9-E314 to the general permitted disposal feature described in this Section.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "natural seal evapotranspiration bed" means a disposal technology characterized by a bed of sand or other durable media with an internal wastewater distribution system, contained on the bottom and sidewalls by an engineered liner consisting of natural soil and clay materials.

2. An applicant may use a natural seal evapotranspiration bed if site conditions restrict soil infiltration or require reduction of the volume or nitrogen content of wastewater discharged to the native soil underlying the natural seal liner.

B. Restrictions. Unless a person provides design documentation to show that a natural seal evapotranspiration bed will properly function, the person shall not install this technology if:

1. Average minimum temperature in any month is 20&#176; F or less,

2. Over 1/3 of the average annual precipitation falls in a 30-day period, or

3. Design flow exceeds net evaporation.

C. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a natural seal evapotranspiration bed:

1. Minimizes discharge to the native soil through the natural seal liner,

2. Maximizes wastewater disposed to the atmosphere by evapotranspiration, and

3. Prevents ponding of wastewater on the bed surface and maintains an interval of unsaturated media directly beneath the bed surface.

D. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install a natural seal evapotranspiration bed with the performance required in subsection (C), following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's Notice of Intent to Discharge.

E. Alternative design. An applicant may submit an alternative to the reference design for a natural seal evapotranspiration bed that achieves the performance requirements specified in subsection (C) by following requirements specified in R18-9-A312(G).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E307. 4.07 General Permit: Lined Evapotranspiration Bed, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.07 General Permit allows a lined evapotranspiration bed receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank. This general permit authorizes the discharge of wastewater from a septic tank that meets the requirements of R18-9-E314 to the general permitted disposal feature described in this Section.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "lined evapotranspiration bed" means a disposal technology characterized by a bed of sand or other durable media with an internal wastewater distribution system contained on the bottom and sidewalls by an impervious synthetic liner.

2. An applicant may use a lined evapotranspiration bed if site conditions restrict soil infiltration or require reduction or elimination of the volume or nitrogen content of wastewater discharged to the native soil.

B. Restrictions. Unless a person provides design documentation to show that a lined evapotranspiration bed will properly function, the person shall not install this technology if:

1. Average minimum temperature in any month is 20&#176; F or less,

2. Over 1/3 of average annual precipitation falls in a 30-day period, or

3. Design flow exceeds net evaporation.

C. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a lined evapotranspiration bed:

1. Prevents discharge to the native soil by a synthetic liner,

2. Attains full disposal of wastewater to the atmosphere by evapotranspiration, and

3. Prevents ponding of wastewater on the bed surface and maintains an interval of unsaturated media directly beneath the bed surface.

D. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. Capillary rise potential test results for the media used to fill the evapotranspiration bed, unless sand meeting a D

50

of 0.1 millimeter (50% by weight of grains equal to or smaller than 0.1 millimeter in size) is used; and

2. Water mass balance calculations used to size the evapotranspiration bed.

E. Design requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that the evapotranspiration bed is from 18 to 36 inches deep and calculate the bed design on the basis of the capillary rise of the bed media, according to the "Standard Test Method for Capillary-Moisture Relationships for Coarse- and Medium-Textured by Porous-Plate Apparatus," published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, (D 2325-68), reapproved 1994

E1

, and the anticipated maximum frost depth. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959;

2. Base design area calculations on a water mass balance for the winter months;

3. Ensure that the evapotranspiration bed liner is a low hydraulic conductivity synthetic liner that has a calculated seepage rate of less than 550 gallons per acre per day;

4. If a surfacing layer is used, use topsoil, dark cinders, decomposed granite, or similar landscaping material placed to a maximum depth of two inches. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The topsoil is a fertile, friable soil obtained from well-drained arable land, and is free of nut grass, refuse, roots, heavy clay, clods, noxious weeds, or any other material toxic to plant growth; and

b. The pH factor does not exceed 8.0 or fall lower than 5.5, soluble salts do not exceed 1500 milligrams per liter, the plasticity index is in the range of three and 15 inclusive, and the soil contains approximately 1 1/2% organic matter, by dry weight, either natural or added. The applicant shall ensure that material used for the surfacing layer meets the following gradation:

<table> Sieve Size Percent Passing 1" 100 1/2" 95-100 No. 4 90-100 No. 10 70-100 No. 200 15-70 </table>

5. Use shallow-rooted, non-invasive, salt and drought tolerant evergreens if vegetation is planted on the evapotranspiration bed;

6. Install at least one observation port to allow determination of the depth to the liquid surface of wastewater within the evapotranspiration bed;

7. Design the bed to pump out the saturated zone if accumulated salts or a similar condition impairs bed performance. Provision of a reserve area is not required for a lined evapotranspiration bed; and

8. Instead of the minimum vertical separation required under R18-9-A312(E), ensure that the minimum vertical separation from the bottom of the evapotranspiration bed liner to the surface of the water table or impervious layer or formation is at least 12 inches.

F. Installation requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. All liner seams are factory fabricated or field welded according to manufacturer's specifications not inconsistent with this Chapter. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The liner covers the bottom and all sidewalls of the bed and is cushioned on the top and bottom with layers of sand at least two inches thick or other equivalently protective material, and

b. If the inlet pipe passes through the liner, the joint is tightly sealed.

2. The liner is leak tested under the supervision of an Arizona-registered professional engineer,

3. A two- to four-inch layer of one-half to one inch gravel or crushed stone is placed around the distribution pipes within the bed. The applicant shall place filter cloth on top of the gravel or crushed stone to prevent sand from settling into the crushed stone or gravel.

G. Additional Verification of General Permit Conformance requirements. An applicant shall submit the sealed results of the liner test to the Department before issuance of the Verification of General Permit Conformance.

H. Operation and maintenance requirements.

1. Irrigation of an evapotranspiration bed is not allowed.

2. A permittee shall protect the bed from vehicle loads and other damaging activities.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E308. 4.08 General Permit: Wisconsin Mound, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.08 General Permit allows a Wisconsin mound receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "Wisconsin mound" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. An above-grade bed system that blends with the land surface into which is dispensed pressure dosed wastewater from a septic tank or other upstream treatment device,

b. Dispersal of wastewater under unsaturated flow conditions through the engineered media system contained in the mound, and

c. Wastewater treated by passage through the mound before percolation into the native soil below the mound.

2. An applicant may use a Wisconsin mound if the native soil has excessively high or low permeability, there is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock, or a reduction in minimum vertical separation is desired.

B. Performance. An applicant shall design a Wisconsin mound on the basis that treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, 5-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 300,000 (Log

10

5.5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. Specifications for the internal wastewater distribution system media proposed for use in the Wisconsin mound;

2. Two scaled or dimensioned cross sections of the mound (1 of the shortest basal area footprint dimension and one of the lengthwise dimension); and

3. Design calculations following the "Wisconsin Mound Soil Absorption System: Siting, Design, and Construction Manual," published by the University of Wisconsin - Madison, January 1990 Edition. This material is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the University of Wisconsin - Madison, SSWMP, 1525 Observatory Drive, Room 345, Madison, WI 53706.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. Pressure dosed wastewater is delivered into the Wisconsin mound through a pressurized line and secondary distribution lines into an engineered aggregate infiltration bed, or equivalent system, in conformance with R18-9-E304 and the Wisconsin Mound Manual. The applicant shall ensure that the aggregate is washed;

2. Wastewater is distributed in the aggregate infiltration bed and applied to the mound bed inlet surface at the following rates:

a. Not more than 1.0 gallon per day per square foot of mound bed inlet surface if the mound bed media conforms with the "Standard Specification for Concrete Aggregates," (C 33-99a

E1

), published by the American Society for Testing and Materials, approved July 10, 1999, and the Wisconsin Mound Manual, except if cinder sand is used that is the appropriate grade with not more than 5% passing a #200 screen. The Standard Specification for Concrete Aggregates," (C 33-99a

E1

), approved July 10, 1999, is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959. The applicant shall:

i. For cinder sand, ensure that the rate is not more than 0.8 gallons per day per square foot of mound bed inlet surface; and

ii. Wash media used for the mound bed.

b. A rate, configuration, or material for the infiltration bed or the mound bed submitted under R18-9-A312(G). The applicant shall ensure that the submittal includes supporting analyses for the design configuration, materials, and loading rates.

3. The aggregate infiltration bed and mound bed is capped by coarser textured soil, such as sand, sandy loam, or silt loam. Silty clay, clay loam, or clays are prohibited;

4. The cap material is covered by topsoil following the Wisconsin Mound Manual, and the topsoil is capable of supporting vegetation, is not clay, and is graded to drain;

5. The top and bottom surfaces of the aggregate infiltration bed are level and do not exceed 10 feet in width. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The minimum depth of the aggregate infiltration bed is nine inches, or

b. Synthetic filter fabric permeable to water and air and capable of supporting the cap and topsoil load is placed on the top surface of the aggregate infiltration bed.

6. The minimum depth of mound bed media is 12 inches;

7. The maximum allowable side slope of the mound bed, cap material, and topsoil is not more than one vertical to three horizontal;

8. Ports for inspection and monitoring are provided to verify performance, including verification of unsaturated flow within the aggregate infiltration bed. The applicant shall:

a. Install a vertical PVC pipe and cap with a minimum diameter of four inches as an inspection port, and

b. Install the pipe with a physical restraint to maintain pipe position.

9. The main pressurized line and secondary distribution lines for the aggregate infiltration bed are equipped at appropriate locations with cleanouts to grade;

10. Setbacks specified in R18-9-A312(C) are observed, except that the applicant shall:

a. Increase setbacks for the following downslope features at least 30 feet from the toe of the mound system:

i. Property line,

ii. Driveway,

iii. Building,

iv. Ditch or interceptor drain, or

v. Any other feature that impedes water movement away from the mound.

b. Ensure that no upslope natural feature or improvement channels surface water or groundwater to the mound area.

11. The active portion of the basal area of native soil below the mound conforms to the Wisconsin Mound Manual. The applicant shall:

a. Calculate the absorption of wastewater into the native soil for only the effective basal area;

b. Apply the soil application rates specified in R18-9-A312(D). The allowable loading rate to the mound bed inlet surface may be increased up to 1.6 times if the wastewater dispersed to the mound is pretreated to reduce the sum of TSS and BOD

5

to 60 mg/l or less. The soil application rate may be increased to not more than 0.20 gallons per day per square foot of effective basal area if the following slowly permeable soils underlie the mound:

i. Sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam or finer with weak platy structure; or

ii. Sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam or silt loam with massive structure.

12. The slope of the native soil at the basal area does not exceed 25%, and a slope stability analysis is performed whenever the basal area or site slope within 50 horizontal feet from the mound system footprint exceeds 15%.

E. Installation. An applicant shall:

1. Prepare native soil for construction of a Wisconsin mound system. The applicant shall:

a. Mow vegetation and cut down trees in the vicinity of the basal area site to within two inches of the surface;

b. Leave in place tree stumps and other herbaceous material that excessively alters the soil structure if removed after mowing and cutting;

c. Plow native soil serving as the basal area footprint along the contours to seven to eight inches depth;

d. Not substitute rototilling for plowing; and

e. Begin mound construction immediately after plowing.

2. Place each layer of the bed system to prevent differential settling and promote uniform density; and

3. Use the Wisconsin Mound Manual to guide any other detail of installation. Installation procedures and criteria may vary depending on mound design but shall be at least equivalent to the Wisconsin Mound Manual.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall:

1. If an existing mound system shows evidence of overload or hydraulic failure, consider the following measures:

a. Verification of actual loading and performance of the pretreatment system and verification of the watertightness of the pretreatment and dosing tanks;

b. Determination of dosing rates and dosing intervals to the aggregate infiltration bed and comparison with the original design to evaluate the presence or absence of saturated conditions in the aggregate infiltration bed;

c. If the above steps do not indicate an anomalous condition, evaluation of the site and recalculation of the disposal capability to determine if lengthening of the mound is feasible;

d. Site modifications including, changing surface drainage patterns at upgrade locations and lowering the groundwater level by installing interceptor drains to reduce native soil saturation at shallow levels; and

e. Increasing the basal area, which is most efficient if the bed length is increased.

2. If the mound needs to be expanded in size, submit a new Notice of Intent to Discharge for this modification; and

3. Specify servicing and waste disposal procedures and task schedules necessary for clearing the main pressurized wastewater line and secondary distribution lines, septic tank effluent filter, pump intake, and controls.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E309. 4.09 General Permit: Engineered Pad System, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.09 General Permit allows an engineered pad system receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, the "engineered pad system" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. The delivery of treated wastewater by gravity or pressure distribution to the engineered pad and sand bed assembly, which then disperses the wastewater into the native soil;

b. Passage of the treated wastewater through a pad and engineered sand bed by gravity under unsaturated flow conditions; and

c. Provision of additional passive biological treatment to the wastewater and reduced biomat formation at the inlet absorption surface of the underlying native soil.

2. The applicant may use an engineered pad system if:

a. The native soil is excessively permeable,

b. There is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock, or

c. The available area is limited for installing a disposal field system authorized by R18-9-E302.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. Any proprietary engineered pad system previously approved by the Department is designed on the basis that the released treated wastewater to the native soil meets the following criteria:

a. TSS of 50 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

b. BOD

5

of 50 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

c. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, 5-month arithmetic mean; and

d. Total coliform level of 1,000,000 (Log

10

6) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

2. Any engineered pad not previously approved by the Department is designed on the basis that the treated wastewater released to the native soil does not exceed the performance values specified for the systems described in R18-9-E302. If an applicant wishes to use different performance values, the Department shall review the system as established under R18-9-A309(E).

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit design materials and construction specifications for the engineered pad system.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. Gravity and pressurized wastewater delivery is from a septic tank or intermediate watertight chamber equipped with a pump and controls. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. Delivered wastewater is distributed onto the top of the engineered pad system and achieves even distribution by good engineering practice, and

b. The dosing rate for pressurized wastewater delivery is at least four doses per day and no more than 24 doses per day.

2. The sand bed consists of mineral sand washed to conform to the "Standard Specification for Concrete Aggregates," (C 33-99a

E1

), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-E308(D)(2)(a), unless the performance testing and design specifications of the engineered pad manufacturer justify a substitute specification. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The sand bed design provides for the placement of at least six inches of sand bed material below and along the perimeter of each pad, and

b. The sand bed contact with the native soil absorption system is level.

3. The wastewater distribution system installed on the top of the engineered pad system is covered with a breathable geotextile material that is itself covered with at least 10 inches of backfill.

a. The applicant shall ensure that rocks and cobbles are removed from backfill cover and grade the backfill for drainage.

b. The applicant may place the engineered pad system above grade, partially bury it, or bury it depending on site and service circumstances.

4. The engineered pad system is constructed with durable materials and capable of withstanding stress from installation and operational service; and

5. At least two inspection ports are installed in the engineered pad system to confirm unsaturated wastewater treatment conditions at diagnostic locations.

E. Installation requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, an applicant shall place sand media to obtain a uniform density of 1.3 to 1.4 grams per cubic centimeter.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, an applicant shall inspect the backfill cover for physical damage or erosion and promptly repair the cover, if necessary.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4). Amended to correct a manifest typographical error in subsection (B)(2) (Supp. 01-1).

R18-9-E310. 4.10 General Permit: Intermittent Sand Filter, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.10 General Permit allows an intermittent sand filter receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, an "intermittent sand filter" means a treatment technology characterized by:

a. The pressurized delivery of pretreated wastewater to an engineered sand bed in a containment vessel equipped with an underdrain system or designed as a bottomless filter;

b. Delivered wastewater dispersed throughout the sand media by periodic doses from the delivery pump to maintain unsaturated flow conditions in the bed; and

c. Wastewater that is treated during passage through the media, collected by a bed underdrain chamber, and removed by pump or gravity to the disposal works, or wastewater that percolates downward directly into the native soil as part of a bottomless filter design.

2. An applicant may use an intermittent sand filter if:

a. The native soil is excessively permeable,

b. There is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock, or

c. Reduction in setback distances or minimum vertical separation is desired.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. An intermittent sand filter with underdrain system is designed on the basis that it produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

a. TSS of 10 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

b. BOD

5

of 10 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

c. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 40 milligrams per liter, 5-month arithmetic mean; and

d. Total coliform level or 1000 (Log

10

3) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

2. An intermittent sand filter with a bottomless filter design is designed on the basis that the treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

a. TSS of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

b. BOD

5

of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

c. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

d. Total coliform level of 100,000 (Log

10

5 colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit specifications for the media proposed for use in the intermittent sand filter.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. Pressurized wastewater delivery is from the septic tank or separate watertight chamber with a pump sized and controlled to deliver the pretreated wastewater to the top of the intermittent sand filter. The applicant shall ensure that the dosing rate is at least four doses per day and not more than 24 doses per day;

2. The pressurized wastewater delivery system provides even distribution in the sand filter through good engineering practice. The applicant shall:

a. Specify all necessary controls, pipe, valves, orifices, filter cover materials, gravel, or other distribution media, and monitoring and servicing components in the design documents;

b. Ensure that the cover and topsoil is six to 12 inches in depth and graded to drain.

3. The sand filter containment vessel is watertight, structurally sound, durable, and capable of withstanding stress from installation and operational service. Intermittent sand filter placement may be above grade, partially buried, or fully buried depending on site and service circumstances;

4. Media used in the intermittent sand filter is mineral sand and that media is washed and conforms to "Standard Specification for Concrete Aggregates," (C 33-99a

E1

), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-E308(D)(2)(a);

5. The sand media depth is a minimum of 24 inches with the top and bottom surfaces level and the maximum wastewater loading rate is 1.2 gallons per day per square foot of inlet surface at the rated daily design flow;

6. The underdrain system:

a. Is within the containment vessel;

b. Supports the filter media and all overlying loads from the unsupported construction above the top surface of the sand media;

c. Has sufficient void volume above normal high level of the intermittent sand filter effluent to prevent saturation of the bottom of the sand media by a 24-hour power outage or pump malfunction; and

d. Includes necessary monitoring, inspection, and servicing features;

7. Inspection ports are installed in the distribution media and in the underdrain;

8. The bottomless filter is designed similar to the underdrain system, except that the sand media is positioned on top of the native soil absorption surface. The applicant shall ensure that companion modifications are made that eliminate the containment vessel bottom and underdrain and relocate the underdrain inspection port to ensure reliable indication of the presence or absence of water saturation in the sand media;

9. The native soil absorption system is designed to ensure that the linear loading rate does not exceed site disposal capability; and

10. The bottomless sand filter discharge rate per unit area to the native soil does not exceed the adjusted soil application rate for the quality of wastewater specified in subsection (B)(2).

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall place the containment vessel, underdrain system, filter media, and pressurized wastewater distribution system in an excavation with adequate foundation and each layer installed to prevent differential settling and promote a uniform density throughout of 1.3 to 1.4 grams per cubic centimeter within the sand media.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. The applicant shall follow the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E311. 4.11 General Permit: Peat Filter, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.11 General Permit allows a peat filter receiving wastewater treated to a quality equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "peat filter" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. The dosed delivery of treated wastewater to the peat bed, which can be a manufactured module or a disposal bed excavated in native soil and filled with compacted peat;

b. Wastewater passing through the peat that is further treated by removal of positively charged molecules, filtering, and biological activity before entry into native soil; and

c. If the peat filter system is constructed as a disposal bed filled with compacted peat, wastewater that is absorbed into native soil at the bottom and sides of the bed.

2. An applicant may configure a modular system if a portion of the wastewater that has passed through the peat filter is recirculated back to the pump chamber.

3. An applicant may use a peat filter system if:

a. The native soil is excessively permeable,

b. There is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock,

c. Reduction in setback distances or minimum vertical separation is desired, or

d. Cold weather reduces effectiveness of other disposal sites.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a peat filter is designed on the basis that it produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 15 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 15 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, 5-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000 (Log

10

5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. Specifications for the peat media proposed for use in the filter or provided in the peat module, including the porosity, surface area, and moisture content;

a. A statement of whether the peat is air dried, and whether the peat is from sphagnum moss or bog cotton; and

b. A description of the degree of decomposition.

2. Specifications for installing the peat media; and

3. If a peat module is used:

a. The name and address of the manufacturer,

b. The model number, and

c. A copy of the manufacturer's warranty.

D. Design requirements.

1. If a pump tank is used to dose the peat module or bed, an applicant shall:

a. Ensure that liquid volume meets or exceeds the calculated dose plus the required storage capacity and a reserve volume above the high water alarm to contain the daily design flow volume; and

b. Use a control panel with a programmable timer to dose approximately 1/12 of the maximum daily design flow plus the drain-back, if applicable, every two hours.

2. Peat module system. The applicant shall:

a. Size the gravel bed supporting the peat filter modules to allow it to act as a disposal field. The applicant shall ensure that the bed is level, long, and narrow, and installed on contour to optimize lateral movement away from the disposal area;

b. Ensure that the minimum module system size is adequate to treat 500 gallons per day. The applicant shall add modules to accommodate additional design flow;

c. For modules designed to allow wastewater flow through the peat filter and base material into underlying native soil, size the base on which the modules rest to accommodate the soil absorption rate of the native soil;

d. Place fill over the module so that it conforms to the manufacturer's specification if the specification is consistent with this Chapter. If the fill is planted, the applicant shall use only grass or shallow rooted plants; and

e. Ensure that the peat media depth is a minimum of 24 inches and the peat is installed with the top and bottom surfaces level. The applicant shall ensure that the maximum wastewater loading rate is 5.0 gallons per day per square foot of inlet surface at the rated daily design flow.

3. Peat filter bed system. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The bed is filled with peat derived from sphagnum moss and compacted according to the installation specification;

b. The maximum wastewater loading rate is one gallon per day per square foot of inlet surface at the rated daily design flow;

c. At least 24 inches of installed peat underlies the distribution piping and 10 to 14 inches of installed peat overlies the piping;

d. The cover material over the peat filter bed is slightly mounded to promote runoff of rainfall. The applicant shall not place additional fill over the peat; and

e. The peat is derived from decomposed sphagnum moss or roots of the plant Eriophorum (bog cotton). The applicant shall ensure that the peat is air dried, with a porosity greater than 90%, and a surface area at least 190 square meters per gram.

E. Installation requirements. The applicant shall:

1. Peat module system.

a. Compact the bottom of all excavations for the filter modules, pump, aerator, and other components to provide adequate foundation, slope toward the discharge to minimize ponding, and ensure that the bottom is flat, and free of debris, rocks, and sharp objects. If the excavation is uneven or rocky, the applicant shall use a bed of sand or pea gravel to create an even, smooth surface;

b. Place the peat filter modules on a level, six inch deep gravel bed;

c. Place backfill around the modules and grade the backfill to divert surface water away from the modules;

d. Not place objects on or move objects over the system area that might damage the module containers or restrict airflow to the modules;

e. Cover gaps between modules to prevent damage to the system;

f. Fit each system with at least one sampling port that allows collection of wastewater at the exit from the final treatment module;

g. Provide the modules and other components with anti-buoyancy devices to ensure stability in the event of flooding or high water table conditions; and

h. Provide a mechanism for draining the filter module inlet line.

2. Peat filter bed system. The applicant shall:

a. Scarify the bottom and sides of the leaching bed excavation to remove any smeared surfaces. The applicant shall:

i. Unless directed by an installation specification consistent with this Chapter, place peat media in the excavation in six inch lifts; and

ii. Compact each lift before the next lift is added. The applicant shall take care to avoid compaction of the underlying native soil.

b. Lay distribution pipe in trenches cut in the compacted peat. The applicant shall:

i. Ensure that at least three inches of aggregate underlie the pipe to reduce clogging of holes or scouring of the peat surrounding the pipe, and

ii. Place peat on top of and around the sides of the pipes.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall inspect the finished grade over the peat filter for proper drainage, protection from damaging loads, and root invasion of the wastewater distribution system and perform maintenance as needed.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E312. 4.12 General Permit: Textile Filter, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.12 General Permit allows a textile filter receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "textile filter" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. The flow of wastewater into a packed bed filter in a containment structure or structures. The packed bed filter uses a textile filter medium with high porosity and surface area;

b. The textile filter medium provides further treatment by removing suspended material from the wastewater by physical straining, and reducing nutrients by microbial action.

2. An applicant may use a textile filter in conjunction with a two-compartment septic tank or a two-tank system if the second compartment or tank is used as a recirculation and blending tank. A portion of the wastewater flow from the textile filter shall be diverted back into the second tank for further treatment.

3. An applicant may use a textile filter if nitrogen reduction is desired or as an alternative to a sand filter if delivering sand with the required properties is difficult or expensive.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a textile filter is designed on the basis that it produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 15 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 15 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 30 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean, or 15 milligrams, five-month arithmetic mean per liter if documented under subsection (C)(4); and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000 (Log

10

5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. The name and address of the filter manufacturer;

2. The filter model number;

3. A copy of the manufacturer's filter warranty;

4. If the system is for nitrogen reduction to 15 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean, specifications on the nitrogen reduction performance of the filter system and corroborating third-party test data;

5. The manufacturer's operation and maintenance recommendations to achieve a 20-year life; and

6. If a pump or aerator is required for proper operation, the pump or aerator model number and a copy of the manufacturer's warranty.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. The textile medium has a porosity of greater than 80%;

2. The wastewater is delivered to the textile filter by gravity flow or a pump;

3. If a pump tank is used to dose the textile module or modules, it meets the following criteria:

a. Liquid volume equals or exceeds the calculated dose plus the required storage capacity and a reserve volume above the high water level alarm to contain the design flow volume, and

b. A control panel with a programmable timer is used to dose approximately 1/12 of the maximum daily design flow (plus the drain-back if applicable) every two hours.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Before placing the filter modules, slope the bottom of the excavation for the modules toward the discharge point to minimize ponding;

2. Ensure that the bottom of all excavations for the filter modules, pump, aerator, or other components is level and free of debris, rocks, and sharp objects. If the excavation is uneven or rocky, the applicant shall use a bed of sand or pea gravel to create an even, smooth surface;

3. Provide the modules and other components with anti-buoyancy devices to ensure they remain in place in the event of high water table conditions; and

4. Provide a mechanism for draining the filter module inlet line.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall not flush corrosives or other materials known to damage the textile material into any drain that transmits wastewater to the on-site wastewater treatment facility.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E313. 4.13 General Permit: RUCK&#174; System, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.13 General Permit allows residential applications for a RUCK&#174; system.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section a "RUCK&#174; system" means a proprietary treatment and disposal system for residential applications that requires segregated drains for conducting dishwater, kitchen sink, and toilet flush water to a black water tank and all other wastewater to a gray water tank.

a. Treated wastewater from each tank is delivered to a proprietary, engineered composite disposal bed system that includes an upper distribution pipe to deliver treated black water to a proprietary, columnar, sand-filled bed.

b. The wastewater drains downward into a sand bed, then into a pea gravel bed with an internal distribution pipe system that delivers the treated gray water.

c. The entire composite bed is constructed within an excavation about six feet deep.

d. The system typically operates under gravity flow from the black water and gray water pretreatment tanks.

e. A proprietary sampling assembly is installed at the midpoint of the disposal line run and at the base of the composite bed during construction to monitor system performance.

2. An applicant may use a RUCK&#174; system, which is typically limited to soil conditions where a standard system described in R18-9-E302 is acceptable, if the total nitrogen content in the wastewater is reduced before release to the native soil.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a RUCK&#174; system is designed on the basis that the treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 30 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean, or 15 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean, if demonstrated under subsection (D); and

4. Total coliform level of 1,000,000 (Log

10

6) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Reference design. An applicant may design and install a RUCK&#174; system achieving the performance requirements specified in subsection (B) by following a reference design on file with the Department. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

D. Alternative design. An applicant may submit an alternative design to the RUCK&#174; system if, following the requirements in R18-9-A312(G), the design achieves equal or better performance than that specified in subsection (B).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

3. If nitrogen reduction to a level from 15 to less than 30 milligrams per liter is proposed, the applicant shall ensure that the supplemental information includes specifications on system nitrogen reduction performance and corroborating third-party test data.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E314. 4.14 General Permit: Sewage Vault, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.14 General Permit allows a sewage vault that receives sewage.

1. An applicant pumping a sewage vault for disposal shall comply with state and local laws, rules, and ordinances.

2. An applicant may use a sewage vault if there is a severe site constraint that prevents a conventional septic tank and disposal field system or any other alternative provided by general permit from being installed.

3. An applicant may install a sewage vault as a temporary measure if the applicant will install another on-site wastewater treatment facility within two years.

B. Performance. An applicant shall not allow a discharge from a sewage vault to the native soil or land surface. The applicant shall dispose of vault contents at a sewage treatment facility or other sewage disposal mechanism allowed by law.

C. Restrictions. An applicant shall not install a sewage vault:

1. If a high groundwater table impinges on the vault;

2. Unless the applicant has a service contract from a licensed waste hauler to periodically pump out the vault; or

3. If the capacity of the vault is less than 450 gallons per bedroom or 75 gallons per fixture, whichever is larger.

D. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install a sewage vault that achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B) by following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed storage vault with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

E. Alternative design. An applicant may submit an alternative to the reference design for a sewage vault if, following the requirements in R18-9-A312(G), the design achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed storage vault with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E315. 4.15 General Permit: Aerobic System with Subsurface Disposal, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.15 General Permit allows for an aerobic system that consists of an aerator for treatment and a subsurface absorption field for disposal of treated wastewater.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, an "aerobic system with subsurface disposal" means the mechanical introduction of oxygen to wastewater, followed by clarification and pressure or gravity distribution to a subsurface soil absorption field.

2. An applicant may use an aerobic system with subsurface disposal if:

a. Enhanced biochemical processing is needed to treat wastewater with high organic content,

b. A soil condition is not adequate to allow installation of a standard septic tank and disposal field as prescribed in R18-9-E302,

c. A highly treated and disinfected wastewater is needed, or

d. Nitrogen removal is needed and the design meets other requirements of this general permit.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that an aerobic system with subsurface disposal is designed on the basis that the treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean, or 15 milligrams, five-month arithmetic mean per liter if documented under subsection (C); and

4. Total coliform level of 300,000 (Log

10

5.5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. Evidence of performance specified in subsection (B);

2. The name and address of the treatment unit manufacturer;

3. The model number;

4. A copy of the manufacturer's warrantee and operation and maintenance recommendations to achieve performance for a 20-year life; and

5. If nitrogen reduction to a level from 15 to less than 53 milligrams per liter is proposed, specifications on system nitrogen reduction performance and corroborating third party test data.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that the wastewater is delivered to the aerobic treatment unit by gravity flow either directly or by a lift pump. The Director shall require an interceptor or other pretreatment device if needed to meet the performance criteria specified in subsection (B) or the manufacturer recommends a device if a garbage disposal appliance is used.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. The installation of the aerobic treatment components conforms to manufacturer's specifications that are consistent with this Chapter and the design documents specified in the Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance; and

2. Excavation and foundation work, and backfill placement is performed to prevent differential settling and adverse drainage conditions.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. The permittee shall follow the applicable requirements in R18-9-A313.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E316. 4.16 General Permit: Aerobic System with Surface Disposal, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.16 General Permit allows an aerobic system that consists of an aerator for treatment and surface absorption field for disposal of treated wastewater.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, an "aerobic system with surface disposal" means:

a. Mechanical introduction of oxygen to wastewater followed by clarification and disposal to the land surface, and

b. The wastewater is disinfected using a technology authorized in R18-9-E320 before disposal to the land surface.

2. An applicant may use an aerobic system with surface disposal if:

a. Enhanced biochemical processing is needed to treat wastewater with high organic content,

b. A soil condition is not adequate to allow installation of a standard septic tank and disposal field as prescribed in R18-9-E302, or

c. A highly treated and disinfected wastewater is needed.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that an aerobic system with surface disposal is designed on the basis that the treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean;

4. A total coliform level of Log

10

0 colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 99th percentile. Disinfection is by a method established under R18-9-E320.

C. Additional requirements. An applicant shall:

1. Ensure that treated wastewater complies with any applicable National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit limits;

2. Prevent discharge of inadequately treated wastewater to the environment by means of a fail-safe mechanism, included in the system design; and

3. Use sprinkler, bubbler heads, or other components that provide dispersal to optimize wastewater loading rates and prevent ponding on the land surface.

D. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install an aerobic system with surface disposal that achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B) by following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

E. Alternative design. An applicant may submit an alternative to the reference design for an aerobic system with surface disposal if, following the requirements in R18-9-A312(G), the design achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E317. 4.17 General Permit: Cap System, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.17 General Permit allows a cap fill cover over a conventional shallow trench disposal field receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "cap system" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. A soil cap, consisting of engineered fill placed over a trench that is reduced in depth compared to a standard trench allowed by R18-9-E302; and

b. A design that compensates for reduced trench depth by maintaining and enhancing the infiltration of wastewater into native soil through the trench sidewalls.

2. An applicant may use a cap system if there is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock or a high water table does not allow the minimum vertical separation to be met by a system authorized by R18-9-E302.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that the design soil absorption rate, disposal density, and vertical separation complies with this Chapter for a shallow trench, based on the following performance, unless additional pretreatment is provided:

1. TSS of 75 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 150 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000,000 (Log

10

8) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements in R18-9-A301(B), R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit specifications for the proposed cap fill material.

D. Design requirements.

1. An applicant shall ensure that the soil texture from the natural grade to the depth of the layer or the water table that limits the soil for unsaturated wastewater flow is no finer than silty clay loam.

2. An applicant shall ensure that cap fill material used is free of debris, stones, frozen clods, or ice, and is the same as or one soil group finer than that of the disposal site material, except that fill material finer than clay loam shall not be used as an additive.

3. Trench construction. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The trench bottom is at least 12 inches below the bottom of the disposal pipe and not more than 24 inches below the natural grade, and the trench bottom and disposal pipe are level;

b. The aggregate cover over the disposal pipe is two inches thick and the top of the aggregate cover is level and not more than nine inches above the natural grade;

c. The cap fill cover above the top of the aggregate cover is at least nine inches but not more than 18 inches thick and has sloped sides not more than one vertical to three horizontal. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. The horizontal extent of the finished fill edges is at least 10 feet beyond the nearest trench sidewall or endwall; and

ii. Intersecting fill surfaces are sloped to route surface drainage around the ends of the trench.

d. The criteria for trench length, bottom width and spacing, and disposal pipe size is the same as that for the shallow trench system prescribed in R18-9-E302;

e. Permeable geotextile fabric is placed on the aggregate top, trench end, and sidewalls extending above natural grade;

f. The native soil within the disposal site and the adjacent downgradient area to a 50 foot horizontal distance does not exceed a 12% slope if the top of the aggregate cover extends above the natural grade at any location along the trench length. The applicant shall ensure that the slope within the disposal site and the adjacent downgradient area to a 50 foot horizontal distance does not exceed 20% if the top of the aggregate cover does not extend above the natural grade;

g. The fill material is compacted to a density of 90% of the native soil if the invert elevation of the disposal pipe is at or above the natural grade at any location along the trench length;

h. At least one observation port is installed to the bottom of each cap fill trench;

i. The effective absorption area for each trench is the sum of the trench bottom area and the sidewall area. The height of the sidewall used for calculating the sidewall area is the vertical distance between the trench bottom and the lowest point of the natural land surface along the trench length;

j. The applicant may apply the correction factors for soil absorption rate under R18-9-A312(D)(3) and minimum vertical separation under R18-9-A312(E) if additional wastewater pretreatment is provided.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall prepare the disposal site when high soil moisture is not present and equipment operations do not create platy soil conditions. The applicant shall:

1. Plow or scarify the fill area to disrupt the vegetative mat while avoiding smearing,

2. Construct trenches as specified in subsection (D)(3),

3. Scarify the site and apply part of the cap fill to the fill area and blend the fill with the scarified native soil within the contact layers, and

4. Follow the construction design specified in the Provisional Verification of General Permit Conformance.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall inspect and repair the cap fill and other surface features as needed to ensure proper disposal function, proper drainage of surface water, and prevention of damaging loads on the cap.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E318. 4.18 General Permit: Constructed Wetland, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.18 General Permit allows a constructed wetland receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. A constructed wetland is a treatment technology characterized by a lined excavation, filled with a medium for growing plants and planted with marsh vegetation. The treated wastewater flows horizontally through the medium in contact with the aquatic plants.

2. As the wastewater flows through the wetland system, additional treatment is provided by filtering, settling, volatilization, and evapotranspiration.

3. The wetland system allows microorganisms to break down organic material and plants to take up nutrients and other pollutants.

4. The wastewater treated by a wetland system is discharged to a subsurface soil disposal system.

5. A constructed wetland is considered if further wastewater treatment is needed before disposal.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a constructed wetland is designed on the basis that it produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 45 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000 (Log

10

5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install a constructed wetland that achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B) by following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed constructed wetland with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

D. Alternative design. An applicant may submit an alternative to the reference design for a constructed wetland if, following the requirements under R18-9-A312(G), the design achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed constructed wetland with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E319. 4.19 General Permit: Sand Lined Trench, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.19 General Permit allows a sand lined trench receiving wastewater treated to a level equal to or better than that provided by a 4.02 General Permit septic tank.

1. Definition. For purposes of this Section, a "sand lined trench" means a disposal technology characterized by:

a. Engineered placement of sand or equivalently graded glass in trenches excavated in native soil,

b. Wastewater dispersed throughout the media by a timer-controlled pump in periodic uniform doses that maintain unsaturated flow conditions, and

c. Wastewater treated during travel through the media and absorbed into the native soil at the bottom of the trench.

2. An applicant may use a sand lined trench if:

a. The native soil is excessively permeable,

b. There is little native soil overlying fractured or excessively permeable rock, or

c. Reduction in setback distances, or minimum vertical separation is desired.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a sand lined trench is designed on the basis that treated wastewater released to the native soil meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

4. Total coliform level of 100,000 (Log

10

5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), an applicant shall submit specifications for the proposed media in the trench.

D. Design requirements.

1. An applicant shall ensure that media used in the trench is mineral sand, crushed glass, or cinder sand and that:

a. The media conforms to "Standard Specifications for Concrete Aggregates," (C 33-99a

E1

), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-E308(D)(2)(a), "Standard Test Method for Materials Finer than 75-&#181;m (No. 200) Sieve in Mineral Aggregates by Washing," (C 117-95), approved March 15, 1995, or an equivalent approved method. This information is incorporated by reference and does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State, or may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; and

b. Sieve analysis complies with the "Standard Test Method for Materials Finer than 75-&#181;m (No. 200) Sieve in Mineral Aggregates by Washing," (C 117-95), which is incorporated by reference in subsection (D)(1)(a), or an equivalent approved method.

2. Trenches. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. The spacing between trenches is at least two times the depth of the trench bottom below finished grade;

b. The inlet filter media surface, wastewater distribution pipe, and bottom of the trench is level and the maximum effluent loading rate is not more than 1.0 gallon per day per square foot of sand media inlet surface;

c. The depth of sand below the gravel layer containing the distribution system is at least 24 inches;

d. The gravel layer containing the distribution system is five to 12 inches thick, at least 36 inches wide, and level;

e. Permeable geotextile fabric is placed at the base of and along the sides of the gravel layer, as necessary. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. Geotextile fabric is placed on top of the gravel layer, and

ii. Any cover soil placed on top of the geotextile fabric is capable of maintaining vegetative growth while allowing passage of air.

f. At least one observation port is installed to the bottom of each sand lined trench;

g. If the trench is installed in excessively permeable soil or rock, at least one foot of loamy sand is placed in the trench below the filter media. The minimum vertical separation distance is measured from the bottom of the loamy sand; and

h. The trench design is based on the design flow, native soil absorption area of the trench, minimum vertical separation below the trench bottom, design effluent infiltration rate at the top of the sand fill, and the adjusted soil absorption rate for the final effluent quality.

3. The applicant shall ensure that the dosing system consists of a timer-controlled pump, electrical components, and distribution network and that:

a. Orifice spacing on the distribution piping does not exceed four square feet of media infiltrative surface area per orifice, and

b. The dosing rate is at least four doses per day and not more than 24 doses per day.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall ensure that the filter media shall is placed in the trench to prevent differential settling and promote a uniform density throughout of 1.3 to 1.4 grams per cubic centimeter.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements specified in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall ensure that:

1. The septic tank filter and pump tank are inspected and cleaned;

2. The dosing tank pump screen, pump switches, and floats are cleaned yearly and any residue is disposed of; and

3. Lateral lines are flushed and the liquid waste discharged into the treatment system headworks.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E320. 4.20 General Permit: Disinfection Devices, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.20 General Permit allows a disinfection device that receives wastewater from a septic tank or other treatment device of an on-site wastewater treatment facility, authorized by a general permit, and reduces the level of harmful microorganisms in the wastewater during passage through the device.

1. The disinfection device kills the microorganisms by exposing the wastewater to heat, radiation, or a chemical disinfectant.

2. Some means of disinfection require detention before discharge.

3. A disinfection device is considered if a reduction in harmful microorganisms, as measured by the total coliform level, is needed for surface or near surface disposal of the wastewater or if reduction of the minimum vertical separation distance specified in R18-9-A312(E) is desired.

B. Restrictions.

1. Unless designed to operate without electricity, an applicant shall not install a disinfection device if electricity is not permanently available at the site.

2. This general permit does not authorize a disinfection device that releases chemical disinfectants or disinfection byproducts harmful to plants or wildlife in the discharge area or causes a violation of an Aquifer Water Quality Standard.

C. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. The required performance of a disinfection device is dependent on the level of disinfection needed for a particular type of disposal; and

2. For an on-site device wastewater treatment facility with discharge to the land surface, the disinfection device in conjunction with all preceding treatment processes produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

a. A total coliform level of Log

10

0 colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 99th percentile;

b. Dissolved oxygen content of at least six milligrams per liter;

c. Clear and odorless appearance.

D. Operation and maintenance. A permittee shall:

1. If the disinfection device relies on the addition of chemicals for disinfection, ensure that the device is operated to minimize the discharge of disinfection chemicals while achieving the required level of disinfection; and

2. Incorporate a fail-safe mechanism to prevent inadequately treated wastewater from being discharged.

E. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install a disinfection device that achieves the performance requirements in subsection (C) by following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

F. Alternative design. A permittee may submit an alternative to the reference design for a disinfection device if, following the requirements in R18-9-A312(G), the design achieves the performance requirements in subsection (C).

1. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E321. 4.21 General Permit: Sequencing Batch Reactor, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.21 General Permit allows a sequencing batch reactor that consists of at least two vessels, a receiving vessel, and a process vessel, in which the key unit treatment processes, such as aeration and settlement, are sequenced one after the other in the process vessel.

1. The treatment process is similar to that which occurs in aerobic systems described in other general permits except that in an aerobic system, separate vessels or partitions of the vessel are used for each unit treatment step.

2. Sequencing batch reactors are considered for use if:

a. Enhanced biochemical processing is needed to treat wastewater with high organic content,

b. A soil condition is not adequate to allow installation of a standard septic tank and disposal field as prescribed in R18-9-E302, or

c. A more highly treated and disinfected wastewater is needed.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that a sequencing batch reactor is designed on the basis that it produces treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

1. TSS of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

2. BOD

5

of 30 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

3. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean. If a total nitrogen level from 15 to 53 milligrams per liter is proposed, the applicant shall submit the specifications on system nitrogen reduction performance and corroborating third party test data with the Notice of Intent; and

4. Total coliform level of 300,000 (Log

10

5.5) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

C. Reference design.

1. An applicant may design and install a sequencing batch reactor that achieves the performance requirements in subsection (B) by following a reference design on file with the Department.

2. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

D. Alternative design.

1. An applicant may submit an alternative to the reference design for a sequencing batch reactor that achieves equal or better performance than that specified in subsection (B), by following the requirements in R18-9-A312(G).

2. The Department shall consider the submittal of an alternative design as one design change to establish the applicable fee under 18 A.A.C. 14.

3. The applicant shall file a form provided by the Department for supplemental information about the proposed system with the applicant's submittal of the Notice of Intent to Discharge.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E322. 4.22 General Permit: Subsurface Drip Irrigation Disposal, Less Than 3000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.22 General Permit allows a subsurface drip irrigation disposal system that receives high quality wastewater from an advanced on-site wastewater treatment facility and dispenses it to an irrigation system that is buried at a shallow depth in native soil. The Director may require a thin layer of soil or engineered fill cover on the surface of the native soil, depending on wastewater quality delivered to the drip emitters.

1. The drip irrigation disposal system is designed to disperse the treated wastewater into the soil under unsaturated conditions by pressure distribution and timed dosing.

2. A subsurface drip irrigation disposal system reduces the downward percolation of wastewater by enhancing evapotranspiration to the atmosphere.

3. Drip irrigation disposal systems are considered if high groundwater, shallow soils, slowly permeable soils, or highly permeable soils are present at the site or if water conservation is needed.

B. Performance. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. A drip irrigation system is delivered treated wastewater that meets the following criteria:

a. A category "A" drip irrigation system requires wastewater delivered to the system that meets the following minimum water quality criteria:

i. TSS of 10 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

ii. BOD

5

of 10 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

iii. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

iv. Total coliform level of 10 (Log

10

1) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

b. A category "B" drip irrigation system requires wastewater delivered to the system that meets the following minimum water quality criteria:

i. TSS of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

ii. BOD

5

of 20 milligrams per liter, 30-day arithmetic mean;

iii. Total nitrogen (as nitrogen) of 53 milligrams per liter, five-month arithmetic mean; and

iv. Total coliform level of 100 (Log

10

2) colony forming units per 100 milliliters, 95th percentile.

2. A drip irrigation system of category "A" or category "B" shall be designed to meet the following performance criteria:

a. No ponding on the land surface,

b. Evapotranspiration of at least 50% of the emitted wastewater to the atmosphere, and

c. Incorporation of a fail-safe mechanism to prevent inadequately treated wastewater from being discharged.

C. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements in R18-9-A301(B) and R18-9-A309(B), the applicant shall submit:

1. Documentation of the pretreatment method proposed to achieve the wastewater criteria specified in subsection (B)(1), such as the type of pretreatment system and the manufacturer's warranty;

2. Initial filter and drip irrigation flushing settings;

3. Calculations of the site evaporation rate;

4. Design calculations, showing the number of perennial plants needed to achieve the required evapotranspiration rate; and

5. If supplemental irrigation water is introduced to the drip system, the volume and volume percent of the supplemental water.

D. Design requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. Drip irrigation lines and emitters are properly placed.

a. Category "A" drip system. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. Unless the manufacturer specifies deeper placement, lines and emitters are placed from six to 12 inches below the surface of the native soil; and

ii. Soil is replaced over the top of the drip system components.

b. Category "B" drip system. The applicant shall ensure that:

i. Unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise, lines and emitters are placed more than six inches below the surface of the native soil; and

ii. A cover of soil or engineered fill is placed on the surface of the native soil to achieve a total emitter burial depth of at least 12 inches;

2. Wastewater is filtered to remove particles 100 microns in size and larger;

3. Applicable requirements under R18-9-E304 for pressure distribution systems are followed;

4. A pressure regulator assures that excessive operating pressure or surges do not damage the drip irrigation system;

5. Wastewater distribution pipe is Schedule 40 PVC or better, sized for a flow velocity during flushing of at least two feet per second;

6. The system is designed to flush the irrigation components with wastewater. The applicant shall ensure that piping and valves allow the wastewater to be pumped in a line flushing mode of operation with discharge returned to the treatment system headworks;

7. Air vacuum release valves are installed to prevent water and soil drawback into the emitter;

8. Emitters are spaced no more than two feet apart. The applicant shall ensure that:

a. Drip lines are placed from 12 to 24 inches apart unless variations in spacing allow preservation of existing trees and shrubs or enhance performance to overcome site limitations;

b. Emitters shall be designed to discharge from 0.5 to 1.5 gallons per hour.

9. A suitable backflow prevention system is installed if supplemental water for irrigation is introduced to the pumping system. The applicant shall not introduce supplemental water to the treatment system;

10. Plants are selected with regard to the ability of each species to maintain evapotranspiration rates and absorb nutrients;

11. Drip irrigation is used in soils graded as:

a. Sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam, or finer with weak platy structure or in soil with a percolation rate from 45 to 120 minutes per inch; and

b. Sandy clay loam, clay loam, silty clay loam, or silt loam with massive structure or in soil with a percolation rate from 31 to 120 minutes per inch.

12. The minimum vertical separation distances are half of those specified in R18-9-A312(E)(2) if the design evapotranspiration rate is 50% or more of design flow, except that the minimum vertical separation distance shall not be less than one foot.

E. Installation requirements. An applicant shall ensure that:

1. The irrigation pipe is installed by a plow mechanism that cuts a furrow, dispenses pipe, and covers the irrigation pipe in one operation, or a trencher and hand tools that dig a trench not more than four inches wide;

2. Drip irrigation pipe has an incorporated herbicide to prevent root intrusion for at least 10 years and an incorporated bactericide to reduce bacterial slime build-up. The applicant shall store drip irrigation pipe to preserve the herbicidal and bactericidal characteristics of the pipe.

F. Operation and maintenance requirements. In addition to the applicable requirements in R18-9-A313, the permittee shall test the fail-safe mechanism quarterly to prevent discharge of inadequately treated wastewater.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

R18-9-E323. 4.23 General Permit: 3000 to less than 24,000 Gallons Per Day Design Flow

A. A 4.23 General Permit allows on-site wastewater treatment facilities with a design flow from 3000 gallons per day to less than 24,000 gallons per day if all of the following apply:

1. Except as specified in subsection (A)(3), the treatment and disposal works consists of technologies or designs that are covered under other general permits, but are sized larger to accommodate increased flows.

2. The on-site wastewater treatment facility complies with all applicable requirements of this Chapter.

3. The facility is not a system or a technology covered by one of the following general permits available for a design flow of less than 3000 gallons per day:

a. An aerobic system with subsurface disposal, described in R18-9-E315;

b. An aerobic system with surface disposal, described in R18-9-E316;

c. A disinfection device, described in R18-9-E320;

d. A sequencing batch reactor, described in R18-9-E321; or

e. A seepage pit or pits, described in R18-9-E302,

B. Notice of Intent to Discharge. In addition to the Notice of Intent to Discharge requirements specified in R18-9-A301(B), an applicant shall submit:

1. A performance assurance plan consisting of tasks, schedules, and estimated annual costs for operating, maintaining, and monitoring performance over a 20-year useful service life;

2. Design documents and the performance assurance plan sealed by an Arizona-registered professional engineer;

3. Any documentation submitted under the alternative design procedure in R18-9-A312(G) that pertains to achievement of better performance levels than those specified in the general permit for the corresponding facility with a design flow of less than 3000 gallons per day, or for any other alternative design, construction, or operational change proposed by the applicant.

C. Additional Verification of General Permit Conformance requirements. In addition to any other requirements, the applicant shall submit the following information before the Verification of General Permit Conformance is issued.

1. A signed and sealed Engineer's Certificate of Completion in a format approved by the Department affirming that:

a. The project was completed in compliance with the requirements of this Section and as described in the plans and specifications, or

b. Any changes are reflected in as-built plans submitted with the Engineer's Certificate of Completion.

2. The name of a certified operator or service company that is responsible for implementing the performance assurance plan.

D. Reporting requirement. The permittee shall annually provide the Department with:

1. A form signed by the certified operator or service company that:

a. Provides any data or documentation required by the performance assurance plan,

b. Certifies compliance with the requirements of the performance assurance plan, and

c. Describes any additions to the system during the year that increased flows and certifies that the flow did not exceed 24,000 gallons per day during any day.

2. Any applicable fee required by 18 A.A.C. 14.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

Table 1. Unit Daily Design Flows

<table> Type of Facility Served Applicable Unit Sewage Design Flow per Applicable Unit, Gallons Per Day Airport Passenger (average daily number) Employee 4 15 Apartment Building 1 bedroom 2 bedroom 3 bedroom 4 bedroom Resident (if max. number fixed) Apartment Apartment Apartment Apartment 100 200 300 400 500 Auto Wash Facility Per manufacturer, if consistent with this Chapter Bar/Lounge Seat 30 Barber Shop Chair 35 Beauty Parlor Chair 100 Bowling Alley (snack bar only) Lane 75 Camp Day camp, no cooking facilities Campground, overnight, flush toilets Campground, overnight, flush toilets and shower Campground, luxury Camp, youth, summer, or seasonal Camping unit Camping unit Camping unit Person Person 30 75 150 100-150 50 Church Without kitchen With kitchen Person (maximum attendance) Person (maximum attendance) 5 7 Country Club Resident Member Nonresident Member 100 10 Dance Hall Patron 5 Dental Office Chair 500 Dog Kennel Animal, maximum occupancy 15 Hospital All flows Kitchen waste only Laundry waste only Bed Bed Bed 250 25 40 Hotel/motel Without kitchen With kitchen Bed (2 person) Bed (2 person) 50 60 Industrial facility Without showers With showers Cafeteria, add Employee Employee Employee 25 35 5 Institutions Resident Nursing home Rest home Person Person Person 75 125 125 Laundry Self service Commercial Wash cycle Washing machine 50 Per manufacturer, if consistent with this Chapter Office Building Employee 20 Park Picnic, with showers, flush toilets Picnic, with flush toilets only Recreational vehicle, no water or sewer connections Recreational vehicle, with water and sewer connections Mobile home/Trailer Parking space Parking space Vehicle space Vehicle space Space 40 20 75 100 250 Residence Dwelling, per person (for sewer collection system design only) Dwelling, single family Dwelling, per bedroom if count available Dwelling, per fixture if count available Mobile home, family Mobile home, adults only Seasonal and summer Person Dwelling (3 bedrooms assumed) Bedroom Fixture unit Home lot Home lot Resident 100 450 150 25 250 150 100 Restaurant/Cafeteria With toilet, add Kitchen waste, add Garbage disposal, add Cocktail lounge, add Kitchen waste disposal service, add Employee Customer Meal Meal Customer Meal 20 7 6 1 2 2 Restroom, public Toilet 200 School Staff and office Elementary, add Middle and High, add with gym &amp; showers, add with cafeteria, add Boarding, total flow Person Student Student Student Student Person 20 15 20 5 3 100 Service Station with toilets First bay Each additional bay 1000 500 Shopping Center, no food or laundry Square foot of retail space 0.1 Store Public restroom, add Employee Square foot of retail space 20 0.1 Swimming Pool, Public Person 10 Theater Indoor Drive-in Seat Car space 5 10 </table>

Note: Unit flow rates published in standard texts, literature sources or relevant area or regional studies shall be considered by the Department, if appropriate to the project.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective January 1, 2001 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="AGRICULTURAL GENERAL PERMITS">

AGRICULTURAL GENERAL PERMITS

<regElement name="R18.9.401" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions established in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-101 and 49-201, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Application of nitrogen fertilizer" means any use of a substance containing nitrogen for the commercial production of crop plants. The commercial production of crop plants includes commercial sod farms and nurseries.

2. "Crop plant needs" means the amount of water and nitrogen required to meet the physiological demands of the crop plant to achieve a defined yield.

3. "Crop plant uptake" means the amount of water and nitrogen that can be physiologically absorbed by the roots and vegetative parts of a crop plant following the application of water.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1991 (Supp. 91-1). Section R18-9-401 renumbered from R18-9-201 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.402" level="4" title="Agricultural General Permits: Nitrogen Fertilizers">

Agricultural General Permits: Nitrogen Fertilizers

A person who engages in the application of a nitrogen fertilizer and is issued an agricultural general permit shall comply with the following agricultural best management practices:

1. Limit application of the fertilizer so that it meets projected crop plant needs;

2. Time application of the fertilizer to coincide to maximum crop plant uptake;

3. Apply the fertilizer by a method designed to deliver nitrogen to the area of maximum crop plant uptake;

4. Manage and time application of irrigation water to minimize nitrogen loss by leaching and runoff; and

5. Use tillage practices that maximize water and nitrogen uptake by crop plants.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1991 (Supp. 91-1). Section R18-9-402 renumbered from R18-9-202 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.403" level="4" title="Agricultural General Permits: Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations">

Agricultural General Permits: Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations

A person who engages in or operates a concentrated animal feeding operation and is issued an agricultural general permit shall comply with the following agricultural best management practices:

1. Harvest, stockpile, and dispose of animal manure from a concentrated animal feeding operation to minimize discharge of any nitrogen pollutant by leaching and runoff;

2. Control and dispose of nitrogen contaminated water resulting from an activity associated with a concentrated animal feeding operation, up to a 25-year, 24-hour storm event equivalent, to minimize the discharge of any nitrogen pollutant; and

3. Close facilities in a manner that will minimize the discharge of any nitrogen pollutant.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1991 (Supp. 91-1). Section R18-9-403 renumbered from R18-9-203 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="GRAZING BEST MANAGEMENT PRACTICES">

GRAZING BEST MANAGEMENT PRACTICES

<regElement name="R18.9.501" level="4" title="Surface Water Quality General Grazing Permit">

Surface Water Quality General Grazing Permit

A. A person who engages in livestock grazing and applies any of the following voluntary best management practices to maintain soil cover and prevent accelerated erosion, nitrogen discharges, and bacterial impacts to surface water greater than the natural background amount is issued a Surface Water Quality General Grazing Permit:

1. Manages the location, timing, and intensity of grazing activities to help achieve Surface Water Quality Standards;

2. Installs rangeland improvements, such as fences, water developments, trails, and corrals to help achieve Surface Water Quality Standards;

3. Implements land treatments to help achieve Surface Water Quality Standards;

4. Implements supplemental feeding, salting, and parasite control measures to help achieve Surface Water Quality Standards.

B. The person to whom a permit is issued shall make the following information available to the Department, at the person's place of business, within 10 business days of Department notice:

1. The name and address of the person grazing livestock, and

2. The best management practices selected for livestock grazing.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 1768, effective April 5, 2001 (Supp. 01-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="RECLAIMED WATER CONVEYANCES">

RECLAIMED WATER CONVEYANCES

<regElement name="R18.9.601" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions provided in R18-9-701, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Open water conveyance" means any constructed open waterway, including canals and laterals that transports reclaimed water from a sewage treatment facility to a reclaimed water blending facility or from a sewage treatment facility or reclaimed water blending facility to the point of land application or end use. An open water conveyance does not include waters of the United States.

2. "Pipeline conveyance" means any system of pipelines that transports reclaimed water from a sewage treatment facility to a reclaimed water blending facility or from a sewage treatment facility or reclaimed water blending facility to the point of land application or end use.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.602" level="4" title="Pipeline Conveyances of Reclaimed Water">

Pipeline Conveyances of Reclaimed Water

A. Applicability.

1. Any person constructing a pipeline conveyance on or after January 1, 2001, whether new or a replacement of an existing pipeline shall meet the requirements of this Article.

2. Any person who has constructed a pipeline conveyance before January 1, 2001, is considered to be in compliance with this Article.

B. A person shall design and construct a pipeline conveyance system using good engineering judgement following standards of practice.

C. A person shall construct a pipeline conveyance so that:

1. Reclaimed water does not find its way into, or otherwise contaminate, a potable water system;

2. System structural integrity is maintained; and

3. The capability for inspection, maintenance, and testing is maintained.

D. A person shall construct a pipeline conveyance and all appurtenances conducting reclaimed water to withstand a static pressure of at least 50 pounds per square inch greater than the design working pressure without leakage as determined in A.A.C. R18-9-E301(D)(2)(j).

E. A person shall provide a pipeline conveyance with thrust blocks or restrained joints where needed to prevent excessive movement of the pipeline.

F. The following requirements for minimum separation distance apply. A person shall:

1. Locate a pipeline conveyance no closer than 50 feet from a drinking water well unless the pipeline conveyance is constructed as specified under subsection (F)(3);

2. Locate a pipeline conveyance no closer than two feet vertically nor six feet horizontally from a potable water pipeline unless the pipeline conveyance is constructed as specified under subsection (F)(3);

3. Construct a pipeline conveyance that does not meet the minimum separation distances specified in subsections (F)(1) and (F)(2) by encasing the pipeline conveyance in at least six inches of concrete or using mechanical joint ductile iron pipe or other materials of equivalent or greater tensile and compressive strength at least 10 feet beyond any point on the pipeline conveyance within the specified minimum separation distance; and

4. If a reclaimed water system is supplemented with water from a potable water system, separate the potable water system from the pipeline conveyance by an air gap.

G. A person shall:

1. For a pipeline conveyance, eight inches in diameter or less, use pipe marked on opposite sides in English: "CAUTION: RECLAIMED WATER, DO NOT DRINK" in intervals of three feet or less and colored purple or wrapped with durable purple tape.

2. For a mechanical appurtenance to a pipeline conveyance, ensure that the mechanical appurtenance is colored purple or legibly marked to identify it as part of the reclaimed water distribution system and distinguish it from systems for potable water distribution and sewage collection.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.603" level="4" title="Open Water Conveyances of Reclaimed Water">

Open Water Conveyances of Reclaimed Water

A. This Article applies to an open water conveyance, regardless of the date of construction.

B. A person shall maintain an open water conveyance to prevent release of reclaimed water except as allowed under federal and state regulations. The maintenance program shall include periodic inspections and follow-up corrective measures to ensure the integrity of conveyance banks and capacity of the conveyance to safely carry operational flows.

C. Signage for Class B+, B, and C Reclaimed Water. A person shall:

1. Ensure that signs state: "CAUTION: RECLAIMED WATER, DO NOT DRINK," and display the international "do not drink" symbol;

2. Place signs at all points of ingress and, if the open water conveyance is operated with open access, at least every

1/4-mile along the length of the open water conveyance; and

3. Ensure that signs are visible and legible from both sides of the open water conveyance.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="DIRECT REUSE OF RECLAIMED WATER">

DIRECT REUSE OF RECLAIMED WATER

<regElement name="R18.9.701" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

Unless provided otherwise, the definitions provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201, A.A.C. R18-9-101, R18-9-601, R18-11-301, and the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Direct reuse" means the beneficial use of reclaimed water for a purpose allowed by this Article. The following is not a direct reuse of reclaimed water:

a. The use of water subsequent to its discharge under the conditions of a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit;

b. The use of water subsequent to discharge under the conditions of an Aquifer Protection Permit issued under 18 A.A.C. 9, Articles 1 through 3; or

c. The use of industrial wastewater or reclaimed water, or both, in a workplace subject to a federal program that protects workers from workplace exposures.

2. "Direct reuse site" means an area permitted for the application or impoundment of reclaimed water. An impoundment operated for disposal under an Aquifer Protection Permit is not a direct reuse site.

3. "End user" means a person who directly reuses reclaimed water meeting the standards for Classes A+, A, B+, B, and C, established under 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3.

4. "Gray water" means wastewater collected separately from a sewage flow that originates from a clothes washer, bathtub, shower, and sink, but does not include wastewater from a kitchen sink, dishwasher, or toilet.

5. "Industrial wastewater" means wastewater generated from an industrial process.

6. "Irrigation" means the beneficial use of water or reclaimed water, or both, for growing crops, turf, or silviculture, or for landscaping.

7. "Open access" means that access to reclaimed water by the general public is uncontrolled.

8. "Reclaimed water" means water that has been treated or processed by a wastewater treatment plant or an on-site wastewater treatment facility. A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(31).

9. "Reclaimed water agent" means a person who holds a permit to distribute reclaimed water to more than one end user.

10. "Reclaimed water blending facility" means an installation or method of operation that receives reclaimed water from a sewage treatment facility or other reclaimed water blending facility classified to produce Class C or better reclaimed water and blends it with other water so that the produced water may be used for a higher-class purpose listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A.

11. "Restricted access" means that access to reclaimed water by the general public is controlled.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-401 repealed, new Section R9-20-401 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-401 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-701 (Supp. 87-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.702" level="4" title="Applicability and Standards for Reclaimed Water Classes">

Applicability and Standards for Reclaimed Water Classes

A. This Article applies to:

1. An owner or operator of a sewage treatment facility that generates reclaimed water for direct reuse,

2. An owner or operator of a reclaimed water blending facility,

3. A reclaimed water agent,

4. An end user,

5. A person who uses gray water,

6. A person who directly reuses reclaimed water from a sewage treatment facility combined with industrial wastewater or combined with reclaimed water from an industrial wastewater treatment facility, and

7. A person who directly reuses reclaimed water from an industrial wastewater treatment facility in the production or processing of a crop or substance that may be used as human or animal food.

B. Reclaimed water classes A+, A, B+, B, and C specified in this Article shall meet the standards established in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3.

C. Nothing in this Article exempts the disposal of reclaimed water from the Aquifer Protection Permit requirements under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Articles 1, 2, and 3.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-402 repealed, new Section R9-20-402 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-402 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-702 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.703" level="4" title="Transition of Permits">

Transition of Permits

A. A person may directly reuse reclaimed water under an individual Aquifer Protection Permit or a Permit for the Reuse of Reclaimed Wastewater issued by the Department before January 1, 2001 if the person meets the conditions of the permit and the permit does not expire.

B. A person meeting the requirements of subsection (A) may apply for a new reclaimed water permit under this Article.

1. To obtain a reclaimed water permit, a person shall submit a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit application, required under R18-9-705(B), a Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water, required under R18-9-708(B)(2), or a Notice of Intent to Operate, required under R18-9-708(C)(1) to the Department at least 120 days before the current permit expires.

2. The Department shall continue the terms of the individual Aquifer Protection Permit or the Permit for the Reuse of Reclaimed Wastewater beyond the stated date of expiration if:

a. The permitted direct reuse is of a continuing nature; and

b. The permittee submits a timely and complete application for a new permit.

C. Sewage treatment facility generating reclaimed water.

1. At the request of a permittee, the Department shall amend an individual Aquifer Protection Permit issued before January 1, 2001 if the permittee adequately demonstrates that the applicable quality of reclaimed water produced for direct reuse is achieved. The Department shall review:

a. The information in the individual Aquifer Protection Permit application and the water quality test results from the previous two years to determine the classification of reclaimed water generated by the sewage treatment facility; and

b. The available water quality data if the sewage treatment facility has operated for less than two years.

2. The Department shall ensure that an amended individual Aquifer Protection Permit contains:

a. Identification of the class of reclaimed water generated by the facility;

b. Requirements for monitoring reclaimed water quality and flow at a frequency appropriate to demonstrate compliance with this Article and 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3;

c. Requirements for quarterly reporting of the following data to the Department, any reclaimed water agent who has contracted for delivery of reclaimed water from the facility, and any end user who has not waived interest in receiving this information:

i. Water quality test results demonstrating that reclaimed water produced by the facility meets the applicable standards for the class of water identified in subsection (C)(2)(a), and

ii. The total volume of reclaimed water generated for direct reuse.

d. Provision for cessation of delivery, if necessary, and storage or disposal if reclaimed water cannot be delivered for direct reuse.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-403 repealed, new Section R9-20-403 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-403 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-703 (Supp. 87-3). Editorial change to labels in subsection (c)(8) (Supp. 89-4). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.704" level="4" title="General Requirements">

General Requirements

A. Sewage treatment facility. Except for permits continued under R18-9-703(A), a sewage treatment facility owner or operator shall provide reclaimed water for direct reuse only under an individual Aquifer Protection Permit amended under R18-9-703(C)(2).

B. Additional treatment. If an owner or operator of a facility accepts reclaimed water and provides additional treatment for a higher quality direct reuse, the facility is considered a sewage treatment facility and shall operate under the requirements of an individual Aquifer Protection Permit amended under R18-9-703(C)(2).

C. Reclaimed water blending facility. An owner or operator of a reclaimed water blending facility shall not conduct blending operations without obtaining a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit or Reclaimed Water General Permit.

D. Reclaimed water agent. A person shall not operate as a reclaimed water agent without obtaining a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit or a Reclaimed Water General Permit.

E. End user. A person shall not directly reuse reclaimed water unless permitted under this Article.

F. Irrigating with reclaimed water. A permittee irrigating with reclaimed water shall:

1. Use application methods that reasonably preclude human contact with reclaimed water;

2. Prevent reclaimed water from standing on open access areas during normal periods of use;

3. Prevent reclaimed water from coming into contact with drinking fountains, water coolers, or eating areas; and

4. Secure hose bibbs discharging reclaimed water to prevent use by the public.

G. Prohibited activities.

1. Irrigating with untreated sewage;

2. Providing or using reclaimed water for any of the following activities:

a. Direct reuse for human consumption;

b. Direct reuse for swimming, wind surfing, water skiing, or other full-immersion water activity with a potential of ingestion; or

c. Direct reuse for evaporative cooling or misting.

3. Misapplying reclaimed water for any of the following reasons:

a. Application of a stated class of reclaimed water that is of lesser quality than allowed by this Article for the type of direct reuse application;

b. Application of reclaimed water to any area other than a direct reuse site; or

c. Allowing runoff of reclaimed water or reclaimed water mixed with stormwater from a direct reuse site, except for agricultural return flow that is directed onto an adjacent field or returned to an open water conveyance.

H. A permittee shall place and maintain signage at locations specified in Table 1 so the public is informed that reclaimed water is in use and that no one should drink from the system.

Table 1. Signage Requirements for Direct Reuse Sites

<table> Reclaimed Water Class Hose Bibbs Residential Irrigation Schoolground Irrigation Other Open Access Irrigation Restricted Access Irrigation Mobile Reclaimed Water Dispersal A+ Each bibb Front yard, or all entrances to a subdivision if the signage is supplemented by written yearly notification to individual homeowners by the homeowner's association. On premises visible to staff and students None None Back of truck or on tank A Each bibb Front yard, or all entrances to a subdivision if the signage is supplemented by written yearly notification to individual homeowners by the homeowner's association. On premises visible to staff and students None None Back of truck or on tank B+ Each bibb Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed 1. Ingress points 2. On premises or at reasonably spaced intervals not more than 1/4 mile, as applicable to the use 3. Notice on golf score cards, if applicable Back of truck or on tank B Each bibb Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed 1. Ingress points 2. On premises or at reasonably spaced intervals not more than 1/4 mile, as applicable to the use 3. Notice on golf score cards, if applicable Back of truck or on tank C Each bibb Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed Direct Reuse Not Allowed 1. Ingress points 2. On premises or at reasonably spaced intervals not more than 1/4 mile, as applicable to the use Back of truck or on tank </table>

Note: All impoundments with open access including lakes, ponds, ornamental fountains, waterfalls, and other water features shall be posted with signs regardless of the class of reclaimed water.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-404 repealed, new Section R9-20-404 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-404 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-704 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.705" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water Individual Permit Application">

Reclaimed Water Individual Permit Application

A. Pre-application conference. Upon request of an applicant, the Department shall schedule and hold a pre-application conference with the applicant to discuss any requirements in this Article.

B. To apply for a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit, a person shall provide the Department with:

1. The following information on a form provided by the Department:

a. The name and mailing address of the owner or operator of the facility or the reclaimed water agent;

b. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

c. The legal description of the direct reuse site, including latitude and longitude coordinates;

d. Any other federal or state environmental permits issued to the applicant;

e. Source of reclaimed water to be directly reused;

f. Volume of reclaimed water to be directly reused on an annual basis;

g. Class of reclaimed water to be directly reused;

h. Description of the direct reuse activity; and

i. The applicant's signature certifying that the information submitted in the application is true and accurate to the best of the applicant's knowledge.

2. A copy of the certificate of disclosure of violations required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-109; and

3. The applicable permit fee specified under 18 A.A.C. 14.

C. Administrative completeness review. Upon receipt, the Department shall review the Reclaimed Water Individual Permit application to determine its administrative completeness under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1074 and A.A.C. R18-1-503.

D. Substantive review. Upon receipt of a complete Reclaimed Water Individual Permit application, the Department shall review the application to determine its substantive adequacy under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1075 and A.A.C. R18-1-504.

E. Draft permit. The Department shall provide the applicant a copy of a draft of the Reclaimed Water Individual Permit before the notice specified in subsection (F) is published.

F. Public participation.

1. Notice of Preliminary Decision.

a. The Department shall publish a Notice of Preliminary Decision to issue or deny a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit within a period of time that allows the Department to meet the licensing time-frame requirements under 18 A.A.C. 5.

b. The Department shall publish the Notice of Preliminary Decision regarding the issuance or denial of a final permit determination in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located.

c. The Department shall accept written comments from the public before a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit is issued or denied.

d. The written public comment period begins on the publication date of the Notice of Preliminary Decision and extends for 30 calendar days.

2. After publishing the notice specified in subsection (F)(1)(a), the Department shall hold a public hearing to address the Notice of Preliminary Decision if the Department determines that:

a. Public interest in a public hearing exists, or

b. Issues or information have been brought to the attention of the Department that are relevant to the permitting decision and have not been considered previously in the permitting process.

3. If the Department determines that a public hearing is necessary and a public hearing has not already been noticed under subsection (F)(1)(a), the Department shall schedule a public hearing and republish the Notice of Preliminary Decision as a legal notice at least once, in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located.

4. The Department shall accept written public comment until the close of the hearing record as specified by the person presiding at the public hearing.

G. Final permit issuance or denial.

1. The Department shall give the applicant written notification of its final decision to issue or deny the permit application within the overall licensing time-frame requirements in 18 A.A.C. 5.

2. The Department may deny a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit if the Department determines upon completion of the application process that the applicant has:

a. Failed or refused to correct a deficiency in the permit application;

b. Failed to demonstrate that the facility and the operation will protect public health and water quality. This determination shall be based on:

i. The information submitted in the permit application,

ii. Any information submitted to the Department as written public comment or following a public hearing; or

iii. Any information relevant to the demonstration that is developed or acquired by the Department, or

c. Provided false or misleading information.

3. If the Department denies a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit the Department shall provide the applicant with written notification that explains the following:

a. The reasons for the denial with references to the statutes or rules on which the denial is based.

b. The applicant's right to appeal the denial, including the number of days the applicant has to file a notice of appeal, and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process.

c. The applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-405 repealed, new Section R9-20-405 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-405 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-705 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.706" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water Individual Permit General Provisions">

Reclaimed Water Individual Permit General Provisions

A. A Reclaimed Water Individual Permit obtained under R18-9-705:

1. Is valid for five years;

2. May be amended, transferred, reissued, or revoked by the Director based on whether the permittee meets the terms of the individual permit and the requirements of this Article; and

3. Continues, pending the issuance of a new permit, with the same terms following its expiration if the following are met:

a. The permittee submits an application for a new permit at least 120 days before the expiration of the existing permit; and

b. The permitted activity is of a continuing nature.

B. A Reclaimed Water Individual Permit shall contain, if applicable:

1. The class of reclaimed water to be applied for direct reuse;

2. Specific reuse applications or limitations on reuse;

3. Requirements for monitoring reclaimed water quality and flow to demonstrate compliance with this Article and 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3;

4. Requirements for reporting the following data to demonstrate compliance with this Article and 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3:

a. Water quality test results demonstrating that the reclaimed water meets the applicable standards for the class of water identified in subsection (B)(1), and

b. The total volume of reclaimed water generated for direct reuse.

5. Requirements for maintaining records of all monitoring information and monitoring activities that include:

a. The date, description of sampling location, and time of sampling or measurement;

b. The name of the person who performed the sampling or measurement;

c. The date the analyses were performed;

d. The name of the person who performed the analyses;

e. The analytical techniques or methods used;

f. The results of the analyses; and

g. Documentation of sampling technique, sample preservation, and transportation, including chain-of-custody forms.

6. Requirements to retain all monitoring activity records and results, including all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, and calibration and maintenance records for five years from the date of sampling or analysis. The Director shall extend the five-year retention period:

a. During the course of an unresolved litigation regarding compliance with the permit conditions, or

b. For any other justifiable cause.

7. A requirement to allow all end users access to the records of physical, chemical, and biological quality of the reclaimed water.

C. Permit transfer. A permittee may transfer a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit to another person if the following conditions are met:

1. The permittee notifies the Director of the proposed transfer.

2. The permittee submits a written agreement containing a specific date for the transfer of permit responsibility and coverage between the current permittee and the proposed new permittee, including an acknowledgment that the existing permittee is liable for violations up to the date of transfer and that the proposed new permittee will be liable for violations from that date forward.

3. The notice specified in subsection (C)(1) contains any information for the proposed new permittee that is changed from the information submitted under R18-9-705(B).

4. The Director, within 30 days of receiving a transfer notice from the permittee, does not notify both the current permittee and proposed new permittee of the intent to amend, revoke, or reissue the permit or require the proposed new permittee to file an application for a new permit rather than agreeing to transfer the current permit.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-406 repealed, new Section R9-20-406 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-406 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-706 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.707" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water Individual Permit Where Industrial Wastewater Influences the Characteristics of Reclaimed Water">

Reclaimed Water Individual Permit Where Industrial Wastewater Influences the Characteristics of Reclaimed Water

A. The following activities are prohibited unless a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit is obtained under R18-9-705:

1. Direct reuse of reclaimed water from a sewage treatment facility that is combined with industrial wastewater or that is combined with reclaimed water from an industrial wastewater treatment facility.

2. Direct reuse of reclaimed water from an industrial wastewater treatment facility for production or processing of a crop or substance that may be used as human or animal food.

B. In addition to the requirements in R18-9-705(B), an application for a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit shall include:

1. Each source of the industrial wastewater with Standard Industrial Code, and the projected rates and volumes from each source;

2. The chemical, biological, and physical characteristics of the industrial wastewater from each source; and

3. If reclaimed water will be used in the processing of any crop or substance that may be used as human or animal food, the information regarding food safety and any potential adverse health effects of this direct reuse.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-20-407 repealed, new Section R9-30-407 adopted effective May 24, 1985 (Supp. 85-3). Former Section R9-20-407 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-707 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed; new Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.708" level="4" title="Reusing Reclaimed Water Under a General Permit">

Reusing Reclaimed Water Under a General Permit

A. Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit. A person may directly reuse reclaimed water without notice to the Department if:

1. The direct reuse is specifically authorized by and meets the requirements of this Article, and

2. Complies with the requirements of the Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit under R18-9-711.

B. Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit.

1. A person may directly reuse reclaimed water under a Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit if:

a. The direct reuse is authorized by and meets the requirements of this Article;

b. The direct reuse meets all the conditions of the applicable Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit under R18-9-712 through R18-9-716;

c. The person files a Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water under subsection (B)(2); and

d. The person submits the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water.

a. A person shall submit, by certified mail, in person, or by another method approved by the Department, the Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water on a form provided by the Department.

b. The Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water shall include;

i. The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;

ii. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

iii. The name, address, and telephone number of the contact person;

iv. The source, volume, and class of reclaimed water to be directly reused;

v. A legal description of the direct reuse site, including latitude and longitude coordinates;

vi. The description of the direct reuse activity, including a description of acreage and the type of vegetation to be irrigated, if applicable to the type of direct reuse activity; and

vii. The permittee's signature certifying that the permittee agrees to comply with all requirements of this Article, including specific terms of the applicable Reclaimed Water General Permit.

C. Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit. A person may operate under a Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit after filing an applicable Notice of Intent to Operate with the Department and receiving a written Verification of General Permit Conformance for the operation.

1. Application submittal. The applicant shall submit, either by certified mail, in person at the Department, or by another method approved by the Department:

a. The Notice of Intent to Operate on a form provided by the Department containing the information specified in the applicable Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit under R18-9-717(B), R18-9-718(C), or R18-9-719(B), and

b. The applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

2. Verification issuance. If, after reviewing the Notice of Intent to Operate, the Department determines that the direct reuse conforms with the conditions of a Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit and all other applicable requirements of this Article, the Department shall issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance.

3. Verification denial.

a. If the Department determines on the basis of its review or an inspection that the direct reuse does not conform to the conditions of the applicable Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit or other applicable requirements of this Article, the Department shall notify the applicant of its decision not to issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance.

b. If an application is denied, the applicant shall not operate under a Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit.

c. The applicant may appeal the decision not to issue a Verification of General Permit Conformance under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092 through 41-1092.12.

4. Automatic issuance. If the Department does not issue the Verification of General Permit Conformance within the time-frame specified under 18 A.A.C. 1, Article 5, and does not notify the applicant that it will not issue the verification, the verification automatically becomes effective upon expiration of the overall time-frame.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.709" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water General Permit Renewal and Transfer">

Reclaimed Water General Permit Renewal and Transfer

A. General permit renewal. A permittee shall renew a Reclaimed Water General Permit at least 90 days before the permit expires by following the procedure described in either R18-9-708(B) or (C) and include the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

1. A Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit is valid as long as the conditions of the general permit and the requirements of this Article are met. No renewal is required;

2. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit is valid for five years from the date the Department receives the Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water;

3. A Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit is valid for five years from the date the Verification of General Permit Conformance becomes effective.

B. General permit transfer. A permittee shall provide notice to the Department by certified mail within 15 days following the transfer of a Type 2 or Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit. The Notice of Transfer shall:

1. Contain any information that has changed from the original Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water or the Notice of Intent to Operate, including all information on the proposed new permittee, and

2. Include the applicable fee established in 18 A.A.C. 14.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.710" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water General Permit Revocation">

Reclaimed Water General Permit Revocation

A. The Director may revoke a Reclaimed Water General Permit if the permittee fails to comply with any requirement in this Article, including a condition specified in the applicable Reclaimed Water General Permit. The Director shall make the determination based on the risk to public health and safety or a threat to waters of the state.

1. Before revoking a general permit, the Department shall provide notice to the permittee by certified mail of the Department's intent to revoke the Reclaimed Water General Permit. The notice of intent to revoke the general permit shall provide the permittee a reasonable opportunity to correct any noncompliance and specify a time-frame within which the permittee shall achieve compliance.

2. If the permittee fails to correct the noncompliance within the specified time-frame, the Department shall notify the permittee, by certified mail, of the Director's decision to revoke the Reclaimed Water General Permit.

B. The Director shall revoke a Reclaimed Water General Permit for any or all facilities located within a specific geographic area, if, due to a geologic or hydrologic condition, the cumulative effect of the facilities subject to the Reclaimed Water General Permit has violated or will violate a Water Quality Standard established under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-221 and 49-223.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.711" level="4" title="Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Gray Water"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Gray Water

A. A Type 1 Reclaimed Water General Permit allows private residential direct reuse of gray water for a flow of less than 400 gallons per day if all the following conditions are met:

1. Human contact with gray water and soil irrigated by gray water is avoided;

2. Gray water originating from the residence is used and contained within the property boundary for household gardening, composting, lawn watering, or landscape irrigation;

3. Surface application of gray water is not used for irrigation of food plants, except for citrus and nut trees;

4. The gray water does not contain hazardous chemicals derived from activities such as cleaning car parts, washing greasy or oily rags, or disposing of waste solutions from home photo labs or similar hobbyist or home occupational activities;

5. The application of gray water is managed to minimize standing water on the surface;

6. The gray water system is constructed so that if blockage, plugging, or backup of the system occurs, gray water can be directed into the sewage collection system or on-site wastewater treatment and disposal system, as applicable. The gray water system may include a means of filtration to reduce plugging and extend system lifetime;

7. Any gray water storage tank is covered to restrict access and to eliminate habitat for mosquitoes or other vectors;

8. The gray water system is sited outside of a floodway;

9. The gray water system is operated to maintain a minimum vertical separation distance of at least five feet from the point of gray water application to the top of the seasonally high groundwater table;

10. For residences using an on-site wastewater treatment facility for black water treatment and disposal, the use of a gray water system does not change the design, capacity, or reserve area requirements for the on-site wastewater treatment facility at the residence, and ensures that the facility can handle the combined black water and gray water flow if the gray water system fails or is not fully used;

11. Any pressure piping used in a gray water system that may be susceptible to cross connection with a potable water system clearly indicates that the piping does not carry potable water;

12. Gray water applied by surface irrigation does not contain water used to wash diapers or similarly soiled or infectious garments unless the gray water is disinfected before irrigation; and

13. Surface irrigation by gray water is only by flood or drip irrigation.

B. Prohibitions. The following are prohibited:

1. Gray water use for purposes other than irrigation, and

2. Spray irrigation.

C. Towns, cities, or counties may further limit the use of gray water described in this Section by rule or ordinance.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.712" level="4" title="Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class A+ Reclaimed Water">

Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class A+ Reclaimed Water

A. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class A+ Reclaimed Water allows any direct reuse application of reclaimed water listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A, if the conditions in this Article are met.

B. Record maintenance. A permittee shall maintain records for five years that describe the direct reuse site and the total amount of reclaimed water used annually for the permitted direct reuse activity. The records shall be made available to the Department upon request.

C. A permittee shall post signs as specified in R18-9-704(H).

D. No lining is required for an impoundment storing Class A+ reclaimed water.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.713" level="4" title="Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class A Reclaimed Water">

Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class A Reclaimed Water

A. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for the Direct Reuse of Class A Reclaimed Water allows any direct reuse application of reclaimed water listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A, if the conditions in this Article are met.

B. Records and reporting. A permittee shall:

1. Maintain records containing the following information for five years, and make them available to the Department upon request:

a. The direct reuse site,

b. The volume of reclaimed water applied monthly for each category of direct reuse activity listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A,

c. The total nitrogen concentration of the reclaimed water applied, and

d. The acreage and type of vegetation to which the reclaimed water is applied.

2. Report annually to the Department on or before the anniversary date of the Notice of Intent:

a. The volume of reclaimed water received,

b. The type of reclaimed water application, and

c. If used for irrigation, the vegetation and acreage irrigated.

C. Nitrogen management. A permittee shall ensure that:

1. Impoundments storing reclaimed water allowed by the general permit are lined using a low-hydraulic conductivity artificial or site-specific liner material achieving a calculated discharge rate less than 550 gallons per acre per day; and

2. The application rates of the reclaimed water are based on one of the following:

a. The water allotment assigned by the Arizona Department of Water Resources;

b. A water balance that considers consumptive use of water by the crop, turf, or landscape vegetation; or

c. An alternative method approved by the Department.

D. In addition to the Notice of Intent for Direct Reuse of Reclaimed Water specified in R18-9-708(B)(2), the applicant shall provide a list of impoundments and the liner characteristics and the method chosen from the list in subsection (C)(2).

E. The permittee shall post signs as specified in R18-9-704(H).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.714" level="4" title="Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class B+ Reclaimed Water">

Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class B+ Reclaimed Water

A. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class B+ Reclaimed Water allows any direct reuse application of Class B and Class C reclaimed water listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A, if the conditions in this Article are met.

B. A permittee shall comply with the record maintenance and posting requirements established under R18-9-712 and make records available to the Department upon request.

C. No lining is required for an impoundment storing Class B+ reclaimed water.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.715" level="4" title="Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class B Reclaimed Water">

Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class B Reclaimed Water

A. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for the Direct Reuse of Class B Reclaimed Water allows the direct reuse application of Class B and Class C reclaimed water listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A, if conditions in this Article are met.

B. A permittee shall comply with the requirements established under R18-9-713(B), (C), (D), and (E).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.716" level="4" title="Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class C Reclaimed Water">

Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Direct Reuse of Class C Reclaimed Water

A. A Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permit for the Direct Reuse of Class C Reclaimed Water allows the direct reuse application of Class C reclaimed water listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, Appendix A, if conditions in this Article are met.

B. A permittee shall comply with the requirements established under R18-9-713(B), (C), (D), and (E).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.717" level="4" title="Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for a Reclaimed Water Blending Facility"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2">

Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for a Reclaimed Water Blending Facility

A. Permit conditions.

1. A Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for a Reclaimed Water Blending Facility allows the blending of reclaimed water with other water, if the conditions in this Article are met.

2. Blending reclaimed water with industrial wastewater or with reclaimed water from an industrial wastewater treatment plant is not authorized by this general permit.

B. A person shall file with the Department a Notice of Intent to Operate a reclaimed water blending facility at least 90 days before the date the proposed activity will start. The Notice of Intent to Operate shall include:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;

2. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

3. The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person;

4. The source and volume of reclaimed water to be blended;

5. The class of reclaimed water to be blended;

6. The source, volume, and quality of other water to be blended;

7. A legal description of the reclaimed water blending facility, including latitude and longitude coordinates;

8. A description of the reclaimed water blending facility, including a demonstration that the proposed blending methodology will meet the standards established in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3 for the class of reclaimed water the facility will produce;

9. A signature on the notice of intent certifying that the applicant agrees to comply with the requirements of this Article, 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, and the terms of this reclaimed water general permit; and

10. The applicable permit fee specified under 18 A.A.C. 14.

C. A person shall not operate a reclaimed water blending facility until the Department issues a written Verification of General Permit Conformance under R18-9-708(C).

D. A permittee shall monitor:

1. The blended water quality for total nitrogen and fecal coliform at frequencies specified by the class of reclaimed water in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3.

a. If the concentration of either total nitrogen or fecal coliform, as applicable, exceeds the limits for the reclaimed water class established in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 3, the permittee shall submit a report to the Department within 30 days with a proposal to change the blending process. The permittee shall also double the monitoring frequency for the next two months.

b. If another exceedance occurs within the interval of increased monitoring, the permittee shall submit an application within 45 days for a Reclaimed Water Individual Permit.

2. The volume of reclaimed water, the volume of the other water, and the total volume of blended water delivered for direct reuse on a monthly basis.

E. The permittee shall report the results of the monitoring under subsection (D) to the Department on or before the anniversary date of the verification approval and shall make this information available to the end users.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.718" level="4" title="Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for a Reclaimed Water Agent">

Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for a Reclaimed Water Agent

A. A Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit allows a person to operate as a Reclaimed Water Agent if that the conditions of this Article are met, and the following conditions are met for the class of reclaimed water delivered by the Reclaimed Water Agent:

1. Signage requirements specified under R18-9-704(H), as applicable;

2. Impoundment liner requirements specified under R18-9-712(D), R18-9-713(C), R18-9-714(C), R18-9-715(B), or R18-9-716(B), as applicable; and

3. Nitrogen management requirements specified under R18-9-713(C), R18-9-715(B), and R18-9-716(B), as applicable.

B. A person holding a Type 3 Reclaimed Water Permit for a Reclaimed Water Agent:

1. Is responsible for the direct reuse of reclaimed water by more than one end user instead of direct reuse by the end users under separate Type 2 Reclaimed Water General Permits, and

2. Shall maintain a contractual agreement with each end user stipulating any end user responsibilities for the requirements specified under subsection (A).

C. A person shall file with the Department a Notice of Intent to Operate as a reclaimed water agent at least 90 days before the date the proposed activity will start. The Notice of Intent to Operate shall include:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;

2. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

3. The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person;

4. The following information for each end user to be supplied reclaimed water by the applicant:

a. The name, address and telephone number of the end user;

b. A legal description of each direct reuse site, including latitude and longitude coordinates; and

c. A description of each direct reuse activity, including the type of vegetation, acreage, and annual volume of reclaimed water to be used, unless Class A+ or Class B+ reclaimed water is delivered.

5. The source, class, and annual volume of reclaimed water to be delivered by the applicant;

6. A description of the contractual arrangement between the applicant and each end user, including any end user responsibilities for the requirements specified under subsection (A); and

7. The applicable permit fee specified under 18 A.A.C. 14.

D. A proposed reclaimed water agent shall not distribute reclaimed water to end users until the Department issues a written Verification of General Permit Conformance issued under R18-9-708(C).

E. A reclaimed water agent shall record and annually report the following information to the Department, on or before each anniversary date of the verification approval:

1. The total volume of reclaimed water delivered by the reclaimed water agent;

2. The volume of reclaimed water delivered to each end user for Class A, Class B, and Class C reclaimed water; and

3. Any change in the information submitted under subsection (C).

F. The reclaimed water agent shall notify the Department before the end of each calendar year of any changes in the information submitted under subsection (C).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.719" level="4" title="Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Gray Water">

Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit for Gray Water

A. A Type 3 Reclaimed Water General Permit allows a gray water irrigation system if:

1. The general permit described in R18-9-711 does not apply,

2. The flow is not more than 3000 gallons per day, and

3. The gray water system satisfies the notification, design, and installation requirements specified in subsection (C).

B. A person shall file a Notice of Intent to Operate a Gray Water Irrigation System with the Department at least 90 days before the date the proposed activity will start. The Notice of Intent to Operate shall include:

1. The name, address and telephone number of the applicant;

2. The social security number of the applicant, if the applicant is an individual;

3. A legal description of the direct reuse site, including latitude and longitude coordinates;

4. The design plans for the gray water irrigation system;

5. A signature on the Notice of Intent to Operate certifying that the applicant agrees to comply with the requirements of this Article and the terms of this Reclaimed Water General Permit; and

6. The applicable permit fee specified under 18 A.A.C. 14.

C. The following technical requirements apply to the design and installation of a gray water irrigation system allowed under this Reclaimed Water General Permit:

1. Design of the gray water irrigation system shall meet the on-site wastewater treatment facility requirements under R18-9-A312(C), (D)(1), (D)(2), (E)(1), (G), and R18-9-E302(C)(1), except the septic tank specified in R18-9-E302(C)(1) is not required if pretreatment of gray water is not necessary for the intended application;

2. Design of the dispersal trenches for the gray water irrigation system shall meet the on-site wastewater treatment facility requirements for shallow trenches specified in R18-9-E302(C)(2);

3. The depth of the gray water dispersal trenches shall be appropriate for the intended irrigation use but not more than 5 feet below the finished grade of the native soil; and

4. The void space volume of the aggregate fill in the gray water dispersal trench below the bottom of the distribution pipe shall have enough capacity to contain two days of gray water at the design flow.

D. The Department may review design plans and details and accept a gray water irrigation system that differs from the requirements specified in subsection (C) if the system provides equivalent performance and protection of human health and water quality.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.9.720" level="4" title="Enforcement and Penalties">

Enforcement and Penalties

Any person who violates a condition specified in a permit issued under this Article, falsifies data or information submitted to the Department as required under Articles 6 or 7 of this Chapter, or violates a provision of Article 6 or 7 of this Chapter, is subject to the enforcement actions prescribed under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-261 and 49-262.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 758, effective January 16, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="REPEALED">

REPEALED

<regElement name="R18.9.801" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Corrected A.R.S. reference (Supp. 77-3). Former Section R9-8-311 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-801 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.802" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended by adding subsections (N) through (R) effective June 8, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Former Section R9-8-312 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-802 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.803" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective April 18, 1979 (Supp. 79-2). Amended by adding subsection (E) effective October 2, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-313 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-803 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.804" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective April 18, 1979 (Supp. 79-2). Amended effective February 20, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended by adding subsections (I) and (J) effective June 8, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended subsections (A), (F) and (H) effective October 2, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-314 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-804 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective July 25, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.805" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 18, 1979 (Supp. 79-2). Amended effective October 2, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-315 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-805 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective July 25, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.806" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 2, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-317 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-806 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.807" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-321 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-807 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.808" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-323 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-808 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective July 25, 1990 (Supp. 90-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.809" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-324 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-809 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.810" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-325 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-810 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.811" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-326 repealed, new Section R9-8-326 adopted effective October 2, 1986 (Supp. 86-5). Former Section R9-8-326 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-811 (Supp. 87-3). First entry in Historical Note corrected to reflect Section numbers at time of rule repeal and adoption by changing R18-9-326 to R9-8-326 (Supp. 96-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.812" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-327 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-812 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.813" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective April 18, 1979 (Supp. 79-2). Former Section R9-8-329 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-813 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.814" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-331 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-814 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective October 19, 1989 (Supp. 89-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.815" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-332 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-815 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.816" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-351 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-816 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.817" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-352 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-817 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.818" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-353 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-818 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.819" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-8-361 renumbered without change as Section R18-9-819 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 235, effective December 8, 2000 (Supp. 00-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 9" level="3" title="ARIZONA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM"> <dwc name="lead" times="3"><dwc name="radioact" times="2">

ARIZONA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM

Editor's Note: The recodification at 7 A.A.R. 2522 described below erroneously moved Sections into 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9. Those Sections were actually recodified to 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 10. See the Historical Notes for more information (Supp. 01-4).

Article 9, consisting of Sections R18-9-901 through R18-9-914 and Appendix A, recodified from 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 15 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2).

PART A. GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

R18-9-A901. Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201 and 49-255, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Animal confinement area" means any part of an animal feeding operation where animals are restricted or confined including open lots, housed lots, feedlots, confinement houses, stall barns, free stall barns, milkrooms, milking centers, cowyards, barnyards, medication pens, walkers, animal walkways, and stables.

2. "Animal feeding operation" means a lot or facility (other than an aquatic animal production facility) where the following conditions are met:

a. Animals (other than aquatic animals) have been, are, or will be stabled or confined and fed or maintained for a total of 45 days or more in any 12-month period, and

b. Crops, vegetation, forage growth, or post-harvest residues are not sustained in the normal growing season over any portion of the lot or facility.

3. "Aquaculture project" means a defined managed water area that uses discharges of pollutants into that designated project area for the maintenance or production of harvestable freshwater plants or animals. For purposes of this definition, "designated project area" means the portion or portions of the navigable waters within which the permittee or permit applicant plans to confine the cultivated species using a method or plan of operation, including physical confinement, that on the basis of reliable scientific evidence, is expected to ensure that specific individual organisms comprising an aquaculture crop will enjoy increased growth attributable to the discharge of pollutants, and be harvested within a defined geographic area.

4. "Border area" means 100 kilometers north and south of the Arizona-Sonora, Mexico border.

5. "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility.

6. "CAFO" means any large concentrated animal feeding operation, medium concentrated animal feeding operation, or animal feeding operation designated under R18-9-D901.

7. "Concentrated aquatic animal production facility" means a hatchery, fish farm, or other facility that contains, grows, or holds aquatic animals in either of the following categories:

a. Cold-water aquatic animals. Cold-water fish species or other cold-water aquatic animals (including the Salmonidae family of fish) in a pond, raceway, or other similar structure that discharges at least 30 days per year, but does not include:

i. A facility that produces less than 9,090 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 20,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year; and

ii. A facility that feeds the aquatic animals less than 2,272 kilograms (approximately 5,000 pounds) of food during the calendar month of maximum feeding.

b. Warm-water aquatic animals. Warm-water fish species or other warm-water aquatic animals (including the Ameiuride, Centrarchidae, and Cyprinidae families of fish) in a pond, raceway, or other similar structure that discharges at least 30 days per year, but does not include:

i. A closed pond that discharges only during periods of excess runoff; or

ii. A facility that produces less than 45,454 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 100,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year.

8. "Daily discharge" means the discharge of a pollutant measured during a calendar day or any 24-hour period that reasonably represents the calendar day for purposes of sampling. For pollutants with limitations expressed in units of mass, the daily discharge is calculated as the total mass of the pollutant discharged over the day. For pollutants with limitations expressed in other units of measurement, the daily discharge is calculated as the average measurement of the pollutant over the day.

9. "Discharge of a pollutant" means any addition of any pollutant or combination of pollutants to a navigable water from any point source.

a. The term includes the addition of any pollutant into a navigable water from:

i. A treatment works treating domestic sewage;

ii. Surface runoff that is collected or channeled by man;

iii. A discharge through a pipe, sewer, or other conveyance owned by a state, municipality, or other person that does not lead to a treatment works; and

iv. A discharge through a pipe, sewer, or other conveyance, leading into a privately owned treatment works.

b. The term does not include an addition of a pollutant by any industrial user as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-255(4).

10. "Draft permit" means a document indicating the Director's tentative decision to issue, deny, modify, revoke and reissue, terminate, or reissue a permit.

a. A notice of intent to terminate a permit is a type of draft permit unless the entire discharge is permanently terminated by elimination of the flow or by connection to a POTW, but not by land application or disposal into a well.

b. A notice of intent to deny a permit is a type of draft permit.

c. A proposed permit or a denial of a request for modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination of a permit, are not draft permits.

11. "EPA" means the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

12. "General permit" means an AZPDES permit issued under 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9, authorizing a category of discharges within a geographical area.

13. "Individual permit" means an AZPDES permit for a single point source, a single facility, or a municipal separate storm sewer system.

14. "Land application area," for purposes of Article 9, Part D, means land under the control of an animal feeding operation owner or operator, whether it is owned, rented, or leased, to which manure, litter, or process wastewater from the production area is or may be applied.

15. "Large concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding operation that stables or confines at least the number of animals specified in any of the following categories:

a. 700 mature dairy cows, whether milked or dry;

b. 1,000 veal calves;

c. 1,000 cattle other than mature dairy cows or veal calves. Cattle includes heifers, steers, bulls, and cow and calf pairs;

d. 2,500 swine each weighing 55 pounds or more;

e. 10,000 swine each weighing less than 55 pounds;

f. 500 horses;

g. 10,000 sheep or lambs;

h. 55,000 turkeys;

i. 30,000 laying hens or broilers, if the animal feeding operation uses a liquid manure handling system;

j. 125,000 chickens (other than laying hens), if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system;

k. 82,000 laying hens, if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system;

l. 30,000 ducks, if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system; or

m. 5,000 ducks, if the animal feeding operation uses a liquid manure handling system.

16. "Large municipal separate storm sewer system" means a municipal separate storm sewer that is either:

a. Located in an incorporated area with a population of 250,000 or more as determined by the 1990 Decennial Census by the Bureau of the Census;

b. Located in a county with an unincorporated urbanized area with a population of 250,000 or more, according to the 1990 Decennial Census by the Bureau of Census, but not a municipal separate storm sewer that is located in an incorporated place, township, or town within the county; or

c. Owned or operated by a municipality other than those described in subsections (16)(a) and (16)(b) and that are designated by the Director under R18-9-A902(D)(2) as part of the large municipal separate storm sewer system.

17. "Manure" means any waste or material mixed with waste from an animal including manure, bedding, compost and raw materials, or other materials commingled with manure or set aside for disposal.

18. "Manure storage area" means any part of an animal feeding operation where manure is stored or retained including lagoons, run-off ponds, storage sheds, stockpiles, under-house or pit storages, liquid impoundments, static piles, and composting piles.

19. "Medium concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding operation in which:

a. The type and number of animals that it stables or confines falls within any of the following ranges:

i. 200 to 699 mature dairy cows, whether milked or dry;

ii. 300 to 999 veal calves;

iii. 300 to 999 cattle other than mature dairy cows or veal calves. Cattle includes heifers, steers, bulls, and cow and calf pairs;

iv. 750 to 2,499 swine each weighing 55 pounds or more;

v. 3,000 to 9,999 swine each weighing less than 55 pounds;

vi. 150 to 499 horses;

vii. 3,000 to 9,999 sheep or lambs;

viii. 16,500 to 54,999 turkeys;

ix. 9,000 to 29,999 laying hens or broilers, if the animal feeding operation uses a liquid manure handling system;

x. 37,500 to 124,999 chickens (other than laying hens), if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system;

xi. 25,000 to 81,999 laying hens, if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system;

xii. 10,000 to 29,999 ducks, if the animal feeding operation uses other than a liquid manure handling system; or

xiii. 1,500 to 4,999 ducks, if the animal feeding operation uses a liquid manure handling system; and

b. Either one of the following conditions are met:

i. Pollutants are discharged into a navigable water through a man-made ditch, flushing system, or other similar man-made device; or

ii. Pollutants are discharged directly into a navigable water that originates outside of and passes over, across, or through the animal feeding operation or otherwise comes into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation.

20. "Medium municipal separate storm sewer system" means a municipal separate storm sewer that is either:

a. Located in an incorporated area with a population of 100,000 or more but less than 250,000, as determined by the 1990 Decennial Census by the Bureau of the Census; or

b. Located in a county with an unincorporated urbanized area with a population of 100,000 or more but less than 250,000 as determined by the 1990 Decennial Census by the Bureau of the Census; or

c. Owned or operated by a municipality other than those described in subsections (20)(a) and (20)(b) and that are designated by the Director under R18-9-A902(D)(2) as part of the medium municipal separate storm sewer system.

21. "MS4" means municipal separate storm sewer system.

22. "Municipal separate storm sewer" means a conveyance or system of conveyances (including roads with drainage systems, municipal streets, catch basins, curbs, gutters, ditches, manmade channels, and storm drains):

a. Owned or operated by a state, city, town county, district, association, or other public body (created by or pursuant to state law) having jurisdiction over disposal of sewage, industrial wastes, stormwater, or other wastes, including special districts under state law such as a sewer district, flood control district or drainage district, or similar entity, or a designated and approved management agency under section 208 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1288) that discharges to waters of the United States;

b. Designed or used for collecting or conveying stormwater;

c. That is not a combined sewer; and

d. That is not part of a POTW.

23. "Municipal separate storm sewer system" means all separate storm sewers defined as "large," "medium," or "small" municipal separate storm sewer systems or any municipal separate storm sewers on a system-wide or jurisdiction-wide basis as determined by the Director under R18-9-C902(A)(1)(g)(i) through (iv).

24. "New discharger" includes an industrial user and means any building, structure, facility, or installation:

a. From which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants;

b. That did not commence the discharge of pollutants at a particular site before August 13, 1979;

c. That is not a new source; and

d. That has never received a finally effective NPDES or AZPDES permit for discharges at that site.

25. "New source" means any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants, the construction of which commenced:

a. After the promulgation of standards of performance under section 306 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1316) that are applicable to the source, or

b. After the proposal of standards of performance in accordance with section 306 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1316) that are applicable to the source, but only if the standards are promulgated under section 306 (33 U.S.C. 1316) within 120 days of their proposal.

26. "NPDES" means the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System, which is the national program for issuing, modifying, revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing permits, and imposing and enforcing pretreatment and biosolids requirements under sections 307 (33 U.S.C. 1317), 318 (33 U.S.C. 1328), 402 (33 U.S.C. 1342), and 405 (33 U.S.C. 1345) of the Clean Water Act.

27. "Pollutant" means dredged spoil, solid waste, incinerator residue, filter backwash, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials (except those regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2014 et seq.)), heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt, and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water. It does not mean:

a. Sewage from vessels; or

b. Water, gas, or other material that is injected into a well to facilitate production of oil or gas, or water derived in association with oil and gas production and disposed of in a well, if the well used either to facilitate production or for disposal purposes is approved by authority of this state, and if the state determines that the injection or disposal will not result in the degradation of ground or surface water resources. (40 CFR 122.2)

28. "POTW" means a publicly owned treatment works.

29. "Process wastewater," for purposes of Article 9, Part D, means any water that comes into contact with a raw material, product, or byproduct including manure, litter, feed, milk, eggs, or bedding and water directly or indirectly used in the operation of an animal feeding operation for any or all of the following:

a. Spillage or overflow from animal or poultry watering systems;

b. Washing, cleaning, or flushing pens, barns, manure pits, or other animal feeding operation facilities;

c. Direct contact swimming, washing, or spray cooling of animals; or

d. Dust control.

30. "Proposed permit" means an AZPDES permit prepared after the close of the public comment period (including EPA review), and any applicable public hearing and administrative appeal, but before final issuance by the Director. A proposed permit is not a draft permit.

31. "Pretreatment" means the reduction of the amount of pollutants, the elimination of pollutants, or the alteration of the nature of pollutant properties in wastewater before or instead of discharging or otherwise introducing the pollutants into a POTW.

32. "Production area," for purposes of Article 9, Part D, means the animal confinement area, manure storage area, raw materials storage area, and waste containment areas. Production area includes any egg washing or egg processing facility and any area used in the storage, handling, treatment, or disposal of animal mortalities.

33. "Raw materials storage area" means the part of an animal feeding operation where raw materials are stored including feed silos, silage bunkers, and bedding materials.

34. "Silviculture point source" means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance related to rock crushing, gravel washing, log sorting, or log storage facilities that are operated in connection with silvicultural activities and from which pollutants are discharged into navigable waters. The term does not include nonpoint source silvicultural activities such as nursery operations, site preparation, reforestation and subsequent cultural treatment, thinning, prescribed burning, pest and fire control, harvesting operations, surface drainage, or road construction and maintenance from which there is natural runoff. For purposes of this definition:

a. "Log sorting and log storage facilities" means facilities whose discharge results from the holding of unprocessed wood, for example, logs or round wood with or without bark held in self-contained bodies of water or stored on land if water is applied intentionally on the logs.

b. "Rock crushing and gravel washing facilities" mean facilities that process crushed and broken stone, gravel, and riprap.

35. "Small municipal separate storm sewer system" means a separate storm sewer that is:

a. Owned or operated by the United States, a state, city, town, county, district, association, or other public body (created by or pursuant to state law) having jurisdiction over disposal of sewage, industrial wastes, storm water, or other wastes, including special districts under state law such as a sewer district, flood control district or drainage district, or similar entity, an Indian tribe or an authorized Indian tribal organization, or a designated and approved management agency under section 208 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1288) that discharge to navigable waters.

b. Not defined as a "large" or "medium" municipal separate storm sewer system or designated under R18-9-A902(D)(2).

c. Similar to municipal separate storm sewer systems such as systems at military bases, large hospital or prison complexes, universities, and highways and other thoroughfares. The term does not include a separate storm sewer in a very discrete area such as an individual building.

36. "Stormwater" means stormwater runoff, snow melt runoff, and surface runoff and drainage.

37. "Treatment works treating domestic sewage" means a POTW or any other sewage sludge or waste water treatment device or system, regardless of ownership (including federal facilities), used in the storage, treatment, recycling, and reclamation of municipal or domestic sewage, including land dedicated for the disposal of sewage sludge. This definition does not include septic tanks or similar devices. For purposes of this definition, "domestic sewage" includes waste and wastewater from humans or household operations that are discharged to or otherwise enter a treatment works.

38. "Waste containment area" means any part of an animal feeding operation where waste is stored or contained including settling basins and areas within berms and diversions that separate uncontaminated stormwater.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-A902. AZPDES Permit Transition, Applicability, and Exclusions

A. Upon the effective date of EPA approval of the AZPDES program, the Department shall, under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3.1 and Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter, administer any permit authorized or issued under the NPDES program, including an expired permit that EPA has continued in effect under 40 CFR 122.6.

1. The Director shall give a notice to all Arizona NPDES permittees, except NPDES permittees located on and discharging in Indian Country, and shall publish a notice in one or more newspapers of general circulation in the state. The notice shall contain:

a. The effective date of EPA approval of the AZPDES program;

b. The name and address of the Department;

c. The name of each individual permitted facility and its permit number;

d. The title of each general permit administered by the Department;

e. The name and address of the contact person, to which the permittee will submit notification and monitoring reports;

f. Information specifying the state laws equivalent to the federal laws or regulations referenced in a NPDES permit; and

g. The name, address, and telephone number of a person from whom an interested person may obtain further information about the transition.

2. The Department shall provide the following entities with a copy of the notice:

a. Each county department of health, environmental services, or comparable department;

b. Each Arizona council of government, tribal government, the states of Utah, Nevada, New Mexico, and California, and EPA Region 9;

c. Any person who requested, in writing, notification of the activity;

d. The Mexican Secretaria de Medio Ambiente y Recursos Naturales, and

e. The United States Section of the International Boundary and Water Commission.

3. If a timely application for a NPDES permit is submitted to EPA before approval of the AZPDES program, the applicant may continue the process with EPA or request the Department to act on the application. In either case, the Department shall issue the permit.

4. The terms and conditions under which the permit was issued remain the same until the permit is modified.

B. Article 9 of this Chapter applies to any "discharge of a pollutant." Examples of categories that result in a "discharge of a pollutant" and may require an AZPDES permit include:

1. CAFOs;

2. Concentrated aquatic animal production facilities;

3. Case-by-case designation of concentrated aquatic animal production facilities;

a. The Director may designate any warm- or cold-water aquatic animal production facility as a concentrated aquatic animal production facility upon determining that it is a significant contributor of pollution to navigable waters. The Director shall consider the following factors when making this determination:

i. The location and quality of the receiving waters of the United States;

ii. The holding, feeding, and production capacities of the facility;

iii. The quantity and nature of the pollutants reaching navigable waters; and

iv. Any other relevant factor;

b. A permit application is not required from a concentrated aquatic animal production facility designated under subsection (B)(3)(a) until the Director conducts an onsite inspection of the facility and determines that the facility should and could be regulated under the AZPDES permit program;

4. Aquaculture projects;

5. Manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silviculture point sources;

6. POTWs;

7. New sources and new dischargers;

8. Stormwater discharges:

a. Associated with industrial activity as defined under 40 CFR 122.26(b)(14), incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(1)(d). The Department shall not consider a discharge to be a discharge associated with industrial activity if the discharge is composed entirely of stormwater and meets the conditions of no exposure as defined under 40 CFR 122.26(g), incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(1)(d);

b. From a large, medium, or small MS4;

c. From a construction activity, including clearing, grading, and excavation, that results in the disturbance of:

i. Equal to or greater than one acre or;

ii. Less than one acre of total land area that is part of a larger common plan of development or sale if the larger common plan will ultimately disturb equal to or greater than one acre; but

iii. Not including routine maintenance that is performed to maintain the original line and grade, hydraulic capacity, or original purpose of the facility;

d. Any discharge that the Director determines contributes to a violation of a water quality standard or is a significant contributor of pollutants to a navigable water, which may include a discharge from a conveyance or system of conveyances (including roads with drainage systems and municipal streets) used for collecting and conveying stormwater runoff or a system of discharges from municipal separate storm sewers.

C. Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter apply to the following biosolids categories and may require an AZPDES permit:

1. Treatment works treating domestic sewage that would not otherwise require an AZPDES permit; and

2. Using, applying, generating, marketing, transporting, and disposing of biosolids.

D. Director designation of MS4s.

1. The Director may designate and require any small MS4 located outside of an urbanized area to obtain an AZPDES stormwater permit. The Director shall base this designation on whether a stormwater discharge results in or has the potential to result in an exceedance of a water quality standard, including impairment of a designated use, or another significant water quality impact, including a habitat or biological impact.

a. When deciding whether to designate a small MS4, the Director shall consider the following criteria:

i. Discharges to sensitive waters,

ii. Areas with high growth or growth potential,

iii. Areas with a high population density,

iv. Areas that are contiguous to an urbanized area,

v. Small MS4s that cause a significant contribution of pollutants to a navigable water,

vi. Small MS4s that do not have effective programs to protect water quality, and

vii. Any other relevant criteria.

b. The same requirements for small MS4s designated under 40 CFR 122.32(a)(1) apply to permits for designated MS4s not waived under R18-9-B901(A)(3).

2. The Director may designate an MS4 as part of a large or medium system due to the interrelationship between the discharges from a designated storm sewer and the discharges from a municipal separate storm sewer described under R18-9-A901(16)(a) and (b), or R18-9-A901(20)(a) or (b), as applicable. In making this determination, the Director shall consider the following factors:

a. Physical interconnections between the municipal separate storm sewers;

b. The location of discharges from the designated municipal separate storm sewer relative to discharges from municipal separate storm sewers described in R18-9-A901(16)(a) and R18-9-A901(20)(a);

c. The quantity and nature of pollutants discharged to a navigable water;

d. The nature of the receiving waters; and

e. Any other relevant factor.

3. The Director shall designate a small MS4 that is physically interconnected with a MS4 that is regulated by the AZPDES program if the small MS4 substantially contributes to the pollutant loading of the regulated MS4.

E. Petitions. The Director may, upon a petition, designate as a large, medium or small MS4, a municipal separate storm sewer located within the boundaries of a region defined by a stormwater management regional authority based on a jurisdictional, watershed, or other appropriate basis that includes one or more of the systems described in R18-9-A901(16), R18-9-A901(20) or R18-9-A901(35), as applicable.

F. Phase-ins.

1. The Director may phase-in permit coverage for a small MS4 serving a jurisdiction with a population of less than 10,000 if a phasing schedule is developed and implemented for approximately 20 percent annually of all small MS4s that qualify for the phased-in coverage.

a. If the phasing schedule is not yet approved for permit coverage, the Director shall, by December 9, 2002, determine whether to issue an AZPDES permit or allow a waiver under R18-9-B901(A)(3) for each eligible MS4.

b. All regulated MS4s shall have coverage under an AZPDES permit no later than March 8, 2007.

2. The Director may provide a waiver under R18-9-B901(A)(3) for any municipal separate storm sewage system operating under a phase-in plan.

G. Exclusions. The following discharges do not require an AZPDES permit:

1. Discharge of dredged or fill material into a navigable water that is regulated under section 404 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1344);

2. The introduction of sewage, industrial wastes, or other pollutants into POTWs by indirect dischargers. Plans or agreements to switch to this method of disposal in the future do not relieve dischargers of the obligation to have and comply with a permit until all discharges of pollutants to a navigable water are eliminated. This exclusion does not apply to the introduction of pollutants to privately owned treatment works or to other discharges through a pipe, sewer, or other conveyance owned by the state, a municipality, or other party not leading to treatment works;

3. Any discharge in compliance with the instructions of an on-scene coordinator under 40 CFR 300, The National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan; or 33 CFR 153.10(e), Control of Pollution by Oil and Hazardous Substances, Discharge Removal;

4. Any introduction of pollutants from a nonpoint source agricultural or silvicultural activity, including stormwater runoff from an orchard, cultivated crop, pasture, rangeland, and forest land, but not discharges from a concentrated animal feeding operation, concentrated aquatic animal production facility, silvicultural point source, or to an aquaculture project;

5. Return flows from irrigated agriculture;

6. Discharges into a privately owned treatment works, except as the Director requires under 40 CFR 122.44(m), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(3)(d);

7. Discharges from conveyances for stormwater runoff from mining operations or oil and gas exploration, production, processing or treatment operations, or transmission facilities, composed entirely of flows from conveyances or systems of conveyances, including pipes, conduits, ditches, and channels, used for collecting and conveying precipitation runoff and that are not contaminated by contact with or that has not come into contact with, any overburden, raw material, intermediate products, finished product, byproduct, or waste product located on the site of the operations.

H. Conditional no exposure exclusion.

1. Discharges composed entirely of stormwater are not considered stormwater discharges associated with an industrial activity if there is no exposure, and the discharger satisfies the conditions under 40 CFR 122.26(g), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(1)(d).

2. For purposes of this subsection:

a. "No exposure" means that all industrial materials and activities are protected by a storm resistant shelter to prevent exposure to rain, snow, snowmelt, and runoff.

b. "Industrial materials or activities" include material handling equipment or activities, industrial machinery, raw materials, intermediate products, by-products, final products, or waste products.

c. "Material-handling activities" include storage, loading and unloading, transportation, or conveyance of any raw material, intermediate product, final product, or waste product.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2704, effective June 5, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-A903. Prohibitions

The Director shall not issue a permit:

1. If the conditions of the permit do not provide for compliance with the applicable requirements of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3.1; 18 A.A.C. 9, Articles 9 and 10; and the Clean Water Act;

2. Before resolution of an EPA objection to a draft or proposed permit under R18-9-A908(C);

3. If the imposition of conditions cannot ensure compliance with the applicable water quality requirements from Arizona or an affected state or tribe, or a federally promulgated water quality standard under 40 CFR 131.31;

4. If in the judgment of the Secretary of the U.S. Army, acting through the Chief of Engineers, the discharge will substantially impair anchorage and navigation in or on any navigable water;

5. For the discharge of any radiological, chemical, or biological warfare agent, or high-level radioactive waste;

6. For any discharge inconsistent with a plan or plan amendment approved under section 208(b) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1288); and

7. To a new source or a new discharger if the discharge from its construction or operation will cause or contribute to the violation of a water quality standard. The owner or operator of a new source or new discharger proposing to discharge into a water segment that does not meet water quality standards or is not expected to meet those standards even after the application of the effluent limitations required under R18-9-A905(A)(8), and for which the Department has performed a wasteload allocation for the proposed discharge, shall demonstrate before the close of the public comment period that:

a. There are sufficient remaining wasteload allocations to allow for the discharge, and

b. The existing dischargers into the segment are subject to schedules of compliance designed to bring the segment into compliance with water quality standards.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2704, effective June 5, 2002 (Supp. 02-2).

R18-9-A904. Effect of a Permit

A. Except for a standard or prohibition imposed under section 307 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1317) for a toxic pollutant that is injurious to human health and standards for sewage sludge use or disposal under Article 10 of this Chapter, compliance with an AZPDES permit during its term constitutes compliance, for purposes of enforcement, with Article 9 of this Chapter. However, the Director may modify, revoke and reissue, suspend, or terminate a permit during its term for cause under R18-9-B906.

B. The issuance of a permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.

C. The issuance of a permit does not authorize any injury to a person or property or invasion of other private rights, or any infringement of federal, state, or local law, or regulations.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-A905. AZPDES Program Standards

A. Except for subsection (A)(11), the following 40 CFR sections and appendices, July 1, 2003 edition, as they apply to the NPDES program, are incorporated by reference, do not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter, and are on file with the Department:

1. General program requirements.

a. 40 CFR 122.7;

b. 40 CFR 122.21, except 40 CFR 122.21(a) through (e) and (l);

c. 40 CFR 122.22;

d. 40 CFR 122.26, except 40 CFR 122.26(c)(2), and 40 CFR 122.26(e)(2);

e. 40 CFR 122.29;

f. 40 CFR 122.32;

g. 40 CFR 122.33;

h. 40 CFR 122.34;

i. 40 CFR 122.35;

j. 40 CFR 122.62(a) and (b).

2. Procedures for Decision making.

a. 40 CFR 124.8, except 40 CFR 124.8(b)(3); and

b. 40 CFR 124.56.

3. Permit requirements and conditions.

a. 40 CFR 122.41, except 40 CFR 122.41(a)(2) and (a)(3);

b. 40 CFR 122.42;

c. 40 CFR 122.43;

d. 40 CFR 122.44;

e. 40 CFR 122.45;

f. 40 CFR 122.47;

g. 40 CFR 122.48; and

h. 40 CFR 122.50.

4. Criteria and standards for the national pollutant discharge elimination system. 40 CFR 125, subparts A, B, D, H, and I.

5. Toxic pollutant effluent standards. 40 CFR 129.

6. Secondary treatment regulation. 40 CFR 133.

7. Guidelines for establishing test procedures for the analysis of pollutants, 40 CFR 136.

8. Effluent guidelines and standards.

a. General provisions, 40 CFR 401; and

b. General pretreatment regulations for existing and new sources of pollution, 40 CFR 403 and Appendices A, D, E, and G.

9. Effluent limitations guidelines. 40 CFR 405 through 40 CFR 471.

10. Standards for the use or disposal of sewage sludge. 40 CFR 503, Subpart C.

11. The following substitutions apply to the material in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(10):

a. Substitute the term AZPDES for any reference to NPDES;

b. Except for 40 CFR 122.21(f) through (q), substitute R18-9-B901 (individual permit), and R18-9-C901 (general permit), for any reference to 40 CFR 122.21;

c. Substitute Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter for any reference to 40 CFR 122;

d. Substitute R18-9-C901 for any reference to 40 CFR 122.28;

e. Substitute R18-9-B901 (individual permit), and R18-9-C901 (general permit), for any reference to 40 CFR 122 subpart B;

f. Substitute Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter for any reference to 40 CFR 123;

g. Substitute Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter for any reference to 40 CFR 124;

h. Substitute R18-9-1006 for any reference to 40 CFR 503.32; and

i. Substitute R18-9-1010 for any reference to 40 CFR 503.33.

B. A person shall analyze a pollutant using a test procedure for the pollutant specified by the Director in an AZPDES permit. If the Director does not specify a test procedure for a pollutant in an AZPDES permit, a person shall analyze the pollutant using:

1. A test procedure listed in 40 CFR 136, which is incorporated by reference in subsection (A)(7);

2. An alternate test procedure approved by the EPA as provided in 40 CFR 136;

3. A test procedure listed in 40 CFR 136, with modifications allowed by the EPA and approved as a method alteration by the Arizona Department of Health Services under A.A.C. R9-14-610(B); or

4. If a test procedure for a pollutant is not available under subsection (B)(1) through (B)(3), a test procedure listed in A.A.C. R9-14-612 or approved under A.A.C. R9-14-610(B).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 2704, effective June 5, 2002 (Supp. 02-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-A906. General Pretreatment Regulations for Existing and New Sources of Pollution

A. The reduction or alteration of a pollutant may be obtained by physical, chemical, or biological processes, process changes, or by other means, except as prohibited under 40 CFR 403.6(d), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(8)(b). Appropriate pretreatment technology includes control equipment, such as equalization tanks or facilities, for protection against surges or slug loading that might interfere with or otherwise be incompatible with the POTW. However, if wastewater from a regulated process is mixed in an equalization facility with unregulated wastewater or with wastewater from another regulated process, the effluent from the equalization facility shall meet an adjusted pretreatment limit calculated under 40 CFR 403.6(e), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(8)(b).

B. Pretreatment applies to:

1. Pollutants from non-domestic sources covered by pretreatment standards that are indirectly discharged, transported by truck or rail, or otherwise introduced into POTWs;

2. POTWs that receive wastewater from sources subject to national pretreatment standards; and

3. Any new or existing source subject to national pretreatment standards.

C. National pretreatment standards do not apply to sources that discharge to a sewer that is not connected to a POTW.

D. For purposes of this Section the terms "National Pretreatment Standard" and "Pretreatment Standard" mean any regulation containing pollutant discharge limits promulgated by EPA under section 307(b) and (c) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1317), which applies to Industrial Users. This term includes prohibitive discharge limits established under 40 CFR 403.5.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-A907. Public Notice

A. Individual permits.

1. The Director shall publish a notice that a draft individual permit has been prepared, or a permit application has been tentatively denied, in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located. The notice shall contain:

a. The name and address of the Department;

b. The name and address of the permittee or permit applicant and if different, the name of the facility or activity regulated by the permit;

c. A brief description of the business conducted at the facility or activity described in the permit application;

d. The name, address, and telephone number of a person from whom an interested person may obtain further information, including copies of the draft permit, fact sheet, and application;

e. A brief description of the comment procedures, the time and place of any hearing, including a statement of procedures to request a hearing (unless a hearing has already been scheduled), and any other procedure by which the public may participate in the final permit decision;

f. A general description of the location of each existing or proposed discharge point and the name of the receiving water;

g. For sources subject to section 316(a) of the Clean Water Act, a statement that the thermal component of the discharge is subject to effluent limitations under the Clean Water Act, section 301 (33 U.S.C. 1311) or 306 (33 U.S.C. 1316) and a brief description, including a quantitative statement, of the thermal effluent limitations proposed under section 301 (33 U.S.C. 1311) or 306 (33 U.S.C. 1316);

h. Requirements applicable to cooling water intake structures at new facilities subject to 40 CFR 125, subpart I; and

i. Any additional information considered necessary to the permit decision.

2. The Department shall provide the applicant with a copy of the draft individual permit.

3. Copy of the notice. The Department shall provide the following entities with a copy of the notice:

a. The applicant or permittee;

b. Any user identified in the permit application of a privately owned treatment works;

c. Any affected federal, state, tribal, or local agency, or council of government;

d. Federal and state agencies with jurisdiction over fish, shellfish, and wildlife resources, the Arizona Historic Preservation Office, and the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers;

e. Each applicable county department of health, environmental services, or comparable department;

f. Any person who requested, in writing, notification of the activity; and

g. The Secretaria de Medio Ambiente y Recursos Naturales and the United States Section of the International Boundary and Water Commission, if the Department is aware the effluent discharge is expected to reach Sonora, Mexico, either through surface water or groundwater.

B. General permits. If the Director considers issuing a general permit applicable to a category of discharge under R18-9-C901, the Director shall publish a general notice of the draft permit in the Arizona Administrative Register. The notice shall contain:

1. The name and address of the Department,

2. The name of the person to contact regarding the permit,

3. The general permit category,

4. A brief description of the proposed general permit,

5. A map or description of the permit area,

6. The web site or any other location where the proposed general permit may be obtained, and

7. The ending date for public comment.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-A908. Public Participation, EPA Review, EPA Hearing

A. Public comment period.

1. The Director shall accept written comments from any interested person before a decision is made on any notice published under R18-9-A907(A) or (B).

2. The public comment period begins on the publication date of the notice and extends for 30 calendar days.

3. The Director may extend the comment period to provide commenters a reasonable opportunity to participate in the decision-making process.

4. If any data, information, or arguments submitted during the public comment period appear to raise substantial new questions concerning a permit, the Director may reopen or extend the comment period to provide interested persons an opportunity to comment on the information or arguments submitted. Comments filed during a reopened comment period are limited to the substantial new questions that caused its reopening.

a. Corps of Engineers.

i. If the District Engineer advises the Director that denying the permit or imposing specified conditions upon a permit is necessary to avoid any substantial impairment of anchorage or navigation, then the Director shall deny the permit or include the specified conditions in the permit.

ii. A person shall use the applicable procedures of the Corps of Engineers Review and not the procedures under this Article to appeal the denial of a permit or conditions specified by the District Engineer.

iii. If the conditions are stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction or by applicable procedures of the Corps of Engineers, those conditions are considered stayed in the AZPDES permit for the duration of that stay.

b. If an agency with jurisdiction over fish, wildlife, or public health advises the Director in writing that the imposition of specified conditions upon the permit is necessary to avoid substantial impairment of fish, shellfish, or wildlife resource, the Director may include the specified conditions in the permit to the extent they are determined necessary to carry out the provisions of the Clean Water Act.

B. Public hearing.

1. The Director shall provide notice and conduct a public hearing to address a draft permit or denial regarding a final decision if:

a. Significant public interest in a public hearing exists, or

b. Significant issues or information have been brought to the attention of the Director during the comment period that was not considered previously in the permitting process.

2. If, after publication of the notice under R18-9-A907, the Director determines that a public hearing is necessary, the Director shall schedule a public hearing and publish notice of the public hearing at least once, in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the facility is located. The notice for public hearing shall contain:

a. The date, time, and place of the hearing;

b. Reference to the date of a previous public notice relating to the proposed decision, if any; and

c. A brief description of the nature and purpose of the hearing, including reference to the applicable laws and rules.

3. The Department shall accept written public comment until the close of the hearing or until a later date specified by the person presiding at the public hearing.

C. EPA review of draft and proposed permits.

1. Individual permits.

a. The Department shall send a copy of the draft permit to EPA.

b. If EPA objects to the draft permit within 30 days from the date of receipt of the draft permit, the EPA comment period is extended to 90 days from the date of receipt of the draft permit and the substantive review time-frame is suspended until EPA makes a final determination.

c. If, based on public comments, the Department revises the draft permit, the Department shall send EPA a copy of the proposed permit. If EPA objects to the proposed permit within 30 days from the date of receipt of the proposed permit, the EPA comment period is extended to 90 days from the date of receipt of the proposed permit and the substantive review time-frame is suspended until EPA makes a final determination.

d. If EPA withdraws its objection to the draft or proposed permit or does not submit specific objections within 90 days, the Director shall issue the permit.

2. General permits. The Director shall send a copy of the draft permit to EPA and comply with the following review procedure for EPA comments:

a. If EPA objects to the draft permit within 90 days from receipt of the draft permit, the Department shall not issue the permit until the objection is resolved;

b. If, based on public comments, the Department revises the draft permit, the Department shall send EPA a copy of the proposed permit. If EPA objects to the proposed permit within 90 days from receipt of the proposed permit, the Department shall not issue the permit until the objection is resolved;

c. If EPA withdraws its objection to the draft or proposed permit or does not submit specific objections within 90 days, the Director shall issue the permit.

D. EPA hearing. Within 90 days of receipt by the Director of a specific objection by EPA, the Director or any interested person may request that EPA hold a public hearing on the objection.

1. If following the public hearing EPA withdraws the objection, the Director shall issue the permit.

2. If a public hearing is not held, and EPA reaffirms the original objection, or modifies the terms of the objection, and the Director does not resubmit a permit revised to meet the EPA objection within 90 days of receipt of the objection, EPA may issue the permit for one term. Following the completion of the permit term, authority to issue the permit reverts to the Department.

3. If a public hearing is held and EPA does not withdraw an objection or modify the terms of the objection, and the Director does not resubmit a permit revised to meet the EPA objection within 30 days of notification of the EPA objection, EPA may issue the permit for one permit term. Following the completion of the permit term, authority to issue the permit reverts to the Department.

4. If EPA issues the permit instead of the Director, the Department shall close the application file.

E. Final permit determination.

1. Individual permits. At the same time the Department notifies a permittee or an applicant of the final individual permit determination, the Department shall send, through regular mail, a notice of the determination to any person who submitted comments or attended a public hearing on the final individual permit determination. The Department shall:

a. Specify the provisions, if any, of the draft individual permit that have been changed in the final individual permit determination, and the reasons for the change; and

b. Briefly describe and respond to all significant comments on the draft individual permit or the permit application raised during the public comment period, or during any hearing.

2. General permits. The Director shall publish a general notice of the final permit determination in the Arizona Administrative Register. The notice shall:

a. Specify the provisions, if any, of the draft general permit that have been changed in the final general permit determination, and the reasons for the change;

b. Briefly describe and respond to all significant comments on the draft general permit raised during the public comment period, or during any hearing; and

c. Specify where a copy of the final general permit may be obtained.

3. The Department shall make the response to comments available to the public.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-A909. Petitions

A. Any person may submit a petition to the Director requesting:

1. The issuance of a general permit;

2. An individual permit covering any discharge into an MS4 under 40 CFR 122.26(f), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(1)(d); or

3. An individual permit under R18-9-C902(B)(1).

B. The petition shall contain:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner;

2. The location of the facility;

3. The exact nature of the petition, and

4. Evidence of the validity of the petition.

C. The Department shall provide the permittee with a copy of the petition.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

PART B. INDIVIDUAL PERMITS

R18-9-B901. Individual Permit Application

A. Time to apply.

1. Any person who owns or operates a facility covered by R18-9-A902(B) or R18-9-A902(C), shall apply for an AZPDES individual permit at least 180 days before the date of the discharge or a later date if granted by the Director, unless the person:

a. Is exempt under R18-9-A902(G);

b. Is covered by a general permit under Article 9, Part C of this Chapter; or

c. Is a user of a privately owned treatment works, unless the Director requires a permit under 40 CFR 122.44(m).

2. Construction. Any person who proposes a construction activity under R18-9-A902(B)(9)(c) or R18-9-A902(B)(9)(d) and wishes coverage under an individual permit, shall apply for the individual permit at least 90 days before the date on which construction is to commence.

3. Waivers.

a. Unless the Director grants a waiver under 40 CFR 122.32, a person operating a small MS4 is regulated under the AZPDES program.

b. The Director shall review any waiver granted under subsection (A)(3)(a) at least every five years to determine whether any of the information required for granting the waiver has changed.

B. Application. An individual permit applicant shall submit the following information on an application obtained from the Department. The Director may require more than one application from a facility depending on the number and types of discharges or outfalls.

1. Discharges, other than stormwater.

a. The information required under 40 CFR 122.21(f) through (l);

b. The signature of the certifying official required under 40 CFR 122.22;

c. The name and telephone number of the operator, if the operator is not the applicant; and

d. Whether the facility is located in the border area, and, if so:

i. A description of the area into which the effluent discharges from the facility may flow, and

ii. A statement explaining whether the effluent discharged is expected to cross the Arizona-Sonora, Mexico border.

2. Stormwater. In addition to the information required in subsection (B)(1)(c) and (B)(1)(d):

a. For stormwater discharges associated with industrial activity, the application requirements under 40 CFR 122.26(c)(1);

b. For large and medium MS4s, the application requirements under 40 CFR 122.26(d);

c. For small MS4s:

i. A stormwater management program under 40 CFR 122.34, and

ii. The application requirements under 40 CFR 122.33.

C. Consolidation of permit applications.

1. The Director may consolidate two or more permit applications for any facility or activity that requires a permit under Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter.

2. Whenever a facility or activity requires an additional permit under Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter, the Director may coordinate the expiration date of the new permit with the expiration date of an existing permit so that all permits expire simultaneously. The Department may then consolidate the processing of the subsequent applications for renewal permits.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B902. Requested Coverage Under a General Permit

An owner or operator may request that an individual permit be revoked, if a source is excluded from a general permit solely because it already has an individual permit.

1. The Director shall grant the request for revocation of an individual permit upon determining that the permittee otherwise qualifies for coverage under a general permit.

2. Upon revocation of the individual permit, the general permit applies to the source.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B903. Individual Permit Issuance or Denial

A. Once the application is complete, the Director shall tentatively decide whether to prepare a draft permit or to deny the application.

B. Permit issuance. If, based upon the information obtained by or available to the Department under R18-9-A907, R18-9-A908, and R18-9-B901, the Director determines that an applicant complies with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3.1 and Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter, the Director shall issue a permit that is effective as prescribed in A.R.S. 49-255.01(H).

C. Permit denial.

1. If the Director decides to deny the permit application, the Director shall provide the applicant with a written notice of intent to deny the permit application. The written notification shall include:

a. The reason for the denial with reference to the statute or rule on which the denial is based;

b. The applicant's right to appeal the denial with the Water Quality Appeals Board under A.R.S. &#167; 49-323, the number of days the applicant has to file a protest challenging the denial, and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process; and

c. The applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

2. The Director shall provide an opportunity for public comment under R18-9-A907 and R18-9-A908 on a denial.

3. The decision of the Director to deny the permit application takes effect 30 days after the decision is served on the applicant, unless the applicant files an appeal under A.R.S. 49-255.01(H)(1).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B904. Individual Permit Duration, Reissuance, and Continuation

A. Permit duration.

1. An AZPDES individual permit is effective for a fixed term of not more than five years. The Director may issue a permit for a duration that is less than the full allowable term.

2. If the Director does not reissue a permit within the period specified in the permit, the permit expires, unless it is continued under subsection (C).

3. If a permittee of a large or medium MS4 allows a permit to expire by failing to reapply within the time period specified in subsection (B), the permittee shall submit a new application under R18-9-B901 and follow the application requirements under 40 CFR 122.26(d), which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(1)(d).

B. Permit reissuance.

1. A permittee shall reapply for an individual permit at least 180 days before the permit expiration date.

2. Unless otherwise specified in the permit, an annual report submitted 180 days before the permit expiration date satisfies the reapplication requirement for an MS4 permit. The annual report shall contain:

a. The name, address, and telephone number of the MS4;

b. The name, address, and telephone number of the contact person;

c. The status of compliance with permit conditions, including an assessment of the appropriateness of the selected best management practices and progress toward achieving the selected measurable goals for each minimum measure;

d. The results of any information collected and analyzed, including monitoring data, if any;

e. A summary of the stormwater activities planned for the next reporting cycle;

f. A change in any identified best management practices or measurable goals for any minimum measure; and

g. Notice of relying on another governmental entity to satisfy some of the permit obligations.

C. Continuation. A NPDES or AZPDES individual permit may continue beyond its expiration date if:

1. The permittee has submitted a complete application for an AZPDES individual permit at least 180 days before the expiration date of the existing permit and the permitted activity is of a continuing nature; and

2. The Department is unable, through no fault of the permittee, to issue an AZPDES individual permit on or before the expiration date of the existing permit.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B905. Individual Permit Transfer

A. A permittee may request the Director to transfer an individual permit to a new permittee. The Director may modify, or revoke and reissue the permit to identify the new permittee, or make a minor modification to identify the new permittee.

B. Automatic transfer. The Director may automatically transfer an individual permit to a new permittee if:

1. The current permittee notifies the Director by certified mail at least 30 days in advance of the proposed transfer date and includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittee containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and

2. The Director does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of the Director's intent to modify, or revoke and reissue the permit. A modification under this subsection may include a minor modification specified in R18-9-B906(B).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B906. Modification, Revocation and Reissuance, and Termination of Individual Permits

A. Permit modification, revocation and reissuance.

1. The Director may modify, or revoke and reissue an individual permit for any of the following reasons:

a. The Director receives a written request from an interested person;

b. The Director receives information, such as when inspecting a facility;

c. The Director receives a written request to modify, or revoke and reissue a permit from a permittee as required in the individual permit; or

d. After review of a permit file, the Director determines one or more of the causes listed under 40 CFR 122.62(a) or (b) exists.

i. If the Director decides a written request is not justified under 40 CFR 122.62 or subsection (B), the Director shall send the requester a brief written response giving a reason for the decision.

ii. The denial of a request for modification, or revocation and reissuance is not subject to public notice, comment, or hearing under R18-9-A907 and R18-9-A908(A) and (B).

2. If the Director tentatively decides to modify, or revoke and reissue an individual permit, the Director shall prepare a draft permit incorporating the proposed changes. The Director may request additional information and, in the case of a modified permit, may require the submission of an updated application.

a. Modified individual permit. The Director shall reopen only the modified conditions when preparing a new draft permit and process the modifications.

b. Revoked and reissued individual permit.

i. The permittee shall submit a new application.

ii. The Director shall reopen the entire permit just as if the permit had expired and was being reissued.

3. During any modification, or revocation and reissuance proceeding, the permittee shall comply with all conditions of the existing permit until a new final permit is issued.

B. Minor modifications.

1. Upon consent of the permittee, the Director may make any of the following modifications to an individual permit:

a. Correct typographical errors;

b. Update a permit condition that changed as a result of updating an Arizona water quality standard;

c. Require more frequent monitoring or reporting by the permittee;

d. Change an interim compliance date in a schedule of compliance, provided the new date is not more than 120 days after the date specified in the existing permit and does not interfere with attainment of the final compliance date requirement;

e. Allow for a change in ownership or operational control of a facility, if no other change in the permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between the current and new permittees has been submitted to the Director;

f. Change the construction schedule for a new source discharger. The change shall not affect a discharger's obligation to have all pollution control equipment installed and in operation before the discharge;

g Delete a point source outfall if the discharge from that outfall is terminated and does not result in a discharge of pollutants from other outfalls except under permit limits;

h. Incorporate conditions of a POTW pretreatment program approved under 40 CFR 403.11 and 40 CFR 403.18, which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(7)(b) as enforceable conditions of the permit, and

i. Annex an area by a municipality.

2. Any modification processed under subsection (B)(1) is not subject to the public notice provision under R18-9-A907 or public participation procedures under R18-9-A908.

C. Permit termination.

1. The Director may terminate an individual permit during its term or deny reissuance of a permit for any of the following causes:

a. The permittee's failure to comply with any condition of the permit;

b. The permittee's failure in the application or during the permit issuance process to disclose fully all relevant facts, or the permittee's misrepresentation of any relevant fact;

c. The Director determined that the permitted activity endangers human health or the environment and can only be regulated to acceptable levels by permit modification or termination; or

d. A change occurs in any condition that requires either a temporary or permanent reduction or elimination of any discharge, sludge use, or disposal practice controlled by the permit, for example, a plant closure or termination of discharge by connection to a POTW.

2. If the Director terminates a permit during its term or denies a permit renewal application for any cause listed in subsection (C)(1), the Director shall issue a Notice of Intent to Terminate, except when the entire discharge is terminated.

a. Unless the permittee objects to the termination notice within 30 days after the notice is sent, the termination is final at the end of the 30 days.

b. If the permittee objects to the termination notice, the permittee shall respond in writing to the Director within 30 days after the notice is sent.

c. Expedited permit termination. If a permittee requests an expedited permit termination procedure, the permittee shall certify that the permittee is not subject to any pending state or federal enforcement actions, including citizen suits brought under state or federal law.

d. The denial of a request for termination is not subject to public notice, comment, or hearing under R18-9-A907 and R18-9-A908(A) and (B).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-B907. Individual Permit Variances

A. The Director may grant or deny a request for any of the following variances:

1. An extension under section 301(i) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1311) based on a delay in completion of a POTW;

2. After consultation with EPA, an extension under section 301(k) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1311) based on the use of innovative technology;

3. A variance under section 316(a) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1326) for thermal pollution, or

4. A variance under R18-11-122 for a water quality standard.

B. The Director may deny, forward to EPA with a written concurrence, or submit to EPA without recommendation a completed request for:

1. A variance based on the economic capability of the applicant under section 301(c) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1311); or

2. A variance based on water quality related effluent limitations under 302(b)(2) (33 U.S.C. 1312) of the Clean Water Act.

C. The Director may deny or forward to EPA with a written concurrence a completed request for:

1. A variance based on the presence of fundamentally different factors from those on which an effluent limitations guideline is based; and

2. A variance based upon water quality factors under section 301(g) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1311).

D. If the Department approves a variance under subsection (A) or if EPA approves a variance under subsection (B) or (C), the Director shall prepare a draft permit incorporating the variance. Any public notice of a draft permit for which a variance or modification has been approved or denied shall identify the applicable procedures for appealing the decision.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

PART C. GENERAL PERMITS

R18-9-C901. General Permit Issuance

A. The Director may issue a general permit to cover one or more categories of discharges, sludge use, or disposal practices, or facilities within a geographic area corresponding to existing geographic or political boundaries, if the sources within a covered category of discharges are either:

1. Stormwater point sources; or

2. One or more categories of point sources other than stormwater point sources, or one or more categories of treatment works treating domestic sewage, if the sources, or treatment works treating domestic sewage, within each category all:

a. Involve the same or substantially similar types of operations;

b. Discharge the same types of wastes or engage in the same types of sludge use or disposal practices;

c. Require the same effluent limitations, operating conditions, or standards for sludge use or disposal;

d. Require the same or similar monitoring; and

e. Are more appropriately controlled under a general permit than under an individual permit.

B. Any person seeking coverage under a general permit issued under subsection (A) shall submit a Notice of Intent on a form provided by the Department within the time-frame specified in the general permit unless exempted under the general permit as provided in subsection (C)(2). The person shall not discharge before the time specified in the general permit unless the discharge is authorized by another permit.

C. Exemption from filing a Notice of Intent.

1. The following dischargers are not exempt from submitting a Notice of Intent:

a. A discharge from a POTW;

b. A combined sewer overflow;

c. A MS4;

d. A primary industrial facility;

e. A stormwater discharge associated with industrial activity;

f. A CAFO;

g. A treatment works treating domestic sewage; and

h. A stormwater discharge associated with construction activity.

2. For dischargers not listed in subsection (C)(1), the Director may consider a Notice of Intent inappropriate for the discharge and authorize the discharge under a general permit without a Notice of Intent. In making this finding, the Director shall consider:

a. The type of discharge,

b. The expected nature of the discharge,

c. The potential for toxic and conventional pollutants in the discharge,

d. The expected volume of the discharge,

e. Other means of identifying the discharges covered by the permit, and

f. The estimated number of discharges covered by the permit.

3. The Director shall provide reasons for not requiring a Notice of Intent for a general permit in the public notice.

D. Notice of Intent. The Director shall specify the contents of the Notice of Intent in the general permit and the applicant shall submit information sufficient to establish coverage under the general permit, including, at a minimum:

1. The name, position, address, and telephone number of the owner of the facility;

2. The name, position, address, and telephone number of the operator of the facility, if different from subsection (D)(1);

3. The name and address of the facility;

4. The type and location of the discharge;

5. The receiving streams;

6. The latitude and longitude of the facility;

7. For a CAFO, the information specified in 40 CFR 122.21(i)(1) and a topographic map;

8. The signature of the certifying official required under 40 CFR 122.22; and

9. Any other information necessary to determine eligibility for the AZPDES general permit.

E. The general permit shall contain:

1. The expiration date; and

2. The appropriate permit requirements, permit conditions, and best management practices, and measurable goals for MS4 general permits, under R18-9-A905(A)(1), R18-9-A905(A)(2), and R18-9-A905(A)(3) and determined by the Director as necessary and appropriate for the protection of navigable waters.

F. The Department shall inform a permittee if EPA requests the permittee's Notice of Intent, unless EPA requests that the permittee not be notified.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-C902. Required and Requested Coverage Under an Individual Permit

A. Individual permit requirements.

1. The Director may require a person authorized by a general permit to apply for and obtain an individual permit for any of the following cases:

a. A discharger or treatment works treating domestic sewage is not in compliance with the conditions of the general permit;

b. A change occurs in the availability of demonstrated technology or practices for the control or abatement of pollutants applicable to the point source or treatment works treating domestic sewage;

c. Effluent limitation guidelines are promulgated for point sources covered by the general permit;

d. An Arizona Water Quality Management Plan containing requirements applicable to the point sources is approved;

e. Circumstances change after the time of the request to be covered so that the discharger is no longer appropriately controlled under the general permit, or either a temporary or permanent reduction or elimination of the authorized discharge is necessary;

f. Standards for sewage sludge use or disposal are promulgated for the sludge use and disposal practices covered by the general permit; or

g. If the Director determines that the discharge is a significant contributor of pollutants. When making this determination, the Director shall consider:

i. The location of the discharge with respect to navigable waters,

ii. The size of the discharge,

iii. The quantity and nature of the pollutants discharged to navigable waters, and

iv. Any other relevant factor.

2. If an individual permit is required, the Director shall notify the discharger in writing of the decision. The notice shall include:

a. A brief statement of the reasons for the decision,

b. An application form,

c. A statement setting a deadline to file the application,

d. A statement that on the effective date of issuance or denial of the individual permit, coverage under the general permit will automatically terminate,

e. The applicant's right to appeal the individual permit requirement with the Water Quality Appeals Board under A.R.S. &#167; 49-323, the number of days the applicant has to file a protest challenging the individual permit requirement, and the name and telephone number of the Department contact person who can answer questions regarding the appeals process; and

f. The applicant's right to request an informal settlement conference under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1092.03(A) and 41-1092.06.

3. The discharger shall apply for a permit within 90 days of receipt of the notice, unless the Director grants a later date. In no case shall the deadline be more than 180 days after the date of the notice.

4. If the permittee fails to submit the individual permit application within the time period established in subsection (A)(3), the applicability of the general permit to the permittee is automatically terminated at the end of the day specified by the Director for application submittal.

5. Coverage under the general permit shall continue until an individual permit is issued unless the permit coverage is terminated under subsection (A)(4).

B. Individual permit request.

1. An owner or operator authorized by a general permit may request an exclusion from coverage of a general permit by applying for an individual permit.

a. The owner or operator shall submit an individual permit application under R18-9-B901(B) and include the reasons supporting the request no later than 90 days after publication of the general permit.

b. The Director shall grant the request if the reasons cited by the owner or operator are adequate to support the request.

2. If an individual permit is issued to an owner or operator otherwise subject to a general permit, the applicability of the general permit to the discharge is automatically terminated on the effective date of the individual permit.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-C903. General Permit Duration, Reissuance, and Continuation

A. General permit duration.

1. An AZPDES general permit is effective for a fixed term of not more than five years. The Director may issue a permit for a duration that is less than the full allowable term.

2. If the Director does not reissue a general permit before the expiration date, the current general permit will be administratively continued and remain in force and effect until the general permit is reissued.

B. Continued coverage. Any permittee granted permit coverage before the expiration date automatically remains covered by the continued permit until the earlier of:

1. Reissuance or replacement of the permit, at which time the permittee shall comply with the Notice of Intent conditions of the new permit to maintain authorization to discharge; or

2. The date the permittee has submitted a Notice of Termination; or

3. The date the Director has issued an individual permit for the discharge; or

4. The date the Director has issued a formal permit decision not to reissue the general permit, at which time the permittee shall seek coverage under an alternative general permit or an individual permit.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-C904. Change of Ownership or Operator Under a General Permit

If a change of ownership or operator occurs for a facility operating under a general permit:

1. Permitted owner or operator. The permittee shall provide the Department with a Notice of Termination by certified mail within 30 days after the new owner or operator assumes responsibility for the facility.

a. The Notice of Termination shall include all requirements for termination specified in the general permit for which the Notice of Termination is submitted.

b. A permittee shall comply with the permit conditions specified in the general permit for which the Notice of Termination is submitted until the Notice of Termination is received by the Department.

2. New owner or operator.

a. The new owner or operator shall complete and file a Notice of Intent with the Department within the time period specified in the general permit before taking over operational control of, or initiation of activities at, the facility.

b. If the previous permittee was required to implement a stormwater pollution prevention plan, the new owner shall develop a new stormwater pollution prevention plan, or may modify, certify, and implement the old stormwater pollution prevention plan if the old stormwater pollution prevention plan complies with the requirements of the current general permit.

c. The permittee shall provide the Department with a Notice of Termination if a permitted facility ceases operation, ceases to discharge, or changes operator status. In the case of a construction site, the permittee shall submit a Notice of Termination to the Department when:

i. The facility ceases construction operations and the discharge is no longer associated with construction or construction-related activities,

ii. The construction is complete and final site stabilization is achieved, or

iii. The operator's status changes.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

R18-9-C905. General Permit Modification and Revocation and Reissuance

A. The Director may modify or revoke a general permit issued under R18-9-A907(B), R18-9-A908, and R18-9-C901 if one or more of the causes listed under 40 CFR 122.62(a) or (b) exists.

B. The Director shall follow the procedures specified in R18-9-A907(B) and R18-9-A908 to modify or revoke and reissue a general permit.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

PART D. ANIMAL FEEDING OPERATIONS AND CONCENTRATED ANIMAL FEEDING OPERATIONS

R18-9-D901. CAFO Designations

A. Two or more animal feeding operations under common ownership are considered a single animal feeding operation if they adjoin each other or if they use a common area or system for the disposal of wastes.

B. The Director shall designate an animal feeding operation as a CAFO if the animal feeding operation significantly contributes a pollutant to a navigable water. The Director shall consider the following factors when making this determination:

1. The size of the animal feeding operation and the amount of wastes reaching a navigable water;

2. The location of the animal feeding operation relative to a navigable water;

3. The means of conveyance of animal wastes and process wastewaters into a navigable water;

4. The slope, vegetation, rainfall, and any other factor affecting the likelihood or frequency of discharge of animal wastes and process wastewaters into a navigable water; and

5. Any other relevant factor.

C. The Director shall conduct an onsite inspection of the animal feeding operation before the making a designation under subsection (B).

D. The Director shall not designate an animal feeding operation having less than the number of animals established in R18-9-A901(19)(a) as a CAFO unless a pollutant is discharged:

1. Into a navigable water through a manmade ditch, flushing system, or other similar manmade device; or

2. Directly into a navigable water that originates outside of and passes over, across, or through the animal feeding operation or otherwise comes into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation.

E. If the Director makes a designation under subsection (B), the Director shall notify the owner or operator of the operation, in writing, of the designation.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-D902. AZPDES Permit Coverage Requirements

A. Any person who owns or operates a CAFO, except as provided in subsections (B) and (C), shall submit an application for an individual permit under R18-9-B901(B) or seek coverage under a general permit under R18-9-C901(B) within the applicable deadline specified in R18-9-D904(A).

B. If a person who owns or operates a large CAFO receives a no potential to discharge determination under R18-9-D903, coverage under an AZPDES permit described in this Part is not required.

C. The discharge of manure, litter, or process wastewater to a navigable water from a CAFO as a result of the application of manure, litter, or process wastewater by the CAFO to land areas under its control is subject to AZPDES permit requirements, except where it is an agricultural stormwater discharge as provided in section 502(14) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1362(14)). For purposes of this Section, an "agricultural stormwater discharge" means a precipitation-related discharge of manure, litter, or process wastewater from land areas under the control of a CAFO when the person who owns or operates the CAFO has applied the manure, litter, or process wastewater according to site-specific nutrient management practices to ensure appropriate agricultural use of the nutrients in the manure, litter, or process wastewater, as specified under 40 CFR 122.42(e)(1)(vi) through (ix).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-D903. No Potential To Discharge Determinations for Large CAFOs

A. For purposes of this Section, "no potential to discharge" means that there is no potential for any CAFO manure, litter, or process wastewater to enter into a navigable water under any circumstance or climatic condition.

B. Any person who owns or operates a large CAFO and has not had a discharge within the previous five years may request a no potential to discharge determination by submitting to the Department:

1. The information specified in 40 CFR 122.21(f) and 40 CFR 122.21(i)(1)(i) through (ix) on a form obtained from the Department, by the applicable date specified in R18-9-D904(A); and

2. Any additional information requested by the Director to supplement the request or requested through an onsite inspection of the CAFO.

C. Process for making a no potential to discharge determination.

1. Upon receiving a request under subsection (B), the Director shall consider:

a. The potential for discharges from both the production area and any land application area, and

b. Any record of prior discharges by the CAFO.

2. The Director shall issue a public notice that includes:

a. A statement that a no potential to discharge request has been received;

b. A fact sheet, when applicable;

c. A brief description of the type of facility or activity that is the subject of the no potential to discharge determination;

d. A brief summary of the factual basis, upon which the request is based, for granting the no potential to discharge determination; and

e. A description of the procedures for reaching a final decision on the no potential to discharge determination.

3. The Director shall base the decision to grant a no potential to discharge determination on the administrative record, which includes all information submitted in support of a no potential to discharge determination and any other supporting data gathered by the Director.

4. The Director shall notify the owner or operator of the large CAFO of the final determination within 90 days of receiving the request.

D. If the Director determines that the operation has the potential to discharge, the person who owns or operates the CAFO shall seek coverage under an AZPDES permit within 30 days after the determination of potential to discharge.

E. A no potential to discharge determination does not relieve the CAFO from the consequences of a discharge. An unpermitted CAFO discharging a pollutant into a navigable water is in violation of the Clean Water Act even if the Director issues a no potential to discharge determination for the facility. If the Director issues a determination of no potential to discharge to a CAFO facility but the owner or operator anticipates a change in circumstances that could create the potential for a discharge, the owner or operator shall contact the Director and apply for and obtain permit authorization before the change of circumstances.

F. When the Director issues a determination of no potential to discharge, the Director retains the authority to subsequently require AZPDES permit coverage if:

1. Circumstances at the facility change;

2. New information becomes available; or

3. The Director determines, through other means, that the CAFO has a potential to discharge.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-D904. AZPDES Permit Coverage Deadlines

A. Any person who owns or operates a CAFO shall apply for or seek coverage under an AZPDES permit and shall comply with all applicable AZPDES requirements, including the duty to maintain permit coverage under subsection (C).

1. Permit coverage deadline for an animal feeding operation operating before April 14, 2003.

a. An owner or operator of an animal feeding operation that operated before April 14, 2003 and was defined as a CAFO before February 2, 2004 shall apply for or seek permit coverage or maintain permit coverage and comply with the conditions of the applicable AZPDES permit;

b. An owner or operator of an animal feeding operation that operated before April 14, 2003 and was not defined as a CAFO until February 2, 2004 shall apply for or seek permit coverage by a date specified by the Director, but no later than February 13, 2006;

c. An owner or operator of an animal feeding operation that operated before April 14, 2003 who changes the operation on or after February 2, 2004, resulting in the operation being defined as a CAFO, shall apply for or seek permit coverage as soon as possible, but no later than 90 days after the operational change. If the operational change will not make the operation a CAFO as defined before February 2, 2004, the owner or operator may take until April 13, 2006 or 90 days after the operation is defined as a CAFO, whichever is later, to apply for or seek permit coverage;

d. An owner or operator of an animal feeding operation that operated before April 14, 2003 who constructs additional facilities on or after February 2, 2004, resulting in the operation being defined as a CAFO that is a new source, shall apply for or seek permit coverage at least 180 days before the new source portion of the CAFO commences operation. If the calculated 180-day deadline occurs before February 2, 2004 and the operation is not subject to this Article before February 2, 2004, the owner or operator shall apply for or seek permit coverage no later than March 3, 2004.

2. Permit coverage deadline for an animal feeding operation operating on or after April 14, 2003. An owner or operator who started construction of a CAFO on or after April 14, 2003, including a CAFO subject to the effluent limitations guidelines in 40 CFR 412, shall apply for or seek permit coverage at least 180 days before the CAFO commences operation. If the calculated 180-day deadline occurs before February 2, 2004 and the operation is not subject to this Article before February 2, 2004, the owner or operator shall apply for or seek permit coverage no later than March 3, 2004.

3. Permit coverage deadline for a designated CAFO. Any person who owns or operates a CAFO designated under R18-9-D901(B) shall apply for or seek permit coverage no later than 90 days after receiving a designation notice.

B. Unless specified under R18-9-D903(E) and (F), the Director shall not require permit coverage for a CAFO that the Director determines under R18-9-D903 to have no potential to discharge. If circumstances change at a CAFO that has a no potential to discharge determination and the CAFO now has a potential to discharge, the person who owns or operates the CAFO shall notify the Director within 30 days after the change in circumstances and apply for or seek coverage under an AZPDES permit.

C. Duty to maintain permit coverage.

1. The permittee shall:

a. If covered by an individual AZPDES permit, submit an application to renew the permit no later than 180 days before the expiration of the permit under R18-9-B904(B); or

b. If covered by a general AZPDES permit, comply with R18-9-C903(B).

2. Continued permit coverage or reapplication for a permit is not required if:

a. The facility ceases operation or is no longer a CAFO; and

b. The permittee demonstrates to the Director that there is no potential for a discharge of remaining manure, litter, or associated process wastewater (other than agricultural stormwater from land application areas) that was generated while the operation was a CAFO.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

R18-9-D905. Closure Requirements

A. Closure.

1. A person who owns or operates a CAFO shall notify the Department of the person's intent to cease operations without resuming an activity for which the facility was designed or operated.

2. A person who owns or operates a CAFO shall submit a closure plan to the Department for approval 90 days before ceasing operation. The closure plan shall describe:

a. For operations that met the "no potential to discharge" under R18-9-D903, facility-related information based on the Notice of Termination form for the applicable general permit;

b. The approximate quantity of manure, process wastewater, and other materials and contaminants to be removed from the facility;

c. The destination of the materials to be removed from the facility and documentation that the destination is approved to accept the materials;

d. The method to treat any material remaining at the facility;

e. The method to control the discharge of pollutants from the facility;

f. Any limitations on future land or water use created as a result of the facility's operations or closure activities;

g. A schedule for implementing the closure plan; and

h. Any other relevant information the Department determines necessary.

B. The owner or operator shall provide the Department with written notice that a closure plan has been fully implemented within 30 calendar days of completion and before redevelopment.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 5564, effective February 2, 2004 (Supp. 03-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 10" level="3" title="ARIZONA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM - DISPOSAL, USE, AND TRANSPORTATION OF BIOSOLIDS">

ARIZONA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM - DISPOSAL, USE, AND TRANSPORTATION OF BIOSOLIDS

<regElement name="R18.9.1001" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="microorgan" times="2"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-255 and R18-9-A901, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Aerobic digestion" means the biochemical decomposition of organic matter in biosolids into carbon dioxide and water by microorganisms in the presence of air.

2. "Agronomic rate" means the whole biosolids application rate on a dry-weight basis that meets the following conditions:

a. The amount of nitrogen needed by existing vegetation or a planned or actual crop has been provided, and

b. The amount of nitrogen that passes below the root zone of the crop or vegetation is minimized.

3. "Anaerobic digestion" means the biochemical decomposition of organic matter in biosolids into methane gas and carbon dioxide by microorganisms in the absence of air.

4. "Annual biosolids application rate" means the maximum amount of biosolids (dry-weight basis) that can be applied to an acre or hectare of land during a 365-day period.

5. "Annual pollutant loading rate" means the maximum amount of a pollutant that can be applied to an acre or hectare of land during a 365-day period.

6. "Applicator" means a person who arranges for and controls the site-specific land application of biosolids in Arizona.

7. "Biosolids" means sewage sludge, including exceptional quality biosolids, that is placed on, or applied to the land to use the beneficial properties of the material as a soil amendment, conditioner, or fertilizer. Biosolids do not include any of the following:

a. Sludge determined to be hazardous under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 5, Article 2 and 40 CFR 261;

b. Sludge with a concentration of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) equal to or greater than 50 milligrams per kilogram of total solids (dry-weight basis);

c. Grit (for example, sand, gravel, cinders, or other materials with a high specific gravity) or screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic sewage by a treatment works;

d. Sludge generated during the treatment of either surface water or groundwater used for drinking water;

e. Sludge generated at an industrial facility during the treatment of industrial wastewater, including industrial wastewater combined with domestic sewage;

f. Commercial septage, industrial septage, or domestic septage combined with commercial or industrial septage; or

g. Special wastes as defined and controlled under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 4, Article 9.

8. "Bulk biosolids" means biosolids that are transported and land-applied in a manner other than in a bag or other container holding biosolids of 1.102 short tons or 1 metric ton or less.

9. "Class I sludge management facility" means any POTW identified under 40 CFR 403.8(a) as being required to have an approved pretreatment program (including a POTW for which the Department assumes local program responsibilities under 40 CFR 403.10(e)) and any other treatment works treating domestic sewage classified as a Class I sludge management facility by the regional administrator in conjunction with the Director or by the Director because of the potential for its sludge use or disposal practices to adversely affect public health or the environment.

10. "Clean water act" means the federal water pollution control act amendments of 1972, as amended (P.L. 92-500; 86 Stat. 816; 33 United States Code sections 1251 through 1376). A.R.S. 49-201(6).

11. "Coarse fragments" means rock particles in the gravel-size range or larger.

12. "Coarse or medium sands" means a soil mixture of which more than 50% of the sand fraction is retained on a No. 40 (0.425 mm) sieve.

13. "Cumulative pollutant loading rate" means the maximum amount of a pollutant applied to a land application site.

14. "Domestic septage" means the liquid or solid material removed from a septic tank, cesspool, portable toilet, marine sanitation device, or similar system or device that receives only domestic sewage. Domestic septage does not include commercial or industrial wastewater or restaurant grease-trap wastes.

15. "Domestic sewage" means waste or wastewater from humans or household operations that is discharged to a publicly or privately owned treatment works. Domestic sewage also includes commercial and industrial wastewaters that are discharged into a publicly-owned or privately-owned treatment works if the industrial or commercial wastewater combines with human excreta and other household and nonindustrial wastewaters before treatment.

16. "Dry-weight basis" means the weight of biosolids calculated after the material has been dried at 105&#176; C until reaching a constant mass.

17. "Exceptional quality biosolids" means biosolids certified under R18-9-1013(A)(6) as meeting the pollutant concentrations in R18-9-1005 Table 2, Class A pathogen reduction in R18-9-1006, and one of the vector attraction reduction requirements in subsections R18-9-1010(A)(1) through R18-9-1010(A)(8).

18. "Feed crops" means crops produced for animal consumption.

19. "Fiber crops" means crops grown for their physical characteristics. Fiber crops, including flax and cotton, are not produced for human or animal consumption.

20. "Food crops" means crops produced for human consumption.

21. "Gravel" means soil predominantly composed of rock particles that will pass through a 3-inch (75 mm) sieve and be retained on a No. 4 (4.75 mm) sieve.

22. "Industrial wastewater" means wastewater that is generated in a commercial or industrial process.

23. "Land application," "apply biosolids," or "biosolids applied to the land" means spraying or spreading biosolids on the surface of the land, injecting biosolids below the land's surface, or incorporating biosolids into the soil to amend, condition, or fertilize the soil.

24. "Monthly average" means the arithmetic mean of all measurements taken during a calendar month.

25. "Municipality" means a city, town, county, district, association, or other public body, including an intergovernmental agency of two or more of the foregoing entities created by or under state law. The term includes special districts such as a water district, sewer district, sanitary district, utility district, drainage district, or similar entity that has as one of its principal responsibilities, the treatment, transport, use, or disposal of biosolids.

26. "Navigable waters" means the waters of the United States as defined by section 502(7) of the clean water act (33 United States Code section 1362(7)). A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(21).

27. "Other container" means a bucket, bin, box, carton, trailer, pickup truck bed, or a tanker vehicle or an open or closed receptacle with a load capacity of 1.102 short tons or one metric ton or less.

28. "Pathogen" means a disease-causing organism.

29. "Person" means an individual, employee, officer, managing body, trust, firm, joint stock company, consortium, public or private corporation, including a government corporation, partnership, association or state, a political subdivision of this state, a commission, the United States government or a federal facility, interstate body or other entity. A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(26).

30. "Person who prepares biosolids" means a person who generates biosolids during the treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment works, packages biosolids, or derives a new product from biosolids either through processing or by combining it with another material, including blending several biosolids together.

31. "pH" means the logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration.

32. "Pollutant" means an organic substance, an inorganic substance, a combination of organic and inorganic substances, or a pathogenic organism that, after release into the environment and upon exposure, ingestion, inhalation, or assimilation into an organism, either directly from the environment or indirectly by ingestion through the food chain, could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutations, physiological malfunctions (including malfunction in reproduction), or physical deformities in either organisms or reproduced offspring.

33. "Pollutant limit" means:

a. A numerical value that describes the quantity of a pollutant allowed in a unit of biosolids such as milligrams per kilogram of total solids,

b. The quantity of a pollutant that can be applied to a unit area of land such as kilograms per hectare, or

c. The volume of biosolids that can be applied to a unit area of land such as gallons per acre.

34. "Privately owned treatment works" means a device or system owned by a non-governmental entity used to treat, recycle, or reclaim, either domestic sewage or a combination of domestic sewage and industrial waste that is generated off-site.

35. "Public contact site" means a park, sports field, cemetery, golf course, plant nursery, or other land with a high potential for public exposure to biosolids.

36. "Reclamation" means the use of biosolids to restore or repair construction sites, active or closed mining sites, landfill caps, or other drastically disturbed land.

37. "Responsible official" means a principal corporate officer, general partner, proprietor, or, in the case of a municipality, a principal executive official or any duly authorized agent.

38. "Runoff" means rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over any part of a land surface and runs off of the land surface.

39. "Sand" means soil that contains more than 85% grains in the size range that will pass through a No. 4 (4.75 mm) sieve and be retained on a No. 200 (0.075 mm) sieve.

40. "Sewage sludge":

(a) Means solid, semisolid or liquid residue that is generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment works.

(b) Includes domestic septage, scum or solids that are removed in primary, secondary or advanced wastewater treatment processes, and any material derived from sewage sludge.

(c) Does not include ash that is generated during the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator or grit and screenings that are generated during preliminary treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment works. A.R.S. &#167; 49-255(6)

41. "Sewage sludge unit" means land on which only sewage sludge is placed for final disposal. This does not include land on which sewage sludge is either stored or treated. Land does not include navigable waters.

42. "Specific oxygen uptake rate (SOUR)" means the mass of oxygen consumed per unit time per unit mass of total solids (dry-weight basis) in biosolids.

43. "Store biosolids" or "storage of biosolids" means the temporary holding or placement of biosolids on land before land application.

44. "Surface disposal site" means an area of land that contains one or more active sewage sludge units.

45. "Ton" means a net weight of 2000 pounds and is known as a short ton.

46. "Total solids" means the biosolids material that remains when sewage sludge is dried at 103&#176; C to 105&#176; C.

47. "Treatment of biosolids" means the thickening, stabilization, dewatering, and other preparation of biosolids for land application. Storage is not a treatment of biosolids.

48. "Unstabilized solids" means the organic matter in biosolids that has not been treated or reduced through an aerobic or anaerobic process.

49. "Vectors" means rodents, flies, mosquitoes, or other organisms capable of transporting pathogens.

50. "Volatile solids" means the amount of total solids lost when biosolids are combusted at 550&#176; C in the presence of excess air.

51. "Wetlands" means those areas that are inundated or saturated by surface water or groundwater at a frequency and duration to support, and do under normal circumstances support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Wetlands generally include swamps, marshes, bogs, cienegas, tinajas, and similar areas.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1502 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1002" level="4" title="Applicability and Prohibitions">

Applicability and Prohibitions

A. This Article applies to:

1. Any person who:

a. Prepares biosolids for land application or disposal in a sewage sludge unit,

b. Transports biosolids for land application or disposal in a sewage sludge unit,

c. Applies biosolids to the land,

d. Owns or operates a sewage sludge unit, or

e. Owns or leases land to which biosolids are applied,

2. Biosolids applied to the land or placed on a surface disposal site,

3. Land where biosolids are applied, and

4. A surface disposal site.

B. The land application of biosolids in a manner consistent with this Article is exempt from the requirements of the aquifer protection program established under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3 and 18 A.A.C. 9, Articles 1, 2, and 3.

C. Except as provided in subsection (D), the land application of biosolids in a manner that is not consistent with Articles 9 and 10 of this Chapter is prohibited.

D. The Department may permit the land application of biosolids in a manner that differs from the requirements in R18-9-1007 and R18-9-1008 if the land application is permitted under the aquifer protection permit program established under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 3, and 18 A.A.C. 9, Articles 1, 2, and 3.

E. Surface disposal site.

1. Any person who prepares biosolids that are placed in a sewage sludge unit, or places biosolids in a sewage sludge unit, or who owns or operates a biosolids surface disposal site shall comply with 40 CFR 503, Subpart C, which is incorporated by reference in R18-9-A905(A)(9), and

a. The pathogen reduction requirements in R18-9-1006, and

b. The vector attraction reduction requirements in R18-9-1010.

2. In addition to the requirements under subsection (E)(1), any person who owns or operates a biosolids surface disposal site shall apply for, and obtain, a permit under 18 A.A.C. 9, Articles 1 and 2.

F. A person shall not apply bulk biosolids to the land or place bulk biosolids in a surface disposal site if the biosolids are likely to adversely affect a threatened or endangered species as listed under section 4 of the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1533), or its designated critical habitat as defined in 16 U.S.C. 1532.

G. The incineration of biosolids is prohibited.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1501 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1003" level="4" title="General Requirements">

General Requirements

A. A person shall not use or transport biosolids, apply biosolids to land, or place biosolids on a surface disposal site in Arizona, except as established in this Article.

B. The management practices in R18-9-1007 and R18-9-1008 do not apply if biosolids are exceptional quality biosolids.

C. The applicator shall obtain, submit to the Department, and maintain the information required to comply with the requirements of this Article.

D. The applicator shall not receive bulk biosolids without prior written confirmation of the filing of a "Request for Registration" under R18-9-1004.

E. The land owner or lessee of land on which bulk biosolids, that are not exceptional quality biosolids, have been applied shall notify any subsequent land owner and lessee of all previous land applications of biosolids and shall disclose any site restrictions listed in R18-9-1009 that are in effect at the time the property is transferred.

F. A person who prepares biosolids shall ensure that the applicable requirements in this Article are met when the biosolids are applied to the land or placed on a surface disposal site.

G. If necessary to protect public health and the environment from any adverse effect of a pollutant in the biosolids, the Department may impose, on a case-by-case basis, requirements for the use or disposal of biosolids, including exceptional quality biosolids, in addition to, or more stringent than, the requirements in this Article. The Department shall notify the preparer, applier, or land owner of these requirements by letter and include the justification for the requirements and the length of time or applicability for the requirements.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1503 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1004" level="4" title="Applicator Registration, Bulk Biosolids">

Applicator Registration, Bulk Biosolids

A. Any person intending to land-apply bulk biosolids in Arizona shall submit, on a form provided by the Department, a completed "Request for Registration."

B. An applicator shall not engage in land application of bulk biosolids, unless the applicator has obtained a prior written acknowledgment of the Request for Registration or a supplemental request from the Department.

C. The Request for Registration for all biosolids, except exceptional quality biosolids, shall include:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the applicator and any agent of the applicator;

2. The name and telephone number of a primary contact person who has specific knowledge of the land application activities of the applicator;

3. Whether the applicator holds a NPDES or AZPDES permit, and, if so, the permit number;

4. The identity of the person, if different from the applicator, including the NPDES or AZPDES permit number, who will prepare the biosolids for land application; and

5. The following information, unless the information is already on file at the Department as part of an approved land application plan, for each site on which application is anticipated to take place:

a. The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the land owner and lessee, if any;

b. The physical location of the site by county;

c. The legal description of the site, including township, range, and section, or latitude and longitude at the center of each site;

d. The number of acres or hectares at each site to be used;

e. Except for sites described in R18-9-1005(D)(2)(c), background concentrations of the pollutants listed in Table 4 of R18-9-1005 from representative soil samples;

f. The location of any portion of the site having a slope greater than 6%; and

g. Public notice. Proof of placement of a public notice announcing the potential use of the site for the application of biosolids when a site has not previously received biosolids, or when a site has not been used for land application for at least three consecutive years.

i. The notice shall appear at least once each week for at least two consecutive weeks in the largest newspaper in general circulation in the area in which the site is located.

ii. If a site is not used for land application for at least three consecutive years, the applicator shall renotice the site following the process described in subsection (C)(5)(g)(i) before its reuse.

D. The Request for Registration for exceptional quality biosolids shall include the information in subsections (C)(1) through (C)(4).

E. A responsible official of the applicator shall sign the Request for Registration.

F. The Department shall mail a written acknowledgment of a Request for Registration or supplemental request, within 15 business days of receipt of the request.

G. An applicator wishing to use a site that has not been identified in a Request for Registration shall file a supplemental request with the Department before using the new site. Public notice requirements under R18-9-1004(C)(5)(g) apply.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1504 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1005" level="4" title="Pollutant Concentrations"> <dwc name="arsen" times="4"><dwc name="cadmium" times="4"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="copper" times="4"><dwc name="lead" times="4"><dwc name="mercuri" times="4"><dwc name="selenium" times="4">

Pollutant Concentrations

A. A person shall not apply biosolids with pollutant concentrations that exceed any of the ceiling concentrations established in Table 1.

B. A person shall not apply biosolids sold or given away in a bag or other container that are not exceptional quality biosolids to a site if any annual pollutant loading rate in Table 3 will be exceeded. A person shall determine annual application rates using the methodology established in Appendix A.

C. A person shall not apply bulk biosolids to a lawn or garden unless the biosolids are exceptional quality biosolids.

D. Unless using exceptional quality biosolids, a person shall not apply bulk biosolids to a site when:

1. The pollutant concentrations exceed the levels in Table 2, or

2. Any cumulative pollutant loading rate in Table 4 will be exceeded. A person shall determine compliance with the site cumulative pollutant loading rates using the following:

a. By identifying all known biosolids application events and information relevant to a site since September 13, 1979.

b. By calculating the existing cumulative level of the pollutants established in Table 4 using actual analytical data from the application events or if actual analytical data from application events before April 1996 are not available, background concentrations determined by taking representative soil samples of the site, if it is known that the site received biosolids before April 1996.

c. Background soil tests are not required for those sites that have not received biosolids before April 23, 1996.

Table 1. Ceiling Concentrations

<table> Pollutant Ceiling concentrations (milligrams per kilogram) (1) Arsenic 75.0 Cadmium 85.0 Chromium 3000.0 Copper 4300.0 Lead 840.0 Mercury 57.0 Molybdenum 75.0 Nickel 420.0 Selenium 100.0 Zinc 7500.0 </table>

(1) Dry-weight basis.

Table 2. Monthly Average Pollutant Concentrations

<table> Pollutant Concentration limits (milligrams per kilogram) (1) Arsenic 41.0 Cadmium 39.0 Copper 1500.0 Lead 300.0 Mercury 17.0 Nickel 420.0 Selenium 100.0 Zinc 2800.0 </table>

(1) Dry-weight basis.

Table 3. Annual Pollutant Loading Rates

<table> Pollutant Annual pollutant loading rates (in kilograms per hectare) Arsenic 2.0 Cadmium 1.9 Copper 75.0 Lead 15.0 Mercury 0.85 Nickel 21.0 Selenium 5.0 Zinc 140.0 </table>

Table 4. Cumulative Pollutant Loading Rates

<table> Pollutant Cumulative pollutant loading rates (in kilograms per hectare) Arsenic 41.0 Cadmium 39.0 Copper 1500.0 Lead 300.0 Mercury 17.0 Nickel 420.0 Selenium 100.0 Zinc 2800.0 </table>

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1505 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1006" level="4" title="Class A and Class B Pathogen Reduction Requirements"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="virus" times="1">

Class A and Class B Pathogen Reduction Requirements

A. An applicator shall ensure that all biosolids applied to land meet Class A or Class B pathogen reduction requirements at the time the biosolids are:

1. Placed on an active sewage sludge unit unless the biosolids are covered with soil or other material at the end of each operating day, or

2. Land applied.

B. Biosolids that are sold or given away in a bag or other container for land application, or that are applied on a lawn or home garden, shall meet the Class A pathogen reduction requirements established in subsection (D).

C. Land on which biosolids with Class B pathogen reduction requirements are applied is subject to the use restrictions established in R18-9-1009.

D. Biosolids satisfy the Class A pathogen reduction requirements when the density of fecal coliform is less than 1000 Most Probable Number per gram of total solids (dry-weight basis), or the density of Salmonella sp. bacteria is less than three Most Probable Number per four grams of total solids (dry-weight basis), and any one of the following alternative pathogen treatment options is used:

1. Alternative 1. The pathogen treatment process meets one of the following time and temperature requirements:

a. When the percent solids of the biosolids are seven percent or greater, the temperature of the biosolids shall be held at 50&#176; C or higher for at least 20 minutes. The temperature and time period is determined using the equation in subsection (D)(1)(b), except when small particles of the biosolids are heated by either warmed gases or an immiscible liquid;

b. When the percent solids of the biosolids are seven percent or greater, and small particles of the biosolids are heated by either warmed gases or an immiscible liquid, a temperature of 50&#176; C or higher shall be held for 15 seconds or longer. The temperature and time period is determined using the following equation:

<img src="18-09-2.gif"/> D = time in days, and

t = temperature in degrees Celsius;

c. When the percent solids of the biosolids are less than seven percent, the temperature of the biosolids is 50&#176; C or higher and the time period is 30 minutes or longer. The temperature and time period shall be determined using the following equation:

<img src="18-09-3.gif"/> D = time in days, and

t = temperature in degrees Celsius; or

d. When the percent solids of the biosolids are less than seven percent, and the time of heating is at least 15 seconds, but less than 30 minutes, the time and temperature is determined using the following equation:

<img src="18-09-4.gif"/> D = time in days, and

t = temperature in degrees Celsius.

2. Alternative 2. The pathogen treatment process meets all the following parameters:

a. The pH of the quantity of biosolids treated is raised to 12 or higher and held at least 72 hours;

b. During the period that the pH is above 12, the temperature of the biosolids is held above 52&#176; C for at least 12 hours; and

c. At the end of the 72-hour period during which the pH is above 12, the biosolids are air dried to achieve a percent solids in the biosolids greater than 50%.

3. Alternative 3. The following conditions are met:

a. The biosolids, before pathogen treatment and until the next monitoring event, have an enteric virus density less than one plaque-forming unit for four grams of total solids (dry-weight basis);

b. The biosolids, before pathogen treatment and until the next monitoring event, have a viable helminth ova density less than one for four grams of total solids (dry-weight basis); and

c. Once the density requirements in subsections (D)(3)(a) and (D)(3)(b) are consistently met after pathogen treatment and the values and ranges of the pathogen treatment process used are documented, the biosolids continue to be Class A with respect to enteric viruses and viable helminth ova when the values for the pathogen treatment process operating parameters are consistent with the previously documented values or ranges of values.

4. Alternative 4. The following requirements are met at the time the biosolids are used or disposed or at the time the biosolids are prepared for sale or given away in a bag or other container for application to the land:

a. The biosolids have an enteric virus density less than one plaque-forming unit for four grams of total solids (dry-weight basis), and

b. The biosolids have a viable helminth ova density less than one for four grams of total solids (dry-weight basis).

5. Alternative 5. Composting.

a. Use either the within-vessel or the static-aerated-pile composting method, maintaining the temperature of the biosolids at 55&#176; C or higher for three days; or

b. Use the windrow composting method, maintaining the temperature of the biosolids at 55&#176; C or higher for at least 15 days. The windrow shall be turned at least five times when the compost is maintained at 55&#176; C or higher.

6. Alternative 6. Heat drying. The biosolids are dried by direct or indirect contact with hot gases to reduce the moisture content to 10% or lower by weight. During the process:

a. The temperature of the sewage sludge particles shall exceed 80&#176; C, or

b. The wet bulb temperature of the gas as the biosolids leave the dryer shall exceed 80&#176; C.

7. Alternative 7. Heat treatment. The quantity of liquid biosolids treated are heated to a temperature of 180&#176; C or higher for at least 30 minutes.

8. Alternative 8. Thermophilic aerobic digestion. Liquid biosolids are agitated with air or oxygen to maintain aerobic conditions and the mean cell residence time of the biosolids is 10 days at 55 &#176; to 60&#176; C.

9. Alternative 9. Beta ray irradiation. Biosolids are irradiated with beta rays from an accelerator at dosages of at least 1.0 megarad at room temperature (approximately 20&#176; C).

10. Alternative 10. Gamma ray irradiation. Biosolids are irradiated with gamma rays from certain isotopes, such as

60

Cobalt and

137

Cesium at dosages of at least 1.0 megarad at room temperature (approximately 20&#176; C).

11. Alternative 11. Pasteurization. The temperature of the biosolids is maintained at 70&#176; C or higher for at least 30 minutes.

12. Alternative 12. The Director shall approve another process if the process is equivalent to a Process to Further Reduce Pathogens specified in subsections (D)(5) through (D)(11), as determined by the EPA Pathogen Equivalency Committee.

E. Biosolids satisfy the Class B pathogen reduction requirements when the biosolids meet any one of the following options:

1. Alternative 1. The geometric mean of the density of fecal coliform in seven representative samples is less than either 2,000,000 Most Probable Number per gram of total solids (dry-weight basis), or 2,000,000 colony forming units per gram of total solids (dry-weight basis);

2. Alternative 2. Air drying. The biosolids are dried on sand beds or paved or unpaved basins for at least three months. During at least two of the three months, the ambient average daily temperature is above 0&#176; C;

3. Alternative 3. Lime stabilization. Sufficient lime is added to the biosolids to raise the pH of the biosolids to 12 after at least two hours of contact;

4. Alternative 4. Aerobic digestion. The biosolids are agitated with air or oxygen to maintain aerobic conditions for a specific mean cell residence time at a specific temperature between 40 days at 20&#176; C and 60 days at 15&#176; C;

5. Alternative 5. Anaerobic digestion. The biosolids are treated in the absence of air for a specific mean cell residence time at a specific temperature between 15 days at 35&#176; C to 55&#176; C and 60 days at 20&#176; C;

6. Alternative 6. Composting. Using the within-vessel, static-aerated-pile or windrow composting methods, the temperature of the biosolids is raised to 40&#176; C or higher for five consecutive days. For at least four hours during the five days, the temperature in the compost pile exceeds 55&#176; C; or

7. Alternative 7. The Director shall approve another process if it is equivalent to a Process to Significantly Reduce Pathogens specified in subsections (E)(2) through (E)(6), as determined by the EPA Pathogen Equivalency Committee.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1506 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1007" level="4" title="Management Practices and General Requirements">

Management Practices and General Requirements

A. An applicator of bulk biosolids that are not exceptional quality biosolids shall comply with the following management practices at each land application site, except a site where bulk biosolids are applied for reclamation. The applicator shall not:

1. Apply bulk biosolids to soil with a pH less than 6.5 at the time of the application, unless the biosolids are treated under one of the procedures in subsections R18-9-1006(D)(2), R18-9-1006(E)(3), or R18-9-1010(A)(6), or the soil and biosolids mixture has a pH of 6.5 or higher immediately after land application;

2. Apply bulk biosolids to land with slopes greater than 6%, unless the site is operating under an AZPDES permit or a permit issued under section 402 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1342);

3. Apply bulk biosolids to land under the following conditions:

a. Bulk biosolids with Class A pathogen reduction. If the depth to groundwater is five feet (1.52 meters) or less;

b. Bulk biosolids with Class B pathogen reduction.

i. If the depth to groundwater is 10 feet (3.04 meters) or less; or

ii. To gravel, coarse or medium sands, or sands with less than 15% coarse fragments, if the depth to groundwater is 40 feet (12.2 meters) or less from the point of application of biosolids;

4. Apply bulk biosolids to land that is 32.8 feet (10 meters) or less from navigable waters;

5. Store or apply bulk biosolids closer than 1000 feet (305 meters) from a public or semi-public drinking water supply well or no closer than 250 feet (76.2 meters) from any other water well;

6. Store or apply bulk biosolids within 25 feet (7.62 meters) of a public right-of-way or private property line unless the applicator receives permission to apply bulk biosolids from the land owner or lessee of the adjoining property;

7. Apply bulk biosolids at an application rate greater than the agronomic rate of the vegetation or crop grown on the site;

8. Apply domestic septage or any other bulk biosolids with less than 10% solids at a rate that exceeds the annual application rate, calculated in gallons per acre for a 365-day period by dividing the amount of nitrogen needed by the crop or vegetation grown on the land, in pounds per acre per 365-day period, by 0.0026;

9. Apply bulk biosolids to land that is flooded, frozen, or snow-covered, so that the bulk biosolids enter a wetland or other navigable waters, except as provided in an AZPDES permit or a permit issued under section 402 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1342);

10. Apply any additional bulk biosolids before a crop is grown on the site if the site has received biosolids containing nitrogen at the equivalent of the agronomic rate appropriate for that crop;

11. Exceed the irrigation needs of the crop of an application site;

12. To minimize odors, apply bulk biosolids within 1000 feet (305 meters) of a dwelling unless the biosolids are injected or incorporated into the soil within 10 hours of being applied; or

13. Store bulk biosolids within 1000 feet (305 meters) of a dwelling unless the applicator obtains permission from the dwelling owner or lessee to store the biosolids at a shorter distance from the dwelling. If the dwelling owner or lessee changes, the applicator shall obtain permission from the new dwelling owner or lessee to continue to store the bulk biosolids within 1000 feet of the dwelling or move the biosolids to a location at least 1000 feet from the dwelling.

B. If biosolids are placed in a bag or other container, the person who prepares the biosolids shall distribute a label or information sheet to the person receiving the material. This label or information sheet shall, at a minimum, contain the following information:

1. The identity and address of the person who prepared the biosolids;

2. Instructions on the proper use of the material, including agronomic rates and an annual application rate that ensures that the annual pollutant rates established in R18-9-1005 are not exceeded; and

3. A statement that application of biosolids to the land shall not exceed application rates described in the instructions on the label or information sheet.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1507 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1008" level="4" title="Management Practices, Application of Biosolids to Reclamation Sites">

Management Practices, Application of Biosolids to Reclamation Sites

A. An applicator of bulk biosolids that are not exceptional quality biosolids shall comply with the following management practices at each land application site where the bulk biosolids are applied for reclamation. The applicator shall not:

1. Apply bulk biosolids unless the soil and biosolids mixture has a pH of 5.0 or higher immediately after land application;

2. Apply bulk biosolids to land with slopes greater than 6% unless:

a. The site is operating under an AZPDES permit or a permit issued under section 402 (33 U.S.C. 1342) or 404 (33 U.S.C. 1344) of the Clean Water Act;

b. The site is reclaimed as specified under A.R.S. Title 27, Chapter 5, and controls are in place to prevent runoff from leaving the application area; or

c. Runoff from the site does not reach navigable waters;

3. Apply bulk biosolids to land under the following conditions:

a. Bulk biosolids with Class A pathogen reduction. To land if the depth to groundwater is 5 feet (1.52 meters) or less;

b. Bulk biosolids with Class B pathogen reduction.

i. To land if the depth to groundwater is 10 feet (3.04 meters) or less; and

ii. To gravel, coarse or medium sands, or sands with less than 15% coarse fragments if the depth to groundwater is 40 feet (12.2 meters) or less from the point of application of biosolids;

4. Apply bulk biosolids to land that is 32.8 feet (10 meters) or less from navigable waters;

5. Store or apply bulk biosolids closer than 1000 feet (305 meters) from a public or semi-public drinking water supply well, unless the applicator justifies and the Department approves a shorter distance, or apply bulk biosolids closer than 250 feet (76.2 meters) from any other water well;

6. Store or apply bulk biosolids within 1000 feet (305 meters) of a public right-of-way or private property line unless the applicator receives permission to apply bulk biosolids from the land owner or lessee of the adjoining property;

7. Exceed a total of 150 dry tons per acre to any portion of a reclamation site if bulk biosolids are applied;

8. Apply bulk biosolids with less than 10% solids;

9. Apply bulk biosolids to land that is flooded, frozen, or snow-covered so that the bulk biosolids enter a wetland or other navigable waters, except as provided in an AZPDES permit or a permit issued under section 402 (33 U.S.C. 1342) or 404 (33 U.S.C. 1344) of the Clean Water Act;

10. Apply more water than necessary to control dust and establish vegetation; and

11. Apply bulk biosolids within 1000 feet (305 meters) of a dwelling unless the biosolids are injected or incorporated into the soil within 10 hours of being applied.

12. Store bulk biosolids within 1000 feet (305 meters) of a dwelling unless the applicator obtains permission from the dwelling owner or lessee to store the biosolids at a shorter distance from the dwelling. If the dwelling owner or lessee changes, the applicator shall obtain permission from the new dwelling owner or lessee to continue to store the bulk biosolids within 1000 feet of the dwelling or move the biosolids to a location at least 1000 feet from the dwelling.

B. The requirements of R18-9-1007(B) apply if biosolids placed in a bag or other container are used to reclaim a site.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1508 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1008 renumbered to R18-9-1009; new Section R18-9-1008 made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1009" level="4" title="Site Restrictions">

Site Restrictions

A. The following site restrictions apply to land where biosolids, which do not meet the Class A pathogen reduction requirements established in R18-9-1006, are land-applied.

1. A person shall not:

a. Harvest food crop parts that touch the biosolids, or biosolids and soil mixture, but otherwise grow above the land's surface for 14 months following application;

b. Harvest food crop parts growing in or below the land's surface for 20 months following application if the biosolids remain unincorporated on the land's surface for four months or more;

c. Harvest food crop parts growing in or below the land's surface for 38 months following application if the biosolids remain on the land's surface for less than four months before incorporation;

d. Harvest food, feed, and fiber crops for 30 days after application;

e. Graze animals on the land for 30 days after application; or

f. Harvest turf to be used at a public contact site or private residence for one year after application.

2. A person shall restrict public access to:

a. Public contact sites for one year after application, and

b. Land with a low potential for public exposure for 30 days after application.

B. If the vector attraction reduction requirement is met using the method:

1. In R18-9-1010(C)(1) or R18-9-1010(C)(2), the requirements of subsection (A) apply to domestic septage applied to agricultural land, forests, or reclamation sites; or

2. In R18-9-1010(C)(3), the requirements of subsection (A)(1)(a) through (A)(1)(d) apply to domestic septage applied to agricultural land, forests, or reclamation sites.

C. Once application is completed at a site, the applicator shall, in writing, provide the land owner and lessee with the following information:

1. The cumulative pollutant loading at the site if it is greater than or equal to 90% of the available site capacity established in Table 4 of R18-9-1005;

2. Any restriction established in this Section that applies to the property and the nature of the restriction; and

3. The signature of a responsible official of the applicator on this document that includes the following statement:

"I certify under penalty of law, that the information is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for false representations, including fines and imprisonment."

D. The land owner or lessee shall provide each applicator with a signature indicating receipt of the site restriction statement.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1509 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1009 renumbered to R18-9-1010; new Section R18-9-1009 renumbered from R18-9-1008 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1010" level="4" title="Vector Attraction Reduction">

Vector Attraction Reduction

A. Except as provided in subsection (B), an applicator or person who prepares biosolids shall use one of the following vector attraction reduction procedures if biosolids are land-applied:

1. Reducing the mass of volatile solids by a minimum of 38% using the calculation procedures established in "Environmental Regulations and Technology -- Control of Pathogens and Vector Attraction in Sewage Sludge," EPA/625/R-92-013, published by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Cincinnati, Ohio 45268, 1999 edition. This material is incorporated by reference, does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter, and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. If the 38% volatile solids reduction cannot be met for anaerobically digested biosolids the reduction can be met by digesting a portion of the previously digested material anaerobically in a laboratory in a bench-scale unit for 40 additional days at a temperature between 30&#176; C and 37&#176; C. Vector attraction reduction is achieved if, at the end of the 40 days, the volatile solids in the material at the beginning of the period are reduced by less than 17%;

3. If the 38% volatile solids reduction cannot be met for aerobically digested biosolids, the reduction can be met by digesting a portion of the previously digested material, which has a percent solids of 2% or less, aerobically in a laboratory in a bench-scale unit for 30 additional days at 20&#176; C. Vector attraction reduction is achieved if, at the end of the 30 days, the volatile solids in the material at the beginning of the period are reduced by less than 15%;

4. Treat the biosolids in an aerobic process during which the specific oxygen uptake rate (SOUR) is equal to or less than 1.5 milligrams of oxygen per hour per gram of total solids (dry-weight basis) at 20&#176; C;

5. Treat the biosolids in an aerobic process for 14 days or longer, during which the temperature of the biosolids is higher than 40&#176; C and the average temperature of the biosolids is higher than 45&#176; C;

6. Raising the pH of the biosolids to 12 or higher by alkali addition and, without the addition of more alkali, remain at 12 or higher for two hours and at 11.5 or higher for an additional 22 hours;

7. The percent solids of the biosolids that do not contain unstabilized solids generated in a primary wastewater treatment process is equal to or greater than 75% based on the moisture content and total solids before mixing with other materials;

8. The percent solids of the biosolids containing unstabilized solids generated in a primary wastewater treatment process are equal to or greater than 90% based on the moisture content and total solids before mixing with other materials;

9. Injecting the biosolids below the surface of the land so that no significant amount of biosolids is present on the land surface one hour after injection. If the biosolids meet Class A pathogen reduction, injection shall occur within eight hours after being discharged from a Class A pathogen treatment process; or

10. Incorporating the biosolids into the soil within six hours after application. If the biosolids meet Class A pathogen reduction, application shall occur within eight hours after being discharged from a Class A pathogen treatment process.

B. Biosolids that are sold or given away in a bag or other container, or are applied to a lawn or home garden, shall meet one of the vector attraction reduction alternatives established in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(8).

C. For domestic septage, vector attraction reduction is met by one of the following methods:

1. By injecting as specified in subsection (A)(9);

2. By incorporating as specified in subsection (A)(10); or

3. By raising the pH of the domestic septage to 12 or higher through the addition of alkali and, without the addition of more alkali, holding the pH at 12 or higher for at least 30 minutes.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1510 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1010 renumbered to R18-9-1011; new Section R18-9-1010 renumbered from R18-9-1009 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1011" level="4" title="Transportation">

Transportation

A. A transporter of bulk biosolids into and within Arizona shall use covered trucks, trailers, rail-cars, or other vehicles that are leakproof.

B. A transporter of bulk biosolids in liquid or semisolid form, including domestic septage, into and within Arizona shall comply with the requirements in A.A.C. R18-8-612. A transporter of bulk biosolids in solid form into and within Arizona shall comply with the requirements in A.A.C. R18-13-310.

C. A transporter of biosolids shall clean any truck, trailer, rail-car, or other vehicle used to transport biosolids to prevent odors or insect breeding. A transporter shall clean any tank vessel used to transport commercial or industrial septage or restaurant grease-trap wastes, that is also used to haul domestic septage, before loading the domestic septage to ensure that mixing of wastes does not occur.

D. If bulk biosolids are spilled while being transported, the transporter shall:

1. Immediately pick up any spillage, including any visibly discolored soil, unless otherwise determined by the Department on a case-by-case basis;

2. Within 24 hours after the spill, notify the Department of the spill and submit written notification of the spill within seven days. The written notification shall include the location of the spill, the reason it occurred, the amount of biosolids spilled, and the steps taken to clean up the spill.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1511 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1011 renumbered to R18-9-1012; new Section R18-9-1011 renumbered from R18-9-1010 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1012" level="4" title="Self-monitoring">

Self-monitoring

A. Except as provided in subsection (B) the person who prepares the biosolids shall conduct self-monitoring events at the frequency listed in Table 5 for the pollutants listed in R18-9-1005, the pathogen reduction in R18-9-1006 and the vector attraction reduction requirements in R18-9-1010.

Table 5. Frequency of Self-monitoring

<table> Amount of biosolids prepared (tons/metric tons per 365-day period (1) ) Frequency Greater than zero but less than 319.6/290 Once per year Equal to or greater than 319.6/290 but less than 1,653/1,500 Once per quarter (Four times per year) Equal to or greater than 1,653/1,500 but less than 16,530/15,000 Once per 60 days (Six times per year) Equal to or greater than 16,530/15,000 Once per month (12 times per year) </table>

(1) The amount of biosolids prepared in a calendar year (dry-weight basis).

B. If biosolids are stockpiled or lagooned, the person shall sample the biosolids for pathogen and vector attraction reduction before land application. A person shall sample in a manner that is representative of the entire stockpile or lagoon.

C. A person who prepares biosolids shall submit additional or more frequent biosolids samples, collected and analyzed during the reporting period, to the Department with the regularly-scheduled data required in subsection (A).

D. The Department may order the person who prepares biosolids or the applicator to collect and analyze additional samples to measure pollutants of concern other than those established in Table 1 of R18-9-1005.

E. The applicator, person who prepares biosolids, or a person collecting samples for the applicator or preparer for analysis shall obtain the samples in a manner that does not compromise the integrity of the sample, sample method, or sampling instrument and shall be representative of the quality of the biosolids being applied during the reporting period.

F. A person responsible for sampling the biosolids shall track biosolids samples using a chain-of-custody procedure that documents each person in control of the sample from the time it was collected through the time of analysis.

G. The person who prepares biosolids or the applicator shall ensure that the biosolids samples are analyzed as specified by the analytical methods established in 40 CFR 503.8, July 1, 2001 edition, or by the wastewater sample methods and solid, liquid, and hazardous waste sample methods established in A.A.C. R9-14-612 and R9-14-613. The person who prepares the biosolids or the applicator shall ensure that the biosolids analyses are performed at a laboratory operating in compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 36-495 et seq. The information in 40 CFR 503.8 is incorporated by reference, does not include any later amendments or editions of the incorporated matter and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

H. The person who prepares the biosolids or the applicator shall monitor pathogen and vector attraction reduction treatment operating parameters, such as time and temperature, shall be monitored on a continual basis.

I. An applicator shall conduct and record monitoring of each site for the management practices established in R18-9-1007 and R18-9-1008.

J. A person shall maintain, as specified in R18-9-1013, and report to the Department as specified in R18-9-1014, all compliance measurements, including the analysis of pollutant concentrations.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1512 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1012 renumbered to R18-9-1013; new Section R18-9-1012 renumbered from R18-9-1011 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1013" level="4" title="Recordkeeping">

Recordkeeping

A. A person who prepares biosolids shall collect and retain the following information for at least five years:

1. The date, time, and method used for each sampling activity and the identity of the person collecting the sample;

2. The date, time, and method used for each sample analysis and the identity of the person conducting the analysis;

3. The results of all analyses of pollutants regulated under R18-9-1005 and organic and ammonium nitrogen to comply with R18-9-1007(A)(7);

4. The results of all pathogen density analyses and applicable descriptions of the methods used for pathogen treatment in R18-9-1006;

5. A description of the methods used, if any, and the operating values and ranges observed in any pre-land application, vector attraction reduction activities required in R18-9-1010(A); and

6. For the records described in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(5), the following certification statement signed by a responsible official of the person who prepares the biosolids:

"I certify, under penalty of law, that the pollutant analyses and the description of pathogen treatment and vector attraction reduction activities have been made under my direction and supervision and under a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information used to determine whether the applicable biosolids requirements have been met. I am aware that there are significant penalties for false certification including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."

B. An applicator of bulk biosolids, except exceptional quality biosolids, shall collect the following information for each land application site, and, except as indicated in subsection (B)(6), shall retain this information for at least five years:

1. The location of each site, by either street address or latitude and longitude;

2. The number of acres or hectares;

3. The date and time the biosolids were applied;

4. The amount of biosolids (in dry metric tons);

5. The biosolids loading rates for domestic septage and other biosolids with less than 10 percent solids in tons or kilograms of biosolids per acre or hectare and in gallons per acre and the biosolids loading rates for other biosolids in tons or kilograms of biosolids per acre or hectare;

6. The cumulative pollutant levels of each regulated pollutant (in tons or kilograms per acre or hectare). The applicator shall retain these records permanently;

7. The results of all pathogen density analyses and applicable descriptions of the methods used for pathogen treatment in R18-9-1006;

8. A description of the activities and measures used to ensure compliance with the management practices in R18-9-1007 and R18-9-1008, including information regarding the amount of nitrogen required for the crop grown on each site;

9. If vector attraction reduction was not met by the person who prepares the biosolids, a description of the vector attraction reduction activities used by the applicator to ensure compliance with the requirements in R18-9-1010;

10. A description of any applicable site restriction imposed by in R18-9-1009 if biosolids with Class B pathogen reduction have been applied and documentation that the applicator has notified the land owner and lessee of these restrictions;

11. For the records described in subsections (B)(1) through (B)(8), the following certification statement signed by a responsible official of the applicator of the biosolids:

"I certify, under penalty of law, that the information and descriptions, have been made under my direction and supervision and under a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information used to determine whether the applicable biosolids requirements have been met. I am aware that there are significant penalties for false certification including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."

12. The information in subsections (A)(1) through (A)(6) if the person who prepares the biosolids is not located in this state.

C. All records required for retention under this Section are subject to periodic inspection and copying by the Department.

D. If there is unresolved litigation, including enforcement, concerning the activities documented by the records required in this Section, the period of record retention shall be extended pending final resolution of the litigation.

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1513 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1013 renumbered to R18-9-1014; new Section R18-9-1013 renumbered from R18-9-1012 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1014" level="4" title="Reporting">

Reporting

A. A person who prepares biosolids for application shall provide the applicator with the necessary information to comply with this Article including the concentration of pollutants listed in R18-9-1005 and the concentration of nitrogen in the biosolids.

B. A transporter shall report spills to the Department under R18-9-1011(D).

C. A bulk applicator of biosolids other than exceptional quality biosolids shall provide the land owner and lessee of land application sites with information on the concentrations of the pollutants listed in R18-9-1005 and loading rates of biosolids applied to that site, and any applicable site restrictions under R18-9-1009.

D. A bulk applicator of biosolids other than exceptional quality biosolids shall report to the Department if 90% or more of any cumulative pollutant loading rate has been used at a site.

E. On or before February 19 of each year, any person land-applying bulk biosolids that are not exceptional quality biosolids shall, by letter or on a form provided by the Department, report to the Department the following applicable information for the previous calendar year:

1. The actual sites used; and

2. For each site used, the following information:

a. The amount of biosolids applied (in tons or kilograms per acre or hectare);

b. The application loading rates (in tons or kilograms per acre or hectare, and gallons per acre for domestic septage);

c. The concentrations of the pollutants listed in R18-9-1005 (in milligrams per kilogram of biosolids on a dry-weight basis);

d. The pathogen treatment methodologies used during the year and the results; and

e. The vector attraction reduction methodologies used during the year and the results.

F. On or before February 19 of each year, a person preparing biosolids in a Class I Sludge Management Facility, POTW with a design flow rate equal to or greater than one million gallons per day, or POTW that serves 10,000 people or more, that are applied to land, shall, by letter or on a form provided by the Department, report to the Department all the following applicable information regarding their activities during the previous calendar year:

1. The amount of biosolids received if the preparer purchased or received the biosolids from another preparer or source;

2. The amount of biosolids produced (tons or kilograms);

3. The amount of biosolids distributed;

4. The concentrations of the pollutants listed in R18-9-1005 (in milligrams per kilogram of biosolids on a dry-weight basis);

5. The pathogen treatment methodologies used during the year, including the results; and

6. The vector attraction reduction methodologies used during the year, including the results.

G. All annual self-monitoring reports shall contain the following certification statement signed by a responsible official:

"I certify, under penalty of law, that the information and descriptions, have been made under my direction and supervision and under a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information used to determine whether the applicable biosolids requirements have been met. I am aware that there are significant penalties for false certification including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."

Historical Note

New Section recodified from R18-13-1514 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Former Section R18-9-1014 renumbered to R18-9-1015; new Section R18-9-1014 renumbered from R18-9-1013 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 4923, effective January 5, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.9.1015" level="4" title="Inspection">

Inspection

A person subject to this Article shall allow, during reasonable times, a representative of the Department to enter property subject to this Article, to:

1. Inspect all biosolids pathogen and vector treatment facilities, transportation vehicles, and land application sites to determine compliance with this Article;

2. Inspect and copy records prepared in accordance with this Article; and

3. Sample biosolids quality.

Historical Note

Renumbered from R18-9-1014 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

Appendix A. Procedures to Determine Annual Biosolids Application Rates

The following procedure determines the annual biosolids application rate (ABAR) that ensures that the annual pollutant loading rates in Table 3 of R18-9-1005 are not exceeded.

1. The relationship between the annual pollutant loading rate (APLR) for a pollutant and the ABAR is shown in the following equation.

APLR = C x ABAR x 0.001

APLR = Annual pollutant loading rate in kilograms of biosolids, per hectare, per 365-day period;

C = Pollutant concentration in milligrams, per kilogram of total solids (dry-weight basis);

ABAR = Annual biosolids application rate in metric tons, per hectare, per 365-day period (dry-weight basis); and

0.001 = A conversion factor.

metric ton = 1.102 short tons

hectare = 2.471 acres

2. The ABAR is calculated using the following procedure:

a. Analyze a biosolids sample to determine a concentration for each of the pollutants listed in Table 3 of R18-9-1005; and

b. Using each of the pollutant concentrations from subsection (2)(a) and the APLRs from Table 3 of R18-9-1005, calculate a separate ABAR for each pollutant using the following equation:

<img src="18-09-5.gif"/>c. The ABAR for biosolids is the lowest value calculated in under subsection (2)(b) for any pollutant.

Historical Note

New Appendix recodified from 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 15 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5879, effective December 7, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 10" level="2" title="REPEALED">

REPEALED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="REPEALED">

REPEALED

<regElement name="R18.10.101" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.102" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.103" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.104" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.105" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.106" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.107" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.108" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.109" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.110" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.111" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.112" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.113" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.114" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.10.115" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 31, 1991 (Supp. 91-2). Repealed effective September 23, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 11" level="2" title="WATER QUALITY STANDARDS">

WATER QUALITY STANDARDS

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="WATER QUALITY STANDARDS FOR SURFACE WATERS">

WATER QUALITY STANDARDS FOR SURFACE WATERS

<regElement name="R18.11.101" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="nitrit" times="1"><dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Definitions

The terms of this Article have the following meanings:

1. "Acute toxicity" means toxicity involving a stimulus severe enough to induce a response rapidly. In aquatic toxicity tests, an effect observed in 96 hours or less is considered acute.

2. "AgI" means agricultural irrigation.

3. "AgL" means agricultural livestock watering.

4. "Agricultural irrigation" means the use of a surface water for the irrigation of crops.

5. "Agricultural livestock watering" means the use of a surface water as a supply of water for consumption by livestock.

6. "Annual mean" means the arithmetic mean of monthly values determined over a consecutive 12-month period, provided that monthly values are determined for at least three months. The monthly value is the arithmetic mean of all values determined in a calendar month.

7. "Aquatic and wildlife (cold water)" means the use of a surface water by animals, plants, or other cold-water organisms, generally occurring at elevations greater than 5000 feet, for habitation, growth, or propagation.

8. "Aquatic and wildlife (effluent-dependent water)" means the use of an effluent-dependent water by animals, plants, or other organisms for habitation, growth, or propagation.

9. "Aquatic and wildlife (ephemeral)" means the use of an ephemeral water by animals, plants, or other organisms, excluding fish, for habitation, growth, or propagation.

10. "Aquatic and wildlife (warm water)" means the use of a surface water by animals, plants, or other warm-water organisms, generally occurring at elevations less than 5000 feet, for habitation, growth, or propagation.

11. "A&amp;Wc" means aquatic and wildlife (cold water).

12. "A&amp;We" means aquatic and wildlife (ephemeral).

13. "A&amp;Wedw" means aquatic and wildlife (effluent-dependent water).

14. "A&amp;Ww" means aquatic and wildlife (warm water).

15. "Clean Water Act" means the Federal Water Pollution Control Act [33 U.S.C. 1251 to 1387].

16. "Criteria" means elements of water quality standards that are expressed as pollutant concentrations, levels, or narrative statements representing a water quality that supports a designated use.

17. "Designated use" means a use specified in Appendix B of this Article for a surface water.

18. "Domestic water source" means the use of a surface water as a potable water supply. Coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection, or other treatments may be necessary to yield a finished water suitable for human consumption.

19. "DWS" means domestic water source.

20. "EDW" means effluent-dependent water.

21. "Effluent-dependent water" means a surface water that consists of discharges of treated wastewater that is classified as an effluent-dependent water by the Director under R18-11-113. An effluent-dependent water is a surface water that, without the discharge of treated wastewater, would be an ephemeral water.

22. "Ephemeral water" means a surface water that has a channel that is at all times above the water table, and that flows only in direct response to precipitation.

23. "Existing use" means those uses actually attained in the waterbody on or after November 28, 1975, whether or not they are included in the water quality standards.

24. "FBC" means full-body contact.

25. "FC" means fish consumption.

26. "Fish consumption" means the use of a surface water by humans for harvesting aquatic organisms for consumption. Harvestable aquatic organisms include, but are not limited to, fish, clams, turtles, crayfish, and frogs.

27. "Full-body contact" means the use of a surface water for swimming or other recreational activity that causes the human body to come into direct contact with the water to the point of complete submergence. The use is such that ingestion of the water is likely and sensitive body organs, such as the eyes, ears, or nose, may be exposed to direct contact with the water.

28. "Geometric mean" means the nth root of the product of n items or values. The geometric mean is calculated using the following formula:

<img src="18-11-1.gif"/>29. "Hardness" means the sum of the calcium and magnesium concentrations, expressed as calcium carbonate (CaCO

3

) in milligrams per liter.

30. "Intermittent surface water" means a stream or reach of a stream that flows continuously only at certain times of the year, as when it receives water from a spring or from another surface source, such as melting snow.

31. "Mixing zone" means a prescribed area or volume of a surface water that is contiguous to a point source discharge where initial dilution of the discharge takes place.

32. "National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System" means the point source discharge permit program established by &#167; 402 of the Clean Water Act [33 U.S.C. 1342].

33. "Ninetieth percentile" means the value that may not be exceeded by more than 10% of the observations in a consecutive 12 month period. A minimum of 10 samples, each taken at least 10 days apart, are required to determine a ninetieth percentile.

34. "NNS" means no numeric standard.

35. "Oil" means petroleum in any form, including but not limited to crude oil, gasoline, fuel oil, diesel oil, lubricating oil, or sludge.

36. "Partial-body contact" means the recreational use of a surface water that may cause the human body to come into direct contact with the water, but normally not to the point of complete submergence (for example, wading or boating). The use is such that ingestion of the water is not likely and sensitive body organs, such as the eyes, ears, or nose, will not normally be exposed to direct contact with the water.

37. "PBC" means partial-body contact.

38. "Perennial surface water" means a surface water that flows continuously throughout the year.

39. "Pollutant" means fluids, contaminants, toxic wastes, toxic pollutants, dredged spoil, solid waste, substances and chemicals, pesticides, herbicides, fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals, incinerator residue, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, petroleum products, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials, heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt, and mining, industrial, municipal, and agricultural wastes or any other liquid, solid, gaseous, or hazardous substance.

40. "Practical quantitation limit" means the lowest level of quantitative measurement that can be reliably achieved during routine laboratory operations.

41. "Recreational uses" means the full-body contact and partial-body contact designated uses.

42. "Regional Administrator" means the Regional Administrator of Region IX of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

43. "Surface water" means a water of the United States and includes the following:

a. A water that is currently used, was used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce;

b. An interstate water, including an interstate wetland;

c. All other waters, such as an intrastate lake, reservoir, natural pond, river, stream (including an intermittent or ephemeral stream), creek, wash, draw, mudflat, sandflat, wetland, slough, backwater, prairie pothole, wet meadow, or playa lake, the use, degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign commerce, including any such water:

i. That is or could be used by interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;

ii. From which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce; or

iii. That is used or could be used for industrial purposes by industries in interstate or foreign commerce;

d. An impoundment of a surface water as defined by this definition;

e. A tributary of a surface water identified in subsections (a) through (d) of this definition; and

f. A wetland adjacent to a surface water identified in subsections (a) through (e) of this definition.

44. "Total nitrogen" means the sum of the concentrations of ammonia (NH

3

), ammonium ion (NH

4

+), nitrite (NO

2

), and nitrate (NO

3

), and dissolved and particulate organic nitrogen expressed as elemental nitrogen.

45. "Total phosphorus" means all of the phosphorus present in a sample, regardless of form, as measured by a persulfate digestion procedure.

46. "Toxic" means a pollutant or combination of pollutants, that after discharge and upon exposure, ingestion, inhalation, or assimilation into an organism, either directly from the environment or indirectly by ingestion through food chains, may cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutations, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in the organism or its offspring.

47. "Unique water" means a surface water that is classified as an outstanding state resource water by the Director under R18-11-112.

48. "Use attainability analysis" means a structured scientific assessment of the factors affecting the attainment of a designated use including physical, chemical, biological, and economic factors.

49. "Wetland" means an area that is inundated or saturated by surface or groundwater at a frequency and duration sufficient to support, and that under normal circumstances does support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. A wetland includes a swamp, marsh, bog, cienega, tinaja, and similar areas.

50. "Zone of passage" means a continuous water route of volume, cross-sectional area, and quality necessary to allow passage of free-swimming or drifting organisms with no acutely toxic effect produced on the organisms.

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-101 repealed, new Section R9-21-101 adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective April 17, 1984 (Supp. 84-2). Amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended by adding subsection (C) effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-101 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-101 (Supp. 87-3). Former Section R18-11-101 repealed, new Section R18-11-101 adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Deleted first definition to R18-11-101(32) "Navigable Water", previously printed in error

(Supp. 96-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 716, effective April 8, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.102" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. The water quality standards prescribed in this Article apply to surface waters.

B. The water quality standards prescribed in this Article do not apply to the following:

1. A waste treatment system, including an impoundment, pond, lagoon, or constructed wetland that is a part of the waste treatment system.

2. A man-made surface impoundment and associated ditches and conveyances used in the extraction, beneficiation, or processing of metallic ores, including a pit, pregnant leach solution pond, raffinate pond, tailing impoundment, decant pond, pond or a sump in a mine pit associated with dewatering activity, pond holding water that has come into contact with a process or product and that is being held for recycling, spill or upset catchment pond, or pond used for onsite remediation, that is not a surface water or is located in an area that once was a surface water but no longer remains a surface water because it has been and remains legally converted.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.103" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Repealed effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.104" level="4" title="Designated Uses">

Designated Uses

A. The Director shall adopt or remove a designated use or subcategory of a designated use by rule.

B. Designated uses of a surface water may include full-body contact, partial-body contact, domestic water source, fish consumption, aquatic and wildlife (cold water), aquatic and wildlife (warm water), aquatic and wildlife (ephemeral), aquatic and wildlife (effluent-dependent water), agricultural irrigation, and agricultural livestock watering. The designated uses for specific surface waters are listed in Appendix B of this Article.

C. Numeric water quality criteria to maintain and protect water quality for the designated uses are prescribed in Appendix A, R18-11-109, R18-11-110, and R18-11-112. Narrative water quality standards to protect all surface waters are prescribed in R18-11-108.

D. If a surface water has more than one designated use listed in Appendix B, the most stringent water quality criterion applies.

E. The Director shall revise the designated uses of a surface water if water quality improvements result in a level of water quality that permits a use that is not currently listed as a designated use in Appendix B.

F. In designating uses of a surface water and in establishing water quality criteria to protect the designated uses, the Director shall take into consideration the applicable water quality standards for downstream surface waters and shall ensure that the water quality standards that are established for an upstream surface water also provide for the attainment and maintenance of the water quality standards of downstream surface waters.

G. A use attainability analysis shall be conducted prior to removal of a designated use or adoption of a subcategory of a designated use that requires less stringent water quality criteria.

H. The Director may remove a designated use or adopt a subcategory of a designated use that requires less stringent water quality criteria, provided the designated use is not an existing use and it is demonstrated through a use attainability analysis that attaining the designated use is not feasible for any of the following reasons:

1. A naturally-occurring pollutant concentration prevents the attainment of the use;

2. A natural, ephemeral, intermittent, or low-flow condition or water level prevents the attainment of the use;

3. A human-caused condition or source of pollution prevents the attainment of the use and cannot be remedied or would cause more environmental damage to correct than to leave in place;

4. A dam, diversion, or other type of hydrologic modification precludes the attainment of the use, and it is not feasible to restore the surface water to its original condition or to operate the modification in a way that would result in attainment of the use;

5. A physical condition related to the natural features of the surface water, such as the lack of a proper substrate, cover, flow, depth, pools, riffles, and the like, unrelated to water quality, precludes attainment of an aquatic life designated use; or

6. Controls more stringent than those required by &#167; 301 (b) and &#167; 306 of the Clean Water Act [33 U.S.C. &#167; 1311 and &#167; 1316] are necessary to attain the use and implementation of the controls would result in substantial and widespread economic and social impact.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.105" level="4" title="Tributaries; Designated Uses">

Tributaries; Designated Uses

The following water quality standards apply to a surface water that is not listed in Appendix B but that is a tributary to a listed surface water.

1. The aquatic and wildlife (ephemeral) and partial-body contact standards apply to an unlisted tributary that is an ephemeral water.

2. The aquatic and wildlife (cold water), full-body contact, and fish consumption standards apply to an unlisted tributary that is a perennial or intermittent surface water and is above 5000 feet in elevation.

3. The aquatic and wildlife (warm water), full-body contact, and fish consumption standards apply to an unlisted tributary that is a perennial or intermittent surface water and is below 5000 feet in elevation.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section heading amended per instructions of the Department of Environmental Quality, August 9, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.106" level="4" title="Net Ecological Benefit">

Net Ecological Benefit

A. The Director may, by rule, modify a water quality standard on the ground that there is a net ecological benefit associated with the discharge of effluent to support or create a riparian and aquatic habitat in an area where water resources are limited. The Director may modify a water quality standard for a pollutant if it is demonstrated that:

1. The discharge of effluent creates or supports an ecologically valuable aquatic, wetland, or riparian ecosystem in an area where these resources are limited;

2. The ecological benefits associated with the discharge of effluent under a modified water quality standard exceed the environmental costs associated with the elimination of the discharge of effluent;

3. The cost of treatment to achieve compliance with a water quality standard is so high that it is more cost effective to eliminate the discharge of effluent to the surface water. The discharger shall demonstrate that it is feasible to eliminate the discharge of effluent that creates or supports the ecologically valuable aquatic, wetland, or riparian ecosystem and that a plan to eliminate the discharge is under active consideration;

4. The discharge of effluent to the surface water will not cause or contribute to a violation of a water quality standard that has been established for a downstream surface water;

5. All practicable point source discharge control programs, including local pretreatment, waste minimization, and source reduction programs are implemented; and

6. The discharge of effluent does not produce or contribute to the concentration of a pollutant in the tissues of aquatic organisms or wildlife that is likely to be harmful to humans or wildlife through food chain concentration.

B. The Director shall not modify a water quality criterion for a pollutant to be less stringent than a technology-based effluent limitation that applies to the discharge of that effluent. The discharge of effluent shall, at a minimum, comply with applicable technology-based effluent limitations.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.107" level="4" title="Antidegradation">

Antidegradation

A. The Director shall determine whether there is degradation of water quality in a surface water on a pollutant-by-pollutant basis.

B. Tier 1: The level of water quality necessary to protect existing uses shall be maintained and protected. No degradation of existing water quality is permitted in a surface water where the existing water quality does not meet the applicable water quality standard.

C. Tier 2: Where existing water quality in a surface water is better than the applicable water quality standard, the existing water quality shall be maintained and protected. The Director may allow limited degradation of existing water quality in the surface water, provided that the Department holds a public hearing on whether degradation should be allowed under the general public hearing procedures prescribed at R18-1-401 and R18-1-402 and the Director makes all of the following findings:

1. The level of water quality necessary to protect existing uses is fully protected. Water quality shall not be lowered to a level that does not comply with applicable water quality standards.

2. The highest statutory and regulatory requirements for new and existing point sources are achieved.

3. All cost-effective and reasonable best management practices for nonpoint source pollution control are implemented.

4. Allowing lower water quality is necessary to accommodate important economic or social development in the area where the surface water is located.

D. Tier 3: Existing water quality shall be maintained and protected in a surface water that is classified as a unique water under R18-11-112. The Director shall not allow limited degradation of a unique water under subsection (C).

E. The Department shall implement this Section in a manner consistent with &#167; 316 of the Clean Water Act [33 U.S.C. &#167; 1326] if a potential water quality impairment associated with a thermal discharge is involved.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.108" level="4" title="Narrative Water Quality Standards">

Narrative Water Quality Standards

A. A surface water shall be free from pollutants in amounts or combinations that:

1. Settle to form bottom deposits that inhibit or prohibit the habitation, growth, or propagation of aquatic life;

2. Cause objectionable odor in the area in which the surface water is located;

3. Cause off-taste or odor in drinking water;

4. Cause off-flavor in aquatic organisms;

5. Are toxic to humans, animals, plants, or other organisms;

6. Cause the growth of algae or aquatic plants that inhibit or prohibit the habitation, growth, or propagation of other aquatic life or that impair recreational uses;

7. Cause or contribute to a violation of an aquifer water quality standard prescribed in R18-11-405 or R18-11-406; or

8. Change the color of the surface water from natural background levels of color.

B. A surface water shall be free from oil, grease, and other pollutants that float as debris, foam, or scum; or that cause a film or iridescent appearance on the surface of the water; or that cause a deposit on a shoreline, bank, or aquatic vegetation. The discharge of lubricating oil or gasoline associated with the normal operation of a recreational watercraft is not a violation of this narrative standard.

C. A discharge of suspended solids to a surface water shall not be in quantities or concentrations that either interfere with the treatment processes at the nearest downstream potable water treatment plant or substantially increase the cost of handling solids produced at the nearest downstream potable water treatment plant.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.109" level="4" title="Numeric Water Quality Standards"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="1"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="1"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="1"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="photon emitt" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="1"><dwc name="radium" times="3"><dwc name="uranium" times="1">

Numeric Water Quality Standards

A. The following water quality standards for Escherichia coli (E. coli), expressed in colony forming units per 100 milliliters of water (cfu / 100 ml), shall not be exceeded:

E. coli FBC PBC

Geometric mean (four-sample minimum) 126 126

Single sample maximum 235 576

B. The following water quality standards for pH, expressed in standard units, shall not be violated:

pH DWS FBC, PBC, A&amp;W

1

AgI AgL

Maximum 9.0 9.0 9.0 9.0

Minimum 5.0 6.5 4.5 6.5

Maximum change

due to discharge NNS 0.5 NNS NNS

C. The following maximum allowable increase in ambient water temperature, expressed in degrees Celsius, shall not be exceeded:

Temperature A&amp;Ww, A&amp;Wedw A&amp;Wc

Maximum increase

due to a thermal discharge

2,3

3.0 1.0

D. The following water quality standard for suspended sediment concentration, expressed as a geometric mean (four-sample minimum) shall not be exceeded. The standard applies to a surface water that is at or near base flow and does not apply to a surface water during or soon after a precipitation event:

A&amp;Wc, A&amp;Ww

80 mg / L

E. The following are the water quality standards for dissolved oxygen, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L). The dissolved oxygen concentration in a surface water shall not fall below the following minimum concentrations:

1. Dissolved oxygen A&amp;Ww A&amp;Wc

Single sample minimum

4

6.0 7.0

2. Dissolved oxygen in effluent-dependent waters

(single sample minimum): A&amp;W edw

Three hours after sunrise to sunset 3.0

Sunset to three hours after sunrise 1.0

3. A surface water is in compliance with the water quality standard for dissolved oxygen if the percent saturation of dissolved oxygen is equal to or greater than 90%.

F. The following water quality standards for total phosphorus and total nitrogen, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L), shall not be exceeded:

<table> Annual Mean 90th percentile Single Sample Maximum 1. Verde River and its tributaries from headwaters to Bartlett Lake: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.10 1.00 0.30 1.50 1.00 3.00 2. Black River, Tonto Creek, and their tributaries that are not located on tribal lands: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.10 0.50 0.20 1.00 0.80 2.00 3. Salt River and its tributaries that are not located on tribal lands but not Pinal Creek above Theodore Roosevelt Lake: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.12 0.60 0.30 1.20 1.00 2.00 4. Theodore Roosevelt, Apache, Canyon, and Saguaro Lakes: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.03 5 0.30 5 NNS NNS 0.60 6 1.00 6 5. Salt River below Stewart Mountain Dam to confluence with the Verde River: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.05 0.60 NNS NNS 0.20 3.00 6. Little Colorado River and its tributaries above River Reservoir in Greer, South Fork of Little Colorado River above South Fork Campground, Water Canyon Creek above Apache-Sitgreaves National Forest boundary: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.08 0.60 0.10 0.75 0.75 1.10 7. Little Colorado River at the crossing of Apache County Road No. 124: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen NNS NNS NNS NNS 0.75 1.80 8. Little Colorado River above Lyman Lake to above the Amity Ditch diversion near crossing of Arizona Highway 273 (applies only when in-stream turbidity is less than 50 NTU): Total phosphorus Total nitrogen 0.20 0.70 0.30 1.20 0.75 1.50 9. Colorado River, at Northern International Boundary near Morelos Dam: Total phosphorus Total nitrogen NNS NNS 0.33 2.50 NNS NNS 10. San Pedro River, from Curtis to Benson: Total phosphorus Total nitrate as N NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 10.00 11. The discharge of wastewater to Show Low Creek and tributaries upstream of and including Fools Hollow Lake shall not exceed 0.16 mg/L total phosphates as P. 12. The discharge of wastewater to the San Francisco River and tributaries upstream of Luna Lake Dam shall not exceed 1.0 mg/L total phosphates as P. </table>

G. The following water quality standards for radiochemicals shall not be exceeded in surface waters with the domestic water source designated use:

1. The concentration of gross alpha particle activity, including radium-226, but excluding radon and uranium, shall not exceed 15 picocuries per liter of water.

2. The concentration of combined radium-226 and radium-228 shall not exceed five picocuries per liter of water.

3. The concentration of strontium-90 shall not exceed 8 eight picocuries per liter of water.

4. The concentration of tritium shall not exceed 20,000 picocuries per liter of water.

5. The average annual concentration of beta particle activity and photon emitters from manmade radionuclides shall not produce an annual dose equivalent to the total body or any internal organ greater than four millirems per year.

Footnotes:

1

Includes A&amp;Wc, A&amp;Ww, A&amp;Wedw, and A&amp;We.

2

Does not apply to Cholla Lake.

3

Does not apply to a wastewater treatment plant discharge to a dry watercourse that creates an effluent-dependent water or to a stormwater discharge.

4

The dissolved oxygen water quality standard for a lake shall apply below the surface but not at a depth greater than one meter.

5

Means the annual mean of representative composite samples taken from the surface and at two and five meter depths.

6

Means the maximum for any set of representative composite samples taken from the surface and at two and five meter depths.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.110" level="4" title="Salinity Standards for the Colorado River">

Salinity Standards for the Colorado River

A. The flow-weighted average annual salinity in the lower main stem of the Colorado River shall be maintained at or below the following concentrations:

Location Total Dissolved Solids

Below Hoover Dam 723 mg/L

Below Parker Dam 747 mg/L

At Imperial Dam 879 mg/L

B. To preserve the basin-wide approach to salinity control developed by the Colorado River Basin states and to ensure compliance with the numeric criteria for salinity in subsection (A), the Department adopts the plan of implementation contained in the "1999 Review, Water Quality Standards for Salinity, Colorado River System," Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Forum, 106 West 500 South, Suite 101, Bountiful, Utah 84010-6232 (June, 1999), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and the Department. This incorporation by reference contains no future editions or amendments.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.111" level="4" title="Analytical Methods">

Analytical Methods

A. A person conducting an analysis of a sample taken to determine compliance with a water quality standard shall use an approved analytical method prescribed in 9 A.A.C. 14, Article 6, or an alternative analytical method that is approved by the Director of the Arizona Department of Health Services under R9-16-610(B).

B. A test result from a sample taken to determine compliance with a water quality standard is valid only if the sample is analyzed by a laboratory that is licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services for the analysis performed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.112" level="4" title="Unique Waters"> <dwc name="turbid" times="5"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="2">

Unique Waters

A. The Director shall classify a surface water as a unique water by rule. The Director shall consider nominations to classify a surface water as a unique water during the triennial review of water quality standards for surface waters.

B. The Director may adopt, by rule, site-specific water quality standards to maintain and protect existing water quality in a unique water.

C. Any person may nominate a surface water for classification as a unique water by filing a nomination with the Department. The nomination to classify a surface water as a unique water shall include:

1. A map and a description of the surface water;

2. A written statement in support of the nomination, including specific reference to the applicable criteria for unique water classification prescribed in subsection (D);

3. Supporting evidence demonstrating that the applicable unique water criteria prescribed in subsection (D) are met; and

4. Available water quality data relevant to establishing the baseline water quality of the proposed unique water.

D. The Director may classify a surface water as a unique water upon finding that the surface water is an outstanding state resource water based upon the following criteria:

1. The surface water is a perennial water;

2. The surface water is in a free-flowing condition. For purposes of this subsection, "in a free-flowing condition" means that a surface water does not have an impoundment, diversion, channelization, rip-rapping or other bank armor, or another hydrological modification within the reach nominated for unique water classification;

3. The surface water has good water quality. For purposes of this subsection, "good water quality" means that the surface water has water quality that meets or exceeds applicable surface water quality standards. A surface water that is listed as impaired under &#167; 303(d) of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. &#167; 1313) is ineligible for unique waters classification; and

4. The surface water meets one or both of the following conditions:

a. The surface water is of exceptional recreational or ecological significance because of its unique attributes, including but not limited to, attributes related to the geology, flora, fauna, water quality, aesthetic values, or the wilderness characteristics of the surface water.

b. Threatened or endangered species are known to be associated with the surface water and the existing water quality is essential to the maintenance and propagation of a threatened or endangered species or the surface water provides critical habitat for a threatened or endangered species. Endangered or threatened species are identified in Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants, 50 CFR &#167; 17.11 and &#167; 17.12 (revised as of October 1, 2000) which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. This incorporation by reference contains no future editions or amendments.

E. The following surface waters are classified as unique waters:

1. The West Fork of the Little Colorado River, above Government Springs;

2. Oak Creek, including the West Fork of Oak Creek;

3. Peoples Canyon Creek, tributary to the Santa Maria River;

4. Burro Creek, above its confluence with Boulder Creek;

5. Francis Creek, in Mohave and Yavapai counties;

6. Bonita Creek, tributary to the upper Gila River;

7. Cienega Creek, from confluence with Gardner Canyon and Spring Water Canyon at R18E T17S to USGS gaging station at 32&#176;02'09" / 110&#176;40'34", in Pima County;

8. Aravaipa Creek, from its confluence with Stowe Gulch to the downstream boundary of Aravaipa Canyon Wilderness Area;

9. Cave Creek and the South Fork of Cave Creek (Chircahua Mountains), from the headwaters to the Coronado National Forest boundary;

10. Buehman Canyon Creek, from its headwaters (Lat. 32&#176;24'55.5" N, Long. 110&#176;39'43.5"W) to approximately 9.8 miles downstream (Lat. 32&#176;24'31.5" N, Long. 10&#176;32'08" W);

11. Lee Valley Creek, from its headwaters to Lee Valley Reservoir;

12. Bear Wallow Creek, from its headwaters to the boundary of the San Carlos Indian Reservation;

13. North Fork of Bear Wallow Creek, from its headwaters to Bear Wallow Creek;

14. South Fork of Bear Wallow Creek, from its headwaters to Bear Wallow Creek;

15. Snake Creek, from its headwaters to its confluence with Black River;

17. Hay Creek, from its headwaters to its confluence with the West Fork of the Black River;

18. Stinky Creek, from the Fort Apache Indian Reservation boundary to its confluence with the West Fork of the Black River; and

19. KP Creek, from its headwaters to its confluence with the Blue River.

F. The Department shall hold at least one public meeting in the local area of a nominated unique water to solicit public comment on the nomination.

G. The Director may consider the following factors when making a decision whether to classify a nominated surface water as a unique water:

1. Whether there is the ability to manage the unique water and its watershed to maintain and protect existing water quality;

2. The social and economic impact of Tier 3 antidegradation protection;

3. The public comments in support or opposition to a unique waters classification;

4. The support or opposition of federal and state land management and natural resources agencies to a nomination;

5. Agency resource constraints;

6. The timing of the unique water nomination relative to the triennial review of surface water quality standards;

7. The consistency of a unique water classification with applicable water quality management plans (for example, &#167; 208 water quality management plans); and

8. Whether the nominated surface water is located within a national or state park, national monument, national recreation area, wilderness area, riparian conservation area, area of critical environmental concern, or it has another special use designation (for example, Wild and Scenic River designation).

H. The following water quality standards apply to the listed unique waters. Water quality standards prescribed in this subsection supplement the water quality standards prescribed by this Article.

<table> 1. The West Fork of the Little Colorado River, above Government Springs: Parameter Standard pH (standard units) No change due to discharge Temperature No increase due to discharge Dissolved oxygen No decrease due to discharge Total dissolved solids No increase due to discharge Chromium (as Cr)(D) 10 &#181;g/L 2. Oak Creek, including the West Fork of Oak Creek: Parameter Standard pH (standard units) No change due to discharge Nitrogen (T) 1.00 mg / L (annual mean) 1.50 mg / L (90th percentile) 2.50 mg / L (single sample max.) Phosphorus (T) 0.10 mg/L (annual mean) 0.25 mg/L (90th percentile) 0.30 mg/ L (single sample max.) Chromium (as Cr) (D) 5 &#181;g/L Turbidity change due to discharge 3 NTUs 3. Peoples Canyon Creek, tributary to the Santa Maria River: Parameter Standard Temperature No increase due to discharge Dissolved oxygen No decrease due to discharge Turbidity change due to discharge 5 NTUs Arsenic (T) 20 &#181;g/L Manganese (T) 500 &#181;g/L 4. Burro Creek, above its confluence with Boulder Creek: Parameter Standard Manganese (T) 500 &#181;g/L 5. Francis Creek, in Mohave and Yavapai counties: Parameter Standard Manganese (T) 500 &#181;g/L 6. Cienega Creek, from its confluence with Gardner Canyon and Spring Water Canyon at R18E T17S to Del Lago Dam, in Pima County: Parameter Standard pH No change due to discharge Temperature No increase due to discharge Dissolved oxygen No decrease due to discharge Total dissolved solids No increase due to discharge Turbidity 10 NTUs 7. Bonita Creek, tributary to the Upper Gila River: Parameter Standard pH No change due to discharge Temperature No increase due to discharge Dissolved oxygen No decrease due to discharge Total dissolved solids No increase due to discharge Turbidity 15 NTUs </table>

Abbreviations:

"(D)" means dissolved fraction

"(T)" means total recoverable

"NTUs" means nephelometric turbidity units

"mg / L" means milligrams per liter

"&#181;g / L" means micrograms per liter

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Added "water quality standards" to R18-11-112, previously omitted in error (Supp. 96-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.113" level="4" title="Effluent-dependent Waters"> <dwc name="copper" times="1"><dwc name="radium" times="1">

Effluent-dependent Waters

A. The Director shall classify a surface water as an effluent-dependent water by rule.

B. The Director may adopt, by rule, site-specific water quality standards for an effluent-dependent water.

C. Any person may submit a petition for rule adoption requesting that the Director classify a surface water as an effluent-dependent water. The petition for rule adoption shall include:

1. A map and a description of the surface water,

2. Information that demonstrates that the surface water consists of discharges of treated wastewater, and

3. Information that demonstrates that the receiving water is an ephemeral water in the absence of the discharge of treated wastewater.

D. The following surface waters are classified as effluent-dependent waters:

1. In the Colorado River Main Stem Basin:

a. Bright Angel Wash from the South Rim Grand Canyon WWTP outfall to its confluence with Coconino Wash,

b. Cataract Creek from the Williams WWTP outfall to one kilometer downstream from the outfall,

c. Holy Moses Wash from the Kingman WWTP outfall to three kilometers downstream from the outfall, and

d. Transept Canyon from the North Rim Grand Canyon WWTP outfall to one kilometer downstream from the outfall.

2. In the Little Colorado River Basin:

a. Dry Lake,

b. Lake Humphreys,

c. Lower Walnut Canyon Lake,

d. Ned Lake,

e. Pintail Lake,

f. Telephone Lake,

g. Rio de Flag from the City of Flagstaff WWTP outfall to its confluence with San Francisco Wash, and

h. Whale Lake.

3. In the Middle Gila River Basin:

a. Unnamed wash from the Town of Prescott Valley WWTP outfall to its confluence with the Agua Fria River, and the Agua Fria River below its confluence with the unnamed wash receiving treated wastewater from the Prescott Valley WWTP to State Route 169;

b. Agua Fria river from the El Mirage WWTP outfall to two kilometers downstream from the outfall;

c. Gila River from the Florence WWTP outfall to Felix Road,

d. Gila River from its confluence with the Salt River to Gillespie Dam;

e. Queen Creek from the Town of Superior WWTP outfall to its confluence with Potts Canyon;

f. Unnamed wash from the Gila Bend WWTP outfall to its confluence with the Gila River;

g. Unnamed wash from the Luke AFB WWTP outfall to its confluence with the Agua Fria River; and

h. Unnamed wash from the Queen Valley WWTP outfall to its confluence with Queen Creek.

4. In the Rios de Mexico Basin:

a. Mule Gulch, from the Bisbee WWTP outfall to the Highway 80 bridge, and

b. Unnamed wash from the Bisbee-Douglas International Airport WWTP outfall to Whitewater Draw.

5. In the Salt River Basin:

a. Unnamed wash from the Globe WWTP outfall to its confluence with Pinal Creek and Pinal Creek from its confluence with the unnamed wash to Radium, and

b. Salt River from the 23rd Avenue WWTP outfall to its confluence with the Gila River.

6. In the San Pedro River Basin:

a. Unnamed wash from the Mt. Lemmon WWTP outfall to 0.25 kilometers downstream, and

b. Walnut Gulch from the Tombstone WWTP outfall to its confluence with Tombstone Gulch.

7. In the Santa Cruz Basin:

a. Santa Cruz River from the Nogales International WWTP outfall to Tubac Bridge,

b. Santa Cruz River from the Roger Road WWTP outfall to Baumgartner Road crossing,

c. Unnamed wash from the Oracle WWTP outfall to five kilometers downstream, and

d. Sonoita Creek from the Town of Patagonia WWTP outfall to 750 feet downstream.

8. In the Upper Gila River Basin:

a. Bennett Wash from the Arizona Department of Corrections-Safford WWTP outfall to the Gila River. and

b. Unnamed wash from the Arizona Department of Corrections-Globe WWTP outfall to the boundary of the San Carlos Indian Reservation.

9. In the Verde River Basin:

a. American Gulch from the Northern Gila County Sanitary District WWTP outfall to the East Verde River,

b. Bitter Creek from the Jerome WWTP outfall to 2.5 kilometers downstream from the outfall, and

c. Jacks Canyon Wash from the Big Park WWTP outfall to its confluence with Dry Beaver Creek.

10. In the Willcox Playa Basin: Lake Cochise

E. The NPDES permit issuing authority shall use the water quality standards that apply to an effluent-dependent water to derive discharge limitations for a point source discharge from a wastewater treatment plant to an ephemeral water that changes that ephemeral water into an effluent-dependent water.

F. The site-specific standard of 36 &#181;g / L for dissolved copper for the aquatic and wildlife (effluent-dependent water) designated use applies to the Rio de Flag from the City of Flagstaff WWTP outfall to its confluence with the San Francisco Wash.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective December 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-4). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.114" level="4" title="Mixing Zones"> <dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="chlordan" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="1"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="1">

Mixing Zones

A. The Director may establish a mixing zone for a point source discharge to a surface water as a condition of a NPDES permit. Mixing zones are prohibited in ephemeral waters or where there is no water for dilution.

B. The owner or operator of a point source seeking the establishment of a mixing zone shall submit a mixing zone application to the Department on a standard form that is available from the Department. The application shall include:

1. Identification of the pollutant for which the mixing zone is requested;

2. A proposed outfall design;

3. A definition of the boundary of the proposed mixing zone. For purposes of this subsection, the boundary of a mixing zone means the location where the concentration of treated wastewater across a transect of the surface water differs by less than 5%; and

4. A complete and detailed description of the existing physical, biological, and chemical conditions of the receiving water and the predicted impact of the proposed mixing zone on those conditions.

C. The Department shall review the application for a mixing zone to determine whether the application is complete. If the application is incomplete, the Department shall identify in writing the additional information that must be submitted to the Department to complete the mixing zone application.

D. The Director shall consider the following factors when deciding whether to grant or deny a request for a mixing zone:

1. The assimilative capacity of the receiving water;

2. The likelihood of adverse human health effects;

3. The location of drinking water plant intakes and public swimming areas;

4. The predicted exposure of biota and the likelihood that resident biota will be adversely affected;

5. Bioaccumulation and bioconcentration;

6. Whether there will be acute toxicity in the mixing zone, and, if so, the size of the area of acute toxicity;

7. The known or predicted safe exposure levels for the pollutant of concern;

8. The size of the mixing zone;

9. The location of the mixing zone relative to biologically sensitive areas in the surface water;

10. The concentration gradient of the pollutant within the mixing zone;

11. Sediment deposition;

12. The potential for attracting aquatic life to the mixing zone; and

13. The cumulative impacts of other mixing zones and other discharges to the surface water.

E. The Director shall deny the request to establish a mixing zone if water quality standards outside the boundaries of the proposed mixing zone will be violated. The denial of a request for a mixing zone shall be in writing and shall state the reason for the denial. If the Director determines that a mixing zone should be established, the Director shall establish the mixing zone as a condition of a NPDES permit. The Director may include mixing zone conditions in the NPDES permit that the Director deems necessary to protect human health and the designated uses of the surface water.

F. Any person who is adversely affected by the Director's decision to grant or deny a request for a mixing zone may appeal the decision to an administrative law judge under A.R.S. &#167; 49-321 and A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092 et seq.

G. The Department shall reevaluate a mixing zone upon issuance, reissuance, or modification of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the point source or a modification of the outfall structure.

H. The length of a mixing zone shall not exceed 500 meters in a stream. The total horizontal area allocated to all mixing zones on a lake shall not exceed 10% of the surface area of the lake. Adjacent mixing zones in a lake shall be no closer than the greatest horizontal dimension of any individual mixing zone.

I. A mixing zone shall provide for a zone of passage of not less than 50% of the cross-sectional area of a river or stream.

J. The discharge outfall shall be designed to maximize initial dilution of the treated wastewater in a surface water.

K. A mixing zone is prohibited for the following persistent, bioaccumulative pollutants:

1. Chlordane,

2. DDT and its metabolites (DDD and DDE),

3. Dieldrin,

4. Dioxin,

5. Endrin,

6. Endrin aldehyde,

7. Heptachlor,

8. Heptachlor epoxide,

9. Lindane,

10. Mercury,

11. PCBs, and

12. Toxaphene.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.115" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.116" level="4" title="Resource management agencies">

Resource management agencies

Nothing in this Article shall be construed to prohibit fisheries management activities by the Arizona Game and Fish Department or the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. This provision does not exempt fish hatcheries from National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit requirements.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.117" level="4" title="Canals and Municipal Park Lakes"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1">

Canals and Municipal Park Lakes

A. Nothing in this Article shall be construed to prevent the routine physical or mechanical maintenance of canals, drains, and the municipal park lakes identified in Appendix B. Physical or mechanical maintenance includes dewatering, lining, dredging, and the physical, biological or chemical control of weeds and algae. Increases in turbidity that result from physical or mechanical maintenance activities are permitted in canals, drains, and the municipal park lakes identified in Appendix B.

B. The discharge of lubricating oil that is associated with the start-up of well pumps which discharge to canals is not a violation of R18-11-108(B).

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.118" level="4" title="Dams and Flood Control Structures"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1">

Dams and Flood Control Structures

A. Increases in turbidity that result from the routine physical or mechanical maintenance of a dam or flood control structure are not violations of this Article.

B. Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require the release of water from a dam or a flood control structure.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.119" level="4" title="Natural background">

Natural background

Where the concentration of a pollutant exceeds a water quality standard and the exceedance is not caused by human activity but is due solely to naturally-occurring conditions, the exceedance shall not be considered a violation of the water quality standard.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.120" level="4" title="Enforcement">

Enforcement

A. Any person who causes a violation of a water quality standard or any provision of this Article is subject to the enforcement provisions in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 4.

B. The Department may establish a numeric water quality standard at a concentration that is below the practical quantitation limit. In such cases, the water quality standard is enforceable at the practical quantitation limit.

C. The Department shall determine compliance with acute aquatic and wildlife criteria from the analytical result of a grab sample. Compliance with chronic aquatic and wildlife criteria shall be determined from the geometric mean of the analytical results of the last four samples taken at least 24 hours apart.

D. A person is not subject to penalties for violation of a water quality standard provided that the person is in compliance with the provisions of a compliance schedule issued under R18-11-121.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.121" level="4" title="Schedules of Compliance">

Schedules of Compliance

A. A schedule to bring an existing point source into compliance with a new or revised water quality standard may be established in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for an existing point source. A compliance schedule for an existing point source, other than a storm water discharge, shall require compliance with a discharge limitation based upon a new or revised water quality standard no later than three years after the effective date of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. For a schedule of compliance to be granted, the owner or operator of the existing point source shall demonstrate that all requirements under &#167; 301(b) and &#167; 306 of the Clean Water Act [33 U.S.C. &#167; 1311(b) and &#167; 1316] have been achieved and that the point source cannot comply with a discharge limitation based upon the new or revised water quality standard through the application of existing water pollution control technology, operational changes, or source reduction.

B. A schedule of compliance may be established in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for a new point source. The first National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued to a new point source may contain a schedule of compliance only when necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with a new or revised water quality standard that becomes effective after commencement of construction but less than three years before commencement of the discharge. For purposes of this subsection, commencement of construction means that the owner or operator of the point source has obtained the federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the point source and either:

1. Onsite physical construction has begun; or

2. The owner or operator has entered into a contract for physical construction of the point source and the contract cannot be cancelled or modified without substantial loss. For purposes of this subsection, "substantial loss" means in excess of 10% of the total cost incurred for physical construction.

C. A schedule of compliance may be established in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for a recommencing point source discharge. The first National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued to a recommencing point source discharge may contain a schedule of compliance only when necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with a new or revised water quality standard that becomes effective less than three years before recommencement of discharge.

D. A schedule to bring a point source discharge of storm water into compliance with a water quality standard may be established in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. A compliance schedule for a storm water discharge shall require implementation of all reasonable and cost-effective best management practices to control the discharge of pollutants in storm water.

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Amended effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.122" level="4" title="Variances">

Variances

A. The Director may grant a variance from a water quality standard for a point source discharge if the discharger demonstrates that treatment more advanced than that required to comply with technology-based effluent limitations is necessary to comply with the water quality standard and:

1. It is not technically feasible to achieve compliance within the next five years,

2. The cost of the treatment would result in substantial and widespread economic and social impact, or

3. Human-caused conditions or sources of pollution prevent attainment of the water quality standard and cannot be remedied within the next five years.

B. A variance may be granted only on a pollutant-specific basis. A point source discharge is required to comply with all other applicable water quality standards for which a variance is not granted.

C. A variance applies only to a specific point source discharge. The granting of a variance does not modify a water quality standard. Other point source dischargers to the surface water shall comply with applicable water quality standards, including any water quality standard for which a variance has been granted for a specific point source discharge.

D. A variance is for a fixed term not to exceed five years. Upon expiration of a variance, a point source discharger shall either comply with the water quality standard or apply for renewal of the variance. To renew a variance, the applicant shall demonstrate reasonable progress towards compliance with the water quality standard during the term of the variance.

E. The Department shall reevaluate a variance upon the issuance, reissuance, or modification of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the point source discharge.

F. A person who seeks a variance from a water quality standard shall submit a written request for a variance to the Department. A request for a variance shall include the following information:

1. Identification of the specific pollutant and water quality standard for which a variance is sought;

2. Identification of the receiving surface water;

3. For an existing point source discharge, a detailed description of the existing discharge control technologies that are used to achieve compliance with applicable water quality standards. For a new point source discharge, a detailed description of the proposed discharge control technologies that will be used to achieve compliance with applicable water quality standards;

4. Documentation that the existing or proposed discharge control technologies will comply with applicable technology-based effluent limitations and that more advanced treatment technology is necessary to achieve compliance with the water quality standard for which a variance is sought;

5. A detailed discussion of the reasons why compliance with the water quality standard cannot be achieved;

6. A detailed discussion of the discharge control technologies that are available for achieving compliance with the water quality standard for which a variance is sought;

7. Documentation of one of the following:

a. That it is not technically feasible to install and operate any of the available discharge control technologies to achieve compliance with the water quality standard for which a variance is sought,

b. That installation and operation of each of the available discharge technologies to achieve compliance with the water quality standard would result in substantial and widespread economic and social impact, or

c. That human-caused conditions or sources of pollution prevent the attainment of the water quality standard for which the variance is sought and it is not possible to remedy the conditions or sources of pollution within the next five years,

8. Documentation that the point source discharger has reduced, to the maximum extent practicable, the discharge of the pollutant for which a variance is sought through implementation of a local pretreatment, source reduction, or waste minimization program, and

9. A detailed description of proposed interim discharge limitations that represent the highest level of treatment achievable by the point source discharger during the term of the variance. Interim discharge limitations shall not be less stringent than technology-based effluent limitations.

G. In making a decision on whether to grant or deny the request for a variance, the Director shall consider the following factors:

1. Bioaccumulation and bioconcentration,

2. The predicted exposure of biota and the likelihood that resident biota will be adversely affected,

3. The known or predicted safe exposure levels for the pollutant of concern, and

4. The likelihood of adverse human health effects.

H. The Department shall issue a public notice and shall provide an opportunity for a public hearing on whether the request for a variance should be granted or denied under procedures prescribed in R18-1-401 and R18-1-402.

I. Any person who is adversely affected by a decision of the Director to grant or deny a variance may appeal the decision to an administrative law judge under A.R.S. &#167; 49-321 and A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092 et seq.

J. The Department shall not grant a variance for a point source discharge to a unique water listed in R18-11-112.

K. A variance is subject to review and approval by the Regional Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.123" level="4" title="Prohibition Against Discharge"> <dwc name="chlorin" times="2"><dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="2"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="7"><dwc name="tthm" times="7"><dwc name="antimoni" times="2"><dwc name="arsen" times="2"><dwc name="asbesto" times="2"><dwc name="barium" times="2"><dwc name="beryllium" times="2"><dwc name="cadmium" times="6"><dwc name="chromium" times="10"><dwc name="copper" times="10"><dwc name="cyanid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="6"><dwc name="mercuri" times="2"><dwc name="nitrat" times="4"><dwc name="nitrit" times="4"><dwc name="selenium" times="2"><dwc name="thallium" times="2"><dwc name="alachlor" times="2"><dwc name="atrazin" times="2"><dwc name="benzen" times="2"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="2"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="2"><dwc name="chlordan" times="2"><dwc name="chlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="dalapon" times="1"><dwc name="dbcp" times="2"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="2"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="2"><dwc name="tcdd" times="2"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="4"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="2"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="4"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="2"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="2"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="2"><dwc name="lindan" times="2"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="2"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="2"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="8"><dwc name="picloram" times="1"><dwc name="simazin" times="1"><dwc name="styren" times="2"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="toluen" times="2"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="2"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="2"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="2"><dwc name="xylen" times="2"><dwc name="radium" times="2"><dwc name="uranium" times="2">

Prohibition Against Discharge

A. The discharge of treated wastewater to Sabino Creek is prohibited.

B. The discharge of human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or retain those wastes on a vessel to Lake Powell is prohibited.

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<table> Appendix A: Numeric Water Quality Criteria Table 1. Human Health and Agricultural Designated Uses PARAMETER CAS* NUMBER DWS (&#181;g/L) FC (&#181;g/L) FBC (&#181;g/L) PBC (&#181;g/L) AgI (&#181;g/L) AgL (&#181;g/L) Acenaphthene 83-32-9 420 2670 84,000 84,000 NNS NNS Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Acrolein 107-02-8 3.5 25 700 700 NNS NNS Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.07 0.7 3 56,000 NNS NNS Alachlor 15972-60-8 2 NNS 14,000 14,000 NNS NNS Aldrin 309-00-2 0.002 0.0001 0.08 42 p p Ammonia 7664-41-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Anthracene 120-12-7 2100 1000 420,000 420,000 NNS NNS Antimony (as Sb) 7440-36-0 6 T 4,300 T 560 T 560 T NNS NNS Arsenic (as As) 7440-38-2 50 T 1450 T 50 T 420 T 2000 T 200 T Asbestos 1332-21-4 a NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Atrazine 1912-24-9 3 NNS 49,000 49,000 NNS NNS Barium (as Ba) 7440-39-3 2000 T NNS 98,000 T 98,000 T NNS NNS Benzene 71-43-2 5 140 93 93 NNS NNS Benzidine 92-87-5 0.0002 0.001 0.01 4,200 0.01 0.01 Benz (a) anthracene 56-55-3 0.048 0.49 1.9 1.9 NNS NNS Benzo (a) pyrene 50-32-8 0.2 0.05 0.2 0.2 NNS NNS Benzo (ghi) perylene 191-24-2 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Benzo (k) fluoranthene 207-08-9 0.048 0.49 1.9 1.9 NNS NNS 3,4-Benzofluoranthene 205-99-2 0.048 0.49 1.9 1.9 NNS NNS Beryllium (as Be) 7440-41-7 4 T 1,130 T 2,800 T 2,800 T NNS NNS Bis (2-chloroethoxy) methane 111-91-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Bis (2-chloroethyl) ether 111-44-4 0.03 1.4 1.3 1.3 NNS NNS Bis (2-chloroisopropyl) ether 108-60-1 280 174,400 56,000 56,000 NNS NNS Boron (as B) 7440-42-8 630 T NNS 126,000 T 126,000 T 1000 T NNS Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 TTHM 46 TTHM 28,000 NNS NNS p-Bromodiphenyl ether 101-55-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Bromoform 75-25-2 TTHM 360 180 28,000 NNS NNS Bromomethane 74-83-9 9.8 4020 2000 2000 NNS NNS Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 1400 5200 280,000 280,000 NNS NNS Cadmium (as Cd) 7440-43-9 5 T 84 T 700 T 700 T 50 T 50 T Carbofuran 1563-66-2 40 NNS 7,000 7,000 NNS NNS Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 5 4 11 980 NNS NNS Chlordane 57-74-9 2 0.002 4 700 NNS NNS Chlorine (total residual) 7782-50-5 700 NNS 140,000 140,000 NNS NNS Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 100 20,900 28,000 28,000 NNS NNS p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether 110-75-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Chloroform 67-66-3 TTHM 470 230 14,000 NNS NNS Chloromethane 74-87-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Chloronapthalene beta 91-58-7 560 4,300 112,000 112,000 NNS NNS 2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 35 400 7,000 7,000 NNS NNS 4-Chlorophenyl phenyl ether 7005-72-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Chromium (as Cr III) 16065-83-1 10,500 T 1,010,000 T 2,100,000 T 2,100,000 T NNS NNS Chromium (as Cr VI) 18540-29-9 21 T 2,000T 4,200 T 4,200 T NNS NNS Chromium (Total as Cr) 7440-47-3 100 T NNS 100 T 100 T 1000 T 1000 T Chrysene 218-01-9 0.479 4.92 19.2 19 NNS NNS Copper (as Cu) 7440-50-8 1,300 T NNS 1,300 T 1,300 T 5000 T 500 T Cyanide 57-12-5 200 T 215,000 T 28,000 T 28,000 T NNS 200 T Dalapon 75-99-0 200 161,500 42,000 42,000 NNS NNS Dibenz (ah) anthracene 53-70-3 0.048 0.20 1.9 1.9 NNS NNS Dibromochloromethane 124-48-1 TTHM 34 TTHM 28,000 NNS NNS 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP) 96-12-8 0.2 NNS 2,800 2,800 NNS NNS 1,2-Dibromoethane (EDB) 106-93-4 0.05 NNS 0.05 0.05 NNS NNS Dibutyl phthalate 84-74-2 700 12,100 140,000 140,000 NNS NNS 1,2-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 600 2800 126,000 126,000 NNS NNS 1,3-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,4-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 75 77,500 560,000 560,000 NNS NNS 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 0.08 0.08 3.1 3.1 NNS NNS p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane (DDD) 72-54-8 0.15 0.001 5.8 5.8 0.001 0.001 p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethylene (DDE) 72-55-9 0.1 0.001 4.1 4.1 0.001 0.001 p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) 50-29-3 0.1 0.0006 4.1 700 0.001 0.001 1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 5 100 15 280,000 NNS NNS 1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 7 320 230 12,600 NNS NNS 1,2-cis-Dichloroethylene 156-59-2 70 NNS 70 70 NNS NNS 1,2-trans-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 100 136,000 28,000 28,000 NNS NNS Dichloromethane 75-09-2 5 1600 190 84,000 NNS NNS 2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 21 800 4,200 4,200 NNS NNS 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) 94-75-7 70 NNS 14,000 14,000 NNS NNS 1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 5 236,000 126,000 126,000 NNS NNS 1,3-Dichloropropene 542-75-6 2 1,700 420 420 NNS NNS Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.002 0.0001 0.09 70 p p Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 5600 118,000 1,120,000 1,120,000 NNS NNS Di (2-ethylhexyl) adipate 103-23-1 400 NNS 1,200 840,000 NNS NNS Di (2-ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 6 7.4 100 28,000 NNS NNS 2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 140 2300 28,000 28,000 NNS NNS Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 28 7,800 5,600 5,600 NNS NNS 2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 14 14,400 2,800 2,800 NNS NNS 2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 14 5,700 2,800 2,800 NNS NNS 2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.05 NNS 2 5,600 NNS NNS Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 2800 NNS 560,000 560,000 NNS NNS Dinoseb 88-85-7 7 NNS 1,400 1,400 NNS NNS 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 0.04 0.5 1.8 1.8 NNS NNS Diquat 85-00-7 20 NNS 3,080 3,080 NNS NNS Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Endosulfan (Total) 115-29-7 42 240 8,400 8,400 NNS NNS Endothall 145-73-3 100 NNS 28,000 28,000 NNS NNS Endrin 72-20-8 2 0.8 420 420 0.004 0.004 Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 700 28,700 140,000 140,000 NNS NNS Ethyl chloride 75-00-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Fluoranthene 206-44-0 280 380 56,000 56,000 NNS NNS Fluorene 86-73-7 280 14,400 56,000 56,000 NNS NNS Fluoride 7782-41-4 4000 NNS 84,000 84,000 NNS NNS Glyphosate 1071-83-6 700 1,077,000 140,000 140,000 NNS NNS Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.4 0.0002 0.4 700 NNS NNS Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.2 0.0001 0.2 18 NNS NNS Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 1 0.001 1 1,120 NNS NNS Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.45 50 18 280 NNS NNS Hexachlorocyclohexane alpha 319-84-6 0.006 0.01 0.22 11,200 NNS NNS Hexachlorocyclohexane beta 319-85-7 0.02 0.02 0.78 840 NNS NNS Hexachlorocyclohexane delta 319-86-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Hexachlorocyclohexane gamma (lindane) 58-89-9 0.2 25 420 420 NNS NNS Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 50 580 9,800 9,800 NNS NNS Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 2.5 9 100 1,400 NNS NNS Indeno (1,2,3-cd) pyrene 193-39-5 0.048 0.49 1.9 1.9 NNS NNS Isophorone 78-59-1 37 2,600 1,500 280,000 NNS NNS Lead (as Pb) 7439-97-1 15 T NNS 15 T 15 T 10000 T 100 T Manganese (as Mn) 7439-96-5 980 T NNS 196,000 T 196,000 T 10000 NNS Mercury (as Hg) 7439-97-6 2 T 0.6 T 420 T 420 T NNS 10 T Methoxychlor 72-43-5 40 NNS 7,000 7,000 NNS NNS Naphthalene 91-20-3 140 20,500 28,000 28,000 NNS NNS Nickel (as Ni) 7440-02-0 140 T 4,600 T 28,000 T 28,000 T NNS NNS Nitrate (as N) 14797-55-8 10000 NNS 2,240,000 2,240,000 NNS NNS Nitrite (as N) 14797-65-0 1000 NNS 140,000 140,000 NNS NNS Nitrate/Nitrite (as Total N) 10000 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 3.5 1,900 700 700 NNS NNS o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS N-nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 0.001 8 0.03 0.03 NNS NNS N-nitrosodiphenylamine 86-30-6 7.1 16 290 290 NNS NNS N-nitrosodi-n-propylamine 621-64-7 0.005 1.4 0.2 133,000 NNS NNS Oxamyl 23135-22-0 200 NNS 35,000 35,000 NNS NNS Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 1 1000 12 42,000 NNS NNS Phenanthrene 85-01-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Phenol 108-95-2 4200 1,000 840,000 840,000 NNS NNS Picloram 1918-02-1 500 24,300 98,000 98,000 NNS NNS Polychlorinatedbiphenyls (PCBs) 1336-36-3 0.5 0.007 28 28 0.001 0.001 Pyrene 129-00-0 210 10,800 42,000 42,000 NNS NNS Selenium (as Se) 7782-49-2 50 T 9000 T 7,000 T 7,000 T 20 T 50 T Silver (as Ag) 7440-22-4 35 T 107,700 T 7,000 T 7,000 T NNS NNS Simazine 112-34-9 4 NNS 7,000 7,000 NNS NNS Styrene 100-42-5 100 NNS 280,000 280,000 NNS NNS Sulfides NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (2,3,7,8-TCDD) 1746-01-6 0.0000003 0.000000004 0.00009 1.4 NNS NNS 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 0.17 11 7 56,000 NNS NNS Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 5 3,500 14,000 14,000 NNS NNS Thallium (as Tl) 7440-28-0 2 T 7.2 T 112 T 112 T NNS NNS Toluene 108-88-3 1000 201,000 280,000 280,000 NNS NNS Toxaphene 8001-35-2 3 0.001 1.3 1400 0.005 0.005 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 70 950 14,000 14,000 NNS NNS 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 200 NNS 200 200 1000 NNS 1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 5 42 25 5,600 NNS NNS Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 5 203,200 280,000 280,000 NNS NNS 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 3.2 6.5 130 130 NNS NNS 2-(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) proprionic acid (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 50 NNS 11,200 11,200 NNS NNS Trihalomethanes, Total 100 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Uranium (as Ur) 7440-61-1 35 D NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 2 13 2 4,200 NNS NNS Xylenes (Total) 1330-20-7 10000 NNS 2,800,000 2,800,000 NNS NNS Zinc (as Zn) 7440-66-6 2100 T 69,000 T 420,000 T 420,000 T 10000 T 25000 T </table>

*Chemical Abstract System (CAS) number is a unique identification number given to each chemical.

<table> Appendix A: Numeric Water Quality Criteria Table 2. Aquatic &amp; Wildlife Designated Uses PARAMETER CAS NUMBER A&amp;Wc Acute (&#181;g/L) A&amp;Wc Chronic (&#181;g/L) A&amp;Ww Acute (&#181;g/L) A&amp;Ww Chronic (&#181;g/L) A&amp;Wedw Acute (&#181;g/L) A&amp;Wedw Chronic (&#181;g/L) A&amp;We Acute (&#181;g/L) Acenaphthene 83-32-9 850 550 850 550 850 550 NNS Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Acrolein 107-02-8 34 30 34 30 34 30 NNS Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 3800 250 3800 250 3800 250 NNS Alachlor 15972-60-8 2500 170 2500 170 2500 170 NNS Aldrin 309-00-2 2.0 NNS 2.0 NNS 2.0 NNS 4.5 Ammonia 7664-41-7 b b b b NNS NNS NNS Anthracene 120-12-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Antimony (as Sb) 7440-36-0 88 D 30 D 88 D 30 D 1000 D 600 D NNS Arsenic (as As) 7440-38-2 360 D 190 D 360 D 190 D 360 D 190 D 440 D Asbestos 1332-21-4 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Atrazine 1912-24-9 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Barium (as Ba) 7440-39-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Benzene 71-43-2 2700 180 2700 180 8800 560 NNS Benzidine 92-87-5 1300 89 1300 89 1300 89 10000 Benz (a) anthracene 56-55-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Benzo (a) pyrene 50-32-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Benzo (ghi) perylene 191-24-2 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Benzo (k) fluoranthene 207-08-9 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 3,4-Benzofluoranthene 205-99-2 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Beryllium (as Be) 7440-41-7 65 D 5.3 D 65 D 5.3 D 65 D 5.3 D NNS Bis (2-chloroethoxy) methane 111-91-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Bis (2-chlorethyl) ether 111-44-4 120000 6700 120000 6700 120000 6700 NNS Bis (2-chloroisopropyl) ether 108-60-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Boron (as B) 7440-42-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS p-Bromodiphenyl ether 101-55-3 180 14 180 14 180 14 NNS Bromoform 75-25-2 15000 10000 15000 10000 15000 10000 NNS Bromomethane 74-83-9 5500 360 5500 360 5500 360 NNS Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 1700 130 1700 130 1700 130 NNS Cadmium (as Cd) 7440-43-9 c D c D c D c D c D c D c D Carbofuran 1563-66-2 650 50 650 50 650 50 NNS Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 18000 1100 18000 1100 18000 1100 NNS Chlordane 57-74-9 2.4 0.004 2.4 0.21 2.4 0.21 3.2 Chlorine (total residual) 7782-50-5 11 5.0 11 5.0 11 5.0 NNS Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 3800 260 3800 260 3800 260 NNS p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 15 4.7 15 4.7 15 4.7 48000 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether 110-75-8 180000 9800 180000 9800 180000 9800 NNS Chloroform 67-66-3 14000 900 14000 900 14000 900 NNS Chloromethane 74-87-3 270000 15000 270000 15000 270000 15000 NNS Chloronapthalene beta 91-58-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 2200 150 2200 150 2200 150 NNS 4-Chlorophenyl phenyl ether 7005-72-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Chromium (as Cr III) 16065-83-1 d D d D d D d D d D d D d D Chromium (as Cr VI) 18540-29-9 16 D 11 D 16 D 11 D 16 D 11 D 34 D Chromium (Total as Cr) 7440-47-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Chrysene 218-01-9 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Copper (as Cu) 7440-50-8 e D e D e D e D e D e D e D Cyanide 57-12-5 22 T 5.2 T 41 T 9.7 T 41 T 9.7 T 84 T Dibenz (ah) anthracene 53-70-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Dibromochloromethane 124-48-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP) 96-12-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Dibromoethane (EDB) 106-93-4 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Dibutyl phthalate 84-74-2 470 35 470 35 470 35 1100 1,2-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 790 300 1200 470 1200 470 5900 1,3-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 2500 970 2500 970 2500 970 NNS 1,4-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 560 210 2000 780 2000 780 6500 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane (DDD) 72-54-8 1.1 0.001 1.1 0.02 1.1 0.02 1.1 p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethylene (DDE) 72-55-9 1.1 0.001 1.1 0.02 1.1 0.02 1.1 p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) 50-29-3 1.1 0.001 1.1 0.001 1.1 0.001 1.1 1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 59000 41000 59000 41000 59000 41000 NNS 1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 15000 950 15000 950 15000 950 NNS 1,2-cis-Dichloroethylene 156-59-2 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-trans-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 68000 3900 68000 3900 68000 3900 NNS Dichloromethane 75-09-2 97000 5500 97000 5500 97000 5500 NNS 2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 1000 88 1000 88 1000 88 NNS 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) 94-75-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 26000 9200 26000 9200 26000 9200 NNS 1,3-Dichloropropene 542-75-6 3000 1100 3000 1100 3000 1100 NNS Dieldrin 60-57-1 2.5 0.002 2.5 0.002 2.5 0.005 4 Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 26000 1600 26000 1600 26000 1600 NNS Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 400 360 400 360 400 360 3100 2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 1000 310 1000 310 1100 310 150000 Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 17000 1000 17000 1000 17000 1000 NNS 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 310 24 310 24 310 24 NNS 2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 110 9.2 110 9.2 110 9.2 NNS 2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 14000 860 14000 860 14000 860 NNS 2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS -Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 130 11 130 11 130 11 NNS Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.22 0.06 0.22 0.06 0.22 0.06 3.0 Endosulfan (Total) 115-29-7 0.22 0.06 0.22 0.06 0.22 0.06 3.0 Endrin 72-20-8 0.18 0.002 0.2 0.08 0.2 0.08 0.7 Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-3 0.18 0.002 0.2 0.08 0.2 0.08 0.7 Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 23000 1400 23000 1400 23000 1400 NNS Ethyl chloride 75-00-3 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Fluoranthene 206-44-0 2000 1600 2000 1600 2000 1600 NNS Fluorene 86-73-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Fluorine 7782-41-4 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.52 0.004 0.52 0.004 0.58 0.013 0.9 Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.52 0.004 0.52 0.004 0.58 0.013 0.9 Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 6.0 3.7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 45 8.2 45 8.2 45 8.2 NNS Hexachlorocyclohexane alpha 319-84-6 1600 130 1600 130 1600 130 1600 Hexachlorocyclohexane beta 319-85-7 1600 130 1600 130 1600 130 1600 Hexachlorocyclohexane delta 319-86-8 1600 130 1600 130 1600 130 1600 Hexachlorocyclohexane gamma (lindane) 58-89-9 2.0 0.08 3.4 0.28 7.6 0.61 11 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 3.5 0.3 3.5 0.3 3.5 0.3 NNS Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 490 350 490 350 490 350 850 Indeno (1,2,3-cd) pyrene 193-39-5 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Isophorone 78-59-1 59000 43000 59000 43000 59000 43000 NNS Lead (as Pb) 7439-97-1 f D f D f D f D f D f D f D Manganese (as Mn) 7439-96-5 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Mercury (as Hg) 7439-97-6 2.4 D 0.01 D 2.4 D 0.01 D 2.6 D 0.2 D 5.0 D Methoxychlor 72-43-5 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Naphthalene 91-20-3 1100 210 3200 580 3200 580 NNS Nickel (as Ni) 7440-02-0 g D g D g D g D g D g D g D Nitrate (as N) 14797-55-8 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Nitrite (as N) 14797-65-0 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Nitrate/Nitrite (as Total N) NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 1300 850 1300 850 1300 850 NNS o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 4100 3000 4100 3000 4100 3000 NNS N-nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS N-nitrosodiphenylamine 86-30-6 2900 200 2900 200 2900 200 NNS N-nitrosodi-n-propylamine 621-64-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 h h h h h h h Phenanthrene 85-01-8 30 6.3 30 6.3 54 6.3 NNS Phenol 108-95-2 5100 730 7000 1000 7000 1000 180000 Polychlorinatedbiphenyls (PCBs) 1336-36-3 2.0 0.01 2.0 0.02 2.0 0.02 11 Pyrene 129-00-0 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Selenium (as Se) 7782-49-2 20 T 2.0 T 20 T 2.0 T 50 T 2.0 T 33 T Silver (as Ag) 7440-22-4 i D NNS i D NNS i D NNS i D Styrene 100-42-5 5600 370 5600 370 5600 370 NNS Sulfides n 100 NNS 100 NNS 100 NNS 100 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (2,3,7,8-TCDD) 1746-01-6 0.01 0.005 0.01 0.005 0.12 0.01 0.1 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 4700 3200 4700 3200 4700 3200 NNS Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 2600 280 6500 680 6500 680 15000 Thallium (as Tl) 7440-28-0 700 D 150 D 700 D 150 D 700 D 150 D NNS Toluene 108-88-3 8700 180 8700 180 8700 180 NNS Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.73 0.0002 0.73 0.02 0.73 0.02 11 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 750 130 1700 300 NNS NNS NNS 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 2600 1600 2600 1600 2600 1600 NNS 1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 18000 12000 18000 12000 18000 12000 NNS Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 20000 1300 20000 1300 20000 1300 NNS 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 160 25 160 25 160 25 3000 2-(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) proprionic acid (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Trihalomethanes, Total NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Uranium (as Ur) 7440-61-1 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Xylenes (Total) 1330-20-7 NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS NNS Zinc (as Zn) 7440-66-6 j D j D j D j D j D j D j D </table>

Footnotes

a. The standard to protect this use is 7 million fibers (longer than 10 micrometers) per liter.

b. Values for ammonia are contained in separate tables located at the end of Appendix A.

c. Cadmium

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(1.128 [ln(Hardness)] - 3.6867)

) * (1.136672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(0.7852 [ln(Hardness)] - 2.715)

) * (1.101672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(1.128 [ln(Hardness)] - 3.6867)

) * (1.136672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(0.7852 [ln(Hardness)] - 2.715)

) * (1.101672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(1.128 [ln(Hardness)] - 3.6867)

) * (1.136672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(0.7852 [ln(Hardness)] - 2.715)

) * (1.101672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(1.128 [ln(Hardness)] - 0.9691)

) * (1.136672-ln(hardness) * (0.041838))

(See Footnote k)

d. Chromium III

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 3.7256)

) * (0.316)

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.6848)

) * (0.86)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 3.7256)

) * (0.316)

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.6848)

) * (0.86)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 3.7256)

) * (0.316)

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.6848)

) * (0.86)

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(0.8190 [ln(Hardness)] + 4.9361)

) * (0.316)

(See Footnote k)

e. Copper

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(0.9422 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.7)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(0.8545 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.702)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(0.9422 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.7)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(0.8545 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.702)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(0.9422 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.7)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(0.8545 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.702)

) * (0.96)

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(0.9422 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.1514)

) * (0.96)

(See Footnote k)

f. Lead

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.460)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 4.705)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.460)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 4.705)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 1.460)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 4.705)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(1.2730 [ln(Hardness)] - 0.7131)

) * (1.46203-ln(hardness) * (0.145712))

(See Footnote k)

g. Nickel

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 2.255)

) * (0.998)

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.0584)

) * (0.997)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 2.255)

) * (0.998)

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.0584)

) * (0.997)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 2.255)

) * (0.998)

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.0584)

) * (0.997)

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(0.8460 [ln(Hardness)] + 4.4389)

) * (0.998)

(See Footnote k)

h. Pentachlorophenol

A&amp;Wc acute standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 4.830)

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 5.290)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 4.830)

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 5.290)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 4.830)

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 5.290)

A&amp;We acute standard: e

(1.005 (pH) - 3.4306)

(See Footnote l)

i. Silver

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(1.72 [ln(Hardness)] - 6.52)

) * (0.85)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(1.72 [ln(Hardness)] - 6.52)

) * (0.85)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(1.72 [ln(Hardness)] - 6.52)

) * (0.85)

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(1.72 [ln(Hardness)] - 6.52)

) * (0.85)

(See Footnote k)

j. Zinc

A&amp;Wc acute standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * (0.978)

A&amp;Wc chronic standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * (0.978)

A&amp;Ww acute standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * 0.978)

A&amp;Ww chronic standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * (0.978)

A&amp;Wedw acute standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * (0.978)

A&amp;Wedw chronic standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 0.884)

) * (0.978)

A&amp;We acute standard: (e

(0.8473 [ln(Hardness)] + 3.1342)

) * (0.978)

(See Footnote k)

k. Hardness, expressed as mg/L CaCO

3

, is inserted into the equation where it says "Hardness." Hardness is determined according to the following criteria:

1. If the receiving water body has an A&amp;Wc or A&amp;Ww designated use, then hardness is based on the hardness of the receiving water body from a sample taken at the same time that the sample for the metal is taken, except that the hardness may not exceed 400 mg / L CaCO

3

.

2. If the receiving water has an A&amp;Wedw or A&amp;We designated use, then the hardness is based on the hardness of the effluent from a sample taken at the same time that the sample for the metal is taken, except that the hardness may not exceed 400 mg / L CaCO

3

.

l. The pH is inserted into the equation where it says "pH". pH is determined according to the following criteria:

1. If the receiving water has an A&amp;Wc or A&amp;Ww designated use, then pH is based on the pH of the receiving water body from a sample taken at the same time that the sample for pentachlorophenol is taken.

2. If the receiving water body has an A&amp;Wedw or A&amp;We designated use, then the pH is based on the pH of the effluent from a sample taken at the same time that the sample for pentachlorophenol is taken.

m. The mathematical equations for the pH-dependent and hardness-dependent parameters represent the water quality standards. Criteria for the hardness-dependent and pH-dependent parameters have been calculated and are presented in separate tables at the end of Appendix A for the convenience of the user.

n. In lakes, the acute criteria for sulfide apply only to water samples taken from the epilimnion, or the upper layer of a lake or reservoir.

o. Bromoform, chloroform, chlorodibromomethane, and dichlorobromomethane are trihalomethanes regulated by the total trihalomethane numeric standard. The total trihalomethane standard is exceeded when the sum of these four compounds exceeds 100 &#181;g / L.

p. The standard to protect this use is 0.003 &#181;g/L aldrin/dieldrin.

&#181;g / L- micrograms per liter

NNS - No numeric standard

D - Dissolved

T - Total recoverable

TTHM - indicates that the chemical is a trihalomethane. See Trihalomethanes, Total for DWS standard.

<table> Table 3. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Cadmium Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 24.56 81 51.39 121 79.40 161 108.18 201 137.55 241 167.40 281 197.64 321 228.24 361 259.14 2 NA 42 25.21 82 52.08 122 80.11 162 108.90 202 138.29 242 168.15 282 198.40 322 229.01 362 259.91 3 NA 43 25.86 83 52.77 123 80.82 163 109.63 203 139.03 243 168.90 283 199.17 323 229.78 363 260.69 4 NA 44 26.51 84 53.46 124 81.53 164 110.36 204 139.77 244 169.65 284 199.93 324 230.54 364 261.46 5 NA 45 27.17 85 54.15 125 82.24 165 111.09 205 140.51 245 170.40 285 200.69 325 231.31 365 262.24 6 NA 46 27.82 86 54.84 126 82.96 166 111.82 206 141.25 246 171.16 286 201.45 326 232.08 366 263.02 7 NA 47 28.48 87 55.53 127 83.67 167 112.55 207 142.00 247 171.91 287 202.21 327 232.85 367 263.79 8 NA 48 29.14 88 56.22 128 84.38 168 113.28 208 142.74 248 172.66 288 202.97 328 233.62 368 264.57 9 NA 49 29.80 89 56.92 129 85.10 169 114.01 209 143.48 249 173.41 289 203.74 329 234.39 369 265.35 10 NA 50 30.46 90 57.61 130 85.81 170 114.74 210 144.22 250 174.17 290 204.50 330 235.16 370 266.13 11 NA 51 31.12 91 58.31 131 86.53 171 115.47 211 144.97 251 174.92 291 205.26 331 235.93 371 266.90 12 NA 52 31.78 92 59.00 132 87.24 172 116.20 212 145.71 252 175.68 292 206.02 332 236.71 372 267.68 13 NA 53 32.44 93 59.70 133 87.96 173 116.93 213 146.46 253 176.43 293 206.79 333 237.48 373 268.46 14 NA 54 33.11 94 60.39 134 88.68 174 117.66 214 147.20 254 177.18 294 207.55 334 238.25 374 269.24 15 NA 55 33.77 95 61.09 135 89.39 175 118.40 215 147.94 255 177.94 295 208.31 335 239.02 375 270.02 16 NA 56 34.44 96 61.79 136 90.11 176 119.13 216 148.69 256 178.69 296 209.08 336 239.79 376 270.79 17 NA 57 35.11 97 62.48 137 90.83 177 119.86 217 149.43 257 179.45 297 209.84 337 240.56 377 271.57 18 NA 58 35.78 98 63.18 138 91.55 178 120.59 218 150.18 258 180.21 298 210.61 338 241.33 378 272.35 19 NA 59 36.45 99 63.88 139 92.26 179 121.33 219 150.93 259 180.96 299 211.37 339 242.11 379 273.13 20 NA 60 37.12 100 64.58 140 92.98 180 122.06 220 151.67 260 181.72 300 212.13 340 242.88 380 273.91 21 NA 61 37.79 101 65.28 141 93.70 181 122.80 221 152.42 261 182.47 301 212.90 341 243.65 381 274.69 22 NA 62 38.46 102 65.98 142 94.42 182 123.53 222 153.16 262 183.23 302 213.66 342 244.42 382 275.47 23 NA 63 39.13 103 66.68 143 95.14 183 124.27 223 153.91 263 183.99 303 214.43 343 245.20 383 276.25 24 NA 64 39.81 104 67.38 144 95.86 184 125.00 224 154.66 264 184.74 304 215.20 344 245.97 384 277.03 25 14.35 65 40.48 105 68.09 145 96.58 185 125.74 225 155.40 265 185.50 305 215.96 345 246.74 385 277.81 26 14.98 66 41.16 106 68.79 146 97.31 186 126.47 226 156.15 266 186.26 306 216.73 346 247.51 386 278.59 27 15.60 67 41.84 107 69.49 147 98.03 187 127.21 227 156.90 267 187.01 307 217.49 347 248.29 387 279.37 28 16.23 68 42.51 108 70.20 148 98.75 188 127.95 228 157.65 268 187.77 308 218.26 348 249.06 388 280.15 29 16.86 69 43.19 109 70.90 149 99.47 189 128.68 229 158.40 269 188.53 309 219.03 349 249.84 389 280.93 30 17.49 70 43.87 110 71.61 150 100.20 190 129.42 230 159.14 270 189.29 310 219.79 350 250.61 390 281.71 31 18.13 71 44.55 111 72.31 151 100.92 191 130.16 231 159.89 271 190.05 311 220.56 351 251.38 391 282.49 32 18.76 72 45.23 112 73.02 152 101.64 192 130.89 232 160.64 272 190.81 312 221.33 352 252.16 392 283.27 33 19.40 73 45.91 113 73.72 153 102.37 193 131.63 233 161.39 273 191.56 313 222.09 353 252.93 393 284.05 34 20.04 74 46.60 114 74.43 154 103.09 194 132.37 234 162.14 274 192.32 314 222.86 354 253.71 394 284.83 35 20.68 75 47.28 115 75.14 155 103.82 195 133.11 235 162.89 275 193.08 315 223.63 355 254.48 395 285.61 36 21.32 76 47.96 116 75.85 156 104.54 196 133.85 236 163.64 276 193.84 316 224.40 356 255.26 396 286.40 37 21.97 77 48.65 117 76.56 157 105.27 197 134.59 237 164.39 277 194.60 317 225.16 357 256.03 397 287.18 38 22.61 78 49.33 118 77.27 158 106.00 198 135.33 238 165.14 278 195.36 318 225.93 358 256.81 398 287.96 39 23.26 79 50.02 119 77.97 159 106.72 199 136.07 239 165.89 279 196.12 319 226.70 359 257.58 399 288.74 40 23.91 80 50.71 120 78.68 160 107.45 200 136.81 240 166.64 280 196.88 320 227.47 360 258.36 400 289.52 </table>

<table> Table 4. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Cadmium Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater, and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 1.62 81 3.39 121 5.24 161 7.14 201 9.08 241 11.05 281 13.05 321 15.07 361 17.11 2 NA 42 1.66 82 3.44 122 5.29 162 7.19 202 9.13 242 11.10 282 13.10 322 15.12 362 17.16 3 NA 43 1.71 83 3.48 123 5.34 163 7.24 203 9.18 243 11.15 283 13.15 323 15.17 363 17.21 4 NA 44 1.75 84 3.53 124 5.38 164 7.29 204 9.23 244 11.20 284 13.20 324 15.22 364 17.27 5 NA 45 1.79 85 3.58 125 5.43 165 7.34 205 9.28 245 11.25 285 13.25 325 15.27 365 17.32 6 NA 46 1.84 86 3.62 126 5.48 166 7.38 206 9.33 246 11.30 286 13.30 326 15.33 366 17.37 7 NA 47 1.88 87 3.67 127 5.52 167 7.43 207 9.38 247 11.35 287 13.35 327 15.38 367 17.42 8 NA 48 1.92 88 3.71 128 5.57 168 7.48 208 9.43 248 11.40 288 13.40 328 15.43 368 17.47 9 NA 49 1.97 89 3.76 129 5.62 169 7.53 209 9.47 249 11.45 289 13.45 329 15.48 369 17.52 10 NA 50 2.01 90 3.80 130 5.67 170 7.58 210 9.52 250 11.50 290 13.50 330 15.53 370 17.57 11 NA 51 2.05 91 3.85 131 5.71 171 7.62 211 9.57 251 11.55 291 13.55 331 15.58 371 17.62 12 NA 52 2.10 92 3.90 132 5.76 172 7.67 212 9.62 252 11.60 292 13.60 332 15.63 372 17.68 13 NA 53 2.14 93 3.94 133 5.81 173 7.72 213 9.67 253 11.65 293 13.65 333 15.68 373 17.73 14 NA 54 2.19 94 3.99 134 5.86 174 7.77 214 9.72 254 11.70 294 13.71 334 15.73 374 17.78 15 NA 55 2.23 95 4.03 135 5.90 175 7.82 215 9.77 255 11.75 295 13.76 335 15.78 375 17.83 16 NA 56 2.27 96 4.08 136 5.95 176 7.87 216 9.82 256 11.80 296 13.81 336 15.83 376 17.88 17 NA 57 2.32 97 4.13 137 6.00 177 7.91 217 9.87 257 11.85 297 13.86 337 15.89 377 17.93 18 NA 58 2.36 98 4.17 138 6.05 178 7.96 218 9.92 258 11.90 298 13.91 338 15.94 378 17.98 19 NA 59 2.41 99 4.22 139 6.09 179 8.01 219 9.97 259 11.95 299 13.96 339 15.99 379 18.04 20 NA 60 2.45 100 4.26 140 6.14 180 8.06 220 10.02 260 12.00 300 14.01 340 16.04 380 18.09 21 NA 61 2.50 101 4.31 141 6.19 181 8.11 221 10.06 261 12.05 301 14.06 341 16.09 381 18.14 22 NA 62 2.54 102 4.36 142 6.24 182 8.16 222 10.11 262 12.10 302 14.11 342 16.14 382 18.19 23 NA 63 2.58 103 4.40 143 6.28 183 8.21 223 10.16 263 12.15 303 14.16 343 16.19 383 18.24 24 NA 64 2.63 104 4.45 144 6.33 184 8.25 224 10.21 264 12.20 304 14.21 344 16.24 384 18.29 25 0.95 65 2.67 105 4.50 145 6.38 185 8.30 225 10.26 265 12.25 305 14.26 345 16.29 385 18.34 26 0.99 66 2.72 106 4.54 146 6.43 186 8.35 226 10.31 266 12.30 306 14.31 346 16.34 386 18.40 27 1.03 67 2.76 107 4.59 147 6.47 187 8.40 227 10.36 267 12.35 307 14.36 347 16.40 387 18.45 28 1.07 68 2.81 108 4.64 148 6.52 188 8.45 228 10.41 268 12.40 308 14.41 348 16.45 388 18.50 29 1.11 69 2.85 109 4.68 149 6.57 189 8.50 229 10.46 269 12.45 309 14.46 349 16.50 389 18.55 30 1.16 70 2.90 110 4.73 150 6.62 190 8.55 230 10.51 270 12.50 310 14.51 350 16.55 390 18.60 31 1.20 71 2.94 111 4.77 151 6.66 191 8.59 231 10.56 271 12.55 311 14.56 351 16.60 391 18.65 32 1.24 72 2.99 112 4.82 152 6.71 192 8.64 232 10.61 272 12.60 312 14.61 352 16.65 392 18.71 33 1.28 73 3.03 113 4.87 153 6.76 193 8.69 233 10.66 273 12.65 313 14.67 353 16.70 393 18.76 34 1.32 74 3.08 114 4.91 154 6.81 194 8.74 234 10.71 274 12.70 314 14.72 354 16.75 394 18.81 35 1.37 75 3.12 115 4.96 155 6.86 195 8.79 235 10.76 275 12.75 315 14.77 355 16.80 395 18.86 36 1.41 76 3.17 116 5.01 156 6.90 196 8.84 236 10.81 276 12.80 316 14.82 356 16.86 396 18.91 37 1.45 77 3.21 117 5.06 157 6.95 197 8.89 237 10.86 277 12.85 317 14.87 357 16.91 397 18.96 38 1.49 78 3.26 118 5.10 158 7.00 198 8.94 238 10.90 278 12.90 318 14.92 358 16.96 398 19.01 39 1.54 79 3.30 119 5.15 159 7.05 199 8.98 239 10.95 279 12.95 319 14.97 359 17.01 399 19.07 40 1.58 80 3.35 120 5.20 160 7.10 200 9.03 240 11.00 280 13.00 320 15.02 360 17.06 400 19.12 </table>

<table> Table 5. Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Cadmium Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 1.16 81 1.92 121 2.58 161 3.18 201 3.75 241 4.28 281 4.80 321 5.29 361 5.77 2 NA 42 1.18 82 1.93 122 2.59 162 3.20 202 3.76 242 4.30 282 4.81 322 5.30 362 5.78 3 NA 43 1.20 83 1.95 123 2.61 163 3.21 203 3.77 243 4.31 283 4.82 323 5.32 363 5.79 4 NA 44 1.22 84 1.97 124 2.62 164 3.23 204 3.79 244 4.32 284 4.84 324 5.33 364 5.81 5 NA 45 1.24 85 1.98 125 2.64 165 3.24 205 3.80 245 4.34 285 4.85 325 5.34 365 5.82 6 NA 46 1.26 86 2.00 126 2.65 166 3.25 206 3.82 246 4.35 286 4.86 326 5.35 366 5.83 7 NA 47 1.28 87 2.02 127 2.67 167 3.27 207 3.83 247 4.36 287 4.87 327 5.36 367 5.84 8 NA 48 1.30 88 2.04 128 2.69 168 3.28 208 3.84 248 4.38 288 4.89 328 5.38 368 5.85 9 NA 49 1.32 89 2.05 129 2.70 169 3.30 209 3.86 249 4.39 289 4.90 329 5.39 369 5.86 10 NA 50 1.34 90 2.07 130 2.72 170 3.31 210 3.87 250 4.40 290 4.91 330 5.40 370 5.88 11 NA 51 1.36 91 2.09 131 2.73 171 3.33 211 3.88 251 4.41 291 4.92 331 5.41 371 5.89 12 NA 52 1.38 92 2.10 132 2.75 172 3.34 212 3.90 252 4.43 292 4.94 332 5.42 372 5.90 13 NA 53 1.40 93 2.12 133 2.76 173 3.35 213 3.91 253 4.44 293 4.95 333 5.44 373 5.91 14 NA 54 1.42 94 2.14 134 2.78 174 3.37 214 3.92 254 4.45 294 4.96 334 5.45 374 5.92 15 NA 55 1.44 95 2.15 135 2.79 175 3.38 215 3.94 255 4.47 295 4.97 335 5.46 375 5.93 16 NA 56 1.46 96 2.17 136 2.81 176 3.40 216 3.95 256 4.48 296 4.98 336 5.47 376 5.95 17 NA 57 1.48 97 2.19 137 2.82 177 3.41 217 3.97 257 4.49 297 5.00 337 5.48 377 5.96 18 NA 58 1.50 98 2.20 138 2.84 178 3.43 218 3.98 258 4.50 298 5.01 338 5.50 378 5.97 19 NA 59 1.51 99 2.22 139 2.85 179 3.44 219 3.99 259 4.52 299 5.02 339 5.51 379 5.98 20 NA 60 1.53 100 2.24 140 2.87 180 3.45 220 4.01 260 4.53 300 5.03 340 5.52 380 5.99 21 NA 61 1.55 101 2.25 141 2.88 181 3.47 221 4.02 261 4.54 301 5.05 341 5.53 381 6.00 22 NA 62 1.57 102 2.27 142 2.90 182 3.48 222 4.03 262 4.56 302 5.06 342 5.54 382 6.02 23 NA 63 1.59 103 2.29 143 2.91 183 3.50 223 4.05 263 4.57 303 5.07 343 5.56 383 6.03 24 NA 64 1.61 104 2.30 144 2.93 184 3.51 224 4.06 264 4.58 304 5.08 344 5.57 384 6.04 25 0.80 65 1.63 105 2.32 145 2.94 185 3.53 225 4.07 265 4.59 305 5.10 345 5.58 385 6.05 26 0.83 66 1.65 106 2.34 146 2.96 186 3.54 226 4.09 266 4.61 306 5.11 346 5.59 386 6.06 27 0.85 67 1.66 107 2.35 147 2.97 187 3.55 227 4.10 267 4.62 307 5.12 347 5.60 387 6.07 28 0.87 68 1.68 108 2.37 148 2.99 188 3.57 228 4.11 268 4.63 308 5.13 348 5.62 388 6.08 29 0.89 69 1.70 109 2.39 149 3.00 189 3.58 229 4.13 269 4.65 309 5.15 349 5.63 389 6.10 30 0.92 70 1.72 110 2.40 150 3.02 190 3.60 230 4.14 270 4.66 310 5.16 350 5.64 390 6.11 31 0.94 71 1.74 111 2.42 151 3.03 191 3.61 231 4.15 271 4.67 311 5.17 351 5.65 391 6.12 32 0.96 72 1.76 112 2.43 152 3.05 192 3.62 232 4.17 272 4.68 312 5.18 352 5.66 392 6.13 33 0.98 73 1.77 113 2.45 153 3.06 193 3.64 233 4.18 273 4.70 313 5.19 353 5.68 393 6.14 34 1.01 74 1.79 114 2.47 154 3.08 194 3.65 234 4.19 274 4.71 314 5.21 354 5.69 394 6.15 35 1.03 75 1.81 115 2.48 155 3.09 195 3.66 235 4.21 275 4.72 315 5.22 355 5.70 395 6.17 36 1.05 76 1.83 116 2.50 156 3.11 196 3.68 236 4.22 276 4.73 316 5.23 356 5.71 396 6.18 37 1.07 77 1.84 117 2.51 157 3.12 197 3.69 237 4.23 277 4.75 317 5.24 357 5.72 397 6.19 38 1.09 78 1.86 118 2.53 158 3.14 198 3.71 238 4.24 278 4.76 318 5.26 358 5.73 398 6.20 39 1.11 79 1.88 119 2.54 159 3.15 199 3.72 239 4.26 279 4.77 319 5.27 359 5.75 399 6.21 40 1.14 80 1.90 120 2.56 160 3.17 200 3.73 240 4.27 280 4.78 320 5.28 360 5.76 400 6.22 </table>

<table> Table 6. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Chromium III Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 921 81 1609 121 2235 161 2824 201 3386 241 3929 281 4456 321 4969 361 5470 2 NA 42 939 82 1625 122 2250 162 2838 202 3400 242 3942 282 4469 322 4981 362 5483 3 NA 43 958 83 1641 123 2265 163 2852 203 3414 243 3956 283 4481 323 4994 363 5495 4 NA 44 976 84 1657 124 2280 164 2867 204 3428 244 3969 284 4494 324 5007 364 5507 5 NA 45 994 85 1673 125 2295 165 2881 205 3441 245 3982 285 4507 325 5019 365 5520 6 NA 46 1012 86 1690 126 2310 166 2895 206 3455 246 3996 286 4520 326 5032 366 5532 7 NA 47 1030 87 1706 127 2325 167 2909 207 3469 247 4009 287 4533 327 5045 367 5545 8 NA 48 1048 88 1722 128 2340 168 2924 208 3483 248 4022 288 4546 328 5057 368 5557 9 NA 49 1066 89 1738 129 2355 169 2938 209 3496 249 4035 289 4559 329 5070 369 5569 10 NA 50 1084 90 1754 130 2370 170 2952 210 3510 250 4049 290 4572 330 5082 370 5582 11 NA 51 1101 91 1770 131 2385 171 2966 211 3524 251 4062 291 4585 331 5095 371 5594 12 NA 52 1119 92 1785 132 2400 172 2981 212 3537 252 4075 292 4598 332 5108 372 5606 13 NA 53 1137 93 1801 133 2415 173 2995 213 3551 253 4088 293 4611 333 5120 373 5619 14 NA 54 1154 94 1817 134 2429 174 3009 214 3565 254 4102 294 4624 334 5133 374 5631 15 NA 55 1172 95 1833 135 2444 175 3023 215 3578 255 4115 295 4637 335 5145 375 5643 16 NA 56 1189 96 1849 136 2459 176 3037 216 3592 256 4128 296 4649 336 5158 376 5656 17 NA 57 1206 97 1865 137 2474 177 3051 217 3606 257 4141 297 4662 337 5171 377 5668 18 NA 58 1224 98 1880 138 2489 178 3066 218 3619 258 4155 298 4675 338 5183 378 5680 19 NA 59 1241 99 1896 139 2503 179 3080 219 3633 259 4168 299 4688 339 5196 379 5693 20 NA 60 1258 100 1912 140 2518 180 3094 220 3646 260 4181 300 4701 340 5208 380 5705 21 NA 61 1275 101 1927 141 2533 181 3108 221 3660 261 4194 301 4714 341 5221 381 5717 22 NA 62 1292 102 1943 142 2548 182 3122 222 3673 262 4207 302 4726 342 5233 382 5730 23 NA 63 1309 103 1958 143 2562 183 3136 223 3687 263 4220 303 4739 343 5246 383 5742 24 NA 64 1326 104 1974 144 2577 184 3150 224 3701 264 4234 304 4752 344 5258 384 5754 25 614 65 1343 105 1990 145 2592 185 3164 225 3714 265 4247 305 4765 345 5271 385 5766 26 634 66 1360 106 2005 146 2606 186 3178 226 3728 266 4260 306 4778 346 5283 386 5779 27 654 67 1377 107 2021 147 2621 187 3192 227 3741 267 4273 307 4790 347 5296 387 5791 28 674 68 1394 108 2036 148 2635 188 3206 228 3755 268 4286 308 4803 348 5308 388 5803 29 694 69 1411 109 2051 149 2650 189 3220 229 3768 269 4299 309 4816 349 5321 389 5815 30 713 70 1427 110 2067 150 2665 190 3234 230 3781 270 4312 310 4829 350 5333 390 5828 31 733 71 1444 111 2082 151 2679 191 3248 231 3795 271 4325 311 4841 351 5346 391 5840 32 752 72 1461 112 2098 152 2694 192 3262 232 3808 272 4338 312 4854 352 5358 392 5852 33 771 73 1477 113 2113 153 2708 193 3276 233 3822 273 4351 313 4867 353 5371 393 5864 34 790 74 1494 114 2128 154 2723 194 3289 234 3835 274 4364 314 4880 354 5383 394 5877 35 809 75 1510 115 2143 155 2737 195 3303 235 3849 275 4377 315 4892 355 5396 395 5889 36 828 76 1527 116 2159 156 2752 196 3317 236 3862 276 4390 316 4905 356 5408 396 5901 37 847 77 1543 117 2174 157 2766 197 3331 237 3875 277 4404 317 4918 357 5421 397 5913 38 865 78 1560 118 2189 158 2780 198 3345 238 3889 278 4417 318 4931 358 5433 398 5925 39 884 79 1576 119 2204 159 2795 199 3359 239 3902 279 4430 319 4943 359 5445 399 5938 40 903 80 1592 120 2220 160 2809 200 3372 240 3916 280 4443 320 4956 360 5458 400 5950 </table>

<table> Table 7. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Chromium III Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 275 81 479 121 666 161 842 201 1009 241 1171 281 1328 321 1481 361 1630 2 NA 42 280 82 484 122 671 162 846 202 1013 242 1175 282 1332 322 1485 362 1634 3 NA 43 285 83 489 123 675 163 850 203 1017 243 1179 283 1336 323 1488 363 1638 4 NA 44 291 84 494 124 680 164 854 204 1022 244 1183 284 1340 324 1492 364 1641 5 NA 45 296 85 499 125 684 165 859 205 1026 245 1187 285 1343 325 1496 365 1645 6 NA 46 302 86 504 126 688 166 863 206 1030 246 1191 286 1347 326 1500 366 1649 7 NA 47 307 87 508 127 693 167 867 207 1034 247 1195 287 1351 327 1504 367 1653 8 NA 48 312 88 513 128 697 168 871 208 1038 248 1199 288 1355 328 1507 368 1656 9 NA 49 318 89 518 129 702 169 876 209 1042 249 1203 289 1359 329 1511 369 1660 10 NA 50 323 90 523 130 706 170 880 210 1046 250 1207 290 1363 330 1515 370 1664 11 NA 51 328 91 527 131 711 171 884 211 1050 251 1211 291 1367 331 1519 371 1667 12 NA 52 334 92 532 132 715 172 888 212 1054 252 1215 292 1370 332 1522 372 1671 13 NA 53 339 93 537 133 720 173 893 213 1058 253 1219 293 1374 333 1526 373 1675 14 NA 54 344 94 542 134 724 174 897 214 1062 254 1223 294 1378 334 1530 374 1678 15 NA 55 349 95 546 135 729 175 901 215 1067 255 1226 295 1382 335 1534 375 1682 16 NA 56 354 96 551 136 733 176 905 216 1071 256 1230 296 1386 336 1537 376 1686 17 NA 57 360 97 556 137 737 177 909 217 1075 257 1234 297 1390 337 1541 377 1689 18 NA 58 365 98 560 138 742 178 914 218 1079 258 1238 298 1393 338 1545 378 1693 19 NA 59 370 99 565 139 746 179 918 219 1083 259 1242 299 1397 339 1549 379 1697 20 NA 60 375 100 570 140 751 180 922 220 1087 260 1246 300 1401 340 1552 380 1700 21 NA 61 380 101 574 141 755 181 926 221 1091 261 1250 301 1405 341 1556 381 1704 22 NA 62 385 102 579 142 759 182 930 222 1095 262 1254 302 1409 342 1560 382 1708 23 NA 63 390 103 584 143 764 183 935 223 1099 263 1258 303 1413 343 1564 383 1711 24 NA 64 395 104 588 144 768 184 939 224 1103 264 1262 304 1416 344 1567 384 1715 25 183 65 400 105 593 145 772 185 943 225 1107 265 1266 305 1420 345 1571 385 1719 26 189 66 405 106 598 146 777 186 947 226 1111 266 1270 306 1424 346 1575 386 1722 27 195 67 410 107 602 147 781 187 951 227 1115 267 1274 307 1428 347 1578 387 1726 28 201 68 415 108 607 148 785 188 955 228 1119 268 1277 308 1432 348 1582 388 1730 29 207 69 420 109 611 149 790 189 960 229 1123 269 1281 309 1435 349 1586 389 1733 30 213 70 425 110 616 150 794 190 964 230 1127 270 1285 310 1439 350 1590 390 1737 31 218 71 430 111 621 151 799 191 968 231 1131 271 1289 311 1443 351 1593 391 1741 32 224 72 435 112 625 152 803 192 972 232 1135 272 1293 312 1447 352 1597 392 1744 33 230 73 440 113 630 153 807 193 976 233 1139 273 1297 313 1451 353 1601 393 1748 34 235 74 445 114 634 154 811 194 980 234 1143 274 1301 314 1454 354 1604 394 1751 35 241 75 450 115 639 155 816 195 985 235 1147 275 1305 315 1458 355 1608 395 1755 36 247 76 455 116 643 156 820 196 989 236 1151 276 1309 316 1462 356 1612 396 1759 37 252 77 460 117 648 157 824 197 993 237 1155 277 1312 317 1466 357 1616 397 1762 38 258 78 465 118 652 158 829 198 997 238 1159 278 1316 318 1470 358 1619 398 1766 39 263 79 470 119 657 159 833 199 1001 239 1163 279 1320 319 1473 359 1623 399 1770 40 269 80 475 120 662 160 837 200 1005 240 1167 280 1324 320 1477 360 1627 400 1773 </table>

<table> Table 8. Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Chromium III Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 35.71 81 62.37 121 86.64 161 109.47 201 131.29 241 152.33 281 172.74 321 192.63 361 212.08 2 NA 42 36.42 82 63.00 122 87.22 162 110.03 202 131.82 242 152.84 282 173.24 322 193.12 362 212.56 3 NA 43 37.13 83 63.63 123 87.81 163 110.58 203 132.36 243 153.36 283 173.75 323 193.62 363 213.04 4 NA 44 37.83 84 64.25 124 88.39 164 111.14 204 132.89 244 153.88 284 174.25 324 194.11 364 213.52 5 NA 45 38.54 85 64.88 125 88.98 165 111.69 205 133.42 245 154.39 285 174.75 325 194.60 365 214.00 6 NA 46 39.24 86 65.50 126 89.56 166 112.25 206 133.96 246 154.91 286 175.25 326 195.09 366 214.48 7 NA 47 39.93 87 66.13 127 90.14 167 112.80 207 134.49 247 155.43 287 175.76 327 195.58 367 214.96 8 NA 48 40.63 88 66.75 128 90.72 168 113.35 208 135.02 248 155.94 288 176.26 328 196.07 368 215.44 9 NA 49 41.32 89 67.37 129 91.30 169 113.90 209 135.55 249 156.46 289 176.76 329 196.56 369 215.92 10 NA 50 42.01 90 67.99 130 91.88 170 114.46 210 136.08 250 156.97 290 177.26 330 197.05 370 216.40 11 NA 51 42.70 91 68.61 131 92.46 171 115.01 211 136.61 251 157.48 291 177.76 331 197.53 371 216.88 12 NA 52 43.38 92 69.22 132 93.04 172 115.56 212 137.14 252 158.00 292 178.26 332 198.02 372 217.36 13 NA 53 44.06 93 69.84 133 93.61 173 116.11 213 137.67 253 158.51 293 178.76 333 198.51 373 217.84 14 NA 54 44.74 94 70.45 134 94.19 174 116.66 214 138.20 254 159.02 294 179.26 334 199.00 374 218.32 15 NA 55 45.42 95 71.07 135 94.76 175 117.21 215 138.73 255 159.54 295 179.76 335 199.49 375 218.79 16 NA 56 46.10 96 71.68 136 95.34 176 117.75 216 139.26 256 160.05 296 180.26 336 199.97 376 219.27 17 NA 57 46.77 97 72.29 137 95.91 177 118.30 217 139.79 257 160.56 297 180.76 337 200.46 377 219.75 18 NA 58 47.44 98 72.90 138 96.49 178 118.85 218 140.31 258 161.07 298 181.25 338 200.95 378 220.23 19 NA 59 48.11 99 73.51 139 97.06 179 119.40 219 140.84 259 161.58 299 181.75 339 201.44 379 220.70 20 NA 60 48.78 100 74.11 140 97.63 180 119.94 220 141.37 260 162.09 300 182.25 340 201.92 380 221.18 21 NA 61 49.44 101 74.72 141 98.20 181 120.49 221 141.89 261 162.60 301 182.75 341 202.41 381 221.66 22 NA 62 50.10 102 75.33 142 98.77 182 121.03 222 142.42 262 163.11 302 183.24 342 202.89 382 222.13 23 NA 63 50.76 103 75.93 143 99.34 183 121.58 223 142.94 263 163.62 303 183.74 343 203.38 383 222.61 24 NA 64 51.42 104 76.53 144 99.91 184 122.12 224 143.47 264 164.13 304 184.24 344 203.87 384 223.09 25 23.81 65 52.08 105 77.14 145 100.48 185 122.66 225 143.99 265 164.64 305 184.73 345 204.35 385 223.56 26 24.59 66 52.74 106 77.74 146 101.04 186 123.21 226 144.52 266 165.15 306 185.23 346 204.84 386 224.04 27 25.36 67 53.39 107 78.34 147 101.61 187 123.75 227 145.04 267 165.66 307 185.72 347 205.32 387 224.51 28 26.13 68 54.04 108 78.94 148 102.18 188 124.29 228 145.56 268 166.17 308 186.22 348 205.81 388 224.99 29 26.89 69 54.69 109 79.53 149 102.74 189 124.83 229 146.09 269 166.67 309 186.72 349 206.29 389 225.46 30 27.65 70 55.34 110 80.13 150 103.31 190 125.37 230 146.61 270 167.18 310 187.21 350 206.77 390 225.94 31 28.40 71 55.99 111 80.73 151 103.87 191 125.91 231 147.13 271 167.69 311 187.70 351 207.26 391 226.41 32 29.15 72 56.63 112 81.32 152 104.43 192 126.45 232 147.65 272 168.20 312 188.20 352 207.74 392 226.88 33 29.89 73 57.27 113 81.92 153 104.99 193 126.99 233 148.17 273 168.70 313 188.69 353 208.22 393 227.36 34 30.63 74 57.92 114 82.51 154 105.56 194 127.53 234 148.69 274 169.21 314 189.19 354 208.71 394 227.83 35 31.37 75 58.56 115 83.10 155 106.12 195 128.07 235 149.21 275 169.71 315 189.68 355 209.19 395 228.31 36 32.10 76 59.20 116 83.69 156 106.68 196 128.61 236 149.73 276 170.22 316 190.17 356 209.67 396 228.78 37 32.83 77 59.83 117 84.28 157 107.24 197 129.14 237 150.25 277 170.72 317 190.66 357 210.15 397 229.25 38 33.55 78 60.47 118 84.87 158 107.80 198 129.68 238 150.77 278 171.23 318 191.16 358 210.64 398 229.72 39 34.28 79 61.10 119 85.46 159 108.35 199 130.22 239 151.29 279 171.73 319 191.65 359 211.12 399 230.20 40 34.99 80 61.74 120 86.05 160 108.91 200 130.75 240 151.81 280 172.24 320 192.14 360 211.60 400 230.67 </table>

<table> Table 9. Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Copper Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 4.18 81 7.48 121 10.54 161 13.45 201 16.26 241 18.99 281 21.65 321 24.26 361 26.82 2 NA 42 4.27 82 7.56 122 10.61 162 13.52 202 16.33 242 19.06 282 21.72 322 24.33 362 26.89 3 NA 43 4.35 83 7.64 123 10.69 163 13.60 203 16.40 243 19.13 283 21.78 323 24.39 363 26.95 4 NA 44 4.44 84 7.72 124 10.76 164 13.67 204 16.47 244 19.19 284 21.85 324 24.45 364 27.01 5 NA 45 4.53 85 7.79 125 10.84 165 13.74 205 16.54 245 19.26 285 21.92 325 24.52 365 27.08 6 NA 46 4.61 86 7.87 126 10.91 166 13.81 206 16.61 246 19.33 286 21.98 326 24.58 366 27.14 7 NA 47 4.70 87 7.95 127 10.99 167 13.88 207 16.68 247 19.39 287 22.05 327 24.65 367 27.20 8 NA 48 4.78 88 8.03 128 11.06 168 13.95 208 16.75 248 19.46 288 22.11 328 24.71 368 27.27 9 NA 49 4.87 89 8.11 129 11.13 169 14.02 209 16.81 249 19.53 289 22.18 329 24.78 369 27.33 10 NA 50 4.95 90 8.18 130 11.21 170 14.09 210 16.88 250 19.59 290 22.24 330 24.84 370 27.39 11 NA 51 5.04 91 8.26 131 11.28 171 14.16 211 16.95 251 19.66 291 22.31 331 24.91 371 27.46 12 NA 52 5.12 92 8.34 132 11.35 172 14.24 212 17.02 252 19.73 292 22.38 332 24.97 372 27.52 13 NA 53 5.21 93 8.42 133 11.43 173 14.31 213 17.09 253 19.80 293 22.44 333 25.03 373 27.58 14 NA 54 5.29 94 8.49 134 11.50 174 14.38 214 17.16 254 19.86 294 22.51 334 25.10 374 27.65 15 NA 55 5.37 95 8.57 135 11.57 175 14.45 215 17.23 255 19.93 295 22.57 335 25.16 375 27.71 16 NA 56 5.46 96 8.65 136 11.65 176 14.52 216 17.29 256 20.00 296 22.64 336 25.23 376 27.77 17 NA 57 5.54 97 8.73 137 11.72 177 14.59 217 17.36 257 20.06 297 22.70 337 25.29 377 27.83 18 NA 58 5.62 98 8.80 138 11.79 178 14.66 218 17.43 258 20.13 298 22.77 338 25.35 378 27.90 19 NA 59 5.71 99 8.88 139 11.87 179 14.73 219 17.50 259 20.20 299 22.83 339 25.42 379 27.96 20 NA 60 5.79 100 8.96 140 11.94 180 14.80 220 17.57 260 20.26 300 22.90 340 25.48 380 28.02 21 NA 61 5.87 101 9.03 141 12.01 181 14.87 221 17.64 261 20.33 301 22.96 341 25.55 381 28.09 22 NA 62 5.95 102 9.11 142 12.08 182 14.94 222 17.70 262 20.40 302 23.03 342 25.61 382 28.15 23 NA 63 6.03 103 9.18 143 12.16 183 15.01 223 17.77 263 20.46 303 23.09 343 25.68 383 28.21 24 NA 64 6.12 104 9.26 144 12.23 184 15.08 224 17.84 264 20.53 304 23.16 344 25.74 384 28.28 25 2.74 65 6.20 105 9.34 145 12.30 185 15.15 225 17.91 265 20.60 305 23.22 345 25.80 385 28.34 26 2.83 66 6.28 106 9.41 146 12.37 186 15.22 226 17.98 266 20.66 306 23.29 346 25.87 386 28.40 27 2.93 67 6.36 107 9.49 147 12.45 187 15.29 227 18.04 267 20.73 307 23.35 347 25.93 387 28.46 28 3.02 68 6.44 108 9.56 148 12.52 188 15.36 228 18.11 268 20.79 308 23.42 348 25.99 388 28.53 29 3.11 69 6.52 109 9.64 149 12.59 189 15.43 229 18.18 269 20.86 309 23.48 349 26.06 389 28.59 30 3.20 70 6.60 110 9.72 150 12.66 190 15.50 230 18.25 270 20.93 310 23.55 350 26.12 390 28.65 31 3.29 71 6.68 111 9.79 151 12.74 191 15.57 231 18.32 271 20.99 311 23.61 351 26.19 391 28.72 32 3.38 72 6.76 112 9.87 152 12.81 192 15.64 232 18.38 272 21.06 312 23.68 352 26.25 392 28.78 33 3.47 73 6.84 113 9.94 153 12.88 193 15.71 233 18.45 273 21.13 313 23.74 353 26.31 393 28.84 34 3.56 74 6.92 114 10.02 154 12.95 194 15.78 234 18.52 274 21.19 314 23.81 354 26.38 394 28.90 35 3.65 75 7.00 115 10.09 155 13.02 195 15.85 235 18.59 275 21.26 315 23.87 355 26.44 395 28.97 36 3.74 76 7.08 116 10.17 156 13.10 196 15.92 236 18.65 276 21.32 316 23.94 356 26.50 396 29.03 37 3.83 77 7.16 117 10.24 157 13.17 197 15.99 237 18.72 277 21.39 317 24.00 357 26.57 397 29.09 38 3.92 78 7.24 118 10.32 158 13.24 198 16.05 238 18.79 278 21.46 318 24.07 358 26.63 398 29.15 39 4.01 79 7.32 119 10.39 159 13.31 199 16.12 239 18.86 279 21.52 319 24.13 359 26.70 399 29.22 40 4.09 80 7.40 120 10.47 160 13.38 200 16.19 240 18.92 280 21.59 320 24.20 360 26.76 400 29.28 </table>

<table> Table 10. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Copper Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 10.04 81 19.07 121 27.84 161 36.43 201 44.91 241 53.28 281 61.57 321 69.80 361 77.97 2 NA 42 10.27 82 19.29 122 28.05 162 36.65 202 45.12 242 53.49 282 61.78 322 70.00 362 78.17 3 NA 43 10.50 83 19.52 123 28.27 163 36.86 203 45.33 243 53.70 283 61.99 323 70.21 363 78.37 4 NA 44 10.73 84 19.74 124 28.49 164 37.07 204 45.54 244 53.90 284 62.19 324 70.41 364 78.58 5 NA 45 10.96 85 19.96 125 28.70 165 37.29 205 45.75 245 54.11 285 62.40 325 70.62 365 78.78 6 NA 46 11.19 86 20.18 126 28.92 166 37.50 206 45.96 246 54.32 286 62.61 326 70.82 366 78.98 7 NA 47 11.42 87 20.40 127 29.14 167 37.71 207 46.17 247 54.53 287 62.81 327 71.03 367 79.19 8 NA 48 11.65 88 20.62 128 29.35 168 37.92 208 46.38 248 54.74 288 63.02 328 71.23 368 79.39 9 NA 49 11.88 89 20.84 129 29.57 169 38.14 209 46.59 249 54.94 289 63.22 329 71.44 369 79.59 10 NA 50 12.11 90 21.06 130 29.78 170 38.35 210 46.80 250 55.15 290 63.43 330 71.64 370 79.80 11 NA 51 12.33 91 21.28 131 30.00 171 38.56 211 47.01 251 55.36 291 63.64 331 71.85 371 80.00 12 NA 52 12.56 92 21.50 132 30.22 172 38.77 212 47.22 252 55.57 292 63.84 332 72.05 372 80.20 13 NA 53 12.79 93 21.72 133 30.43 173 38.99 213 47.43 253 55.78 293 64.05 333 72.26 373 80.41 14 NA 54 13.02 94 21.94 134 30.65 174 39.20 214 47.64 254 55.98 294 64.25 334 72.46 374 80.61 15 NA 55 13.24 95 22.16 135 30.86 175 39.41 215 47.85 255 56.19 295 64.46 335 72.66 375 80.81 16 NA 56 13.47 96 22.38 136 31.08 176 39.62 216 48.06 256 56.40 296 64.67 336 72.87 376 81.02 17 NA 57 13.70 97 22.60 137 31.29 177 39.84 217 48.27 257 56.61 297 64.87 337 73.07 377 81.22 18 NA 58 13.92 98 22.82 138 31.51 178 40.05 218 48.48 258 56.81 298 65.08 338 73.28 378 81.42 19 NA 59 14.15 99 23.04 139 31.72 179 40.26 219 48.68 259 57.02 299 65.28 339 73.48 379 81.62 20 NA 60 14.37 100 23.26 140 31.94 180 40.47 220 48.89 260 57.23 300 65.49 340 73.69 380 81.83 21 NA 61 14.60 101 23.48 141 32.15 181 40.68 221 49.10 261 57.44 301 65.69 341 73.89 381 82.03 22 NA 62 14.83 102 23.70 142 32.37 182 40.89 222 49.31 262 57.64 302 65.90 342 74.09 382 82.23 23 NA 63 15.05 103 23.92 143 32.58 183 41.11 223 49.52 263 57.85 303 66.11 343 74.30 383 82.44 24 NA 64 15.28 104 24.14 144 32.80 184 41.32 224 49.73 264 58.06 304 66.31 344 74.50 384 82.64 25 6.30 65 15.50 105 24.36 145 33.01 185 41.53 225 49.94 265 58.26 305 66.52 345 74.71 385 82.84 26 6.54 66 15.73 106 24.57 146 33.23 186 41.74 226 50.15 266 58.47 306 66.72 346 74.91 386 83.04 27 6.77 67 15.95 107 24.79 147 33.44 187 41.95 227 50.36 267 58.68 307 66.93 347 75.11 387 83.25 28 7.01 68 16.17 108 25.01 148 33.65 188 42.16 228 50.57 268 58.89 308 67.13 348 75.32 388 83.45 29 7.25 69 16.40 109 25.23 149 33.87 189 42.37 229 50.78 269 59.09 309 67.34 349 75.52 389 83.65 30 7.48 70 16.62 110 25.45 150 34.08 190 42.59 230 50.99 270 59.30 310 67.54 350 75.73 390 83.85 31 7.72 71 16.85 111 25.66 151 34.30 191 42.80 231 51.19 271 59.51 311 67.75 351 75.93 391 84.06 32 7.95 72 17.07 112 25.88 152 34.51 192 43.01 232 51.40 272 59.71 312 67.95 352 76.13 392 84.26 33 8.18 73 17.29 113 26.10 153 34.72 193 43.22 233 51.61 273 59.92 313 68.16 353 76.34 393 84.46 34 8.42 74 17.52 114 26.32 154 34.94 194 43.43 234 51.82 274 60.13 314 68.36 354 76.54 394 84.66 35 8.65 75 17.74 115 26.53 155 35.15 195 43.64 235 52.03 275 60.33 315 68.57 355 76.74 395 84.87 36 8.88 76 17.96 116 26.75 156 35.37 196 43.85 236 52.24 276 60.54 316 68.77 356 76.95 396 85.07 37 9.12 77 18.18 117 26.97 157 35.58 197 44.06 237 52.45 277 60.75 317 68.98 357 77.15 397 85.27 38 9.35 78 18.41 118 27.19 158 35.79 198 44.27 238 52.65 278 60.95 318 69.18 358 77.36 398 85.47 39 9.58 79 18.63 119 27.40 159 36.01 199 44.48 239 52.86 279 61.16 319 69.39 359 77.56 399 85.68 40 9.81 80 18.85 120 27.62 160 36.22 200 44.69 240 53.07 280 61.37 320 69.59 360 77.76 400 85.88 </table>

<table> Table 11. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Copper Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 5.80 81 11.02 121 16.08 161 21.05 201 25.94 241 30.78 281 35.57 321 40.33 361 45.05 2 NA 42 5.93 82 11.15 122 16.21 162 21.17 202 26.07 242 30.90 282 35.69 322 40.45 362 45.16 3 NA 43 6.07 83 11.28 123 16.33 163 21.30 203 26.19 243 31.02 283 35.81 323 40.56 363 45.28 4 NA 44 6.20 84 11.40 124 16.46 164 21.42 204 26.31 244 31.14 284 35.93 324 40.68 364 45.40 5 NA 45 6.33 85 11.53 125 16.58 165 21.54 205 26.43 245 31.26 285 36.05 325 40.80 365 45.52 6 NA 46 6.47 86 11.66 126 16.71 166 21.66 206 26.55 246 31.38 286 36.17 326 40.92 366 45.63 7 NA 47 6.60 87 11.79 127 16.83 167 21.79 207 26.67 247 31.50 287 36.29 327 41.04 367 45.75 8 NA 48 6.73 88 11.91 128 16.96 168 21.91 208 26.79 248 31.62 288 36.41 328 41.16 368 45.87 9 NA 49 6.86 89 12.04 129 17.08 169 22.03 209 26.92 249 31.74 289 36.53 329 41.27 369 45.99 10 NA 50 6.99 90 12.17 130 17.21 170 22.16 210 27.04 250 31.86 290 36.65 330 41.39 370 46.10 11 NA 51 7.13 91 12.30 131 17.33 171 22.28 211 27.16 251 31.98 291 36.77 331 41.51 371 46.22 12 NA 52 7.26 92 12.42 132 17.46 172 22.40 212 27.28 252 32.10 292 36.89 332 41.63 372 46.34 13 NA 53 7.39 93 12.55 133 17.58 173 22.52 213 27.40 253 32.22 293 37.00 333 41.75 373 46.46 14 NA 54 7.52 94 12.68 134 17.71 174 22.65 214 27.52 254 32.34 294 37.12 334 41.86 374 46.57 15 NA 55 7.65 95 12.81 135 17.83 175 22.77 215 27.64 255 32.46 295 37.24 335 41.98 375 46.69 16 NA 56 7.78 96 12.93 136 17.96 176 22.89 216 27.76 256 32.58 296 37.36 336 42.10 376 46.81 17 NA 57 7.91 97 13.06 137 18.08 177 23.02 217 27.89 257 32.70 297 37.48 337 42.22 377 46.92 18 NA 58 8.04 98 13.19 138 18.20 178 23.14 218 28.01 258 32.82 298 37.60 338 42.34 378 47.04 19 NA 59 8.17 99 13.31 139 18.33 179 23.26 219 28.13 259 32.94 299 37.72 339 42.45 379 47.16 20 NA 60 8.31 100 13.44 140 18.45 180 23.38 220 28.25 260 33.06 300 37.84 340 42.57 380 47.28 21 NA 61 8.44 101 13.57 141 18.58 181 23.50 221 28.37 261 33.18 301 37.96 341 42.69 381 47.39 22 NA 62 8.57 102 13.69 142 18.70 182 23.63 222 28.49 262 33.30 302 38.07 342 42.81 382 47.51 23 NA 63 8.70 103 13.82 143 18.82 183 23.75 223 28.61 263 33.42 303 38.19 343 42.93 383 47.63 24 NA 64 8.83 104 13.95 144 18.95 184 23.87 224 28.73 264 33.54 304 38.31 344 43.04 384 47.74 25 3.64 65 8.96 105 14.07 145 19.07 185 23.99 225 28.85 265 33.66 305 38.43 345 43.16 385 47.86 26 3.78 66 9.09 106 14.20 146 19.20 186 24.12 226 28.97 266 33.78 306 38.55 346 43.28 386 47.98 27 3.91 67 9.22 107 14.32 147 19.32 187 24.24 227 29.09 267 33.90 307 38.67 347 43.40 387 48.10 28 4.05 68 9.34 108 14.45 148 19.44 188 24.36 228 29.22 268 34.02 308 38.79 348 43.52 388 48.21 29 4.19 69 9.47 109 14.58 149 19.57 189 24.48 229 29.34 269 34.14 309 38.91 349 43.63 389 48.33 30 4.32 70 9.60 110 14.70 150 19.69 190 24.60 230 29.46 270 34.26 310 39.02 350 43.75 390 48.45 31 4.46 71 9.73 111 14.83 151 19.82 191 24.73 231 29.58 271 34.38 311 39.14 351 43.87 391 48.56 32 4.59 72 9.86 112 14.95 152 19.94 192 24.85 232 29.70 272 34.50 312 39.26 352 43.99 392 48.68 33 4.73 73 9.99 113 15.08 153 20.06 193 24.97 233 29.82 273 34.62 313 39.38 353 44.10 393 48.80 34 4.86 74 10.12 114 15.20 154 20.19 194 25.09 234 29.94 274 34.74 314 39.50 354 44.22 394 48.92 35 5.00 75 10.25 115 15.33 155 20.31 195 25.21 235 30.06 275 34.86 315 39.62 355 44.34 395 49.03 36 5.13 76 10.38 116 15.46 156 20.43 196 25.34 236 30.18 276 34.98 316 39.74 356 44.46 396 49.15 37 5.27 77 10.51 117 15.58 157 20.56 197 25.46 237 30.30 277 35.10 317 39.85 357 44.58 397 49.27 38 5.40 78 10.63 118 15.71 158 20.68 198 25.58 238 30.42 278 35.22 318 39.97 358 44.69 398 49.38 39 5.53 79 10.76 119 15.83 159 20.80 199 25.70 239 30.54 279 35.34 319 40.09 359 44.81 399 49.50 40 5.67 80 10.89 120 15.96 160 20.93 200 25.82 240 30.66 280 35.46 320 40.21 360 44.93 400 49.62 </table>

<table> Table 12. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Nickel Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 1956 81 3479 121 4886 161 6221 201 7506 241 8752 281 9966 321 11154 361 12319 2 NA 42 1996 82 3516 122 4920 162 6254 202 7538 242 8783 282 9996 322 11183 362 12348 3 NA 43 2036 83 3552 123 4954 163 6287 203 7569 243 8813 283 10026 323 11213 363 12377 4 NA 44 2076 84 3588 124 4988 164 6319 204 7601 244 8844 284 10056 324 11242 364 12405 5 NA 45 2116 85 3624 125 5022 165 6352 205 7632 245 8875 285 10086 325 11271 365 12434 6 NA 46 2156 86 3660 126 5056 166 6385 206 7664 246 8905 286 10116 326 11301 366 12463 7 NA 47 2195 87 3696 127 5090 167 6417 207 7695 247 8936 287 10146 327 11330 367 12492 8 NA 48 2235 88 3732 128 5124 168 6450 208 7727 248 8967 288 10176 328 11359 368 12521 9 NA 49 2274 89 3768 129 5158 169 6482 209 7758 249 8997 289 10206 329 11389 369 12549 10 NA 50 2313 90 3804 130 5192 170 6514 210 7790 250 9028 290 10235 330 11418 370 12578 11 NA 51 2352 91 3839 131 5226 171 6547 211 7821 251 9058 291 10265 331 11447 371 12607 12 NA 52 2391 92 3875 132 5259 172 6579 212 7852 252 9089 292 10295 332 11476 372 12636 13 NA 53 2430 93 3911 133 5293 173 6612 213 7884 253 9119 293 10325 333 11506 373 12664 14 NA 54 2469 94 3946 134 5327 174 6644 214 7915 254 9150 294 10355 334 11535 374 12693 15 NA 55 2508 95 3982 135 5360 175 6676 215 7946 255 9180 295 10385 335 11564 375 12722 16 NA 56 2546 96 4017 136 5394 176 6708 216 7978 256 9211 296 10414 336 11593 376 12751 17 NA 57 2585 97 4053 137 5427 177 6741 217 8009 257 9241 297 10444 337 11622 377 12779 18 NA 58 2623 98 4088 138 5461 178 6773 218 8040 258 9272 298 10474 338 11652 378 12808 19 NA 59 2661 99 4123 139 5494 179 6805 219 8071 259 9302 299 10504 339 11681 379 12837 20 NA 60 2699 100 4158 140 5528 180 6837 220 8102 260 9332 300 10533 340 11710 380 12865 21 NA 61 2737 101 4193 141 5561 181 6869 221 8133 261 9363 301 10563 341 11739 381 12894 22 NA 62 2775 102 4229 142 5594 182 6901 222 8165 262 9393 302 10593 342 11768 382 12922 23 NA 63 2813 103 4264 143 5628 183 6934 223 8196 263 9423 303 10622 343 11797 383 12951 24 NA 64 2851 104 4299 144 5661 184 6966 224 8227 264 9454 304 10652 344 11826 384 12980 25 1287 65 2888 105 4334 145 5694 185 6998 225 8258 265 9484 305 10682 345 11855 385 13008 26 1330 66 2926 106 4368 146 5727 186 7030 226 8289 266 9514 306 10711 346 11884 386 13037 27 1374 67 2963 107 4403 147 5761 187 7062 227 8320 267 9544 307 10741 347 11913 387 13065 28 1416 68 3001 108 4438 148 5794 188 7093 228 8351 268 9575 308 10770 348 11943 388 13094 29 1459 69 3038 109 4473 149 5827 189 7125 229 8382 269 9605 309 10800 349 11972 389 13123 30 1502 70 3075 110 4508 150 5860 190 7157 230 8413 270 9635 310 10830 350 12001 390 13151 31 1544 71 3112 111 4542 151 5893 191 7189 231 8444 271 9665 311 10859 351 12030 391 13180 32 1586 72 3149 112 4577 152 5926 192 7221 232 8475 272 9695 312 10889 352 12059 392 13208 33 1628 73 3186 113 4611 153 5959 193 7253 233 8506 273 9726 313 10918 353 12088 393 13237 34 1669 74 3223 114 4646 154 5992 194 7285 234 8536 274 9756 314 10948 354 12116 394 13265 35 1711 75 3260 115 4680 155 6025 195 7316 235 8567 275 9786 315 10977 355 12145 395 13294 36 1752 76 3297 116 4715 156 6058 196 7348 236 8598 276 9816 316 11007 356 12174 396 13322 37 1793 77 3333 117 4749 157 6090 197 7380 237 8629 277 9846 317 11036 357 12203 397 13350 38 1834 78 3370 118 4783 158 6123 198 7411 238 8660 278 9876 318 11066 358 12232 398 13379 39 1875 79 3407 119 4818 159 6156 199 7443 239 8691 279 9906 319 11095 359 12261 399 13407 40 1915 80 3443 120 4852 160 6189 200 7475 240 8721 280 9936 320 11124 360 12290 400 13436 </table>

<table> Table 13. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Lead Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 51.00 81 108.27 121 167.63 161 227.98 201 288.85 241 349.96 281 411.15 321 472.30 361 533.35 2 NA 42 52.39 82 109.74 122 169.13 162 229.50 202 290.37 242 351.49 282 412.68 322 473.83 362 534.87 3 NA 43 53.78 83 111.21 123 170.63 163 231.01 203 291.90 243 353.02 283 414.21 323 475.36 363 536.40 4 NA 44 55.18 84 112.67 124 172.13 164 232.53 204 293.42 244 354.54 284 415.73 324 476.89 364 537.92 5 NA 45 56.57 85 114.14 125 173.63 165 234.05 205 294.95 245 356.07 285 417.26 325 478.41 365 539.45 6 NA 46 57.97 86 115.61 126 175.13 166 235.57 206 296.48 246 357.60 286 418.79 326 479.94 366 540.97 7 NA 47 59.38 87 117.08 127 176.63 167 237.08 207 298.00 247 359.13 287 420.32 327 481.47 367 542.49 8 NA 48 60.78 88 118.55 128 178.13 168 238.60 208 299.53 248 360.66 288 421.85 328 483.00 368 544.02 9 NA 49 62.19 89 120.03 129 179.64 169 240.12 209 301.05 249 362.19 289 423.38 329 484.52 369 545.54 10 NA 50 63.60 90 121.50 130 181.14 170 241.64 210 302.58 250 363.72 290 424.91 330 486.05 370 547.06 11 NA 51 65.01 91 122.98 131 182.65 171 243.16 211 304.11 251 365.25 291 426.44 331 487.58 371 548.59 12 NA 52 66.43 92 124.45 132 184.15 172 244.68 212 305.64 252 366.78 292 427.97 332 489.10 372 550.11 13 NA 53 67.85 93 125.93 133 185.66 173 246.20 213 307.16 253 368.31 293 429.50 333 490.63 373 551.63 14 NA 54 69.26 94 127.41 134 187.16 174 247.72 214 308.69 254 369.84 294 431.03 334 492.16 374 553.16 15 NA 55 70.69 95 128.89 135 188.67 175 249.24 215 310.22 255 371.37 295 432.56 335 493.68 375 554.68 16 NA 56 72.11 96 130.37 136 190.17 176 250.76 216 311.74 256 372.90 296 434.09 336 495.21 376 556.20 17 NA 57 73.54 97 131.85 137 191.68 177 252.28 217 313.27 257 374.43 297 435.62 337 496.74 377 557.72 18 NA 58 74.96 98 133.33 138 193.19 178 253.80 218 314.80 258 375.96 298 437.15 338 498.26 378 559.25 19 NA 59 76.39 99 134.81 139 194.70 179 255.32 219 316.33 259 377.49 299 438.68 339 499.79 379 560.77 20 NA 60 77.83 100 136.30 140 196.21 180 256.85 220 317.85 260 379.02 300 440.20 340 501.32 380 562.29 21 NA 61 79.26 101 137.78 141 197.72 181 258.37 221 319.38 261 380.55 301 441.73 341 502.84 381 563.81 22 NA 62 80.70 102 139.27 142 199.23 182 259.89 222 320.91 262 382.08 302 443.26 342 504.37 382 565.34 23 NA 63 82.13 103 140.75 143 200.74 183 261.41 223 322.44 263 383.61 303 444.79 343 505.90 383 566.86 24 NA 64 83.57 104 142.24 144 202.25 184 262.93 224 323.97 264 385.14 304 446.32 344 507.42 384 568.38 25 29.30 65 85.01 105 143.73 145 203.76 185 264.46 225 325.49 265 386.67 305 447.85 345 508.95 385 569.90 26 30.62 66 86.46 106 145.21 146 205.27 186 265.98 226 327.02 266 388.20 306 449.38 346 510.47 386 571.42 27 31.95 67 87.90 107 146.70 147 206.78 187 267.50 227 328.55 267 389.73 307 450.91 347 512.00 387 572.94 28 33.28 68 89.35 108 148.19 148 208.29 188 269.03 228 330.08 268 391.26 308 452.44 348 513.53 388 574.47 29 34.62 69 90.79 109 149.68 149 209.80 189 270.55 229 331.61 269 392.79 309 453.96 349 515.05 389 575.99 30 35.96 70 92.24 110 151.18 150 211.32 190 272.07 230 333.14 270 394.32 310 455.49 350 516.58 390 577.51 31 37.31 71 93.69 111 152.67 151 212.83 191 273.60 231 334.67 271 395.85 311 457.02 351 518.10 391 579.03 32 38.66 72 95.14 112 154.16 152 214.34 192 275.12 232 336.19 272 397.38 312 458.55 352 519.63 392 580.55 33 40.02 73 96.60 113 155.65 153 215.86 193 276.65 233 337.72 273 398.91 313 460.08 353 521.15 393 582.07 34 41.38 74 98.05 114 157.15 154 217.37 194 278.17 234 339.25 274 400.44 314 461.61 354 522.68 394 583.59 35 42.74 75 99.51 115 158.64 155 218.89 195 279.69 235 340.78 275 401.97 315 463.13 355 524.20 395 585.11 36 44.11 76 100.97 116 160.14 156 220.40 196 281.22 236 342.31 276 403.50 316 464.66 356 525.73 396 586.63 37 45.48 77 102.43 117 161.64 157 221.92 197 282.74 237 343.84 277 405.03 317 466.19 357 527.25 397 588.15 38 46.86 78 103.89 118 163.13 158 223.43 198 284.27 238 345.37 278 406.56 318 467.72 358 528.78 398 589.67 39 48.24 79 105.35 119 164.63 159 224.95 199 285.79 239 346.90 279 408.09 319 469.25 359 530.30 399 591.19 40 49.62 80 106.81 120 166.13 160 226.46 200 287.32 240 348.43 280 409.62 320 470.77 360 531.83 400 592.71 </table>

<table> Table 14. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Lead Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 24.17 81 51.30 121 79.43 161 108.02 201 136.86 241 165.82 281 194.81 321 223.79 361 252.72 2 NA 42 24.82 82 52.00 122 80.14 162 108.74 202 137.59 242 166.55 282 195.54 322 224.52 362 253.44 3 NA 43 25.48 83 52.69 123 80.85 163 109.46 203 138.31 243 167.27 283 196.26 323 225.24 363 254.16 4 NA 44 26.14 84 53.39 124 81.56 164 110.18 204 139.03 244 167.99 284 196.99 324 225.96 364 254.89 5 NA 45 26.81 85 54.08 125 82.27 165 110.90 205 139.76 245 168.72 285 197.71 325 226.69 365 255.61 6 NA 46 27.47 86 54.78 126 82.98 166 111.62 206 140.48 246 169.44 286 198.44 326 227.41 366 256.33 7 NA 47 28.13 87 55.48 127 83.69 167 112.34 207 141.20 247 170.17 287 199.16 327 228.14 367 257.05 8 NA 48 28.80 88 56.17 128 84.41 168 113.06 208 141.93 248 170.89 288 199.89 328 228.86 368 257.77 9 NA 49 29.47 89 56.87 129 85.12 169 113.78 209 142.65 249 171.62 289 200.61 329 229.58 369 258.50 10 NA 50 30.14 90 57.57 130 85.83 170 114.50 210 143.37 250 172.34 290 201.34 330 230.31 370 259.22 11 NA 51 30.81 91 58.27 131 86.54 171 115.22 211 144.10 251 173.07 291 202.06 331 231.03 371 259.94 12 NA 52 31.48 92 58.97 132 87.26 172 115.94 212 144.82 252 173.79 292 202.79 332 231.75 372 260.66 13 NA 53 32.15 93 59.67 133 87.97 173 116.66 213 145.54 253 174.52 293 203.51 333 232.48 373 261.38 14 NA 54 32.82 94 60.37 134 88.68 174 117.38 214 146.27 254 175.24 294 204.24 334 233.20 374 262.10 15 NA 55 33.49 95 61.07 135 89.40 175 118.10 215 146.99 255 175.97 295 204.96 335 233.92 375 262.83 16 NA 56 34.17 96 61.77 136 90.11 176 118.82 216 147.71 256 176.69 296 205.69 336 234.65 376 263.55 17 NA 57 34.84 97 62.47 137 90.83 177 119.54 217 148.44 257 177.42 297 206.41 337 235.37 377 264.27 18 NA 58 35.52 98 63.18 138 91.54 178 120.26 218 149.16 258 178.14 298 207.13 338 236.09 378 264.99 19 NA 59 36.20 99 63.88 139 92.25 179 120.98 219 149.89 259 178.87 299 207.86 339 236.82 379 265.71 20 NA 60 36.88 100 64.58 140 92.97 180 121.70 220 150.61 260 179.59 300 208.58 340 237.54 380 266.43 21 NA 61 37.56 101 65.28 141 93.68 181 122.42 221 151.33 261 180.32 301 209.31 341 238.26 381 267.15 22 NA 62 38.24 102 65.99 142 94.40 182 123.14 222 152.06 262 181.04 302 210.03 342 238.99 382 267.88 23 NA 63 38.92 103 66.69 143 95.12 183 123.87 223 152.78 263 181.77 303 210.76 343 239.71 383 268.60 24 NA 64 39.60 104 67.40 144 95.83 184 124.59 224 153.51 264 182.49 304 211.48 344 240.43 384 269.32 25 13.88 65 40.28 105 68.10 145 96.55 185 125.31 225 154.23 265 183.22 305 212.21 345 241.16 385 270.04 26 14.51 66 40.97 106 68.81 146 97.26 186 126.03 226 154.95 266 183.94 306 212.93 346 241.88 386 270.76 27 15.14 67 41.65 107 69.51 147 97.98 187 126.75 227 155.68 267 184.67 307 213.65 347 242.60 387 271.48 28 15.77 68 42.33 108 70.22 148 98.70 188 127.47 228 156.40 268 185.39 308 214.38 348 243.33 388 272.20 29 16.40 69 43.02 109 70.93 149 99.41 189 128.20 229 157.13 269 186.12 309 215.10 349 244.05 389 272.92 30 17.04 70 43.71 110 71.63 150 100.13 190 128.92 230 157.85 270 186.84 310 215.83 350 244.77 390 273.64 31 17.68 71 44.39 111 72.34 151 100.85 191 129.64 231 158.58 271 187.57 311 216.55 351 245.49 391 274.36 32 18.32 72 45.08 112 73.05 152 101.56 192 130.36 232 159.30 272 188.29 312 217.28 352 246.22 392 275.08 33 18.96 73 45.77 113 73.75 153 102.28 193 131.08 233 160.02 273 189.02 313 218.00 353 246.94 393 275.80 34 19.61 74 46.46 114 74.46 154 103.00 194 131.81 234 160.75 274 189.74 314 218.72 354 247.66 394 276.52 35 20.25 75 47.15 115 75.17 155 103.72 195 132.53 235 161.47 275 190.47 315 219.45 355 248.38 395 277.25 36 20.90 76 47.84 116 75.88 156 104.43 196 133.25 236 162.20 276 191.19 316 220.17 356 249.11 396 277.97 37 21.55 77 48.53 117 76.59 157 105.15 197 133.97 237 162.92 277 191.92 317 220.90 357 249.83 397 278.69 38 22.20 78 49.22 118 77.30 158 105.87 198 134.70 238 163.65 278 192.64 318 221.62 358 250.55 398 279.41 39 22.86 79 49.92 119 78.01 159 106.59 199 135.42 239 164.37 279 193.36 319 222.34 359 251.27 399 280.13 40 23.51 80 50.61 120 78.72 160 107.31 200 136.14 240 165.10 280 194.09 320 223.07 360 252.00 400 280.85 </table>

<table> Table 15. Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Lead Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 0.94 81 2.00 121 3.10 161 4.21 201 5.33 241 6.46 281 7.59 321 8.72 361 9.85 2 NA 42 0.97 82 2.03 122 3.12 162 4.24 202 5.36 242 6.49 282 7.62 322 8.75 362 9.88 3 NA 43 0.99 83 2.05 123 3.15 163 4.27 203 5.39 243 6.52 283 7.65 323 8.78 363 9.90 4 NA 44 1.02 84 2.08 124 3.18 164 4.29 204 5.42 244 6.55 284 7.68 324 8.81 364 9.93 5 NA 45 1.04 85 2.11 125 3.21 165 4.32 205 5.45 245 6.57 285 7.70 325 8.83 365 9.96 6 NA 46 1.07 86 2.13 126 3.23 166 4.35 206 5.47 246 6.60 286 7.73 326 8.86 366 9.99 7 NA 47 1.10 87 2.16 127 3.26 167 4.38 207 5.50 247 6.63 287 7.76 327 8.89 367 10.02 8 NA 48 1.12 88 2.19 128 3.29 168 4.41 208 5.53 248 6.66 288 7.79 328 8.92 368 10.05 9 NA 49 1.15 89 2.22 129 3.32 169 4.43 209 5.56 249 6.69 289 7.82 329 8.95 369 10.07 10 NA 50 1.17 90 2.24 130 3.34 170 4.46 210 5.59 250 6.72 290 7.85 330 8.97 370 10.10 11 NA 51 1.20 91 2.27 131 3.37 171 4.49 211 5.62 251 6.74 291 7.87 331 9.00 371 10.13 12 NA 52 1.23 92 2.30 132 3.40 172 4.52 212 5.64 252 6.77 292 7.90 332 9.03 372 10.16 13 NA 53 1.25 93 2.33 133 3.43 173 4.55 213 5.67 253 6.80 293 7.93 333 9.06 373 10.19 14 NA 54 1.28 94 2.35 134 3.46 174 4.57 214 5.70 254 6.83 294 7.96 334 9.09 374 10.21 15 NA 55 1.31 95 2.38 135 3.48 175 4.60 215 5.73 255 6.86 295 7.99 335 9.12 375 10.24 16 NA 56 1.33 96 2.41 136 3.51 176 4.63 216 5.76 256 6.89 296 8.02 336 9.14 376 10.27 17 NA 57 1.36 97 2.43 137 3.54 177 4.66 217 5.78 257 6.91 297 8.04 337 9.17 377 10.30 18 NA 58 1.38 98 2.46 138 3.57 178 4.69 218 5.81 258 6.94 298 8.07 338 9.20 378 10.33 19 NA 59 1.41 99 2.49 139 3.60 179 4.71 219 5.84 259 6.97 299 8.10 339 9.23 379 10.35 20 NA 60 1.44 100 2.52 140 3.62 180 4.74 220 5.87 260 7.00 300 8.13 340 9.26 380 10.38 21 NA 61 1.46 101 2.54 141 3.65 181 4.77 221 5.90 261 7.03 301 8.16 341 9.28 381 10.41 22 NA 62 1.49 102 2.57 142 3.68 182 4.80 222 5.93 262 7.05 302 8.18 342 9.31 382 10.44 23 NA 63 1.52 103 2.60 143 3.71 183 4.83 223 5.95 263 7.08 303 8.21 343 9.34 383 10.47 24 NA 64 1.54 104 2.63 144 3.73 184 4.85 224 5.98 264 7.11 304 8.24 344 9.37 384 10.49 25 0.54 65 1.57 105 2.65 145 3.76 185 4.88 225 6.01 265 7.14 305 8.27 345 9.40 385 10.52 26 0.57 66 1.60 106 2.68 146 3.79 186 4.91 226 6.04 266 7.17 306 8.30 346 9.43 386 10.55 27 0.59 67 1.62 107 2.71 147 3.82 187 4.94 227 6.07 267 7.20 307 8.33 347 9.45 387 10.58 28 0.61 68 1.65 108 2.74 148 3.85 188 4.97 228 6.09 268 7.22 308 8.35 348 9.48 388 10.61 29 0.64 69 1.68 109 2.76 149 3.87 189 5.00 229 6.12 269 7.25 309 8.38 349 9.51 389 10.64 30 0.66 70 1.70 110 2.79 150 3.90 190 5.02 230 6.15 270 7.28 310 8.41 350 9.54 390 10.66 31 0.69 71 1.73 111 2.82 151 3.93 191 5.05 231 6.18 271 7.31 311 8.44 351 9.57 391 10.69 32 0.71 72 1.76 112 2.85 152 3.96 192 5.08 232 6.21 272 7.34 312 8.47 352 9.59 392 10.72 33 0.74 73 1.78 113 2.87 153 3.99 193 5.11 233 6.24 273 7.37 313 8.50 353 9.62 393 10.75 34 0.76 74 1.81 114 2.90 154 4.01 194 5.14 234 6.26 274 7.39 314 8.52 354 9.65 394 10.78 35 0.79 75 1.84 115 2.93 155 4.04 195 5.16 235 6.29 275 7.42 315 8.55 355 9.68 395 10.80 36 0.81 76 1.86 116 2.96 156 4.07 196 5.19 236 6.32 276 7.45 316 8.58 356 9.71 396 10.83 37 0.84 77 1.89 117 2.98 157 4.10 197 5.22 237 6.35 277 7.48 317 8.61 357 9.74 397 10.86 38 0.87 78 1.92 118 3.01 158 4.13 198 5.25 238 6.38 278 7.51 318 8.64 358 9.76 398 10.89 39 0.89 79 1.95 119 3.04 159 4.15 199 5.28 239 6.41 279 7.54 319 8.66 359 9.79 399 10.92 40 0.92 80 1.97 120 3.07 160 4.18 200 5.31 240 6.43 280 7.56 320 8.69 360 9.82 400 10.94 </table>

<table> Table 16. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Nickel Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 220 81 392 121 550 161 701 201 845 241 985 281 1122 321 1256 361 1387 2 NA 42 225 82 396 122 554 162 704 202 849 242 989 282 1126 322 1259 362 1390 3 NA 43 229 83 400 123 558 163 708 203 852 243 992 283 1129 323 1263 363 1394 4 NA 44 234 84 404 124 562 164 712 204 856 244 996 284 1132 324 1266 364 1397 5 NA 45 238 85 408 125 566 165 715 205 859 245 999 285 1136 325 1269 365 1400 6 NA 46 243 86 412 126 569 166 719 206 863 246 1003 286 1139 326 1272 366 1403 7 NA 47 247 87 416 127 573 167 723 207 867 247 1006 287 1142 327 1276 367 1407 8 NA 48 252 88 420 128 577 168 726 208 870 248 1010 288 1146 328 1279 368 1410 9 NA 49 256 89 424 129 581 169 730 209 874 249 1013 289 1149 329 1282 369 1413 10 NA 50 260 90 428 130 585 170 734 210 877 250 1017 290 1153 330 1286 370 1416 11 NA 51 265 91 432 131 588 171 737 211 881 251 1020 291 1156 331 1289 371 1420 12 NA 52 269 92 436 132 592 172 741 212 884 252 1023 292 1159 332 1292 372 1423 13 NA 53 274 93 440 133 596 173 744 213 888 253 1027 293 1163 333 1296 373 1426 14 NA 54 278 94 444 134 600 174 748 214 891 254 1030 294 1166 334 1299 374 1429 15 NA 55 282 95 448 135 604 175 752 215 895 255 1034 295 1169 335 1302 375 1433 16 NA 56 287 96 452 136 607 176 755 216 898 256 1037 296 1173 336 1305 376 1436 17 NA 57 291 97 456 137 611 177 759 217 902 257 1041 297 1176 337 1309 377 1439 18 NA 58 295 98 460 138 615 178 763 218 905 258 1044 298 1179 338 1312 378 1442 19 NA 59 300 99 464 139 619 179 766 219 909 259 1047 299 1183 339 1315 379 1445 20 NA 60 304 100 468 140 622 180 770 220 912 260 1051 300 1186 340 1319 380 1449 21 NA 61 308 101 472 141 626 181 774 221 916 261 1054 301 1189 341 1322 381 1452 22 NA 62 312 102 476 142 630 182 777 222 919 262 1058 302 1193 342 1325 382 1455 23 NA 63 317 103 480 143 634 183 781 223 923 263 1061 303 1196 343 1328 383 1458 24 NA 64 321 104 484 144 637 184 784 224 926 264 1064 304 1199 344 1332 384 1462 25 145 65 325 105 488 145 641 185 788 225 930 265 1068 305 1203 345 1335 385 1465 26 150 66 329 106 492 146 645 186 792 226 933 266 1071 306 1206 346 1338 386 1468 27 155 67 334 107 496 147 649 187 795 227 937 267 1075 307 1209 347 1341 387 1471 28 159 68 338 108 500 148 652 188 799 228 940 268 1078 308 1213 348 1345 388 1474 29 164 69 342 109 504 149 656 189 802 229 944 269 1082 309 1216 349 1348 389 1478 30 169 70 346 110 508 150 660 190 806 230 947 270 1085 310 1219 350 1351 390 1481 31 174 71 350 111 511 151 664 191 810 231 951 271 1088 311 1223 351 1355 391 1484 32 179 72 355 112 515 152 667 192 813 232 954 272 1092 312 1226 352 1358 392 1487 33 183 73 359 113 519 153 671 193 817 233 958 273 1095 313 1229 353 1361 393 1490 34 188 74 363 114 523 154 675 194 820 234 961 274 1099 314 1233 354 1364 394 1494 35 193 75 367 115 527 155 678 195 824 235 965 275 1102 315 1236 355 1368 395 1497 36 197 76 371 116 531 156 682 196 827 236 968 276 1105 316 1239 356 1371 396 1500 37 202 77 375 117 535 157 686 197 831 237 972 277 1109 317 1243 357 1374 397 1503 38 207 78 379 118 539 158 689 198 835 238 975 278 1112 318 1246 358 1377 398 1506 39 211 79 384 119 542 159 693 199 838 239 979 279 1115 319 1249 359 1381 399 1510 40 216 80 388 120 546 160 697 200 842 240 982 280 1119 320 1253 360 1384 400 1513 </table>

<table> Table 17. Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Nickel Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 24.46 81 43.51 121 61.11 161 77.81 201 93.88 241 109.46 281 124.64 321 139.50 361 154.07 2 NA 42 24.96 82 43.97 122 61.53 162 78.22 202 94.27 242 109.84 282 125.02 322 139.86 362 154.43 3 NA 43 25.47 83 44.42 123 61.96 163 78.63 203 94.67 243 110.23 283 125.39 323 140.23 363 154.79 4 NA 44 25.97 84 44.87 124 62.39 164 79.03 204 95.06 244 110.61 284 125.77 324 140.60 364 155.15 5 NA 45 26.47 85 45.33 125 62.81 165 79.44 205 95.46 245 110.99 285 126.14 325 140.96 365 155.51 6 NA 46 26.96 86 45.78 126 63.24 166 79.85 206 95.85 246 111.38 286 126.52 326 141.33 366 155.87 7 NA 47 27.46 87 46.23 127 63.66 167 80.26 207 96.24 247 111.76 287 126.89 327 141.70 367 156.23 8 NA 48 27.95 88 46.68 128 64.09 168 80.66 208 96.64 248 112.14 288 127.26 328 142.07 368 156.59 9 NA 49 28.44 89 47.12 129 64.51 169 81.07 209 97.03 249 112.52 289 127.64 329 142.43 369 156.95 10 NA 50 28.93 90 47.57 130 64.93 170 81.47 210 97.42 250 112.91 290 128.01 330 142.80 370 157.31 11 NA 51 29.42 91 48.02 131 65.35 171 81.88 211 97.81 251 113.29 291 128.38 331 143.16 371 157.67 12 NA 52 29.91 92 48.46 132 65.78 172 82.28 212 98.21 252 113.67 292 128.76 332 143.53 372 158.03 13 NA 53 30.39 93 48.91 133 66.20 173 82.69 213 98.60 253 114.05 293 129.13 333 143.90 373 158.39 14 NA 54 30.88 94 49.35 134 66.62 174 83.09 214 98.99 254 114.43 294 129.50 334 144.26 374 158.75 15 NA 55 31.36 95 49.80 135 67.04 175 83.50 215 99.38 255 114.81 295 129.88 335 144.63 375 159.11 16 NA 56 31.84 96 50.24 136 67.46 176 83.90 216 99.77 256 115.19 296 130.25 336 144.99 376 159.47 17 NA 57 32.32 97 50.68 137 67.88 177 84.30 217 100.16 257 115.57 297 130.62 337 145.36 377 159.82 18 NA 58 32.80 98 51.13 138 68.30 178 84.71 218 100.55 258 115.95 298 130.99 338 145.72 378 160.18 19 NA 59 33.28 99 51.57 139 68.71 179 85.11 219 100.94 259 116.33 299 131.36 339 146.09 379 160.54 20 NA 60 33.76 100 52.01 140 69.13 180 85.51 220 101.33 260 116.71 300 131.74 340 146.45 380 160.90 21 NA 61 34.23 101 52.45 141 69.55 181 85.91 221 101.72 261 117.09 301 132.11 341 146.81 381 161.26 22 NA 62 34.71 102 52.89 142 69.97 182 86.31 222 102.11 262 117.47 302 132.48 342 147.18 382 161.62 23 NA 63 35.18 103 53.32 143 70.38 183 86.71 223 102.50 263 117.85 303 132.85 343 147.54 383 161.97 24 NA 64 35.65 104 53.76 144 70.80 184 87.12 224 102.89 264 118.23 304 133.22 344 147.91 384 162.33 25 16.10 65 36.12 105 54.20 145 71.22 185 87.52 225 103.28 265 118.61 305 133.59 345 148.27 385 162.69 26 16.64 66 36.59 106 54.63 146 71.63 186 87.92 226 103.67 266 118.99 306 133.96 346 148.63 386 163.05 27 17.18 67 37.06 107 55.07 147 72.05 187 88.32 227 104.05 267 119.37 307 134.33 347 149.00 387 163.40 28 17.72 68 37.53 108 55.51 148 72.46 188 88.71 228 104.44 268 119.75 308 134.70 348 149.36 388 163.76 29 18.25 69 37.99 109 55.94 149 72.87 189 89.11 229 104.83 269 120.12 309 135.07 349 149.72 389 164.12 30 18.78 70 38.46 110 56.37 150 73.29 190 89.51 230 105.22 270 120.50 310 135.44 350 150.09 390 164.47 31 19.31 71 38.92 111 56.81 151 73.70 191 89.91 231 105.60 271 120.88 311 135.81 351 150.45 391 164.83 32 19.83 72 39.39 112 57.24 152 74.11 192 90.31 232 105.99 272 121.26 312 136.18 352 150.81 392 165.19 33 20.36 73 39.85 113 57.67 153 74.53 193 90.71 233 106.38 273 121.63 313 136.55 353 151.17 393 165.54 34 20.88 74 40.31 114 58.10 154 74.94 194 91.10 234 106.76 274 122.01 314 136.92 354 151.54 394 165.90 35 21.40 75 40.77 115 58.53 155 75.35 195 91.50 235 107.15 275 122.39 315 137.29 355 151.90 395 166.26 36 21.91 76 41.23 116 58.96 156 75.76 196 91.90 236 107.53 276 122.76 316 137.66 356 152.26 396 166.61 37 22.43 77 41.69 117 59.39 157 76.17 197 92.29 237 107.92 277 123.14 317 138.02 357 152.62 397 166.97 38 22.94 78 42.15 118 59.82 158 76.58 198 92.69 238 108.30 278 123.52 318 138.39 358 152.98 398 167.32 39 23.45 79 42.60 119 60.25 159 76.99 199 93.09 239 108.69 279 123.89 319 138.76 359 153.34 399 167.68 40 23.96 80 43.06 120 60.68 160 77.40 200 93.48 240 109.07 280 124.27 320 139.13 360 153.71 400 168.04 </table>

<table> Table 18. Water Quality Standards for dissolved Silver Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater, edw and ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 0.74 81 2.40 121 4.79 161 7.83 201 11.46 241 15.66 281 20.40 321 25.65 361 31.39 2 NA 42 0.78 82 2.45 122 4.86 162 7.91 202 11.56 242 15.78 282 20.52 322 25.78 362 31.54 3 NA 43 0.81 83 2.50 123 4.93 163 7.99 203 11.66 243 15.89 283 20.65 323 25.92 363 31.69 4 NA 44 0.84 84 2.56 124 4.99 164 8.08 204 11.76 244 16.00 284 20.77 324 26.06 364 31.84 5 NA 45 0.87 85 2.61 125 5.06 165 8.16 205 11.86 245 16.11 285 20.90 325 26.20 365 31.99 6 NA 46 0.91 86 2.66 126 5.13 166 8.25 206 11.96 246 16.23 286 21.03 326 26.34 366 32.14 7 NA 47 0.94 87 2.72 127 5.20 167 8.33 207 12.06 247 16.34 287 21.15 327 26.48 367 32.29 8 NA 48 0.98 88 2.77 128 5.27 168 8.42 208 12.16 248 16.45 288 21.28 328 26.61 368 32.44 9 NA 49 1.01 89 2.82 129 5.35 169 8.51 209 12.26 249 16.57 289 21.41 329 26.75 369 32.59 10 NA 50 1.05 90 2.88 130 5.42 170 8.59 210 12.36 250 16.68 290 21.53 330 26.89 370 32.74 11 NA 51 1.08 91 2.93 131 5.49 171 8.68 211 12.46 251 16.80 291 21.66 331 27.03 371 32.90 12 NA 52 1.12 92 2.99 132 5.56 172 8.77 212 12.56 252 16.91 292 21.79 332 27.18 372 33.05 13 NA 53 1.16 93 3.05 133 5.63 173 8.86 213 12.67 253 17.03 293 21.92 333 27.32 373 33.20 14 NA 54 1.20 94 3.10 134 5.71 174 8.94 214 12.77 254 17.14 294 22.05 334 27.46 374 33.35 15 NA 55 1.23 95 3.16 135 5.78 175 9.03 215 12.87 255 17.26 295 22.18 335 27.60 375 33.51 16 NA 56 1.27 96 3.22 136 5.85 176 9.12 216 12.97 256 17.38 296 22.31 336 27.74 376 33.66 17 NA 57 1.31 97 3.27 137 5.93 177 9.21 217 13.08 257 17.49 297 22.44 337 27.88 377 33.82 18 NA 58 1.35 98 3.33 138 6.00 178 9.30 218 13.18 258 17.61 298 22.57 338 28.03 378 33.97 19 NA 59 1.39 99 3.39 139 6.08 179 9.39 219 13.29 259 17.73 299 22.70 339 28.17 379 34.13 20 NA 60 1.43 100 3.45 140 6.15 180 9.48 220 13.39 260 17.85 300 22.83 340 28.31 380 34.28 21 NA 61 1.47 101 3.51 141 6.23 181 9.57 221 13.50 261 17.97 301 22.96 341 28.45 381 34.44 22 NA 62 1.52 102 3.57 142 6.31 182 9.66 222 13.60 262 18.08 302 23.09 342 28.60 382 34.59 23 NA 63 1.56 103 3.63 143 6.38 183 9.76 223 13.71 263 18.20 303 23.22 343 28.74 383 34.75 24 NA 64 1.60 104 3.69 144 6.46 184 9.85 224 13.81 264 18.32 304 23.35 344 28.89 384 34.90 25 0.32 65 1.64 105 3.75 145 6.54 185 9.94 225 13.92 265 18.44 305 23.49 345 29.03 385 35.06 26 0.34 66 1.69 106 3.81 146 6.61 186 10.03 226 14.02 266 18.56 306 23.62 346 29.18 386 35.22 27 0.36 67 1.73 107 3.88 147 6.69 187 10.12 227 14.13 267 18.68 307 23.75 347 29.32 387 35.37 28 0.39 68 1.78 108 3.94 148 6.77 188 10.22 228 14.24 268 18.80 308 23.89 348 29.47 388 35.53 29 0.41 69 1.82 109 4.00 149 6.85 189 10.31 229 14.35 269 18.92 309 24.02 349 29.61 389 35.69 30 0.43 70 1.87 110 4.06 150 6.93 190 10.41 230 14.45 270 19.04 310 24.15 350 29.76 390 35.85 31 0.46 71 1.91 111 4.13 151 7.01 191 10.50 231 14.56 271 19.17 311 24.29 351 29.91 391 36.01 32 0.49 72 1.96 112 4.19 152 7.09 192 10.59 232 14.67 272 19.29 312 24.42 352 30.05 392 36.16 33 0.51 73 2.01 113 4.26 153 7.17 193 10.69 233 14.78 273 19.41 313 24.56 353 30.20 393 36.32 34 0.54 74 2.06 114 4.32 154 7.25 194 10.79 234 14.89 274 19.53 314 24.69 354 30.35 394 36.48 35 0.57 75 2.10 115 4.39 155 7.33 195 10.88 235 15.00 275 19.65 315 24.83 355 30.49 395 36.64 36 0.60 76 2.15 116 4.45 156 7.41 196 10.98 236 15.11 276 19.78 316 24.96 356 30.64 396 36.80 37 0.62 77 2.20 117 4.52 157 7.49 197 11.07 237 15.22 277 19.90 317 25.10 357 30.79 397 36.96 38 0.65 78 2.25 118 4.59 158 7.58 198 11.17 238 15.33 278 20.03 318 25.23 358 30.94 398 37.12 39 0.68 79 2.30 119 4.65 159 7.66 199 11.27 239 15.44 279 20.15 319 25.37 359 31.09 399 37.28 40 0.71 80 2.35 120 4.72 160 7.74 200 11.37 240 15.55 280 20.27 320 25.51 360 31.24 400 37.44 </table>

<table> Table 19. Acute Water Quality Standards for dissolved Zinc Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 522 81 930 121 1307 161 1665 201 2009 241 2343 281 2669 321 2987 361 3300 2 NA 42 533 82 940 122 1316 162 1674 202 2018 242 2351 282 2677 322 2995 362 3307 3 NA 43 544 83 950 123 1325 163 1682 203 2026 243 2360 283 2685 323 3003 363 3315 4 NA 44 555 84 959 124 1334 164 1691 204 2034 244 2368 284 2693 324 3011 364 3323 5 NA 45 565 85 969 125 1343 165 1700 205 2043 245 2376 285 2701 325 3019 365 3331 6 NA 46 576 86 979 126 1353 166 1708 206 2051 246 2384 286 2709 326 3027 366 3338 7 NA 47 587 87 988 127 1362 167 1717 207 2060 247 2392 287 2717 327 3034 367 3346 8 NA 48 597 88 998 128 1371 168 1726 208 2068 248 2401 288 2725 328 3042 368 3354 9 NA 49 608 89 1007 129 1380 169 1735 209 2077 249 2409 289 2733 329 3050 369 3362 10 NA 50 618 90 1017 130 1389 170 1743 210 2085 250 2417 290 2741 330 3058 370 3369 11 NA 51 629 91 1027 131 1398 171 1752 211 2093 251 2425 291 2749 331 3066 371 3377 12 NA 52 639 92 1036 132 1407 172 1761 212 2102 252 2433 292 2757 332 3074 372 3385 13 NA 53 649 93 1046 133 1416 173 1769 213 2110 253 2442 293 2765 333 3082 373 3392 14 NA 54 660 94 1055 134 1425 174 1778 214 2119 254 2450 294 2773 334 3089 374 3400 15 NA 55 670 95 1065 135 1434 175 1787 215 2127 255 2458 295 2781 335 3097 375 3408 16 NA 56 680 96 1074 136 1443 176 1795 216 2135 256 2466 296 2789 336 3105 376 3416 17 NA 57 691 97 1084 137 1452 177 1804 217 2144 257 2474 297 2797 337 3113 377 3423 18 NA 58 701 98 1093 138 1461 178 1813 218 2152 258 2482 298 2805 338 3121 378 3431 19 NA 59 711 99 1103 139 1470 179 1821 219 2161 259 2491 299 2813 339 3129 379 3439 20 NA 60 721 100 1112 140 1479 180 1830 220 2169 260 2499 300 2821 340 3136 380 3446 21 NA 61 732 101 1121 141 1488 181 1838 221 2177 261 2507 301 2829 341 3144 381 3454 22 NA 62 742 102 1131 142 1497 182 1847 222 2186 262 2515 302 2837 342 3152 382 3462 23 NA 63 752 103 1140 143 1506 183 1856 223 2194 263 2523 303 2845 343 3160 383 3469 24 NA 64 762 104 1150 144 1515 184 1864 224 2202 264 2531 304 2853 344 3168 384 3477 25 344 65 772 105 1159 145 1523 185 1873 225 2211 265 2539 305 2861 345 3175 385 3485 26 355 66 782 106 1168 146 1532 186 1881 226 2219 266 2547 306 2869 346 3183 386 3492 27 367 67 792 107 1178 147 1541 187 1890 227 2227 267 2556 307 2876 347 3191 387 3500 28 378 68 802 108 1187 148 1550 188 1898 228 2236 268 2564 308 2884 348 3199 388 3508 29 390 69 812 109 1196 149 1559 189 1907 229 2244 269 2572 309 2892 349 3207 389 3515 30 401 70 822 110 1206 150 1568 190 1916 230 2252 270 2580 310 2900 350 3214 390 3523 31 412 71 832 111 1215 151 1577 191 1924 231 2260 271 2588 311 2908 351 3222 391 3531 32 423 72 842 112 1224 152 1586 192 1933 232 2269 272 2596 312 2916 352 3230 392 3538 33 435 73 852 113 1233 153 1594 193 1941 233 2277 273 2604 313 2924 353 3238 393 3546 34 446 74 862 114 1243 154 1603 194 1950 234 2285 274 2612 314 2932 354 3245 394 3554 35 457 75 871 115 1252 155 1612 195 1958 235 2294 275 2620 315 2940 355 3253 395 3561 36 468 76 881 116 1261 156 1621 196 1967 236 2302 276 2628 316 2948 356 3261 396 3569 37 479 77 891 117 1270 157 1630 197 1975 237 2310 277 2636 317 2956 357 3269 397 3577 38 490 78 901 118 1279 158 1638 198 1984 238 2318 278 2645 318 2964 358 3276 398 3584 39 501 79 911 119 1289 159 1647 199 1992 239 2327 279 2653 319 2971 359 3284 399 3592 40 512 80 920 120 1298 160 1656 200 2001 240 2335 280 2661 320 2979 360 3292 400 3599 </table>

<table> Table 20. Acute and Chronic Water Quality Standards for dissolved Zinc Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. Hard. Std. mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L mg/L ug/L 1 NA 41 55.1 81 98.0 121 137.7 161 175.4 201 211.7 241 246.9 281 281.2 321 314.8 361 347.7 2 NA 42 56.2 82 99.0 122 138.7 162 176.4 202 212.6 242 247.8 282 282.1 322 315.6 362 348.5 3 NA 43 57.3 83 100.1 123 139.6 163 177.3 203 213.5 243 248.6 283 282.9 323 316.4 363 349.4 4 NA 44 58.4 84 101.1 124 140.6 164 178.2 204 214.4 244 249.5 284 283.8 324 317.3 364 350.2 5 NA 45 59.6 85 102.1 125 141.6 165 179.1 205 215.3 245 250.4 285 284.6 325 318.1 365 351.0 6 NA 46 60.7 86 103.1 126 142.5 166 180.0 206 216.2 246 251.2 286 285.5 326 318.9 366 351.8 7 NA 47 61.8 87 104.1 127 143.5 167 181.0 207 217.1 247 252.1 287 286.3 327 319.8 367 352.6 8 NA 48 62.9 88 105.2 128 144.4 168 181.9 208 217.9 248 253.0 288 287.1 328 320.6 368 353.4 9 NA 49 64.0 89 106.2 129 145.4 169 182.8 209 218.8 249 253.8 289 288.0 329 321.4 369 354.2 10 NA 50 65.1 90 107.2 130 146.4 170 183.7 210 219.7 250 254.7 290 288.8 330 322.2 370 355.1 11 NA 51 66.2 91 108.2 131 147.3 171 184.6 211 220.6 251 255.6 291 289.7 331 323.1 371 355.9 12 NA 52 67.3 92 109.2 132 148.3 172 185.5 212 221.5 252 256.4 292 290.5 332 323.9 372 356.7 13 NA 53 68.4 93 110.2 133 149.2 173 186.4 213 222.4 253 257.3 293 291.4 333 324.7 373 357.5 14 NA 54 69.5 94 111.2 134 150.2 174 187.4 214 223.3 254 258.1 294 292.2 334 325.6 374 358.3 15 NA 55 70.6 95 112.2 135 151.1 175 188.3 215 224.1 255 259.0 295 293.0 335 326.4 375 359.1 16 NA 56 71.7 96 113.2 136 152.1 176 189.2 216 225.0 256 259.9 296 293.9 336 327.2 376 359.9 17 NA 57 72.8 97 114.2 137 153.0 177 190.1 217 225.9 257 260.7 297 294.7 337 328.0 377 360.7 18 NA 58 73.9 98 115.2 138 153.9 178 191.0 218 226.8 258 261.6 298 295.6 338 328.9 378 361.5 19 NA 59 74.9 99 116.2 139 154.9 179 191.9 219 227.7 259 262.4 299 296.4 339 329.7 379 362.4 20 NA 60 76.0 100 117.2 140 155.8 180 192.8 220 228.6 260 263.3 300 297.2 340 330.5 380 363.2 21 NA 61 77.1 101 118.2 141 156.8 181 193.7 221 229.4 261 264.2 301 298.1 341 331.3 381 364.0 22 NA 62 78.2 102 119.2 142 157.7 182 194.6 222 230.3 262 265.0 302 298.9 342 332.2 382 364.8 23 NA 63 79.2 103 120.2 143 158.7 183 195.5 223 231.2 263 265.9 303 299.8 343 333.0 383 365.6 24 NA 64 80.3 104 121.1 144 159.6 184 196.4 224 232.1 264 266.7 304 300.6 344 333.8 384 366.4 25 36.2 65 81.3 105 122.1 145 160.5 185 197.3 225 232.9 265 267.6 305 301.4 345 334.6 385 367.2 26 37.4 66 82.4 106 123.1 146 161.5 186 198.3 226 233.8 266 268.4 306 302.3 346 335.4 386 368.0 27 38.6 67 83.5 107 124.1 147 162.4 187 199.2 227 234.7 267 269.3 307 303.1 347 336.3 387 368.8 28 39.9 68 84.5 108 125.1 148 163.3 188 200.1 228 235.6 268 270.2 308 304.0 348 337.1 388 369.6 29 41.1 69 85.6 109 126.1 149 164.3 189 201.0 229 236.5 269 271.0 309 304.8 349 337.9 389 370.4 30 42.2 70 86.6 110 127.0 150 165.2 190 201.9 230 237.3 270 271.9 310 305.6 350 338.7 390 371.2 31 43.4 71 87.7 111 128.0 151 166.2 191 202.8 231 238.2 271 272.7 311 306.5 351 339.5 391 372.1 32 44.6 72 88.7 112 129.0 152 167.1 192 203.7 232 239.1 272 273.6 312 307.3 352 340.4 392 372.9 33 45.8 73 89.8 113 130.0 153 168.0 193 204.6 233 239.9 273 274.4 313 308.1 353 341.2 393 373.7 34 47.0 74 90.8 114 130.9 154 168.9 194 205.5 234 240.8 274 275.3 314 309.0 354 342.0 394 374.5 35 48.1 75 91.8 115 131.9 155 169.9 195 206.3 235 241.7 275 276.1 315 309.8 355 342.8 395 375.3 36 49.3 76 92.9 116 132.9 156 170.8 196 207.2 236 242.6 276 277.0 316 310.6 356 343.6 396 376.1 37 50.5 77 93.9 117 133.9 157 171.7 197 208.1 237 243.4 277 277.8 317 311.5 357 344.5 397 376.9 38 51.6 78 94.9 118 134.8 158 172.7 198 209.0 238 244.3 278 278.7 318 312.3 358 345.3 398 377.7 39 52.8 79 96.0 119 135.8 159 173.6 199 209.9 239 245.2 279 279.5 319 313.1 359 346.1 399 378.5 40 53.9 80 97.0 120 136.8 160 174.5 200 210.8 240 246.0 280 280.4 320 314.0 360 346.9 400 379.3 </table>

<table> Table 21. Water Quality Standards for Pentachlorophenol Acute Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Table 22. Water Quality Standards for Pentachlorophenol Chronic Aquatic and Wildlife coldwater, warmwater and edw Table 23. Water Quality Standards for Pentachlorophenol Acute Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral pH ug/L pH ug/L pH ug/L pH ug/L pH ug/L pH ug/L 3 0.163 7 9.070 3 0.103 7 5.726 3 0.660 7 36.760 3.1 0.180 7.1 10.029 3.1 0.114 7.1 6.331 3.1 0.730 7.1 40.646 3.2 0.199 7.2 11.090 3.2 0.126 7.2 7.001 3.2 0.807 7.2 44.943 3.3 0.220 7.3 12.262 3.3 0.139 7.3 7.741 3.3 0.892 7.3 49.695 3.4 0.243 7.4 13.558 3.4 0.154 7.4 8.559 3.4 0.986 7.4 54.949 3.5 0.269 7.5 14.992 3.5 0.170 7.5 9.464 3.5 1.091 7.5 60.758 3.6 0.298 7.6 16.577 3.6 0.188 7.6 10.465 3.6 1.206 7.6 67.182 3.7 0.329 7.7 18.329 3.7 0.208 7.7 11.571 3.7 1.334 7.7 74.284 3.8 0.364 7.8 20.267 3.8 0.230 7.8 12.794 3.8 1.475 7.8 82.138 3.9 0.402 7.9 22.410 3.9 0.254 7.9 14.147 3.9 1.631 7.9 90.822 4 0.445 8 24.779 4 0.281 8 15.643 4 1.803 8 100.424 4.1 0.492 8.1 27.399 4.1 0.311 8.1 17.296 4.1 1.994 8.1 111.041 4.2 0.544 8.2 30.296 4.2 0.343 8.2 19.125 4.2 2.204 8.2 122.781 4.3 0.601 8.3 33.498 4.3 0.380 8.3 21.147 4.3 2.437 8.3 135.762 4.4 0.665 8.4 37.040 4.4 0.420 8.4 23.383 4.4 2.695 8.4 150.115 4.5 0.735 8.5 40.956 4.5 0.464 8.5 25.855 4.5 2.980 8.5 165.985 4.6 0.813 8.6 45.286 4.6 0.513 8.6 28.588 4.6 3.295 8.6 183.534 4.7 0.899 8.7 50.074 4.7 0.568 8.7 31.611 4.7 3.643 8.7 202.938 4.8 0.994 8.8 55.368 4.8 0.628 8.8 34.953 4.8 4.029 8.8 224.393 4.9 1.099 8.9 61.222 4.9 0.694 8.9 38.648 4.9 4.454 8.9 248.117 5 1.215 9 67.694 5 0.767 9 42.734 5 4.925 9 274.349 5.1 1.344 9.1 74.851 5.1 0.848 9.1 47.252 5.1 5.446 9.1 303.354 5.2 1.486 9.2 82.765 5.2 0.938 9.2 52.248 5.2 6.022 9.2 335.426 5.3 1.643 9.3 91.515 5.3 1.037 9.3 57.772 5.3 6.659 9.3 370.888 5.4 1.817 9.4 101.190 5.4 1.147 9.4 63.880 5.4 7.363 9.4 410.100 5.5 2.009 9.5 111.888 5.5 1.268 9.5 70.633 5.5 8.141 9.5 453.457 5.6 2.221 9.6 123.717 5.6 1.402 9.6 78.101 5.6 9.002 9.6 501.398 5.7 2.456 9.7 136.797 5.7 1.550 9.7 86.358 5.7 9.953 9.7 554.408 5.8 2.716 9.8 151.260 5.8 1.714 9.8 95.488 5.8 11.006 9.8 613.021 5.9 3.003 9.9 167.252 5.9 1.896 9.9 105.583 5.9 12.169 9.9 677.832 6 3.320 10 184.934 6 2.096 10 116.746 6 13.456 10 749.495 6.1 3.671 10.1 204.486 6.1 2.318 10.1 129.089 6.1 14.878 10.1 828.735 6.2 4.059 10.2 226.105 6.2 2.563 10.2 142.736 6.2 16.451 10.2 916.351 6.3 4.488 10.3 250.010 6.3 2.833 10.3 157.827 6.3 18.191 10.3 1013.231 6.4 4.963 10.4 276.442 6.4 3.133 10.4 174.513 6.4 20.114 10.4 1120.354 6.5 5.488 10.5 305.668 6.5 3.464 10.5 192.963 6.5 22.240 10.5 1238.802 6.6 6.068 10.6 337.984 6.6 3.831 10.6 213.364 6.6 24.591 10.6 1369.773 6.7 6.709 10.7 373.717 6.7 4.235 10.7 235.922 6.7 27.191 10.7 1514.590 6.8 7.419 10.8 413.228 6.8 4.683 10.8 260.864 6.8 30.066 10.8 1674.718 6.9 8.203 10.9 456.916 6.9 5.178 10.9 288.444 6.9 33.245 10.9 1851.775 11 505.223 11 318.939 11 2047.552 </table>

<table> Table 24. Acute Criteria for Total Ammonia (in mg N / L) pH A&amp;Wc A&amp;Ww 6.5 6.6 6.7 6.8 6.9 7.0 7.1 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.5 7.6 7.7 7.8 7.9 8.0 8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 9.0 32.6 31.3 29.8 28.1 26.2 24.1 22.0 19.7 17.5 15.4 13.3 11.4 9.65 8.11 6.77 5.62 4.64 3.83 3.15 2.59 2.14 1.77 1.47 1.23 1.04 0.885 48.8 46.8 44.6 42.0 39.1 36.1 32.8 29.5 26.2 23.0 19.9 17.0 14.4 12.1 10.1 8.40 6.95 5.72 4.71 3.88 3.20 2.65 2.20 1.84 1.56 1.32 </table>

<table> Table 25. Chronic Criteria for Total Ammonia (in mg N / L) for A&amp;Wc, and A&amp;Ww Designated Uses pH 0 14 16 18 Temperature, &#176;C 20 22 24 26 28 30 6.5 6.67 6.67 6.06 5.33 4.68 4.12 3.62 3.18 2.80 2.46 6.6 6.57 6.57 5.97 5.25 4.61 4.05 3.56 3.13 2.75 2.42 6.7 6.44 6.44 5.86 5.15 4.52 3.98 3.50 3.07 2.70 2.37 6.8 6.29 6.29 5.72 5.03 4.42 3.89 3.42 3.00 2.64 2.32 6.9 6.12 6.12 5.56 4.89 4.30 3.78 3.32 2.92 2.57 2.25 7.0 5.91 5.91 5.37 4.72 4.15 3.65 3.21 2.82 2.48 2.18 7.1 5.67 5.67 5.15 4.53 3.98 3.50 3.08 2.70 2.38 2.09 7.2 5.39 5.39 4.90 4.31 3.78 3.33 2.92 2.57 2.26 1.99 7.3 5.08 5.08 4.61 4.06 3.57 3.13 2.76 2.42 2.13 1.87 7.4 4.73 4.73 4.30 3.78 3.33 2.92 2.57 2.26 1.98 1.74 7.5 4.36 4.36 3.97 3.49 3.06 2.69 2.37 2.08 1.83 1.61 7.6 3.98 3.98 3.61 3.18 2.79 2.45 2.16 1.90 1.67 1.47 7.7 3.58 3.58 3.25 2.86 2.51 2.21 1.94 1.71 1.50 1.32 7.8 3.18 3.18 2.89 2.54 2.23 1.96 1.73 1.52 1.33 1.17 7.9 2.80 2.80 2.54 2.24 1.96 1.73 1.52 1.33 1.17 1.03 8.0 2.43 2.43 2.21 1.94 1.71 1.50 1.32 1.16 1.02 0.897 8.1 2.10 2.10 1.91 1.68 1.47 1.29 1.14 1.00 0.879 0.773 8.2 1.79 1.79 1.63 1.43 1.26 1.11 0.973 0.855 0.752 0.661 8.3 1.52 1.52 1.39 1.22 1.07 0.941 0.827 0.727 0.639 0.562 8.4 1.29 1.29 1.17 1.03 0.906 0.796 0.700 0.615 0.541 0.475 8.5 1.09 1.09 0.990 0.870 0.765 0.672 0.591 0.520 0.457 0.401 8.6 0.920 0.920 0.836 0.735 0.646 0.568 0.499 0.439 0.386 0.339 8.7 0.778 0.778 0.707 0.622 0.547 0.480 0.422 0.371 0.326 0.287 8.8 0.661 0.661 0.601 0.528 0.464 0.408 0.359 0.315 0.277 0.244 8.9 0.565 0.565 0.513 0.451 0.397 0.349 0.306 0.269 0.237 0.208 9.0 0.486 0.486 0.442 0.389 0.342 0.300 0.264 0.232 0.204 0.179 </table>

Historical Note

Appendix A repealed; new Appendix A adopted effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1). Appendix A, Table 2 amended to correct references to footnotes (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 716, effective April 8, 2003 (Supp. 03-1).

Appendix B. List of Surface Waters and Designated Uses

Abbreviations

River Basins

BW = Bill Williams

CM = Colorado Mainstem (includes Red Lake)

LC = Little Colorado

MG = Middle Gila (includes Gila River below San Carlos Indian Reservation, Salt River below Granite Reef Dam and Phoenix area waterbodies)

RM = Rios de Mexico (includes Rio Magdalena, Rio Sonoita, and Rio Yaqui Basins)

SC = Santa Cruz

SP = San Pedro

SR = Salt River (includes Salt River and tributaries above Granite Reef Dam)

UG = Upper Gila (includes Gila River and tributaries above San Carlos Indian Reservation)

VR = Verde River

WP = Wilcox Playa

Designated Uses

A&amp;Wc = Aquatic and Wildlife cold water

A&amp;Ww = Aquatic and Wildlife warm water

A&amp;We = Aquatic and Wildlife ephemeral

A&amp;Wedw = Aquatic and Wildlife effluent dependent water

FBC = Full-body Contact

PBC = Partial-body Contact

DWS = Domestic Water Source

FC = Fish Consumption

AgI = Agricultural Irrigation

AgL = Agricultural Livestock Watering

Other

U = Unique Water

EDW = Effluent-dependent Water

WWTP = Wastewater Treatment Plant

Km = kilometers

<table> BASIN SEGMENT LOCATION A&amp;Wc A&amp;Ww A&amp;We A&amp;Wedw FBC PBC DWS FC AgI AgL BW Alamo Lake 34&#176;14'45"/113&#176;35'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Big Sandy River Tributary to the Santa Maria River at 34&#176;18'36"/113&#176;31'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Bill Williams River Tributary to the Colorado River at 34&#176;18'04"/114&#176;08'10" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Blue Tank 34&#176;40'14"/112&#176;58'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Boulder Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;41'14"/113&#176;03'34" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL BW Boulder Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL BW Burro Creek (Unique Water) Headwaters to confluence with Boulder Creek at 34&#176;36'47"/113&#176;18'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Burro Creek Below confluence with Boulder Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Conger Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;45'13"/113&#176;05'45" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL BW Conger Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Coors Lake 34&#176;36'20"/113&#176;11'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC BW Copper Basin Wash Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;28'11"/112&#176;35'31" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL BW Copper Basin Wash Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;We PBC AgL BW Cottonwood Canyon Headwaters to Bear Trap Spring at 34&#176;45'10"/112&#176;52'32" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL BW Cottonwood Canyon Below Bear Trap Spring A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Date Creek Tributary to the Santa Maria River at 34&#176;18'11"/113&#176;29'53" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Francis Creek (Unique Water) Tributary to Burro Creek at 34&#176;44'28"/113&#176;14'35" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL BW Kirkland Creek Tributary to Santa Maria River at 34&#176;32'02"/112&#176;59'38" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL BW Knight Creek Tributary to the Big Sandy River at 34&#176;55'16"/113&#176;37'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Peoples Canyon (Unique Water) Tributary to the Santa Maria River at 34&#176;20'35"/113&#176;15'11" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL BW Santa Maria River Tributary to the Bill Williams River at 34&#176;18'36"/113&#176;31'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL BW Trout Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 35&#176;06'47"/113&#176;13'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL BW Trout Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM A-10 Backwater 33&#176;31'38"/114&#176;33'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM A-7 Backwater 33&#176;34'39"/114&#176;39'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Adobe Lake 33&#176;02'39"/114&#176;39'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Agate Canyon Creek Grand Canyon, tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;08'38"/112&#176;16'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Beaver Dam Wash Tributary to the Virgin River at 36&#176;53'42"/113&#176;55'09" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM Big Springs Tank 36&#176;36'10"/112&#176;20'58" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM Boucher Creek Grand Canyon, tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;06'54"/112&#176;13'44" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Bright Angel Creek Headwaters to confluence with Roaring Springs Canyon at 36&#176;11'34"/112&#176;01'54" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Bright Angel Creek Below confluence with Roaring Spring Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Bright Angel Wash (EDW) South rim WWTP outfall to Coconino Wash A&amp;Wedw PBC AgL CM Bulrush Canyon Wash Tributary to Kanab Creek at 36&#176;46'55"/112&#176;37'08" A&amp;We PBC CM Cataract Creek Headwaters to Santa Fe Reservoir A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Cataract Creek Santa Fe Reservoir to Williams WWTP outfall A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL CM Cataract Creek (EDW) Williams WWTP outfall to 1 km downstream A&amp;Wedw PBC CM Cataract Creek Below 1 km downstream of Williams WWTP outfall to confluence of Red Lake Wash A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM Cataract Creek Red Lake Wash to Havasupai Reservation A&amp;We PBC AgL CM Cataract Lake 35&#176;15'05"/112&#176;12'58" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL CM Chuar Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;11'36"/111&#176;52'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Chuar Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Cibola Lake 33&#176;14'20"/114&#176;40'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM City Reservoir 35&#176;13'57"/112&#176;11'23" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC CM Clear Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;09'12"/111&#176;58'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Clear Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Clear Lake 33&#176;01'57"/114&#176;31'26" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Colorado River Lake Powell to Topock A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Colorado River Topock to Morelos Dam A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Cottonwood Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 35&#176;20'45.5"/113&#176;35'31" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM Cottonwood Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM Crystal Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;13'42"/112&#176;11'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Crystal Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Deer Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;26'16"/112&#176;28'15.5" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Deer Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Detrital Wash Tributary to Lake Mead at 36&#176;02'20"/114&#176;27'47" A&amp;We PBC CM Dogtown Reservoir 35&#176;12'40"/112&#176;07'46" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Dragon Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with Milk Creek at 36&#176;12'25"/112&#176;09'33" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Dragon Creek Below confluence with Milk Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Garden Creek Grand Canyon, tributary to Pipe Creek at 36&#176;05'35"/112&#176;06'40" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Gonzalez Lake 35&#176;15'26"/112&#176;12'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL CM Grand Wash Tributary to Lake Mead at 36&#176;15'29"/114&#176;00'18" A&amp;We PBC CM Grapevine Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;03'29"/112&#176;00'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Grapevine Wash Tributary to Lake Mead at 36&#176;06'29"/114&#176;00'07" A&amp;We PBC CM Hakatai Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;14'42"/112&#176;22'59" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Hance Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;02'46"/111&#176;57'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Havasu Canyon Creek Below the Havasupai Indian Reservation; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;18'29"/112&#176;45'43" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Hermit Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to Hermit Pack Trail crossing at 36&#176;03'23"/112&#176;13'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Hermit Creek Below Hermit Pack Trail crossing A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Holy Moses Wash (EDW) Kingman WWTP outfall to 3 km downstream A&amp;Wedw PBC CM Horn Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;05'56"/112&#176;07'59" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Hualapai Wash Tributary to Lake Mead at 36&#176;00'40"/114&#176;07'37" A&amp;We PBC CM Hunter's Hole Backwater 32&#176;31'15"/114&#176;48'03" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM Imperial Reservoir 32&#176;53'04"/114&#176;27'40" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Island Lake 33&#176;01'52"/114&#176;35'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Jacob Lake 36&#176;42'26"/112&#176;13'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Kaibab Lake 35&#176;17'04"/112&#176;09'17" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Kanab Creek Kanab Plateau; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;23'31"/112&#176;37'44" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgL CM Kwagunt Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;13'29"/111&#176;55'24" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Kwagunt Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Laguna Reservoir 32&#176;51'15"/114&#176;28'38" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Lake Havasu 34&#176;18'15"/114&#176;08'15" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Lake Mead 36&#176;01'00"/114&#176;44'15" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Lake Mohave 35&#176;11'45"/114&#176;34'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Lake Powell 36&#176;57'00"/111&#176;29'15" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Lonetree Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;04'48"/112&#176;01'52" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Martinez Lake 32&#176;58'52"/114&#176;28'23" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL CM Matkatamiba Creek Below Havasupai Indian Reservation; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;20'38"/112&#176;40'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Mittry Lake 32&#176;49'11"/114&#176;27'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Mohave Wash Tributary to Lake Havasu at 33&#176;28'55"/114&#176;35'56" A&amp;We PBC CM Monument Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;05'53"/112&#176;10'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Nankoweap Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;15'30"/111&#176;57'23" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Nankoweap Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM National Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; those reaches not located on the Hualapai Indian Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM North Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;33'57"/111&#176;55'39" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM North Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Nortons Lake 33&#176;02'35"/114&#176;37'58" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Olo Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;22'16"/112&#176;38'56" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Parashant Canyon Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;21'26"/113&#176;28'10" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Parashant Canyon Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Paria River Paria Plateau; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;51'29"/111&#176;36'04" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Phantom Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;10'04"/112&#176;07'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Phantom Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Pipe Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;05'56"/112&#176;06'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Pretty Water Lake 33&#176;19'45"/114&#176;42'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Quigley Ponds 32&#176;43'00"/113&#176;58'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Red Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;02'42"/111&#176;55'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Red Lake 35&#176;40'00"/114&#176;03'45" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM Redondo Lake 32&#176;44'32"/114&#176;29'02" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Roaring Springs Headwaters of Roaring Springs Creek A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC CM Roaring Springs Canyon Grand Canyon; tributary to Bright Angel Creek at 36&#176;11'35"/112&#176;01'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Rock Canyon Tributary to Truxton Wash at 35&#176;26'56"/113&#176;36'29" A&amp;We PBC CM Royal Arch Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;11'53"/112&#176;26'56" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Ruby Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;11'24"/112&#176;18'54" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Russell Tank 34&#176;52'22"/111&#176;52'44" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM Sacramento Wash Tributary to Topock Marsh at 34&#176;43'48"/114&#176;29'13" A&amp;We PBC CM Saddle Canyon Creek Marble Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;21'35.5"/112&#176;22'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Saddle Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Santa Fe Reservoir 35&#176;14'26"/112&#176;11'04" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC CM Sapphire Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;08'49"/112&#176;17'28" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Sawmill Canyon Headwaters to abandoned gaging station at 35&#176;09'46.5"/113&#176;57'51" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM Sawmill Canyon Below abandoned gaging station A&amp;We PBC AgL CM Serpentine Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;12'22"/112&#176;19'37" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Shinumo Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;18'21"/112&#176;18'03" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Shinumo Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Short Creek Tributary to the Virgin River at 36&#176;58'23"/113&#176;16'08" A&amp;We PBC CM Slate Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;08'06"/112&#176;14'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Spring Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;01'08"/113&#176;21'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Stone Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;20'49"/112&#176;27'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Tapeats Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;22'16"/112&#176;28'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Thunder River Tributary to Tapeats Creek at 36&#176;23'31"/112&#176;27'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Topock Marsh 34&#176;47'30"/114&#176;31'00" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL CM Trail Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 35&#176;50'20"/113&#176;19'37" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Transept Canyon (EDW) North Rim WWTP outfall to 1 km downstream A&amp;Wedw PBC CM Travertine Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;06'11"/112&#176;13'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Truxton Wash Tributary to Red Lake Playa at 35&#176;37'23"/114&#176;03'00" A&amp;We PBC CM Turquoise Canyon Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;09'14"/112&#176;18'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Unkar Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;07'54"/111&#176;54'03" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Unkar Creek Below conf with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Vasey's Paradise Grand Canyon; 36&#176;26'49"/111&#176;50'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM Virgin River Tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;47'28"/114&#176;06'11" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL CM Vishnu Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;03'18"/111&#176;59'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Warm Springs Creek Grand Canyon; tributary to the Colorado River at 36&#176;11'49"/113&#176;04'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Wellton Canal Yuma Canal System DWS AgI AgL CM Wellton Ponds 32&#176;42'15"/114&#176;06'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM West Cataract Creek Tributary to Cataract Creek at 35&#176;15'40"/112&#176;11'38" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM White Creek Grand Canyon; headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 36&#176;18'42"/112&#176;21'03" A&amp;Wc FBC FC CM White Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Wright Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 35&#176;20'54"/113&#176;30'35" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL CM Wright Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL CM YPG Pond 32&#176;50'22"/114&#176;26'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC CM Yuma Area Canals Above municipal water treatment plant intakes DWS AgI AgL CM Yuma Area Canals Below municipal water treatment plant intakes and all drains AgI AgL LC Als Lake 35&#176;02'17"/111&#176;25'13" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Ashurst Lake 35&#176;01'10"/111&#176;24'09" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Atcheson Reservoir 34&#176;00'00"/109&#176;20'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Auger Creek Tributary to Nutrioso Creek at 33&#176;57'22"/109&#176;12'58" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Barbershop Canyon Creek Tributary to East Clear Creek at 34&#176;33'00"/111&#176;09'43" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Bear Canyon Creek Tributary to General Springs Canyon at 34&#176;32'18"/111&#176;12'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Bear Canyon Creek Tributary to Willow Creek at 34&#176;27'29"/111&#176;00'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Bear Canyon Lake 34&#176;24'10"/111&#176;00'09" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Becker Lake 34&#176;09'16"/109&#176;18'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Billy Creek Tributary to Show Low Creek at 34&#176;12'25"/110&#176;00'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Black Canyon Creek Tributary to Chevelon Creek at 34&#176;47'38"/110&#176;36'22" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Black Canyon Lake 34&#176;19'50"/110&#176;41'59" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Blue Ridge Reservoir 34&#176;33'15"/111&#176;11'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Boot Lake 34&#176;58'53"/111&#176;20'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Buck Springs Canyon Creek Tributary to Leonard Canyon Creek at 34&#176;28'52"/111&#176;05'24" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Bunch Reservoir 34&#176;02'12"/109&#176;26'45" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Camillo Tank 34&#176;55'03"/111&#176;22'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Carnero Lake 34&#176;06'57"/109&#176;31'39" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Chevelon Canyon Lake 34&#176;30'39"/110&#176;49'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Chevelon Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;57'04"/110&#176;31'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Chevelon Creek, West Fork Tributary to Chevelon Creek at 34&#176;36'58"/110&#176;46'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Chilson Tank 34&#176;51'46"/111&#176;22'52" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Cholla Lake 34&#176;56'00"/110&#176;17'12" A&amp;Ww FBC FC LC Clear Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;59'13"/110&#176;38'17" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL LC Clear Creek Reservoir 34&#176;58'10"/110&#176;38'33" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Coconino Reservoir 35&#176;00'16"/111&#176;23'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Colter Creek Tributary to Nutrioso Creek at 33&#176;58'19"/109&#176;12'29" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Colter Reservoir 33&#176;56'40"/109&#176;28'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Concho Creek Tributary to Carrizo Wash at 34&#176;36'25"/109&#176;33'54" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Concho Lake 34&#176;26'36"/109&#176;37'40" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Cow Lake 34&#176;53'19"/111&#176;18'49" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Coyote Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;18'22"/109&#176;20'53" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Crisis Lake (Snake Tank #2) 34&#176;47'51"/111&#176;17'01" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Dane Canyon Creek Tributary to Barbershop Canyon Creek at 34&#176;30'29"/111&#176;09'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Daves Tank 34&#176;44'23"/111&#176;17'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Deep Lake 35&#176;03'30"/111&#176;24'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Dry Lake (EDW) 34&#176;37'52"/110&#176;23'40" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Ducksnest Lake 34&#176;59'15"/111&#176;23'53" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC East Clear Creek Tributary to Clear Creek at 34&#176;38'31"/110&#176;59'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Ellis Wiltbank Reservoir 34&#176;05'25"/109&#176;28'24" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Fish Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;04'05"/109&#176;26'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Fool's Hollow Lake 34&#176;16'14"/110&#176;04'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC General Springs Canyon Creek Tributary to East Clear Creek at 34&#176;32'17"/111&#176;12'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Geneva Reservoir 34&#176;01'44"/109&#176;31'44" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Hall Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;03'58"/109&#176;27'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Hart Canyon Creek Tributary to Willow Creek at 34&#176;30'40"/110&#176;59'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Hay Lake 34&#176;00'11"/109&#176;25'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Hog Wallow Lake 33&#176;58'57"/109&#176;25'38" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Horse Lake 35&#176;03'53"/111&#176;27'51" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Huffer Tank 34&#176;27'45"/111&#176;23'09" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Hulsey Creek Tributary to Nutrioso Creek at 33&#176;56'28"/109&#176;11'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Hulsey Lake 33&#176;55'57"/109&#176;09'33" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Indian Lake 35&#176;00'38"/111&#176;22'37" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Jack's Canyon Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 35&#176;00'07"/110&#176;39'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Jarvis Lake 33&#176;58'59"/109&#176;12'33" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Kinnikinick Lake 34&#176;53'52"/111&#176;18'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Knoll Lake 34&#176;25'38"/111&#176;05'10" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Lake Humphreys (EDW) 35&#176;11'51"/111&#176;35'16" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Lake Mary, Lower 35&#176;06'22"/111&#176;34'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Lake Mary, Upper 35&#176;04'45"/111&#176;31'56" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL LC Lake of the Woods 34&#176;09'39"/109&#176;58'45" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Lee Valley Creek (UW) Headwaters to Lee Valley Reservoir A&amp;Wc FBC FC LC Lee Valley Creek From Lee Valley Reservoir to the East Fork of the Little Colorado River at 33&#176;56'35"/109&#176;29'06" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Lee Valley Reservoir 33&#176;56'30"/109&#176;30'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Leonard Canyon Creek Tributary to Clear Creek at 34&#176;37'26"/111&#176;02'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Leonard Canyon Creek, East Fork Tributary to Leonard Canyon Creek at 34&#176;25'52"/111&#176;05'06" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Leonard Canyon Creek, Middle Fork Tributary to Leonard Canyon, West Fork at 34&#176;26'17"/111&#176;06'47" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Leonard Canyon Creek, West Fork Tributary to Leonard Canyon, East Fork at 34&#176;28'01"/111&#176;05'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Lily Creek Tributary to Coyote Creek at 33&#176;59'46"/109&#176;03'58" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Little Colorado River Headwaters to Lyman Reservoir A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Little Colorado River Below Lyman Reservoir, to confluence with the Puerco River at 34&#176;53'20"/110&#176;07'41" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Little Colorado River Below confluence with Puerco River A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Little Colorado River, East Fork Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;00'14"/109&#176;27'22" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Little Colorado River, South Fork Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;05'20"/109&#176;24'58" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Little Colorado River, West Fork (Unique Water) Headwaters to Government Springs at 33&#176;59'33"/109&#176;27'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC LC Little Colorado River, West Fork Below Government Springs A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Little George Reservoir 34&#176;00'37"/109&#176;19'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI LC Little Mormon Lake 34&#176;17'00"/109&#176;58'03" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Little Ortega Lake 34&#176;22'45"/109&#176;40'00" A&amp;W w FBC FC LC Long Lake, Lower 34&#176;46'45"/111&#176;12'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Long Lake, Upper 35&#176;00'00"/111&#176;21'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Long Tom Tank 34&#176;20'37"/110&#176;49'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Lower Walnut Canyon Lake (EDW) 35&#176;12'04"/111&#176;34'07" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Lyman Reservoir 34&#176;21'30"/109&#176;21'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Mamie Creek Tributary to Coyote Creek at 33&#176;59'24"/109&#176;03'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Marshall Lake 35&#176;07'10"/111&#176;32'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC McKay Reservoir 34&#176;01'27"/110&#176;29'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Merritt Draw Creek Tributary to Barbershop Canyon Creek at 34&#176;29'38"/111&#176;09'54" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Mexican Hay Lake 34&#176;01'57"/109&#176;21'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Milk Creek Tributary to Hulsey Creek at 33&#176;56'31"/109&#176;11'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Miller Canyon Creek Tributary to East Clear Creek at 34&#176;33'00"/111&#176;14'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Miller Canyon Creek, East Fork Tributary to Miller Canyon Creek at 34&#176;30'18"/111&#176;14'53" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Mineral Creek Tributary to Little Ortega Lake at 34&#176;22'52"/109&#176;39'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Mormon Lake 34&#176;56'40"/111&#176;27'10" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Morton Lake 34&#176;53'36"/111&#176;17'39" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Mud Lake 34&#176;55'24"/111&#176;21'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Ned Lake (EDW) 32&#176;17'18"/110&#176;03'20" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Nelson Reservoir 34&#176;03'12"/109&#176;11'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Norton Reservoir 34&#176;03'57"/109&#176;31'21" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Nutrioso Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;09'04"/109&#176;17'35" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Paddy Creek Tributary to Nutrioso Creek at 33&#176;54'47"/109&#176;10'16" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Phoenix Park Wash Tributary to Dry Lake at 34&#176;37'30"/110&#176;22'12" A&amp;We PBC LC Pine Tank 34&#176;46'49"/111&#176;17'17" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Pintail Lake (EDW) 34&#176;18'06"/110&#176;01'17" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Pool Corral Lake 33&#176;58'16"/109&#176;24'53" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Porter Creek Tributary to Show Low Creek at 34&#176;10'16"/109&#176;58'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Potato Lake 34&#176;27'44"/111&#176;20'42" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Pratt Lake 34&#176;01'31"/109&#176;04'16" A&amp;Wc FBC FC LC Puerco River Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;53'20"/110&#176;07'41" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Rainbow Lake 34&#176;09'03"/109&#176;59'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Reagan Reservoir 34&#176;02'09"/109&#176;08'43" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Rio de Flag (EDW) Flagstaff WWTP outfall to the confluence with San Francisco Wash at 35&#176;14'04"/111&#176;28'02.5" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC River Reservoir 34&#176;02'01"/109&#176;26'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Rogers Reservoir 33&#176;58'30"/109&#176;16'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Rudd Creek Tributary to Nutrioso Creek at 34&#176;04'12"/109&#176;11'56" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Russel Reservoir 33&#176;59'29"/109&#176;20'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC San Salvador Reservoir 33&#176;58'51"/109&#176;19'51" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Salt House Lake 33&#176;57'06"/109&#176;20'12" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Scott Reservoir 34&#176;10'27"/109&#176;57'27" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Show Low Creek Tributary to Silver Creek at 34&#176;25'26"/110&#176;04'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Show Low Lake 34&#176;11'25"/109&#176;59'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Silver Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;44'24"/110&#176;02'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Slade Reservoir 33&#176;59'50"/109&#176;20'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Soldiers Annex Lake 34&#176;47'13"/111&#176;13'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Soldiers Lake 34&#176;47'49"/110&#176;13'59" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Spaulding Tank 34&#176;30'17"/111&#176;02'03" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC Sponseller Lake 34&#176;14'10"/109&#176;50'42" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC St Johns Reservoir (Little Reservoir) 34&#176;29'14"/109&#176;21'57" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Telephone Lake (EDW) 34&#176;17'35"/110&#176;02'39" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Tremaine Lake 34&#176;46'00"/111&#176;14'10" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Tunnel Reservoir 34&#176;01'51"/109&#176;26'32" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Vail Lake 35&#176;05'24"/111&#176;30'42" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Walnut Creek Tributary to Billy Creek at 34&#176;09'50"/109&#176;58'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Water Canyon Creek Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;06'47"/109&#176;18'43" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Water Canyon Reservoir 34&#176;00'15"/109&#176;20'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LC Whale Lake (EDW) 35&#176;12'32"/111&#176;34'42" A&amp;Wedw PBC LC Whipple Lake 34&#176;16'47"/109&#176;58'28" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL LC White Mountain Lake 34&#176;21'54"/109&#176;59'38" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC White Mountain Reservoir 34&#176;00'15"/109&#176;30'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Willow Creek Tributary to Clear Creek at 34&#176;38'31"/110&#176;59'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Willow Springs Canyon Creek Tributary to Chevelon Creek at 34&#176;21'32"/110&#176;53'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Willow Springs Lake 34&#176;18'45"/110&#176;52'34" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Woodland Reservoir 34&#176;07'36"/109&#176;57'06" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LC Woods Canyon Creek Tributary to Chevelon Creek at 34&#176;21'32"/110&#176;53'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL LC Woods Canyon Lake 34&#176;20'05"/110&#176;56'35" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL LC Zuni River Tributary to the Little Colorado River at 34&#176;38'42"/109&#176;40'26" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL LG Columbus Wash Tributary to the Gila River at 33&#176;00'25"/113&#176;16'08" A&amp;We PBC LG Gila River Painted Rock Dam to the Colorado River at 32&#176;43'12"/114&#176;33'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL LG Painted Rock (Borrow Pit) Lake 33&#176;05'00"/113&#176;01'20" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Agua Fria River Headwaters to confluence with unnamed EDW wash at 34&#176;35'43"/112&#176;16'29", receiving treated wastewater from the Prescott Valley WWTP A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Agua Fria River (EDW) Below confluence with unnamed wash receiving treated wastewater from the Prescott Valley WWTP to State Route 169 A&amp;Wedw PBC AgL MG Agua Fria River State Route 169 to Lake Pleasant A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL MG Agua Fria River Below Lake Pleasant to the El Mirage WWTP A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Agua Fria River (EDW) El Mirage WWTP to 2 km downstream A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Agua Fria River Below 2 km downstream of the El Mirage WWTP to State Highway 85 A&amp;We PBC MG Agua Fria River Below State Highway 85 A&amp;Ww FBC FC MG Alvord Park Lake Municipal Park Lake: 35th Avenue &amp; Baseline Road, Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Antelope Creek Tributary to Martinez Creek at 34&#176;16'37"/112&#176;08'46" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Arlington Canal Above Wilson Avenue AgL MG Ash Creek Headwaters to confluence with Tex Canyon at 34&#176;34'44"/112&#176;07'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL MG Ash Creek Below confluence with Tex Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Beehive Tank 32&#176;52'36"/111&#176;02'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Big Bug Creek Headwaters to confluence with Eugene Gulch at 34&#176;27'11"/112&#176;18'28.5" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL MG Big Bug Creek Below confluence with Eugene Gulch A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Black Canyon Creek Tributary to the Agua Fria River at 34&#176;04'12"/112&#176;09'29" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Blind Indian Creek Tributary to the Hassayampa River at 34&#176;12'40"/112&#176;32'17" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Bonsall Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 59th Avenue &amp; Bethany Home Road, Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Canal Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; College Avenue &amp; Curry Road, Tempe A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Cave Creek Headwaters to the Cave Creek Dam A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Cave Creek Cave Creek Dam to the Arizona Canal at 33&#176;34'24"/112&#176;06'25" A&amp;We PBC MG Centennial Wash Tributary to the Gila River at 33&#176;13'44"/112&#176;46'16" A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Centennial Wash Ponds 33&#176;55'10"/113&#176;23'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Chaparral Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; Hayden Road &amp; Chaparral Road, Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC AgI MG Cortez Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 35th Avenue &amp; Dunlap, Glendale A&amp;Ww PBC FC AgI MG Desert Breeze Lake Municipal Park Lake; Galaxy Drive, West Chandler A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Devils Canyon Tributary to Mineral Creek at 33&#176;12'58"/110&#176;59'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Dobson Lake Municipal Park Lake; Dobson Road &amp; Los Lagos Vista Avenue, Mesa A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Eldorado Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; Miller Road &amp; Oak Street, Tempe A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Encanto Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 15th Avenue &amp; Encanto Blvd., Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC AgI MG Fain Lake Park Lake, city of Prescott Valley A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Galena Gulch Tributary to the Agua Fria River at 34&#176;28'37"/112&#176;15'14" A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Gila River San Carlos Indian Reservation to the Ashurst-Hayden Dam A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Gila River Ashurst-Hayden Dam to the Florence WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Gila River (EDW) Florence WWTP outfall to Felix Road A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Gila River Felix Road to the Gila River Indian Reservation A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Gila River (EDW) Salt River to the Gillespie Dam A&amp;Wedw PBC FC AgI AgL MG Gila River Gillespie Dam to Painted Rock Dam A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Granada Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 6505 North 20th Street, Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Groom Creek Tributary to the Hassayampa River at 34&#176;27'14"/112&#176;29'24" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL MG Hank Raymond Lake 33&#176;50'18"/112&#176;16'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Hassayampa Lake 34&#176;25'45"/112&#176;25'29" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC MG Hassayampa River Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;26'09"/112&#176;30'32" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL MG Hassayampa River Below confluence with unnamed tributary to 8 miles south of Wickenberg A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Hassayampa River 8 miles south of Wickenburg to the Buckeye Irrigation Company Canal A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Hassayampa River Buckeye Irrigation Company canal to the Gila River A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Horsethief Lake 34&#176;09'42"/112&#176;17'56" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL MG Indian Bend Wash Tributary to the Salt River at 33&#176;26'13"/111&#176;54'58" A&amp;We PBC MG Indian Bend Wash Lakes Municipal Park Lakes; Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Indian School Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; Indian School Road &amp; Hayden Road, Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Kiwanis Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 6000 South Mill Avenue, Tempe A&amp;Ww PBC FC AgI MG Lake Pleasant 33&#176;51'15"/112&#176;16'15" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL MG Lion Canyon Tributary to Weaver Creek at 34&#176;10'12"/112&#176;41'49" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Little Ash Creek Tributary to Ash Creek at 34&#176;20'46"/112&#176;04'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Lynx Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;34'29"/112&#176;21'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL MG Lynx Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Lynx Lake 34&#176;31'08"/112&#176;23'05" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL MG Maricopa Park Lake 33&#176;35'30"/112&#176;18'16" A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Martinez Canyon Tributary to Box Canyon at 33&#176;06'33"/111&#176;12'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Martinez Creek Tributary to the Hassayampa River at 33&#176;59'56"/112&#176;44'38" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG McKellips Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; Miller Road &amp; McKellips Road, Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC AgI MG Mineral Creek Tributary to the Gila River at 34&#176;17'42"/112&#176;13'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Minnehaha Creek Tributary to the Hassayampa River at 34&#176;11'49"/112&#176;32'24" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG New River Headwaters to I-17 A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG New River Below I-17 A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Painted Rock Reservoir 33&#176;04'15"/113&#176;00'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Papago Park Ponds Municipal Park Lake; Galvin Parkway, Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Perry Mesa Tank 34&#176;11'03"/112&#176;01'59" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Phoenix Area Canals Granite Reef Dam to all municipal WTP intakes DWS AgI AgL MG Phoenix Area Canals Below municipal WTP intakes and all other locations AgI AgL MG Picacho Reservoir 32&#176;51'17"/111&#176;28'49" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Poland Creek Headwaters to confluence with Lorena Gulch at 34&#176;12'32"/112&#176;19'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL MG Poland Creek Below confluence with Lorena Gulch A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Queen Creek Headwaters to the Town of Superior WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC AgL MG Queen Creek (EDW) Town of Superior WWTP outfall to confluence with Potts Canyon A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Queen Creek Potts Canyon to Queen Valley golf course A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Queen Creek Below Queen Valley golf course A&amp;We PBC MG Riverview Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; Dobson Road &amp; 8th Street, Mesa A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Roadrunner Park Lake Municipal Park Lake; 36th Street &amp; Cactus, Phoenix A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Sycamore Creek Headwaters to confluence with Tank Canyon at 34&#176;19'32"/111&#176;50'12" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL MG Sycamore Creek Below confluence with Tank Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Tule Creek Tributary to the Agua Fria River at 33&#176;57'25"/112&#176;14'13" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Turkey Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;19'28"/112&#176;21'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL MG Turkey Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL MG Unnamed Wash (EDW) Gila Bend WWTP outfall to the Gila River A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Unnamed Wash (EDW) Luke Air Force Base WWTP outfall to the Agua Fria River A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Unnamed Wash (EDW) Prescott Valley WWTP outfall to the Agua Fria River A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Unnamed Wash (EDW) Queen Valley Sanitary District WWTP outfall to the confluence with Queen Creek A&amp;Wedw PBC MG Vista Del Camino Park North Municipal Park Lake; 7700 East Roosevelt Street, Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Vista Del Camino Park South Municipal Park Lake; 7700 East Roosevelt Street, Scottsdale A&amp;Ww PBC FC MG Walnut Canyon Creek Tributary to the Gila River at 33&#176;06'47"/111&#176;05'20" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG Weaver Creek Tributary to Martinez Creek at 34&#176;03'18"/112&#176;46'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL MG White Canyon Creek Tributary to Walnut Canyon Creek at 33&#176;09'25"/111&#176;04'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Abbot Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Ash Creek Chiricahua Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL RM Bear Creek Headwaters to U.S./Mexico border at 31&#176;19'59"/110&#176;22'58.5" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Blackwater Draw San Bernardino Valley A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Buck Canyon Headwaters to Buck Creek Tank at 31&#176;33'06"/109&#176;52'43" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Buck Canyon Below Buck Creek Tank A&amp;We PBC AgL RM California Gulch South of Ruby A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Dixie Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Dry Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Gadwell Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Glance Creek Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Gold Gulch Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Holden Canyon Creek Coronado National Forest A&amp;Ww FBC FC RM Johnson Canyon Chiricahua Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Leslie Canyon Creek Chiricahua Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Mexican Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Mule Gulch Headwaters to just above the Lavender Pit A&amp;Ww PBC FC RM Mule Gulch Just above the Lavender Pit to the Bisbee WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC RM Mule Gulch (EDW) Below the Bisbee WWTP outfall, to the Highway 80 bridge at 31&#176;26'30"/109&#176;49'28" A&amp;Wedw PBC RM Mule Gulch Below the Highway 80 bridge A&amp;We PBC AgL RM Quitobaquito Spring (Pond and Springs) 31&#176;56'39"/113&#176;01'06" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Ruby Lakes Near the town of Ruby A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Rucker Canyon Creek Chiricahua Mtns; tributary to Whitewater Draw at 31&#176;44'46"/109&#176;26'06" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL RM Rucker Canyon Lake 31&#176;46'46"/109&#176;18'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL RM Soto Canyon Mule Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Sycamore Canyon Creek Headwaters to the U.S./Mexico border at 31&#176;22'48"/111&#176;13'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL RM Unnamed Wash (EDW) Bisbee-Douglas International Airport WWTP outfall to Whitewater Draw A&amp;Wedw PBC RM Whitewater Draw Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;20'36"/109&#176;34'46" A&amp;We PBC AgL RM Whitewater Draw Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Agua Caliente Lake Municipal Park Lake; 12325 East Roger Road, Tucson A&amp;Ww PBC FC SC Agua Caliente Wash Headwaters to Soldier Trail A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Agua Caliente Wash Below Soldier Trail A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Aguirre Wash Those reaches not located on the Tohono O'odham Indian Reservation A&amp;We PBC SC Alambre Wash Tributary to Brawley Wash at 31&#176;57'47"/111&#176;23'28" A&amp;We PBC SC Alamo Wash Tributary to Rillito Creek at 32&#176;16'23"/110&#176;54'18" A&amp;We PBC SC Altar Wash Tributary to Brawley Wash at 31&#176;57'47"/111&#176;23'28" A&amp;We PBC SC Alum Gulch Headwaters to 31&#176;28'20"/110&#176;43'51" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Alum Gulch From 31&#176;28'20"/110&#176;43'51" to 31&#176;29'17"/110&#176;44'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Alum Gulch Below 31&#176;29'17"/110&#176;44'25" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Arivaca Creek Tributary to Altar Wash at 31&#176;43'01"/111&#176;25'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Arivaca Lake 31&#176;31'50"/111&#176;15'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SC Atterbury Wash Tributary to Pantano Wash at 32&#176;10'52"/110&#176;48'50" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Bear Grass Tank 31&#176;33'01"/111&#176;11'32" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Big Wash Tributary to Ca&amp;ntilde;ada del Oro at 32&#176;24'47"/110&#176;56'28" A&amp;We PBC SC Bog Hole Tank 31&#176;28'34"/110&#176;37'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Brawley Wash Tributary to Los Robles Wash at 32&#176;21'54"/111&#176;17'31" A&amp;We PBC SC Ca&amp;ntilde;ada del Oro Headwaters to Highway 89 at 32&#176;24'48"/110&#176;56'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SC Ca&amp;ntilde;ada del Oro Below Highway 89 A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Cienega Creek Headwaters to confluence with Gardner Canyon and Spring Water Canyon at R18E, T17S. A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Cienega Creek (Unique Water) From confluence with Gardner Canyon and Spring Water Canyon at R18E, T17S to USGS gaging station at 32&#176;02'09"/110&#176;40'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Davidson Canyon Headwaters to unnamed spring at 31&#176;59'00"/110&#176;38'46" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Davidson Canyon Unnamed Spring to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;59'32.5"/110&#176;38'43.5" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Davidson Canyon From confluence with unnamed tributary to unnamed spring at 32&#176;00'54"/110&#176;38'54" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Davidson Canyon From unnamed spring at 32&#176;00'54"/110&#176;38'54" to confluence with Cienega Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Empire Gulch Headwaters to unnamed spring at 31&#176;47'14"/110&#176;38'13" A&amp;We PBC SC Empire Gulch From 31&#176;47'14" / 110&#176;38'13" to31&#176;47'11" / 110&#176;00'39" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Empire Gulch Below 31&#176;47'11" / 110&#176;00'39" to 31&#176;47'18" / 110&#176;36'57" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Empire Gulch From 31&#176;47'18" / 110&#176;36'57" to confluence with Cienega Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Flux Canyon Tributary to Alum Canyon at 31&#176;30'22"/110&#176;46'41" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Gardner Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with Sawmill Canyon at 31&#176;42'51"/110&#176;44'43" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Gardner Canyon Creek Below Sawmill Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Greene Wash Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 33&#176;00'54"/111&#176;59'46" A&amp;We PBC SC Harshaw Creek Tributary to Sonoita Creek at 31&#176;32'35"/110&#176;44'42" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Hit Tank 32&#176;43'57"/111&#176;03'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Huachuca Tank 31&#176;21'11"/110&#176;30'12" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Julian Wash Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 32&#176;11'20"/110&#176;59'13" A&amp;We PBC SC Kennedy Lake Municipal Park Lake; Mission Road &amp; Ajo Road, Tucson A&amp;Ww PBC FC SC Lakeside Lake Municipal Park Lake; 8300 East Stella Road, Tucson A&amp;Ww PBC FC SC Lemmon Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;23'47"/110&#176;47'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Lemmon Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Los Robles Wash Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 32&#176;32'13"/111&#176;23'53" A&amp;We PBC SC Madera Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;43'42"/110&#176;52'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SC Madera Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Mattie Canyon Tributary to Cienega Creek at 31&#176;51'31"/110&#176;34'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Nogales Wash Tributary to Potrero Creek at 31&#176;24'07"/110&#176;57'11" A&amp;Ww PBC SC Oak Tree Canyon Tributary to Cienega Creek at 31&#176;48'43"/110&#176;35'24" A&amp;We PBC SC Palisade Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;22'34"/110&#176;45'35" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Palisade Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Pantano Wash Tributary to Tanque Verde Creek at 32&#176;16'23"/110&#176;54'18" A&amp;We PBC SC Paradise Lake 32&#176;44'18"/111&#176;40'42" A&amp;Ww FBC AgI SC Parker Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;24'17"/110&#176;28'44.5" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Parker Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Parker Canyon Lake 31&#176;25'35"/110&#176;27'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SC Patagonia Lake 31&#176;29'30"/110&#176;52'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SC Pe&amp;ntilde;a Blanca Lake 31&#176;24'12"/111&#176;05'04" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SC Potrero Creek Headwaters to Interstate 19 at 31&#176;23'24"/110&#176;57'30" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Potrero Creek Below Interstate 19 A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Puertocito Wash Tributary to Altar Wash at 31&#176;43'01"/111&#176;25'41" A&amp;We PBC SC Redrock Canyon Creek Tributary to Harshaw Creek at 31&#176;32'35"/110&#176;44'13" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Rillito Creek Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 32&#176;18'50"/111&#176;03'18" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Romero Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;24'30"/110&#176;50'35" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Romero Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Rose Canyon Creek Tributary to Rose Canyon Lake at 32&#176;23'10"/110&#176;43'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SC Rose Canyon Lake 32&#176;23'13"/110&#176;42'38" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SC Sabino Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;23'28"/110&#176;47'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI SC Sabino Canyon Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI SC Salero Ranch Tank 31&#176;35'42"/110&#176;53'22" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Santa Cruz River Headwaters to the International Boundary at 31&#176;19'58"/110&#176;35'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SC Santa Cruz River International Boundary to the Nogales International WWTP outfall A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SC Santa Cruz River (EDW) Nogales International WWTP outfall to the Tubac Bridge A&amp;Wedw PBC AgL SC Santa Cruz River The Tubac Bridge to Roger Rd WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Santa Cruz River (EDW) Roger Road WWTP outfall to Baumgartner Road A&amp;Wedw PBC SC Santa Cruz River (Wash) Baumgartner Road to the Gila River Indian Reservation A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Santa Cruz River, West Branch Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 32&#176;12'07"/110&#176;59'20" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Santa Cruz River, N. Fork Tributary to the Santa Cruz River at 32&#176;55'55"/111&#176;53'10" A&amp;We PBC SC Santa Rosa Wash Below Tohono O'odham Indian Reservation to the Santa Cruz Wash at 32&#176;53'49"/111&#176;56'46" A&amp;We PBC SC Soldier Lake 32&#176;25'34"/110&#176;44'41" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SC Sonoita Creek Headwaters to the Town of Patagonia WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Sonoita Creek (EDW) Town of Patagonia WWTP outfall to 750 feet downstream of outfall A&amp;Wedw PBC AgL SC Sonoita Creek Below 750 feet downstream of Town of Patagonia WWTP outfall A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SC Split Tank 31&#176;28'15"/111&#176;05'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Sutherland Wash Tributary to Ca&amp;ntilde;ada del Oro at 32&#176;25'05"/110&#176;55'26" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Sycamore Canyon From 32&#176;21'36" / 110&#176;45'21" to Sycamore Reservoir A&amp;Ww FBC FC SC Sycamore Reservoir 32&#176;20'57"/110&#176;44'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SC Tanque Verde Creek Headwaters to Houghton Road at 32&#176;14'13"/110&#176;46'04" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Tanque Verde Creek Below Houghton Road A&amp;We PBC AgL SC The Lake Tank 32&#176;54'14"/111&#176;04'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Three R Canyon Headwaters to Lat/Long: 31&#176;28'35"/110&#176;46'19" A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Three R Canyon From Lat/Long: 31&#176;28'35"/110&#176;46'19" to Lat/Long: 31&#176;28'27"/110&#176;47'12" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Three R Canyon From Lat/Long: 31&#176;28'27"/110&#176;47'12" to Sonoita Creek A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Tinaja Wash Eastern foothills, Sierrita Mountains A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Unnamed Wash (EDW) Oracle Sanitary District WWTP outfall to 5 km downstream A&amp;Wedw PBC SC Vekol Wash Those reaches not located on the Ak-Chin, Tohono O'odham and Gila River Indian Reservations A&amp;We PBC SC Wakefield Canyon Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary 31&#176;52'47"/110&#176;26'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SC Wakefield Canyon Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Wild Burro Canyon Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;28'36"/111&#176;05'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SC Wild Burro Canyon Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;We PBC AgL SC Williams Ranch Tanks 31&#176;55'15"/110&#176;25'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Aravaipa Creek Headwaters to confluence with Stowe Gulch at 32&#176;52'10"/110&#176;22'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Aravaipa Creek (Unique Water) Stowe Gulch confluence to downstream boundary of Aravaipa Canyon Wilderness Area at 32&#176;54'23"/110&#176;33'40" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Aravaipa Creek Below downstream boundary of Aravaipa Canyon Wilderness Area A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Babocomari Creek Tributary to the San Pedro River at 31&#176;43'19"/110&#176;11'35" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Bass Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;26'06"/110&#176;13'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Bass Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Bass Canyon Tank 32&#176;24'00"/110&#176;13'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Blacktail Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Booger Canyon Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;54'54"/110&#176;29'35" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Buehman Canyon Creek (Unique Water) Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;24'31.5"/110&#176;32'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Buehman Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Bull Tank 32&#176;31'15"/110&#176;12'45" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Bullock Canyon Tributary to Buehman Canyon at 32&#176;23'00"/110&#176;33'04" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Carr Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;27'00"/110&#176;15'45" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Carr Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Copper Creek Headwaters to confluence with Prospect Canyon at 32&#176;44'48"/110&#176;30'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Copper Creek Below confluence with Prospect Canyon A&amp;We PBC AgL SP Deer Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;59'56"/110&#176;20'09" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Deer Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary to Aravaipa Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Double R Canyon Creek Tributary to Bass Canyon at 32&#176;21'06"/110&#176;14'23" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP East Gravel Pit Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Espiritu Canyon Creek Tributary to Soza Wash at 32&#176;18'52"/110&#176;28'35" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Fly Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Fourmile Canyon Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;50'14"/110&#176;20'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Fourmile Canyon, Left Prong Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;43'14"/110&#176;23'43" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Fourmile Canyon, Left Prong Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Fourmile Canyon, Right Prong Tributary to Fourmile Canyon at 32&#176;47'33"/110&#176;22'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Garden Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;29'00"/110&#176;19'42" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI SP Garden Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI SP Golf Course Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Gravel Pit Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Hidden Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Horse Camp Canyon Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;55'07"/110&#176;30'56" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Hot Springs Canyon Creek Tributary to the San Pedro River at 32&#176;17'24"/110&#176;22'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Lower Garden Canyon Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Miller Canyon Creek Headwaters to Broken Arrow Ranch Road at 31&#176;25'33"/110&#176;15'08" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL SP Miller Canyon Creek Below Broken Arrow Ranch Road A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgL SP Oak Grove Creek Tributary to Turkey Creek at 32&#176;45'32"/110&#176;14'06" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Officers Club Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Paige Canyon Creek Tributary to the San Pedro River at 32&#176;17'10"/110&#176;22'48" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Parsons Canyon Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;54'11"/110&#176;27'40" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Ramsey Canyon Creek Headwaters to Forest Service Road #110 at 31&#176;27'44"/110&#176;17'27" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SP Ramsey Canyon Creek Below Forest Service Road #110 A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SP Rattlesnake Canyon Headwaters to confluence with Brush Canyon at 32&#176;38'27"/110&#176;21'24" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Rattlesnake Canyon Below confluence with Brush Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Redfield Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;33'39"/110&#176;18'41" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SP Redfield Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP San Pedro River U.S./ Mexico Border to Redington A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SP San Pedro River Redington to the Gila River A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Swamp Springs Canyon Creek Tributary to Redfield Canyon at 32&#176;26'10"/110&#176;19'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Sycamore Pond I Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Sycamore Pond II Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SP Turkey Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;53'49"/110&#176;26'35" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Virgus Canyon Creek Tributary to Aravaipa Creek at 32&#176;54'58"/110&#176;31'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SP Walnut Gulch (EDW) Tombstone WWTP outfall to the confluence of Tombstone Wash A&amp;Wedw PBC SP Woodcutters Pond Fort Huachuca Military Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Ackre (Judge) Lake 33&#176;37'00"/109&#176;20'37" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Apache Lake 33&#176;35'30"/111&#176;20'30" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Barnhardt Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;05'36"/111&#176;26'38" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Barnhardt Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Basin Lake 33&#176;55'00"/109&#176;26'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Bear Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;43'26"/109&#176;22'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Bear Wallow Creek (UW) Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;37'44"/109&#176;31'23" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Bear Wallow Creek, North Fork (UW) Tributary to Bear Wallow Creek at 33&#176;35'53"/109&#176;26'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Bear Wallow Creek, South Fork (UW) Tributary to Bear Wallow Creek at 33&#176;35'53"/109&#176;26'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Beaver Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;43'44"/109&#176;21'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Big Lake 33&#176;52'45"/109&#176;25'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Black River Tributary to the Salt River at 33&#176;44'20"/110&#176;13'30" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Black River, East Fork Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;45'07"/109&#176;21'43" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Black River, N Fork of E Fork Tributary to Black River, East Fork at 33&#176;56'17"/109&#176;24'11" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Black River, West Fork Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;45'07"/109&#176;21'43" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Bloody Tanks Wash Headwaters to Schultze Ranch at 33&#176;22'29"/110&#176;54'39" A&amp;We PBC AgL SR Bloody Tanks Wash Schultze Ranch to Miami Wash A&amp;We PBC SR Boggy Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;44'31"/109&#176;26'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Boneyard Creek Tributary to Black River, East Fork at 33&#176;51'22"/109&#176;18'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Boulder Creek Tributary to LaBarge Creek at 33&#176;30'54"/111&#176;24'40" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Campaign Creek Tributary to Roosevelt Lake at 33&#176;37'30"/111&#176;00'04" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Canyon Creek Headwaters to the White Mountain Apache Reservation at 33&#176;57'53"/110&#176;47'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Canyon Lake 33&#176;33'15"/111&#176;26'30" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Centerfire Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;42'47"/109&#176;26'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Chambers Draw Creek Tributary to Black River, N Fork of E Fork at 33&#176;53'03"/109&#176;20'13" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Cherry Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;05'09"/110&#176;56'04" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Cherry Creek Below unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Christopher Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 34&#176;18'36"/111&#176;04'23" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Cold Spring Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;49'50"/110&#176;52'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Cold Spring Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Conklin Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;41'49"/109&#176;27'36" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Coon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;46'42"/110&#176;54'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Coon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Corduroy Creek Tributary to Fish Creek at 33&#176;59'46"/110&#176;17'31" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Coyote Creek Tributary to the Black River, East Fork at 33&#176;50'53"/109&#176;18'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Crescent Lake 33&#176;54'36"/109&#176;25'08" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Deer Creek Tributary to the Black River, East Fork at 33&#176;48'07"/109&#176;19'26" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Del Shay Creek Tributary to Gun Creek at 34&#176;00'22"/111&#176;15'43" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Devils Chasm Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;48'46"/110&#176;52'33" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Devils Chasm Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Dipping Vat Reservoir 33&#176;55'54"/109&#176;25'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Double Cienega Creek Tributary to Fish Creek at 33&#176;38'35"/109&#176;22'08" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Fish Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;42'40"/109&#176;26'31" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Fish Creek Tributary to the Salt River at 33&#176;34'37"/111&#176;21'11" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Gold Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;59'47"/111&#176;25'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Gold Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Gordon Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with Hog Canyon at 34&#176;13'49"/111&#176;00'27" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Gordon Canyon Creek Below confluence with Hog Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Greenback Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 33&#176;47'38"/111&#176;15'22" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Haigler Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;12'23.5"/111&#176;00'11" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Haigler Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Hannagan Creek Tributary to Beaver Creek at 33&#176;42'07"/109&#176;14'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Hay Creek (UW) Tributary to the Black River, West Fork at 33&#176;48'32"/109&#176;25'16" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Home Creek Tributary to the Black River, West Fork at 33&#176;45'43"/109&#176;22'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Horse Creek Tributary to the Black River, West Fork at 33&#176;45'11"/109&#176;21'50" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Horse Camp Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;53'53"/110&#176;50'10" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Horse Camp Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Horton Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 34&#176;20'24"/111&#176;05'42" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Houston Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 34&#176;07'30"/111&#176;15'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Hunter Creek Tributary to Christopher Creek at 34&#176;18'29"/111&#176;01'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR LaBarge Creek Superstition Wilderness Area; tributary to Canyon Lake A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Lake Sierra Blanca 33&#176;52'25"/109&#176;16'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Miami Wash Tributary to Pinal Creek at 33&#176;27'04"/110&#176;50'17" A&amp;We PBC SR Mule Creek Tributary to Canyon Creek at 34&#176;16'34"/110&#176;48'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Open Draw Creek Tributary to the Black River, East Fork at 33&#176;49'52"/109&#176;18'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR P B Creek Headwaters to Forest Service Road #203 at 33&#176;57'08"/110&#176;56'09" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR P B Creek Below Forest Service Road #203 A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Pinal Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed EDW wash (Globe WWTP) A&amp;We PBC AgL SR Pinal Creek (EDW) Below unnamed EDW wash to Radium A&amp;Wedw PBC SR Pinal Creek Radium to Setka Ranch A&amp;We PBC AgL SR Pinal Creek Setka Ranch to Salt River A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Pine Creek Tributary to the Salt River at 33&#176;36'04"/111&#176;12'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Pinto Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;19'27"/110&#176;54'56" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Pinto Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Pueblo Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;50'30"/110&#176;53'13" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Pueblo Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Reevis Creek Tributary to Pine Creek at 33&#176;33'07"/111&#176;09'40" A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Reservation Creek Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;41'42"/109&#176;28'26" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Reynolds Creek Tributary to Workman Creek at 33&#176;52'16"/111&#176;00'14" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Roosevelt Lake 33&#176;40'45"/111&#176;09'15" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Rye Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 34&#176;01'41"/111&#176;17'06" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Saguaro Lake 33&#176;34'00"/111&#176;32'06" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Salome Creek Tributary to the Salt River at 33&#176;41'56"/111&#176;05'46" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Salt River Above Roosevelt Lake A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Salt River Theodore Roosevelt Dam to the Verde River A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Salt River Verde River to 2 km below Granite Reef Dam A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL SR Salt River 2 km below Granite Reef Dam to I-10 bridge A&amp;We PBC SR Salt River I-10 bridge to the 23rd Ave WWTP A&amp;We PBC SR Salt River (EDW) 23rd Ave WWTP to confluence with Gila River A&amp;Wedw PBC FC AgI AgL SR Slate Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 33&#176;56'24"/111&#176;18'25" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Snake Creek (UW) Tributary to the Black River at 33&#176;40'30"/109&#176;28'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Spring Creek Tributary to Tonto Creek at 34&#176;09'54"/111&#176;10'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL SR Stinky Creek (UW) Tributary to the Black River, West Fork at 33&#176;51'22"/109&#176;27'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Tempe Town Lake At Mill Avenue Bridge A&amp;Ww FBC FC SR Thomas Creek Tributary to Beaver Creek at 33&#176;42'29"/109&#176;15'11" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Thompson Creek Tributary to the Black River, West Fork at 33&#176;53'24"/109&#176;28'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Tonto Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;18'10"/111&#176;04'14" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Tonto Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL SR Turkey Creek Tributary to Rock Creek at 33&#176;58'30"/111&#176;06'47" A&amp;Wc FBC FC SR Unnamed Wash (EDW) Globe WWTP outfall to Pinal Creek A&amp;Wedw PBC SR Wildcat Creek Tributary to Centerfire Creek at 33&#176;43'41"/109&#176;26'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Willow Creek Tributary to Beaver Creek at 33&#176;43'52"/109&#176;18'04" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL SR Workman Creek Headwaters to confluence with Reynolds Creek at 33&#176;52'17"/111&#176;00'14.5" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL SR Workman Creek Below confluence with Reynolds Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Apache Creek Tributary to the Gila River at 32&#176;52'08"/109&#176;11'53" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Ash Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;45'37"/109&#176;52'22" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Ash Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Bennett Wash (EDW) ADOC-Safford WWTP outfall to the Gila River A&amp;Wedw PBC UG Bitter Creek Tributary to the Gila River at 32&#176;50'17"/109&#176;10'59" A&amp;Ww FBC FC UG Blue River Headwaters to confluence with Strayhorse Creek at 33&#176;29'02"/110&#176;12'12" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL UG Blue River Below confluence with Strayhorse Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Bonita Creek (Unique Water) San Carlos Indian Reservation to the Gila River at 32&#176;53'35"/109&#176;28'41" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgL UG Buckalou Creek Tributary to Castle Creek at 33&#176;43'34"/109&#176;09'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Campbell Blue Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;43'30"/109&#176;02'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Castle Creek Tributary to Campbell Blue Creek at 33&#176;44'06"/109&#176;08'10" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Cave Creek (Unique Water) Headwaters to confluence with South Fork Cave Creek at 31&#176;53'04"/109&#176;10'27" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL UG Cave Creek (Unique Water) Below confluence with South Fork Cave Creek to Coronado NF Boundary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Cave Creek Below Coronado NF Boundary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Cave Creek, South Fork Tributary to Cave Creek at 31&#176;53'04"/109&#176;10'27" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL UG Chase Creek Headwaters to the Phelps-Dodge Morenci Mine A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Chase Creek Below the Phelps-Dodge Morenci Mine A&amp;We PBC UG Chitty Canyon Creek Tributary to Salt House Creek at 33&#176;30'32"/109&#176;24'04" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Cima Creek Tributary to Cave Creek at 31&#176;52'19"/109&#176;14'02" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Cluff Ranch Pond #1 32&#176;48'55"/109&#176;49'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Cluff Ranch Pond #2 32&#176;49'15"/109&#176;50'33" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Cluff Ranch Pond #3 32&#176;48'20"/109&#176;51'43" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Coleman Creek Tributary to Campbell Blue Creek at 33&#176;44'20"/109&#176;09'32" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Dankworth Ponds 32&#176;43'15"/109&#176;42'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC UG Deadman Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;43'50"/109&#176;49'01" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL UG Deadman Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgL UG Eagle Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 33&#176;23'24"/109&#176;29'35" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL UG Eagle Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL UG East Eagle Creek Tributary to Eagle Creek at 33&#176;29'38"/109&#176;28'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG East Turkey Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 31&#176;58'22"/109&#176;12'17" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG East Turkey Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG East Whitetail Chiricahua Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Emigrant Canyon Chiricahua Mountains A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Evans Pond 32&#176;49'15"/109&#176;51'15" A&amp;Ww FBC FC UG Fishhook Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;35'13"/109&#176;10'01" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Foote Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;35'24"/109&#176;08'49" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Frye Canyon Creek Headwaters to Frye Mesa Reservoir at 32&#176;45'09.5"/109&#176;50'02" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL UG Frye Canyon Creek Below Frye Mesa Reservoir A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Frye Mesa Reservoir 32&#176;45'13"/109&#176;50'00" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC UG Gibson Creek Tributary to Marijilda Creek at 32&#176;41'24"/109&#176;48'11" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Gila River New Mexico border to the San Carlos Indian Reservation at 33&#176;05'37"/110&#176;03'21" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Grant Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;34'16"/109&#176;10'37" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Judd Lake 33&#176;51'15"/109&#176;09'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC UG K P Creek (UW) Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;31'44"/109&#176;12'04" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Lanphier Canyon Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;35'42"/109&#176;07'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Little Blue Creek Headwaters to confluence with Dutch Blue Creek at 33&#176;24'26.5"/109&#176;09'18" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Little Blue Creek Below confluence with Dutch Blue Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Little Creek Tributary to the San Francisco River at 33&#176;49'41"/109&#176;04'26" A&amp;Wc FBC FC UG Lower George's Reservoir 33&#176;51'23.5"/109&#176;08'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Luna Lake 33&#176;49'45"/109&#176;05'15" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Marijilda Creek Headwaters to confluence with Gibson Creek at 32&#176;41'23"/109&#176;48'13" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Marijilda Creek Below confluence with Gibson Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG Markham Creek Tributary to the Gila River at 32&#176;56'17"/109&#176;53'13" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Pigeon Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;16'08"/109&#176;11'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Raspberry Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;30'07"/109&#176;12'32" A&amp;Wc FBC FC UG Roper Lake 32&#176;45'20"/109&#176;42'11" A&amp;Ww FBC FC UG San Francisco River Headwaters to the New Mexico border at 33&#176;49'24.5"/109&#176;02'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL UG San Francisco River New Mexico border to the Gila River at 33&#176;14'25"/109&#176;02'49" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL UG San Simon River Tributary to the Gila River at 32&#176;49'52"/109&#176;38'53" A&amp;We PBC AgL UG Sheep Tank 32&#176;46'15"/109&#176;48'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Smith Pond 32&#176;49'09"/109&#176;50'26" A&amp;Ww FBC FC UG Squaw Creek Tributary to Thomas Creek at 33&#176;23'38"/109&#176;12'22" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Stone Creek Tributary to the San Francisco River at 33&#176;50'38"/109&#176;02'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL UG Strayhorse Creek Tributary to the Blue River at 33&#176;29'02"/109&#176;12'11" A&amp;Wc FBC FC UG Thomas Creek Headwaters to confluence with Rousensock Creek at 33&#176;23'45"/109&#176;13'13" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Thomas Creek Below confluence with Rousensock Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Tinny Pond 33&#176;47'49"/109&#176;04'23" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL UG Turkey Creek Tributary to Campbell Blue Creek at 33&#176;44'10"/109&#176;04'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL UG Unnamed Wash (EDW) ADOC-Globe WWTP outfall to the San Carlos Indian Reservation A&amp;Wedw PBC VR American Gulch Headwaters to the Northern Gila County Sanitary District WWTP outfall (Payson) A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR American Gulch (EDW) Northern Gila County Sanitary District WWTP outfall (Payson) to the East Verde River A&amp;Wedw PBC VR Apache Creek Tributary to Walnut Creek at 34&#176;55'12"/112&#176;50'42" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Ashbrook Wash Headwaters to the Ft McDowell Reservation at 33&#176;36'54"/111&#176;42'06" A&amp;We PBC VR Aspen Creek Tributary to Granite Creek at 34&#176;31'55"/112&#176;28'19" A&amp;Ww FC VR Bar Cross Tank 35&#176;00'40"/112&#176;05'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Barrata Tank 35&#176;02'43"/112&#176;24'17" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Bartlett Lake 33&#176;49'00"/111&#176;37'45" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Beaver Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 34&#176;34'26"/111&#176;51'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Big Chino Wash Tributary to Sullivan Lake at 34&#176;52'37"/112&#176;28'37" A&amp;We PBC AgL VR Bitter Creek Headwaters to the Jerome WWTP outfall A&amp;We PBC AgL VR Bitter Creek (EDW) Jerome WWTP outfall to the Yavapai Apache Indian Reservation at 34&#176;45'45.5"/112&#176;04'44" A&amp;Wedw PBC AgL VR Bitter Creek Below the Yavapai Apache Indian Reservation A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Black Canyon Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;39'20"/112&#176;05'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Black Canyon Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Bonita Creek Tributary to Ellison Creek at 34&#176;20'56"/111&#176;14'20" A&amp;Wc FBC FC VR Bray Creek Tributary to Webber Creek at 34&#176;22'37"/111&#176;20'53" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Camp Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 33&#176;45'32"/111&#176;30'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Carter Tank 34&#176;52'27"/112&#176;57'28" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Cereus Wash Headwaters to the Fort McDowell Indian Reservation at 33&#176;34'13"/111&#176;42'28" A&amp;We PBC VR Chase Creek Tributary to the East Verde River at 34&#176;22'48"/111&#176;16'59" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC VR Clover Creek Tributary to headwaters of West Clear Creek at 34&#176;33'04"/111&#176;24'11" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Coffe Creek Tributary to Spring Creek at 34&#176;48'18"/111&#176;55'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Colony Wash Headwaters to the Fort McDowell Indian Reservation at 33&#176;35'42"/111&#176;42'15" A&amp;We PBC VR Dead Horse Lake 34&#176;45'00"/112&#176;00'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC VR Deadman Creek Tributary to Horseshoe Reservoir at 34&#176;00'00"/111&#176;42'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Del Rio Dam Lake 34&#176;48'55"/112&#176;28'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Dry Beaver Creek Tributary to Beaver Creek at 34&#176;37'59"/111&#176;49'34" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Dude Creek Tributary to the East Verde River at 34&#176;23'06"/111&#176;16'26" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR East Verde River Headwaters to confluence with Ellison Creek at 34&#176;21'10"/111&#176;16'47.5" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR East Verde River Below confluence with Ellison Creek A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Ellison Creek Tributary to the East Verde River at 34&#176;21'11"/111&#176;16'48" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Fossil Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 34&#176;18'22"/111&#176;40'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Fossil Springs 34&#176;25'24"/111&#176;34'25" A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC VR Foxboro Lake 34&#176;53'48"/111&#176;40'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Fry Lake 35&#176;03'45"/111&#176;48'02" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Gap Creek Headwaters to Government Spring at 34&#176;23'23"/111&#176;50'53.5" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Gap Creek Below Government Spring A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Garrett Tank 35&#176;18'57"/112&#176;42'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Goldwater Lake, Lower 34&#176;29'55"/112&#176;27'18" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC VR Goldwater Lake, Upper 34&#176;29'51"/112&#176;26'55" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC VR Granite Basin Lake 34&#176;37'01"/112&#176;42'16" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Granite Creek Headwaters to confluence with Willow Creek at 34&#176;36'55"/112&#176;25'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Granite Creek Below confluence with Willow Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Heifer Tank 35&#176;20'28"/112&#176;32'56" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Hell Canyon Tank 35&#176;05'00"/112&#176;24'06" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Homestead Tank 35&#176;21'23"/112&#176;41'32" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Horse Park Tank 34&#176;58'15"/111&#176;36'29" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Horseshoe Reservoir 33&#176;59'00"/111&#176;42'30" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Houston Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 34&#176;16'55"/111&#176;41'06" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR J.D. Dam Lake 35&#176;04'01"/112&#176;01'40" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Jacks Canyon Wash (EDW) Big Park WWTP outfall to Dry Beaver Creek A&amp;Wedw PBC VR Lime Creek Tributary to Horseshoe Reservoir at 33&#176;59'20"/111&#176;44'13" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR McLellan Reservoir 35&#176;13'15"/112&#176;17'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Meath Dam Tank 35&#176;07'46"/112&#176;27'35" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Mullican Place Tank 34&#176;44'16"/111&#176;36'08" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Oak Creek (Unique Water) Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;57'08.5"/111&#176;45'13" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Oak Creek (Unique Water) Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Oak Creek, West Fork (Unique Water) Tributary to Oak Creek at 34&#176;59'13"/111&#176;44'46" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Odell Lake 34&#176;56'02"/111&#176;37'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC VR Peck's Lake 34&#176;47'07"/112&#176;02'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Perkins Tank 35&#176;06'42"/112&#176;04'08" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Pine Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;21'51"/111&#176;26'46" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Pine Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Red Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 34&#176;09'47"/111&#176;43'12" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Red Lake 35&#176;12'19"/113&#176;03'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Reservoir #1 35&#176;13'05"/111&#176;50'07" A&amp;Ww FBC FC VR Reservoir #2 35&#176;13'16"/111&#176;50'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC VR Roundtree Canyon Creek Tributary to Tangle Creek at 34&#176;09'04"/111&#176;48'18" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Scholze Lake 35&#176;11'53"/112&#176;00'31" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Spring Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 34&#176;57'23.5"/111&#176;57'19" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Spring Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary to Oak Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Steel Dam Lake 35&#176;13'36"/112&#176;24'51" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Stehr Lake 34&#176;21'59"/111&#176;40'00" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Stone Dam Lake 35&#176;13'36"/112&#176;24'16" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Stoneman Lake 34&#176;46'44"/111&#176;31'05" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Sullivan Lake 34&#176;51'46"/112&#176;27'41" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Sycamore Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 35&#176;03'40"/111&#176;57'28" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Sycamore Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Sycamore Creek Tributary to Verde River at 33&#176;37'55"/111&#176;39'58" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Sycamore Creek Tributary to Verde River at 34&#176;04'42"/111&#176;42'14" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Tangle Creek Tributary to the Verde River at 34&#176;05'06"/111&#176;42'36" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Trinity Tank 35&#176;27'44"/112&#176;47'56" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Verde River Above Bartlett Dam A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Verde River Below Bartlett Dam A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Walnut Creek Tributary to Big Chino Wash at 34&#176;58'12"/112&#176;34'55" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Watson Lake 34&#176;35'15"/112&#176;25'05" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Webber Creek Tributary to the East Verde River at 34&#176;18'50"/111&#176;19'55" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR West Clear Creek Headwaters to confluence with Meadow Canyon at 34&#176;33'40"/111&#176;31'30" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR West Clear Creek Below confluence with Meadow Canyon A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Wet Beaver Creek Headwaters to unnamed springs at 34&#176;41'17"/111&#176;34'34" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL VR Wet Beaver Creek Below unnamed springs A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Whitehorse Lake 35&#176;07'00"/112&#176;00'47" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgI AgL VR Williamson Valley Wash Headwaters to confluence with Mint Wash at 34&#176;49'05"/112&#176;37'55" A&amp;We PBC AgL VR Williamson Valley Wash Confluence of Mint Wash to 10.5 km dwnstm A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Williamson Valley Wash Below 10.5 km downstream of Mint Wash confluence A&amp;We PBC AgL VR Williscraft Tank 35&#176;11'23"/112&#176;35'38" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL VR Willow Creek Tributary to Granite Creek at 34&#176;51'47"/112&#176;25'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL VR Willow Creek Reservoir 34&#176;36'17"/112&#176;26'19" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL VR Willow Valley Lake 34&#176;41'08"/111&#176;19'57" A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL WP Big Creek Tributary to Pitchfork Canyon at 32&#176;35'24"/109&#176;57'07" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Goudy Canyon Creek Pinaleno Mountains A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Grant Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;38'09.5"/109&#176;56'35" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL WP Grant Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL WP High Creek Headwaters to confluence with unnamed tributary at 32&#176;33'07"/110&#176;14'40" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP High Creek Below confluence with unnamed tributary A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL WP Lake Cochise South of Twin Lakes Municipal Golf Course at 32&#176;14' N / 109&#176;11' W A&amp;Wedw PBC WP Moonshine Creek Tributary to Post Creek at 32&#176;40'52"/109&#176;54'25" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Pinery Creek Headwaters to State Highway 181 at 32&#176;00'24"/109&#176;25'16" A&amp;Wc FBC DWS FC AgL WP Pinery Creek Below State Highway 181 A&amp;Ww FBC DWS FC AgL WP Post Creek Tributary to Grant Creek at 32&#176;40'05"/109&#176;54'58" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL WP Riggs Flat Lake 32&#176;42'27"/109&#176;57'51" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL WP Rock Creek Tributary to Turkey Creek at 31&#176;53'20"/109&#176;30'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Snow Flat Lake 32&#176;39'09"/109&#176;51'52" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL WP Soldier Creek Tributary to Post Creek at 32&#176;40'52"/109&#176;54'40" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Turkey Creek Headwaters to confluence with Rock Creek at 31&#176;53'20"/109&#176;30'00" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgI AgL WP Turkey Creek Below confluence with Rock Creek A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgI AgL WP Ward Canyon Creek Tributary to Turkey Creek at 31&#176;51'47"/109&#176;20'13" A&amp;Wc FBC FC AgL WP Willcox Playa Sulphur Springs Valley A&amp;Ww FBC FC AgL </table>

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Appendix B repealed, new Appendix B adopted effective April 24, 1996

(Supp. 96-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1264, effective March 8, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix C. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Appendix C repealed effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="REPEALED">

REPEALED

<regElement name="R18.11.201" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended subsection A. effective April 17, 1984 (Supp. 84-2). Former Section R9-21-201 repealed, former Section R9-21-203 renumbered as Section R9-21-201 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-201 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-201 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.202" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-202 repealed, former Section R9-21-102 renumbered as Section R9-21-202 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended subsections (B), (D), and (E) effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-202 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-202 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Section repealed effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.203" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Amended effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended subsection (B) by adding paragraphs (27) and (28) effective October 14, 1981 (Supp. 81-5). Former Section R9-21-203 renumbered as Section R9-21-201, former Section R9-21-204 renumbered as Section

R9-21-203 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-203 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-204, new Section R9-21-203 adopted effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-203 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-203 (Supp. 87-3). Amended subsection (B) effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). Section repealed effective April 24, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.204" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-204 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-207, former Section R9-21-206 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-204 effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section

R9-21-204 renumbered as Section R9-21-203, former Section R9-21-205 renumbered as Section R9-21-204 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-204 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-205, former Section R9-21-203 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-204 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section

R9-21-204 renumbered without change as Section

R18-11-204 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.205" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-205 repealed, new Section R9-21-205 adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-21-205 renumbered as Section

R9-21-204, former Section R9-21-206 renumbered as Section R9-21-205 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-205 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-206, former Section R9-21-204 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-205 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-205 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-205 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed, new Section adopted effective February 18, 1992

(Supp. 92-1). Section repealed April 24, 1996

(Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.206" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-206 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-204, new Section R9-21-206 adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended by adding subsection (B) effective October 14, 1981 (Supp. 81-5). Amended subsection (B) and Table 1 effective January 29, 1982 (Supp. 82-1). Amended subsection (B) and Table 1 effective August 13, 1982 (Supp. 82-4). Former Section R9-21-206 renumbered as Section

R9-21-205, former Section R9-21-207 renumbered as Section R9-21-206 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-206 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-207, former Section R9-21-205 renumbered and amended as

R9-21-206 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-206 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-206 (Supp. 87-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.207" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-207 repealed, former Section

R9-21-204 renumbered and amended as Section

R9-21-207 effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-21-207 renumbered as Section

R9-21-206, former Section R9-21-208 renumbered as Section R9-21-207 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-207 renumbered without change as Section R9-21-208, former Section R9-21-206 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-207 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp.

86-4). Former Section R9-21-207 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-207 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.208" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-208 repealed, new Section

R9-21-208 adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp.

80-1). Former Section R9-21-208 renumbered as Section

R9-21-207, Appendices 1 thru 9 amended as Appendix A (now shown following R9-21-213), former Section

R9-21-209 renumbered as R9-21-208 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-208 renumbered and amended as Section

R9-21-209, former Section R9-21-207 renumbered without change as Section R9-21-208 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-208 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-208 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.209" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-209 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-210, new Section R9-21-209 adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-21-209 renumbered as Section R9-21-208, Tables I and II amended as Appendix B (now shown following R9-21-213 and Appendix A), former Section R9-21-210 renumbered as Section R9-21-209 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-209 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-210, former Section R9-21-208 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-209 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-209 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-209 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.210" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-210 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-211, former Section R9-21-209 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-210 effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended subsection (A) effective April 17, 1984 (Supp. 84-2). Former Section R9-21-210 renumbered as Section R9-21-209, former Section R9-21-211 renumbered as Section R9-21-210 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-210 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-211, former Section R9-21-209 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-210 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section

R9-21-210 renumbered without change as Section

R18-11-210 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.211" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-210 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-211 effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended subsections (D), (G) thru (I), and added (J) effective October 14, 1981 (Supp. 81-5). Former Section R9-21-211 renumbered as Section R9-21-210, former Section R9-21-212 renumbered as Section R9-21-211 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-211 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-212, former Section R9-21-210 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-211 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-211 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-211 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.212" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Former Section R9-21-212 renumbered as Section R9-21-211, former Section R9-21-213 renumbered as Section R9-21-212 and amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-212 repealed, former Section R9-21-211 renumbered and amended as Section R9-21-212 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-212 renumbered without change as Section

R18-11-212 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.213" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 29, 1980 (Supp. 80-1). Amended effective April 17, 1984 (Supp. 84-2). Former Section R9-21-213 renumbered as Section R9-21-212, former Section R9-21-103 renumbered as Section

R9-21-213 and amended effective January 7, 1985

(Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-213 renumbered without change as Section R9-21-214, new Section

R9-21-213 adopted effective August 12, 1986

(Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-213 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-213 (Supp. 87-3). Amended effective December 1, 1988 (Supp. 88-4). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992

(Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.214" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-213 renumbered without change as Section R9-21-214 effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-214 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-214 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

Appendix A. Repealed

Historical Note

Former Section R9-21-208, Appendices 1 through 9 renumbered and amended as new Appendix A adopted effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Appendix repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

Appendix B. Repealed

Historical Note

Former R9-21-209, Table 1 and Table 2 renumbered and amended as Appendix B adopted effective January 7, 1985 (Supp.85-1). Amended effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Appendix repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="RECLAIMED WATER QUALITY STANDARDS">

RECLAIMED WATER QUALITY STANDARDS

<regElement name="R18.11.301" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Definitions

The terms in this Article have the following meanings:

"Direct reuse" has the meaning prescribed in R18-9-701(1).

"Disinfection" means a treatment process that uses oxidants, ultraviolet light, or other agents to kill or inactivate pathogenic organisms in wastewater.

"Filtration" means a treatment process that removes particulate matter from wastewater by passage through porous media.

"Gray water" means wastewater, collected separately from a sewage flow, that originates from a clothes washer, bathtub, shower, or sink, but it does not include wastewater from a kitchen sink, dishwasher, or a toilet.

"Industrial wastewater" means wastewater generated from an industrial process.

"Landscape impoundment" means a manmade lake, pond, or impoundment of reclaimed water where swimming, wading, boating, fishing, and other water-based recreational activities are prohibited. A landscape impoundment is created for storage, landscaping, or for aesthetic purposes only.

"NTU" means nepholometric turbidity unit.

"On-site wastewater treatment facility" has the meaning prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(24).

"Open access" means that access to reclaimed water by the general public is uncontrolled.

"Reclaimed water" has the meaning prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(31).

"Recreational impoundment" means a manmade lake, pond, or impoundment of reclaimed water where boating or fishing is an intended use of the impoundment. Swimming and other full-body recreation activities (for example, water-skiing) are prohibited in a recreational impoundment.

"Restricted access" means that access to reclaimed water by the general public is controlled.

"Secondary treatment" means a biological treatment process that achieves the minimum level of effluent quality defined by the federal secondary treatment regulation at 40 CFR &#167; 133.102.

"Sewage" means untreated wastes from toilets, baths, sinks, lavatories, laundries, and other plumbing fixtures in places of human habitation, employment, or recreation.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 9, 1981 (Supp. 81-4). Former Section R9-21-301 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-301 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.302" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

This Article applies to the direct reuse of reclaimed water, except for:

1. The direct reuse of gray water, or

2. The direct reuse of reclaimed water from an onsite wastewater treatment facility regulated by a general Aquifer Protection Permit under 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 3.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 8, 1981 (Supp. 81-3). Amended effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Former Section R9-21-302 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-302 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.303" level="4" title="Class A+ Reclaimed Water"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="8"><dwc name="disinfect" times="5">

Class A+ Reclaimed Water

A. Class A+ reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment, filtration, nitrogen removal treatment, and disinfection. Chemical feed facilities to add coagulants or polymers are required to ensure that filtered effluent before disinfection complies with the 24-hour average turbidity criterion prescribed in subsection (B)(1). Chemical feed facilities may remain idle if the 24-hour average turbidity criterion in (B)(1) is achieved without chemical addition.

B. An owner of a facility shall ensure that:

1. The turbidity of Class A+ reclaimed water at a point in the wastewater treatment process after filtration and immediately before disinfection complies with the following:

a. The 24-hour average turbidity of filtered effluent is two NTUs or less, and

b. The turbidity of filtered effluent does not exceed five NTUs at any time.

2. Class A+ reclaimed water meets the following criteria after disinfection treatment and before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system:

a. There are no detectable fecal coliform organisms in four of the last seven daily reclaimed water samples taken, and

b. The single sample maximum concentration of fecal coliform organisms in a reclaimed water sample is less than 23 / 100 ml.

c. If alternative treatment processes or alternative turbidity criteria are used, or reclaimed water is blended with other water to produce Class A+ reclaimed water under subsection (C), there are no detectable enteric virus in four of the last seven monthly reclaimed water samples taken.

3. The 5-sample geometric mean concentration of total nitrogen in a reclaimed water sample is less than 10 mg / L.

C. An owner of a facility may use alternative treatment methods other than those required by subsection (A), or comply with alternative turbidity criteria other than those required by subsection (B)(1), or blend reclaimed water with other water to produce Class A+ reclaimed water provided the owner demonstrates through pilot plant testing, existing water quality data, or other means that the alternative treatment methods, alternative turbidity criteria, or blending reliably produces a reclaimed water that meets the disinfection criteria in subsection (B)(2) and the total nitrogen criteria in subsection (B)(3) before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system.

D. Class A+ reclaimed water is not required for any type of direct reuse. A person may use Class A+ reclaimed water for any type of direct reuse listed in Table A.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-303 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-303 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.304" level="4" title="Class A Reclaimed Water"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="8"><dwc name="disinfect" times="5">

Class A Reclaimed Water

A. Class A reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment, filtration, and disinfection. Chemical feed facilities to add coagulants or polymers are required to ensure that filtered effluent before disinfection complies with the 24-hour average turbidity criterion prescribed in subsection (B)(1). Chemical feed facilities may remain idle if the 24-hour average turbidity criterion in subsection (B)(1) is achieved without chemical addition.

B. An owner of a facility shall ensure that:

1. The turbidity of Class A reclaimed water at a point in the wastewater treatment process after filtration and immediately before disinfection complies with the following:

a. The 24-hour average turbidity of filtered effluent is two NTUs or less, and

b. The turbidity of filtered effluent does not exceed five NTUs at any time.

2. Class A reclaimed water meets the following criteria after disinfection treatment and before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system:

a. There are no detectable fecal coliform organisms in four of the last seven daily reclaimed water samples taken, and

b. The single sample maximum concentration of fecal coliform organisms in a reclaimed water sample is less than 23 / 100 ml.

c. If alternative treatment processes or alternative turbidity criteria are used, or reclaimed water is blended with other water to produce Class A reclaimed water under subsection (C), there are no detectable enteric virus in four of the last seven monthly reclaimed water samples taken.

C. An owner of a facility may use alternative treatment methods other than those required by subsection (A), or comply with alternative turbidity criteria other than those required by subsection (B)(1), or blend reclaimed water with other water to produce Class A reclaimed water provided the owner demonstrates through pilot plant testing, existing water quality data, or other means that the alternative treatment methods, alternative turbidity criteria, or blending reliably produces a reclaimed water that meets the disinfection criteria in subsection (B)(2) before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system.

D. A person shall use Class A reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class A in Table A. A person may use Class A reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class B or Class C in Table A.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 7, 1985 (Supp. 85-1). Amended effective August 12, 1986 (Supp. 86-4). Former Section R9-21-304 renumbered without change as Section R18-11-304 (Supp. 87-3). Section repealed effective February 18, 1992 (Supp. 92-1). New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.305" level="4" title="Class B+ Reclaimed Water"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Class B+ Reclaimed Water

A. Class B+ reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment, nitrogen removal treatment, and disinfection.

B. An owner of a facility shall ensure that:

1. Class B+ reclaimed water meets the following criteria after disinfection treatment and before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system:

a. The concentration of fecal coliform organisms in four of the last seven daily reclaimed water samples is less than 200 / 100 ml.

b. The single sample maximum concentration of fecal coliform organisms in a reclaimed water sample is less than 800 / 100 ml.

2. The 5-sample geometric mean concentration of total nitrogen in a reclaimed water sample is less than 10 mg / L.

C. Class B+ reclaimed water is not required for a type of direct reuse. A person may use Class B+ reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class B or Class C in Table A. A person shall not use Class B+ reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class A in Table A.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.306" level="4" title="Class B Reclaimed Water"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Class B Reclaimed Water

A. Class B reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment and disinfection.

B. An owner of a facility shall ensure that Class B reclaimed water meets the following criteria after disinfection treatment and before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system:

1. The concentration of fecal coliform organisms in four of the last seven daily reclaimed water samples is less than 200 / 100 ml.

2. The single sample maximum concentration of fecal coliform organisms in a reclaimed water sample is less than 800 / 100 ml.

C. A person shall use a minimum of Class B reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class B in Table A. A person may use Class B reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class C in Table A. A person shall not use Class B reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class A in Table A.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.307" level="4" title="Class C Reclaimed Water"> <dwc name="coliform" times="2"><dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Class C Reclaimed Water

A. Class C reclaimed water is wastewater that has undergone secondary treatment in a series of wastewater stabilization ponds, including aeration, with or without disinfection.

B. The owner of a facility shall ensure that:

1. The total retention time of Class C reclaimed water in wastewater stabilization ponds is at least 20 days.

2. Class C reclaimed water meets the following criteria after treatment and before discharge to a reclaimed water distribution system:

a. The concentration of fecal coliform organisms in four of the last seven reclaimed water samples taken is less than 1000 / 100 ml.

b. The single sample maximum concentration of fecal coliform organisms in a reclaimed water sample is less than 4000 / 100 ml.

C. A person shall use a minimum of Class C reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class C in Table A. A person shall not use Class C reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse listed as Class A or Class B in Table A.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.308" level="4" title="Industrial Reuse">

Industrial Reuse

A. The reclaimed water quality requirements for the following direct reuse applications are industry-specific and shall be determined by the Department on a case-by-case basis in a reclaimed water permit issued by the Department under 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 7:

1. Direct reuse of industrial wastewater containing sewage.

2. Direct reuse of industrial wastewater for the production or processing of any crop used as human or animal food.

B. The Department shall use best professional judgment to determine the reclaimed water quality requirements needed to protect public health and the environment for a type of direct reuse specified in subsection (A).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.11.309" level="4" title="Reclaimed Water Quality Standards for an Unlisted Type of Direct Reuse">

Reclaimed Water Quality Standards for an Unlisted Type of Direct Reuse

A. The Department may prescribe in an individual reclaimed water permit issued under 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 7, reclaimed water quality requirements for a type of direct reuse not listed in Table A. Before permitting a direct reuse of reclaimed water not listed in Table A, the Department shall, using its best professional judgment, determine and require compliance with reclaimed water quality requirements needed to protect public health and the environment.

B. Department may determine that Class A+, A, B+, B, or C reclaimed water is appropriate for a new type of direct reuse.

C. The Department shall consider the following factors when prescribing reclaimed water quality requirements for a new type of direct reuse:

1. The risk to public health;

2. The degree of public access to the site where the reclaimed water is reused and human exposure to the reclaimed water;

3. The level of treatment necessary to ensure that the reclaimed water is aesthetically acceptable;

4. The level of treatment necessary to prevent nuisance conditions;

5. Specific water quality requirements for the intended type of direct reuse;

6. The means of application of the reclaimed water;

7. The degree of treatment necessary to avoid a violation of surface water quality standards or aquifer water quality standards;

8. The potential for improper or unintended use of the reclaimed water;

9. The reuse guidelines, criteria, or standards adopted or recommended by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or other federal or state agencies that apply to the new type of direct reuse; and

10. Similar wastewater reclamation experience of reclaimed water providers in the United States.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Table A. Minimum Reclaimed Water Quality Requirements for Direct Reuse

<table> Type of Direct Reuse Minimum Class of Reclaimed Water Required Irrigation of food crops A Recreational impoundments A Residential landscape irrigation A Schoolground landscape irrigation A Open access landscape irrigation A Toilet and urinal flushing A Fire protection systems A Spray irrigation of an orchard or vineyard A Commercial closed loop air conditioning systems A Vehicle and equipment washing (does not include self-service vehicle washes) A Snowmaking A Surface irrigation of an orchard or vineyard B Golf course irrigation B Restricted access landscape irrigation B Landscape impoundment B Dust control B Soil compaction and similar construction activities B Pasture for milking animals B Livestock watering (dairy animals) B Concrete and cement mixing B Materials washing and sieving B Street cleaning B Pasture for non-dairy animals C Livestock watering (non-dairy animals) C Irrigation of sod farms C Irrigation of fiber, seed, forage, and similar crops C Silviculture C </table>

Note: Nothing in this Article prevents a wastewater treatment plant from using a higher quality reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse than the minimum class of reclaimed water listed in Table A. For example, a wastewater treatment plant may provide Class A reclaimed water for a type of direct reuse where Class B or Class C reclaimed water is acceptable.

Historical Note

New Table adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 870, effective January 22, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="AQUIFER WATER QUALITY STANDARDS">

AQUIFER WATER QUALITY STANDARDS

<regElement name="R18.11.401" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="total trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="2"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="2"><dwc name="radioact" times="3"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="2"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="photon radioact" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="2"><dwc name="uranium" times="2">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-101 and 49-201, the terms of this Article shall have the following meanings:

1. "Beta particle and photon radioactivity from man-made radionuclides" means all radionuclides emitting beta particles or photons, except Thorium-232, Uranium-235, Uranium-238 and their progeny.

2. "Dose equivalent" means the product of the absorbed dose from ionizing radiation and such factors as account for differences in biological effectiveness due to the type of radiation and its distribution in the body as specified by the International Commission on Radiological Units and Measurements.

3. "Drinking water protected use" means the protection and maintenance of aquifer water quality for human consumption.

4. "Gross alpha particle activity" means the total radioactivity due to alpha particle emission as inferred from measurements on a dry sample.

5. "Mg/l" means milligrams per liter.

6. "Millirem" means 1/1000 of a rem. A rem means the unit of dose equivalent from ionizing radiation to the total body or any internal organ or organ system.

7. "Non-drinking water protected use" means the protection and maintenance of aquifer water quality for a use other than for human consumption.

8. "pCi" means picocurie, or the quantity of radioactive material producing 2.22 nuclear transformations per minute.

9. "Total trihalomethanes" means the sum of the concentrations of the following trihalomethane compounds: trichloromethane (chloroform), dibromo-chloromethane, bromodichloromethane and tribromo-methane (bromoform).

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.402" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.403" level="4" title="Analytical Methods">

Analytical Methods

Analysis of a sample to determine compliance with an aquifer water quality standard shall be in accordance with an analytical method specified in A.A.C. Title 9, Chapter 14, Article 6 or an alternative analytical method that is approved by the Director of the Arizona Department of Health Services pursuant to A.A.C. R9-14-607(B).

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.404" level="4" title="Laboratories">

Laboratories

A test result from a sample taken to determine compliance with an aquifer water quality standard shall be valid only if the sample has been analyzed by a laboratory that is licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services for the analysis performed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.405" level="4" title="Narrative Aquifer Water Quality Standards">

Narrative Aquifer Water Quality Standards

A. A discharge shall not cause a pollutant to be present in an aquifer classified for a drinking water protected use in a concentration which endangers human health.

B. A discharge shall not cause or contribute to a violation of a water quality standard established for a navigable water of the state.

C. A discharge shall not cause a pollutant to be present in an aquifer which impairs existing or reasonably foreseeable uses of water in an aquifer.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.406" level="4" title="Numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standards: Drinking Water Protected Use"> <dwc name="total coliform" times="4"><dwc name="coliform" times="4"><dwc name="turbid" times="5"><dwc name="disinfect" times="2"><dwc name="trihalomethan" times="1"><dwc name="inorgan chemic" times="1"><dwc name="antimoni" times="1"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="asbesto" times="1"><dwc name="barium" times="1"><dwc name="beryllium" times="1"><dwc name="cadmium" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="cyanid" times="2"><dwc name="fluorid" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="1"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="2"><dwc name="nitrit" times="2"><dwc name="selenium" times="1"><dwc name="thallium" times="1"><dwc name="alachlor" times="1"><dwc name="atrazin" times="1"><dwc name="benzen" times="1"><dwc name="carbofuran" times="1"><dwc name="carbon tetrachlorid" times="1"><dwc name="chlordan" times="1"><dwc name="monochlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="dalapon" times="1"><dwc name="dbcp" times="1"><dwc name="dichloromethan" times="1"><dwc name="dinoseb" times="1"><dwc name="dioxin" times="1"><dwc name="tcdd" times="1"><dwc name="diquat" times="1"><dwc name="endothal" times="1"><dwc name="endrin" times="1"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="1"><dwc name="ethylen dibromid" times="1"><dwc name="glyphos" times="1"><dwc name="heptachlor" times="2"><dwc name="heptachlor epoxid" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorobenzen" times="1"><dwc name="hexachlorocyclopentadien" times="1"><dwc name="lindan" times="1"><dwc name="methoxychlor" times="1"><dwc name="oxamyl" times="1"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="1"><dwc name="pcb" times="2"><dwc name="pentachlorophenol" times="1"><dwc name="picloram" times="1"><dwc name="simazin" times="1"><dwc name="styren" times="1"><dwc name="tetrachloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="toluen" times="1"><dwc name="toxaphen" times="1"><dwc name="silvex" times="1"><dwc name="trichloroethylen" times="1"><dwc name="vinyl chlorid" times="1"><dwc name="xylen" times="1"><dwc name="radionuclid" times="7"><dwc name="radioact" times="1"><dwc name="alpha particl" times="1"><dwc name="gross alpha" times="1"><dwc name="photon radioact" times="1"><dwc name="beta particl" times="1"><dwc name="radium" times="3"><dwc name="uranium" times="1">

Numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standards: Drinking Water Protected Use

A. The aquifer water quality standards in this Section apply to aquifers that are classified for drinking water protected use.

B. The following are the aquifer water quality standards for inorganic chemicals:

<table> Pollutant mg/L) Antimony 0.006 Arsenic 0.05 Asbestos 7 million fibers/liter (longer than 10 mm) Barium 2 Beryllium 0.004 Cadmium 0.005 Chromium 0.1 Cyanide (As Free Cyanide) 0.2 Fluoride 4.0 Lead 0.05 Mercury 0.002 Nickel 0.1 Nitrate (as N) 10 Nitrite (as N) 1 Nitrate and nitrite (as N) 10 Selenium 0.05 Thallium 0.002 </table>

C. The following are the aquifer water quality standards for organic chemicals:

<table> Pollutant (mg/L) Benzene 0.005 Benzo (a) pyrene 0.0002 Carbon Tetrachloride 0.005 o-Dichlorobenzene 0.6 para-Dichlorobenzene 0.075 1,2-Dichloroethane 0.005 1,1-Dichloroethylene 0.007 cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene 0.07 trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 0.1 1,2-Dichloropropane 0.005 Dichloromethane 0.005 Di (2-ethylhexyl) adipate 0.4 Di (2-ethylhexyl) pthalate 0.006 Ethylbenzene 0.7 Hexachlorobenzene 0.001 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 0.05 Monochlorobenzene 0.1 Pentachlorophenol 0.001 Styrene 0.1 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) 0.00000003 Tetrachloroethylene 0.005 Toluene 1 Trihalomethanes (Total) 0.10 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 0.07 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 0.20 1,1,2-Trichloroethane 0.005 Trichloroethylene 0.005 Vinyl Chloride 0.002 Xylenes (Total) 10 </table>

D. The following are the aquifer water quality standards for pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs):

<table> Pollutant (mg/L) Alachlor 0.002 Atrazine 0.003 Carbofuran 0.04 Chlordane 0.002 Dalapon 0.2 1,2-Dibromo-3-Chloropropane (DBCP) 0.0002 2,4,-Dichlorophenoxyacetic Acid(2,4-D) 0.07 Dinoseb 0.007 Diquat 0.02 Endothall 0.1 Endrin 0.002 Ethylene Dibromide (EDB) 0.00005 Glyphosate 0.7 Heptachlor 0.0004 Heptachlor Epoxide 0.0002 Lindane 0.0002 Methoxychlor 0.04 Oxamyl 0.2 Picloram 0.5 Polychlorinated Biphenols (PCBs) 0.0005 Simazine 0.004 Toxaphene 0.003 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic Acid (2,4,5-TP or Silvex) 0.05 </table>

E. The following are the aquifer water quality standards for radionuclides:

1. The maximum concentration for gross alpha particle activity, including Radium-226 but excluding radon and uranium, shall not exceed 15 pCi/l.

2. The maximum concentration for combined Radium-226 and Radium-228 shall not exceed 5 pCi/l.

3. The average annual concentration of beta particle and photon radioactivity from man-made radionuclides shall not produce an annual dose equivalent to the total body or any internal organ greater than 4 millirem/year.

4. Except for the radionuclides listed in this subsection, the concentration of man-made radionuclides causing 4 millirem total body or organ dose equivalents shall be calculated on the basis of a 2-liter-per-day drinking water intake using the 168-hour data listed in "Maximum Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum Permissible Concentration of Radionuclides in Air or Water for Occupational Exposure," National Bureau of Standards Handbook 69, National Bureau of Commerce, as amended August 1963 (and no future editions), incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Office of the Secretary of State and with the Department. If two or more radionuclides are present, the sum of their annual dose equivalent to the total body or to any organ shall not exceed 4 millirem/year. The following average annual concentrations are assumed to produce a total body or organ dose of 4 millirem/year:

<table> Radionuclide Critical Organ pCi/l Tritium Total body 20,000 Strontium-90 Bone Marrow 8 </table>

F. The aquifer water quality standard for microbiological contaminants is based upon the presence or absence of total coliforms in a 100-milliliter sample. If a sample is total coliform-positive, a 100-milliliter repeat sample shall be taken within two weeks of the time the sample results are reported. Any total coliform-positive repeat sample following a total coliform-positive sample constitutes a violation of the aquifer water quality standard for microbiological contaminants.

G. The following are the aquifer water quality standards for turbidity:

1. One nephelometric turbidity unit as determined by a monthly average except that five or fewer nephelometric turbidity units may be allowed if it can be determined that the higher turbidity does not interfere with disinfection, prevent maintenance of effective disinfectant agents in water supply distribution systems, or interfere with microbiological determinations.

2. Five nephelometric turbidity units based on an average of two consecutive days.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective May 26, 1994 (Supp. 94-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.407" level="4" title="Aquifer Water Quality Standards in Reclassified Aquifers">

Aquifer Water Quality Standards in Reclassified Aquifers

A. All aquifers in the state are classified for drinking water protected use except for aquifers which are reclassified to a non-drinking water protected use pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-224 and A.A.C. R18-11-503.

B. Aquifer water quality standards for drinking water protected use apply to reclassified aquifers except where expressly superseded by aquifer water quality standards adopted pursuant to subsection (C) of this Section.

C. The Director shall adopt, by rule, aquifer water quality standards for reclassified aquifers within one year of the date of the order reclassifying the aquifer to a nondrinking water protected use. The Director shall adopt aquifer water quality standards for reclassified aquifers only for pollutants that are specifically identified in a petition for reclassification as prescribed by A.R.S. &#167; 49-223(D) and A.A.C. R18-11-503(B). Aquifer water quality standards for reclassified aquifers shall be sufficient to protect the use of the reclassified aquifer.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Amended effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.408" level="4" title="Petition for Adoption of a Numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standard">

Petition for Adoption of a Numeric Aquifer Water Quality Standard

A. Any person may petition the Director to adopt, by rule, a numeric aquifer water quality standard for a pollutant for which no numeric aquifer water quality standard exists.

B. Petitions for adoption of a numeric aquifer water quality standard shall be filed with the Department and shall comply with the requirements applicable to petitions for rule adoption as provided by A.R.S. &#167; 41-1033 and A.A.C. R18-1-302, except as otherwise provided by A.R.S. &#167; 49-223 or this Section.

C. In addition to the requirements of A.A.C. R18-1-302, a petition for rule adoption to establish a numeric aquifer water quality standard shall include specific reference to:

1. Technical information that the pollutant is a toxic pollutant.

2. Technical information upon which the Director reasonably may base the establishment of a numeric aquifer water quality standard.

3. Evidence that the pollutant that is the subject of the petition is or may in the future be present in an aquifer or part of an aquifer that is classified for drinking water protected use. Evidence may include, but is not limited to, any of the following:

a. A laboratory analysis of a water sample by a laboratory licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services which indicates the presence of the pollutant in the aquifer.

b. A hydrogeological study which demonstrates that the pollutant that is the subject of the petition may be present in an aquifer in the future. The hydrogeological study shall include the following:

i. A description of the use that results in a discharge of the pollutant that is the subject of the petition.

ii. A description of the mobility of the pollutant in the vadose zone and in the aquifer.

iii. A description of the persistence of the pollutant in the vadose zone and in the aquifer.

D. Within 180 calendar days of the receipt of a complete petition for rule adoption to establish a numeric aquifer water quality standard, the Director shall make a written determination of whether the petition should be granted or denied. The Director shall give written notice by regular mail of the determination to the petitioner.

E. If the petition for rule adoption is granted, the Director shall initiate rulemaking proceedings to adopt a numeric aquifer water quality standard. The Director shall, within one year of the date that the petition for adoption of a numeric aquifer water quality standard is granted, either adopt a rule establishing a numeric aquifer water quality standard or publish a notice of termination of rulemaking in the Arizona Administrative Register.

F. If the petition for rule adoption is denied, the Director shall issue a denial letter to the petitioner which explains the reasons for the denial. The denial of a petition for rule adoption to establish a numeric aquifer water quality standard is not subject to judicial review.

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1).

Appendix 1. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 2. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 3. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 4. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 5. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 6. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

Appendix 7. Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective January 4, 1990 (Supp. 90-1). Repealed effective August 14, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="AQUIFER BOUNDARY AND PROTECTED USE CLASSIFICATION">

AQUIFER BOUNDARY AND PROTECTED USE CLASSIFICATION

<regElement name="R18.11.501" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201, the words and phrases of this Article shall have the following meaning:

1. "Drinking water protected use" means the protection and maintenance of aquifer water quality for human consumption.

2. "Hardrock areas containing little or no water" means areas of igneous or metamorphic rock which do not yield usable quantities of water.

3. "Nondrinking water protected use" means the protection and maintenance of aquifer water quality for a use other than human consumption.

4. "Usable quantities" means five gallons of water per day.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4).

<regElement name="R18.11.502" level="4" title="Aquifer boundaries">

Aquifer boundaries

A. Except as provided in subsection (B) of this rule, aquifer boundaries for the aquifers in this state are identified and defined as being identical to the hydrologic basin and subbasin boundaries, as found by the Director of the Department of Water Resources, Findings and Order In the Matter of The Designation of Groundwater Basins and Subbasins In The State of Arizona (dated June 21, 1984), pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 45-403 and 45-404, which is incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. Excluded from the boundaries of the aquifers are hard rock areas which contain little or no water, as identified in Plate 1 of the Department of Water Resources, Water Resource Hydrologic Map Series Report Number 2 (dated January 1981) and as further identified in the Bureau of Mines, University of Arizona County Geologic Map Series (individual county maps dated 1957 through 1960), which are incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. The Director may, by rule, modify or add an aquifer boundary provided that one or more of the following applies:

1. The Department of Water Resources modifies the boundaries of its basins or subbasins.

2. The Director is made aware of new technical information or data which supports refinement of an aquifer boundary.

D. Facilities located outside of the boundaries defined in these rules shall be subject to A.R.S. &#167; 49-241 except as provided therein.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4).

<regElement name="R18.11.503" level="4" title="Petition for reclassification">

Petition for reclassification

A. Any person may petition the Director to reclassify an aquifer from a drinking water protected use to a nondrinking water protected use pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(C).

B. A written petition for reclassification pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(C) or A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(D) shall be filed with the Department and shall include the following categories of information:

1. The proposed protected use for which the reclassification is being requested.

2. The pollutant and affected aquifer water quality standards for which the reclassification is being requested.

3. A hydrogeologic report which demonstrates that the aquifer proposed for reclassification is or will be hydrologically isolated, to the extent described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(C)(1). This report and demonstration of hydrologic isolation for the area containing such aquifer, and immediate adjacent geologic units, shall include at least the following:

a. Hydrogeologic area maps and cross sections.

b. An analysis of subsurface geology, including geologic and hydrologic separation.

c. Water level elevation or piezometric level contour maps.

d. Analysis of hydrologic characteristics of the aquifer and the immediate adjacent geologic units.

e. Description of existing water quality and analysis of water chemistry.

f. Projected annual quantity of water to be withdrawn.

g. Identification of pumping centers, cones of depression and areas of recharge.

h. A water balance.

i. Existing flow direction and evaluation of the effects of seasonal and future pumping on flow.

j. An evaluation as to whether the reclassification will contribute to or cause a violation of aquifer water quality standards in other aquifers, or in parts of the aquifer not being proposed for reclassification.

4. Documentation demonstrating that water from the aquifer or part of the aquifer for which reclassification is proposed is not being used as drinking water. This documentation shall include at least the following:

a. A list of all wells or springs including their location, ownership and use within the aquifer or part of the aquifer being proposed for reclassification.

b. Identification of groundwater withdrawal rights, on file with the Department of Water Resources, within the aquifer or part of the aquifer being proposed for reclassification.

c. A comprehensive list of agencies, persons and other information sources consulted for aquifer use documentation.

5. A cost-benefit analysis developed pursuant to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(C)(3), except for petitions submitted pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(D). This analysis shall identify potential future uses of the aquifer being proposed for reclassification, as well as other opportunity costs associated with reclassification, and shall contain a description of the cost-benefit methodology used, including all assumptions, data, data sources and criteria considered and all supporting statistical analyses.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4).

<regElement name="R18.11.504" level="4" title="Agency action on petition">

Agency action on petition

A. Upon receipt of a petition for reclassification, the Director shall review the petition for compliance with the requirements of R18-11-503. If additional information is necessary, the petitioner shall be notified of specific deficiencies in writing within 30 calendar days of receipt of the petition.

B. Within 120 calendar days after receipt of a complete petition, and after consultation with the appropriate advisory council pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-224(C) and 49-204, the Director shall make a final decision to grant or deny the petition and shall notify the petitioner of such decision and the reason for such determination in writing.

C. Upon a decision to grant a petition for aquifer reclassification, the Director shall initiate proceedings for promulgation of aquifer water quality standards and, if applicable, for aquifer boundary designation for the reclassified aquifers.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4).

<regElement name="R18.11.505" level="4" title="Public participation">

Public participation

A. Within 30 days of receipt of a complete petition for reclassification filed pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(D), or if the Director deems it necessary to consider a reclassification under A.R.S. &#167; 49-224(C), the Director shall give public notice of the proposed reclassification pursuant to A.A.C. R18-1-401.

B. The Director shall hold at least one public hearing at a location as near as practicable to the aquifer proposed for reclassification. The Director shall give notice of each public hearing and conduct the public hearing in accordance with the provisions of A.A.C. R18-1-402.

Historical Note

Adopted effective June 29, 1989 (Supp. 89-2).

<regElement name="R18.11.506" level="4" title="Rescission of reclassification">

Rescission of reclassification

The Director may, by rule, rescind an aquifer reclassification and return an aquifer to a drinking water protected use if he determines that any of the conditions under which the reclassification was granted are no longer valid. If the Director initiates a change under this Section, he shall consult with the appropriate advisory council pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-224(C) and 49-204.

Historical Note

Adopted effective October 22, 1987 (Supp. 87-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="IMPAIRED WATER IDENTIFICATION">

IMPAIRED WATER IDENTIFICATION

Article 6, consisting of Sections R18-11-601 through R18-11-606, made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.601" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions established in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-201 and 49-231, and A.A.C. R18-11-101, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "303(d) List" means the list of surface waters or segments required under section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 2.1, for which TMDLs are developed and submitted to EPA for approval.

2. "Attaining" means there is sufficient, credible, and scientifically defensible data to assess a surface water or segment and the surface water or segment does not meet the definition of impaired or not attaining.

3. "AZPDES" means the Arizona Pollutant Elimination Discharge System.

4. "Credible and scientifically defensible data" means data submitted, collected, or analyzed using:

a. Quality assurance and quality control procedures under A.A.C. R18-11-602;

b. Samples or analyses representative of water quality conditions at the time the data were collected;

c. Data consisting of an adequate number of samples based on the nature of the water in question and the parameters being analyzed; and

d. Methods of sampling and analysis, including analytical, statistical, and modeling methods that are generally accepted and validated by the scientific community as appropriate for use in assessing the condition of the water.

5. "Designated use" means those uses specified in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1 for each surface water or segment whether or not they are attaining.

6. "EPA" means the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

7. "Impaired water" means a Navigable water for which credible scientific data exists that satisfies the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-232 and that demonstrates that the water should be identified pursuant to 33 United States Code &#167; 1313(d) and the regulations implementing that statute. A.R.S. &#167; 49-231(1).

8. "Laboratory detection limit" means a "Method Reporting Limit" (MRL) or "Reporting Limit" (RL). These analogous terms describe the laboratory reported value, which is the lowest concentration level included on the calibration curve from the analysis of a pollutant that can be quantified in terms of precision and accuracy.

9. "Monitoring entity" means the Department or any person who collects physical, chemical, or biological data used for an impaired water identification or a TMDL decision.

10. "Naturally occurring condition" means the condition of a surface water or segment that would have occurred in the absence of pollutant loadings as a result of human activity.

11. "Not attaining" means a surface water is assessed as impaired, but is not placed on the 303(d) List because:

a. A TMDL is prepared and implemented for the surface water;

b. An action, which meets the requirements of R18-11-604(D)(2)(h), is occurring and is expected to bring the surface water to attaining before the next 303(d) List submission; or

c. The impairment of the surface water is due to pollution but not a pollutant, for which a TMDL load allocation cannot be developed.

12. "NPDES" means National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System.

13. "Planning List" means a list of surface waters and segments that the Department will review and evaluate to determine if the surface water or segment is impaired and whether a TMDL is necessary.

14. "Pollutant" means dredged spoil, solid waste, incinerator residue, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials, heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water. 33 U.S.C. 1362(6). Characteristics of water, such as dissolved oxygen, pH, temperature, turbidity, and suspended sediment are considered pollutants if they result or may result in the non-attainment of a water quality standard.

15. "Pollution" means "the man-made or man-induced alteration of the chemical, physical, biological, and radiological integrity of water." 33 U.S.C. 1362(19).

16. "QAP" means a quality assurance plan detailing how environmental data operations are planned, implemented, and assessed for quality during the duration of a project.

17. "Sampling event" means one or more samples taken under consistent conditions on one or more days at a distinct station or location.

18. "SAP" means a site specific sampling and analysis plan that describes the specifics of sample collection to ensure that data quality objectives are met and that samples collected and analyzed are representative of surface water conditions at the time of sampling.

19. "Spatially independent sample" means a sample that is collected at a distinct station or location. The sample is independent if the sample was collected:

a. More than 200 meters apart from other samples, or

b. Less than 200 meters apart, and collected to characterize the effect of an intervening tributary, outfall or other pollution source, or significant hydrographic or hydrologic change.

20. "Temporally independent sample" means a sample that is collected at the same station or location more than seven days apart from other samples.

21. "Threatened" means that a surface water or segment is currently attaining its designated use, however, trend analysis, based on credible and scientifically defensible data, indicates that the surface water or segment is likely to be impaired before the next listing cycle.

22. "TMDL" means total maximum daily load.

23. "TMDL decision" means a decision by the Department to:

a. Prioritize an impaired water for TMDL development,

b. Develop a TMDL for an impaired water, or

c. Develop a TMDL implementation plan.

24. "Total maximum daily load" means an estimation of the total amount of a pollutant from all sources that may be added to a water while still allowing the water to achieve and maintain applicable surface water quality standards. Each total maximum daily load shall include allocations for sources that contribute the pollutant to the water, as required by section 303(d) of the clean water act (33 United States Code section 1313(d)) and regulations implementing that statute to achieve applicable surface water quality standards. A.R.S. &#167; 49-231(4).

25. "Water quality standard" means a standard composed of designated uses (classification of waters), the numerical and narrative criteria applied to the specific water uses or classification, the antidegradation policy, and moderating provisions, for example, mixing zones, site-specific alternative criteria, and exemptions, in A.A.C. Title 18, Chapter 11, Article 1.

26. "WQARF" means the water quality assurance revolving fund established under A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.602" level="4" title="Credible Data">

Credible Data

A. Data are credible and relevant to an impaired water identification or a TMDL decision when:

1. Quality Assurance Plan. A monitoring entity, which contribute data for an impaired water identification or a TMDL decision, provides the Department with a QAP that contains, at a minimum, the elements listed in subsections (A)(1)(a) through (A)(1)(f). The Department may accept a QAP containing less than the required elements if the Department determines that an element is not relevant to the sampling activity and that its omission will not impact the quality of the results based upon the type of pollutants to be sampled, the type of surface water, and the purpose of the sampling.

a. An approval page that includes the date of approval and the signatures of the approving officials, including the project manager and project quality assurance manager;

b. A project organization outline that identifies all key personnel, organizations, and laboratories involved in monitoring, including the specific roles and responsibilities of key personnel in carrying out the procedures identified in the QAP and SAP, if applicable;

c. Sampling design and monitoring data quality objectives or a SAP that meets the requirements of subsection (A)(2) to ensure that:

i. Samples are spatially and temporally representative of the surface water,

ii. Samples are representative of water quality conditions at the time of sampling, and

iii. The monitoring is reproducible;

d. The following field sampling information to assure that samples meet data quality objectives:

i. Sampling and field protocols for each parameter or parametric group, including the sampling methods, equipment and containers, sample preservation, holding times, and any analysis proposed for completion in the field or outside of a laboratory;

ii. Field and laboratory methods approved under subsection (A)(5);

iii. Handling procedures to identify samples and custody protocols used when samples are brought from the field to the laboratory for analysis;

iv. Quality control protocols that describe the number and type of field quality control samples for the project that includes, if appropriate for the type of sampling being conducted, field blanks, travel blanks, equipment blanks, method blanks, split samples, and duplicate samples;

v. Procedures for testing, inspecting, and maintaining field equipment;

vi. Field instrument calibration procedures that describe how and when field sampling and analytical instruments will be calibrated;

vii. Field notes and records that describe the conditions that require documentation in the field, such as weather, stream flow, transect information, distance from water edge, water and sample depth, equipment calibration measurements, field observations of watershed activities, and bank conditions. Indicate the procedures implemented for maintaining field notes and records and the process used for attaching pertinent information to monitoring results to assist in data interpretation;

viii. Minimum training and any specialized training necessary to do the monitoring, that includes the proper use and calibration of field equipment used to collect data, sampling protocols, quality assurance/quality control procedures, and how training will be achieved;

e. Laboratory analysis methods and quality assurance/quality control procedures that assure that samples meet data quality objectives, including:

i. Analytical methods and equipment necessary for analysis of each parameter, including identification of approved laboratory methods described in subsection (A)(5), and laboratory detection limits for each parameter;

ii. The name of the designated laboratory, its license number, if licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services, and the name of a laboratory contact person to assist the Department with quality assurance questions;

iii. Quality controls that describe the number and type of laboratory quality control samples for the project, including, if appropriate for the type of sampling being conducted, field blanks, travel blanks, equipment blanks, method blanks, split samples, and duplicate samples;

iv. Procedures for testing, inspecting, and maintaining laboratory equipment and facilities;

v. A schedule for calibrating laboratory instruments, a description of calibration methods, and a description of how calibration records are maintained; and

vi. Sample equipment decontamination procedures that outline specific methods for sample collection and preparation of equipment, identify the frequency of decontamination, and describe the procedures used to verify decontamination;

f. Data review, management, and use that includes the following:

i. A description of the data handling process from field to laboratory, from laboratory to data review and validation, and from validation to data storage and use. Include the role and responsibility of each person for each step of the process, type of database or other storage used, and how laboratory and field data qualifiers are related to the laboratory result;

ii. Reports that describe the intended frequency, content, and distribution of final analysis reports and project status reports;

iii. Data review, validation, and verification that describes the procedure used to validate and verify data, the procedures used if errors are detected, and how data are accepted, rejected, or qualified; and

iv. Reconciliation with data quality objectives that describes the process used to determine whether the data collected meets the project objectives, which may include discarding data, setting limits on data use, or revising data quality objectives.

2. Sampling and analysis plan.

a. A monitoring entity shall develop a SAP that contains, at a minimum, the following elements:

i. The experimental design of the project, the project goals and objectives, and evaluation criteria for data results;

ii. The background or historical perspective of the project;

iii. Identification of target conditions, including a discussion of whether any weather, seasonal variations, stream flow, lake level, or site access may affect the project and the consideration of these factors;

iv. The data quality objectives for measurement of data that describe in quantitative and qualitative terms how the data meet the project objectives of precision, accuracy, completeness, comparability, and representativeness;

v. The types of samples scheduled for collection;

vi. The sampling frequency;

vii. The sampling periods;

viii. The sampling locations and rationale for the site selection, how site locations are benchmarked, including scaled maps indicating approximate location of sites; and

ix. A list of the field equipment, including tolerance range and any other manufacturer's specifications relating to accuracy and precision.

b. The Department may accept a SAP containing less than the required elements if the Department determines that an element is not relevant to the sampling activity and that its omission will not impact the quality of the results based upon the type of pollutants to be samples, the type of surface water, and the purpose of the sampling.

3. The monitoring entity may include any of the following in the QAP or SAP:

a. The name, title, and role of each person and organization involved in the project, identifying specific roles and responsibilities for carrying out the procedures identified in the QAP and SAP;

b. A distribution list of each individual and organization receiving a copy of the approved QAP and SAP;

c. A table of contents;

d. A health and safety plan;

e. The inspection and acceptance requirements for supplies;

f. The data acquisition that describes types of data not obtained through this monitoring activity, but used in the project;

g. The audits and response actions that describe how field, laboratory, and data management activities and sampling personnel are evaluated to ensure data quality, including a description of how the project will correct any problems identified during these assessments; and

h. The waste disposal methods that identify wastes generated in sampling and methods for disposal of those wastes.

4. EXCEPTION. The Department may determine that the following data are also credible and relevant to an impaired water identification or TMDL decision when data were collected, provided the conditions in subsections (A)(5), (A)(6), and (B) are met, and where the data were collected in the surface water or segment being evaluated for impairment:

a. The data were collected before July 12, 2002 and the Department determines that the data yield results of comparable reliability to the data collected under subsections (A)(1) and (A)(2);

b. The data were collected after July 12, 2002 as part of an ongoing monitoring effort by a governmental agency and the Department determines that the data yield results of comparable reliability to the data collected under subsections (A)(1) and (A)(2); or

c. The instream water quality data were or are collected under the terms of a NPDES or AZPDES permit or a compliance order issued by the Department or EPA, a consent decree signed by the Department or EPA, or a sampling program approved by the Department or EPA under WQARF or CERCLA, and the Department determines that the data yield results of comparable reliability to data collected under subsections (A)(1) and (A)(2).

5. Data collection, preservation, and analytical procedures. The monitoring entity shall collect, preserve, and analyze data using methods of sample collection, preservation, and analysis established under A.A.C. R9-14-610.

6. Laboratory. The monitoring entity shall ensure that chemical and toxicological samples are analyzed in a state-licensed laboratory, a laboratory exempted by the Arizona Department of Health Services for specific analyses, or a federal or academic laboratory that can demonstrate proper quality assurance/quality control procedures substantially equal to those required by the Arizona Department of Health Services, and shall ensure that the laboratory uses approved methods identified in A.A.C. R9-14-610.

B. Documentation for data submission. The monitoring entity shall provide the Department with the following information either before or with data submission:

1. A copy of the QAP or SAP, or both, revisions to a previously submitted QAP or SAP, and any other information necessary for the Department to evaluate the data under subsection (A)(4);

2. The applicable dates of the QAP and SAP, including any revisions;

3. Written assurance that the methods and procedures specified in the QAP and SAP were followed;

4. The name of the laboratory used for sample analyses and its certification number, if the laboratory is licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services;

5. The quality assurance/quality control documentation, including the analytical methods used by the laboratory, method number, detection limits, and any blank, duplicate, and spike sample information necessary to properly interpret the data, if different from that stated in the QAP or SAP;

6. The data reporting unit of measure;

7. Any field notes, laboratory comments, or laboratory notations concerning a deviation from standard procedures, quality control, or quality assurance that affects data reliability, data interpretation, or data validity; and

8. Any other information, such as complete field notes, photographs, climate, or other information related to flow, field conditions, or documented sources of pollutants in the watershed, if requested by the Department for interpreting or validating data.

C. Recordkeeping. The monitoring entity shall maintain all records, including sample results, for the duration of the listing cycle. If a surface water or segment is added to the Planning List or to the 303(d) List, the Department shall coordinate with the monitoring entity to ensure that records are kept for the duration of the listing.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.603" level="4" title="General Data Interpretation Requirements"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="4"><dwc name="nitrit" times="2">

General Data Interpretation Requirements

A. The Department shall use the following data conventions to interpret data for impaired water identifications and TMDL decisions:

1. Data reported below laboratory detection limits.

a. When the analytical result is reported as &lt;X, where X is the laboratory detection limit for the analyte and the laboratory detection limit is less than or equal to the surface water quality standard, consider the result as meeting the water quality standard:

i. Use these statistically derived values in trend analysis, descriptive statistics or modeling if there is sufficient data to support the statistical estimation of values reported as less than the laboratory detection limit; or

ii. Use one-half of the value of the laboratory detection limit in trend analysis, descriptive statistics, or modeling, if there is insufficient data to support the statistical estimation of values reported as less than the laboratory detection limit.

b. When the sample value is less than or equal to the laboratory detection limit but the laboratory detection limit is greater than the surface water quality standard, shall not use the result for impaired water identifications or TMDL decisions;

2. Identify the field equipment specifications used for each listing cycle or TMDL developed. A field sample measurement within the manufacturer's specification for accuracy meets surface water quality standards;

3. Resolve a data conflict by considering the factors identified under the weight-of-evidence determination in R18-11-605(B);

4. When multiple samples from a surface water or segment are not spatially or temporally independent, or when lake samples are from multiple depths, use the following resultant value to represent the specific dataset:

a. The appropriate measure of central tendency for the dataset for:

i. A pollutant listed in the surface water quality standards 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 1, except for nitrate or nitrate/nitrite;

ii. A chronic water quality standard for a pollutant listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 2;

iii. A surface water quality standard for a pollutant that is expressed as an annual or geometric mean;

iv. The surface water quality standard for temperature or the single sample maximum water quality standard for suspended sediment concentration, nitrogen, and phosphorus in R18-11-109;

v. The surface water quality standard for radiochemicals in R18-11-109(G); or

vi. Except for chromium, all single sample maximum water quality standards in R18-11-112.

b. The maximum value of the dataset for:

i. The acute water quality standard for a pollutant listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 2 and acute water quality standard in R18-11-112;

ii. The surface water quality standard for nitrate or nitrate/nitrite in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 1;

iii. The single sample maximum water quality standard for bacteria in subsections R18-11-109(A); or

iv. The 90th percentile water quality standard for nitrogen and phosphorus in R18-11-109(F) and R18-11-112.

c. The worst case measurement of the dataset for:

i. Surface water quality standard for dissolved oxygen under R18-11-109(E). For purposes of this subsection, worst case measurement means the minimum value for dissolved oxygen;

ii. Surface water quality standard for pH under R18-11-109(B). For purposes of this subsection, "worst case measurement" means both the minimum and maximum value for pH.

B. The Department shall not use the following data for placing a surface water or segment on the Planning List, the 303(d) List, or in making a TMDL decision.

1. Any measurement outside the range of possible physical or chemical measurements for the pollutant or measurement equipment,

2. Uncorrected data transcription errors or laboratory errors, and

3. An outlier identified through statistical procedures, where further evaluation determines that the outlier represents a valid measure of water quality but should be excluded from the dataset.

C. The Department may employ fundamental statistical tests if appropriate for the collected data and type of surface water when evaluating a surface water or segment for impairment or in making a TMDL decision. The statistical tests include descriptive statistics, frequency distribution, analysis of variance, correlation analysis, regression analysis, significance testing, and time series analysis.

D. The Department may employ modeling when evaluating a surface water or segment for impairment or in making a TMDL decision, if the method is appropriate for the type of waterbody and the quantity and quality of available data meet the requirements of R18-11-602. Modeling methods include:

1. Better Assessment Science Integrating Source and Nonpoint Sources (BASINS),

2. Fundamental statistics, including regression analysis,

3. Hydrologic Simulation Program-Fortran (HSPF),

4. Spreadsheet modeling, and

5. Hydrologic Engineering Center (HEC) programs developed by the Army Corps of Engineers.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.604" level="4" title="Types of Surface Waters Placed on the Planning List and 303(d) List">

Types of Surface Waters Placed on the Planning List and 303(d) List

A. The Department shall evaluate, at least every five years, Arizona's surface waters by considering all readily available data.

1. The Department shall place a surface water or segment on:

a. The Planning List if it meets any of the criteria described in subsection (D), or

b. The 303(d) List if it meets the criteria for listing described in subsection (E).

2. The Department shall remove a surface water or segment from the Planning List based on the requirements in R18-11-605(E)(1) or from the 303(d) List, based on the requirements in R18-11-605(E)(2).

3. The Department may move surface waters or segments between the Planning List and the 303(d) List based on the criteria established in R18-11-604 and R18-11-605.

B. When placing a surface water or segment on the Planning List or the 303(d) List, the Department shall list the stream reach, derived from EPA's Reach File System or National Hydrography Dataset, or the entire lake, unless the data indicate that only a segment of the stream reach or lake is impaired or not attaining its designated use, in which case, the Department shall describe only that segment for listing.

C. EXCEPTION. The Department shall not place a surface water or segment on either the Planning List or the 303(d) List if the non-attainment of a surface water quality standard is due to one of the following:

1. Pollutant loadings from naturally occurring conditions alone are sufficient to cause a violation of applicable water quality standards;

2. The data were collected within a mixing zone or under a variance or nutrient waiver established in a NPDES or AZPDES permit for the specific parameter and the result does not exceed the alternate discharge limitation established in the permit. The Department may use data collected within these areas for modeling or allocating loads in a TMDL decision; or

3. An activity exempted under R18-11-117, R18-11-118, or a condition exempted under R18-11-119.

D. Planning List.

1. The Department shall:

a. Use the Planning List to prioritize surface waters for monitoring and evaluation as part of the Department's watershed management approach;

b. Provide the Planning List to EPA; and

c. Evaluate each surface water and segment on the Planning List for impairment based on the criteria in R18-11-605(D) to determine the source of the impairment.

2. The Department shall place a surface water or segment on the Planning List based the criteria in R18-11-605(C). The Department may also include a surface water or segment on the Planning List when:

a. A TMDL is completed for the pollutant and approved by EPA;

b. The surface water or segment is on the 1998 303(d) List but the dataset used for the listing:

i. Does not meet the credible data requirements of R18-11-602, or

ii. Contains insufficient samples to meet the data requirements under R18-11-605(D);

c. Some monitoring data exist but there are insufficient data to determine whether the surface water or segment is impaired or not attaining, including:

i. A numeric surface water quality standard is exceeded, but there are not enough samples or sampling events to fulfill the requirements of R18-11-605(D);

ii. Evidence exists of a narrative standard violation, but the amount of evidence is insufficient, based on narrative implementation procedures and the requirements of R18-11-605(D)(3);

iii. Existing monitoring data do not meet credible data requirements in R18-11-602; or

iv. A numeric surface water quality standard is exceeded, but there are not enough sample results above the laboratory detection limit to support statistical analysis as established in R18-11-603(A)(1).

d. The surface water or segment no longer meets the criteria for impairment based on a change in the applicable surface water quality standard or a designated use approved by EPA under section 303(c)(1) of the Clean Water Act, but insufficient current or original monitoring data exist to determine whether the surface water or segment will meet current surface water quality standards;

e. Trend analysis using credible and scientifically defensible data indicate that surface water quality standards may be exceeded by the next assessment cycle;

f. The exceedance of surface water quality standards is due to pollution, but not a pollutant;

g. Existing data were analyzed using methods with laboratory detection limits above the numeric surface water quality standard but analytical methods with lower laboratory detection limits are available;

h. The surface water or segment is expected to attain its designated use by the next assessment as a result of existing or proposed technology-based effluent limitations or other pollution control requirements under local, state, or federal authority. The appropriate entity shall provide the Department with the following documentation to support placement on the Planning List:

i. Verification that discharge controls are required and enforceable;

ii. Controls are specific to the surface water or segment, and pollutant of concern;

iii. Controls are in place or scheduled for implementation; and

iv. There are assurances that the controls are sufficient to bring about attainment of water quality standards by the next 303(d) List submission; or

i. The surface water or segment is threatened due to a pollutant and, at the time the Department submits a final 303(d) List to EPA, there are no federal regulations implementing section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act that require threatened waters be included on the list.

E. 303(d) List. The Department shall:

1. Place a surface water or segment on the 303(d) List if the Department determines:

a. Based on R18-11-605(D), that the surface water or segment is impaired due to a pollutant and that a TMDL decision is necessary; or

b. That the surface water or segment is threatened due to a pollutant and, at the time the Department submits a final 303(d) List to EPA, there are federal regulations implementing section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act that require threatened waters be included on the list.

2. Provide public notice of the 303(d) List according to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-232 and submit the 303(d) List according to section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.605" level="4" title="Evaluating A Surface Water or Segment For Listing and Delisting"> <dwc name="bacteria" times="2"><dwc name="turbid" times="1"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="nitrat" times="4"><dwc name="nitrit" times="2">

Evaluating A Surface Water or Segment For Listing and Delisting

A. The Department shall compile and evaluate all reasonably current, credible, and scientifically defensible data to determine whether a surface water or segment is impaired or not attaining.

B. Weight-of-evidence approach.

1. The Department shall consider the following concepts when evaluating data:

a. Data or information collected during critical conditions may be considered separately from the complete dataset, when the data show that the surface water or segment is impaired or not attaining its designated use during those critical conditions, but attaining its uses during other periods. Critical conditions may include stream flow, seasonal periods, weather conditions, or anthropogenic activities;

b. Whether the data indicate that the impairment is due to persistent, seasonal, or recurring conditions. If the data do not represent persistent, recurring, or seasonal conditions, the Department may place the surface water or segment on the Planning List;

c. Higher quality data over lower quality data when making a listing decision. Data quality is established by the reliability, precision, accuracy, and representativeness of the data, based on factors identified in R18-11-602(A) and (B), including monitoring methods, analytical methods, quality control procedures, and the documented field and laboratory quality control information submitted with the data. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining higher quality data:

i. The age of the measurements. Newer measurements are weighted heavier than older measurements, unless the older measurements are more representative of critical flow conditions;

ii. Whether the data provide a direct measure of an impact on a designated use. Direct measurements are weighted heavier than measurements of an indicator or surrogate parameter; or

iii. The amount or frequency of the measurements. More frequent data collection are weighted heavier than nominal datasets.

2. The Department shall evaluate the following factors to determine if the water quality evidence supports a finding that the surface water or segment is impaired or not attaining:

a. An exceedance of a numeric surface water quality standard based on the criteria in subsections (C)(1), (C)(2), (D)(1), and (D)(2);

b. An exceedance of a narrative surface water quality standard based on the criteria in subsections (C)(3) and (D)(3);

c. Additional information that determines whether a water quality standard is exceeded due to a pollutant, suspected pollutant, or naturally occurring condition:

i. Soil type, geology, hydrology, flow regime, biological community, geomorphology, climate, natural process, and anthropogenic influence in the watershed;

ii. The characteristics of the pollutant, such as its solubility in water, bioaccumulation potential, sediment sorption potential, or degradation characteristics, to assist in determining which data more accurately indicate the pollutant's presence and potential for causing impairment; and

iii. Available evidence of direct or toxic impacts on aquatic life, wildlife, or human health, such as fish kills and beach closures, where there is sufficient evidence that these impacts occurred due to water quality conditions in the surface water.

d. Other available water quality information, such as NPDES or AZPDES water quality discharge data, as applicable.

e. If the Department determines that a surface water or segment does not merit listing under numeric water quality standards based on criteria in subsections (C)(1), (C)(2), (D)(1), or (D)(2) for a pollutant, but there is evidence of a narrative standard exceedance in that surface water or segment under subsection (D)(3) as a result of the presence of the same pollutant, the Department shall list the surface water or segment as impaired only when the evidence indicates that the numeric water quality standard is insufficient to protect the designated use of the surface water or segment and the Department justifies the listing based on any of the following:

i. The narrative standard data provide a more direct indication of impairment as supported by professionally prepared and peer-reviewed publications;

ii. Sufficient evidence of impairment exists due to synergistic effects of pollutant combinations or site-specific environmental factors; or

iii. The pollutant is bioaccumulative, relatively insoluble in water, or has other characteristics that indicate it is occurring in the specific surface water or segment at levels below the laboratory detection limits, but at levels sufficient to result in an impairment.

3. The Department may consider a single line of water quality evidence when the evidence is sufficient to demonstrate that the surface water or segment is impaired or not attaining.

C. Planning List.

1. When evaluating a surface water or segment for placement on the Planning List.

a. Consider at least ten spatially or temporally independent samples collected over three or more temporally independent sampling events; and

b. Determine numeric water quality standards exceedances. The Department shall:

i. Place a surface water or segment on the Planning List following subsection (B), if the number of exceedances of a surface water quality standard is greater than or equal to the number listed in Table 1, which provides the number of exceedances that indicate a minimum of a 10 percent exceedance frequency with a minimum of a 80 percent confidence level using a binomial distribution for a given sample size; or

ii. For sample datasets exceeding those shown in Table 1, calculate the number of exceedances using the following equation: (X&#8805;x| n, p) where n = number of samples; p = exceedance probability of 0.1; x = smallest number of exceedances required for listing with "n" samples; and confidence level &#8805; 80 percent.

Table 1.

<table> MINIMUM NUMBER OF SAMPLES EXCEEDING THE NUMERIC STANDARD Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard From To From To From To 10 15 3 173 181 22 349 357 41 16 23 4 182 190 23 358 367 42 24 31 5 191 199 24 368 376 43 32 39 6 200 208 25 377 385 44 40 47 7 209 218 26 386 395 45 48 56 8 219 227 27 396 404 46 57 65 9 228 236 28 405 414 47 66 73 10 237 245 29 415 423 48 74 82 11 246 255 30 424 432 49 83 91 12 256 264 31 433 442 50 92 100 13 265 273 32 443 451 51 101 109 14 274 282 33 452 461 52 110 118 15 283 292 34 462 470 53 119 126 16 293 301 35 471 480 54 127 136 17 302 310 36 481 489 55 137 145 18 311 320 37 490 499 56 146 154 19 321 329 38 500 57 155 163 20 330 338 39 164 172 21 339 348 40 </table>

2. When there are less than ten samples, the Department shall place a surface water or segment on the Planning List following subsection (B), if three or more temporally independent samples exceed the following surface water quality standards:

a. The surface water quality standard for a pollutant listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 1, except for nitrate or nitrate/nitrite;

b. The surface water quality standard for temperature or the single sample maximum water quality standard for suspended sediment concentration, nitrogen, and phosphorus in R18-11-109;

c. The surface water quality standard for radiochemicals in R18-11-109(G);

d. The surface water quality standard for dissolved oxygen under R18-11-109(E);

e. The surface water quality standard for pH under R18-11-109(B); or

f. The following surface water quality standards in R18-11-112:

i. Single sample maximum standards for nitrogen and phosphorus,

ii. All metals except chromium, or

iii. Turbidity.

3. The Department shall place a surface water or segment on the Planning List if information in subsections (B)(2)(c), (B)(2)(d), and (B)(2)(e) indicates that a narrative water quality standard violation exists, but no narrative implementation procedure required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-232(F) exists to support use of the information for listing.

D. 303(d) List.

1. When evaluating a surface water or segment for placement on the 303(d) List.

a. Consider at least 20 spatially or temporally independent samples collected over three or more temporally independent sampling events; and

b. Determine numeric water quality standards exceedances. The Department shall:

i. Place a surface water or segment on the 303(d) List, following subsection (B), if the number of exceedances of a surface water quality standard is greater than or equal to the number listed in Table 2, which provides the number of exceedances that indicate a minimum of a 10 percent exceedance frequency with a minimum of a 90 percent confidence level using a binomial distribution, for a given sample size; or

ii. For sample datasets exceeding those shown in Table 2, calculate the number of exceedances using the following equation: (X&#8805;x| n, p) where n = number of samples; p = exceedance probability of 0.1; x = smallest number of exceedances required for listing with "n" samples; and confidence level &#8805; 90 percent.

Table 2.

<table> MINIMUM NUMBER OF SAMPLES EXCEEDING THE NUMERIC STANDARD Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard Number of Samples Number of Samples Exceeding Standard From To From To From To 20 25 5 174 182 24 344 352 43 26 32 6 183 191 25 353 361 44 33 40 7 192 199 26 362 370 45 41 47 8 200 208 27 371 379 46 48 55 9 209 217 28 380 388 47 56 63 10 218 226 29 389 397 48 64 71 11 227 235 30 398 406 49 72 79 12 236 244 31 407 415 50 80 88 13 245 253 32 416 424 51 89 96 14 254 262 33 425 434 52 97 104 15 263 270 34 435 443 53 105 113 16 271 279 35 444 452 54 114 121 17 280 288 36 453 461 55 122 130 18 289 297 37 462 470 56 131 138 19 298 306 38 471 479 57 139 147 20 307 315 39 480 489 58 148 156 21 316 324 40 490 498 59 157 164 22 325 333 41 499 500 60 165 173 23 334 343 42 </table>

2. The Department shall place a surface water or segment on the 303(d) List, following subsection (B) without the required number of samples or numeric water quality standard exceedances under subsection (D)(1), if either the following conditions occur:

a. More than one temporally independent sample in any consecutive three-year period exceeds the surface water quality standard in:

i. The acute water quality standard for a pollutant listed in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 2 and the acute water quality standards in R18-11-112;

ii. The surface water quality standard for nitrate or nitrate/nitrite in 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 1; or

iii. The single sample maximum water quality standard for bacteria in subsections R18-11-109(A).

b. More than one exceedance of an annual mean, 90th percentile, aquatic and wildlife chronic water quality standard, or a bacteria 30-day geometric mean water quality standard occurs, as specified in R18-11-109, R18-11-110, R18-11-112, or 18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1, Appendix A, Table 2.

3. Narrative water quality standards exceedances. The Department shall place a surface water or segment on the Planning List if the listing requirements are met under A.R.S. &#167; 49-232(F).

E. Removing a surface water, segment, or pollutant from the Planning List or the 303(d) List.

1. Planning List. The Department shall remove a surface water, segment, or pollutant from the Planning List when:

a. Monitoring activities indicate that:

i. There is sufficient credible data to determine that the surface water or segment is impaired under subsection (D), in which case the Department shall place the surface water or segment on the 303(d) List. This includes surface waters with an EPA approved TMDL when the Department determines that the TMDL strategy is insufficient for the surface water or segment to attain water quality standards; or

ii. There is sufficient credible data to determine that the surface water or segment is attaining all designated uses and standards.

b. All pollutants for the surface water or segment are delisted.

2. 303(d) List. The Department shall:

a. Remove a pollutant from a surface water or segment from the 303(d) List based on one or more of the following criteria:

i. The Department developed, and EPA approved, a TMDL for the pollutant;

ii. The data used for previously listing the surface water or segment under R18-11-605(D) is superseded by more recent credible and scientifically defensible data meeting the requirements of R18-11-602, showing that the surface water or segment meets the applicable numeric or narrative surface water quality standard. When evaluating data to remove a pollutant from the 303(d) List, the monitoring entity shall collect the more recent data under similar hydrologic or climatic conditions as occurred when the samples were taken that indicated impairment, if those conditions still exist;

iii. The surface water or segment no longer meets the criteria for impairment based on a change in the applicable surface water quality standard or a designated use approved by EPA under section 303(c)(1) of the Clean Water Act;

iv. The surface water or segment no longer meets the criteria for impairment for the specific narrative water quality standard based on a change in narrative water quality standard implementation procedures;

v. A re-evaluation of the data indicate that the surface water or segment does not meet the criteria for impairment because of a deficiency in the original analysis; or

vi. Pollutant loadings from naturally occurring conditions alone are sufficient to cause a violation of applicable water quality standards;

b. Remove a surface water, segment, or pollutant from the 303(d) List, based on criteria that are no more stringent than the listing criteria under subsection (D);

c. Remove a surface water or segment from the 303(d) List if all pollutants for the surface water or segment are removed from the list;

d. Remove a surface water, segment, or pollutant, from the 303(d) List and place it on the Planning List, if:

i. The surface water, segment or pollutant was on the 1998 303(d) List and the dataset used in the original listing does not meet the credible data requirements under R18-11-602, or contains insufficient samples to meet the data requirements under subsection (D); or

ii. The monitoring data indicate that the impairment is due to pollution, but not a pollutant.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.11.606" level="4" title="TMDL Priority Criteria for 303(d) Listed Surface Waters or Segments">

TMDL Priority Criteria for 303(d) Listed Surface Waters or Segments

A. In addition to the factors specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-233(C), the Department shall consider the following when prioritizing an impaired water for development of TMDLs:

1. A change in a water quality standard;

2. The date the surface water or segment was added to the 303(d) List;

3. The presence in a surface water or segment of species listed as threatened or endangered under section 4 of the Endangered Species Act;

4. The complexity of the TMDL;

5. State, federal, and tribal policies and priorities; and

6. The efficiencies of coordinating TMDL development with the Department's surface water monitoring program, the watershed monitoring rotation, or with remedial programs.

B. The Department shall prioritize an impaired surface water or segment for TMDL development based on the factors specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-233(C) and subsection (A) as follows:

1. Consider an impaired surface water or segment a high priority if:

a. The listed pollutant poses a substantial threat to the health and safety of humans, aquatic life, or wildlife based on:

i. The number and type of designated uses impaired;

ii. The type and extent of risk from the impairment to human health, aquatic life, or wildlife;

iii. The pollutant causing the impairment, or

iv. The severity, magnitude, and duration the surface water quality standard was exceeded;

b. A new or modified individual NPDES or AZPDES permit is sought for a new or modified discharge to the impaired water;

c. The listed surface water or segment is listed as a unique water in A.A.C. R18-11-112 or is part of an area classified as a "wilderness area," "wild and scenic river," or other federal or state special protection of the water resource;

d. The listed surface water or segment contains a species listed as threatened or endangered under the federal Endangered Species Act and the presence of the pollutant in the surface water or segment is likely to jeopardize the listed species;

e. A delay in conducting the TMDL could jeopardize the Department's ability to gather sufficient credible data necessary to develop the TMDL;

f. There is significant public interest and support for the development of a TMDL;

g. The surface water or segment has important recreational and economic significance to the public; or

h. The pollutant is listed for eight years or more.

2. Consider an impaired surface water or segment a medium priority if:

a. The surface water or segment fails to meet more than one designated use;

b. The pollutant exceeds more than one surface water quality standard;

c. A surface water quality standard exceedance is correlated to seasonal conditions caused by natural events, such as storms, weather patterns, or lake turnover;

d. It will take more than two years for proposed actions in the watershed to result in the surface water attaining applicable water quality standards;

e. The type of pollutant and other factors relating to the surface water or segment make the TMDL complex; or

f. The administrative needs of the Department, including TMDL schedule commitments with EPA, permitting requirements, or basin priorities that require completion of the TMDL.

3. Consider an impaired surface water or segment a low priority if:

a. The Department has formally submitted a proposal to delist the surface water, segment, or pollutant to EPA based on R18-11-605(E)(2). If the Department makes the submission outside the listing process cycle, the change in priority ranking will not be effective until EPA approves the submittal;

b. The Department has modified, or formally proposed for modification, the designated use or applicable surface water quality standard, resulting in an impaired water no longer being impaired, but the modification has not been approved by EPA;

c. The surface water or segment is expected to attain surface water quality standards due to any of the following:

i. Recently instituted treatment levels or best management practices in the drainage area,

ii. Discharges or activities related to the impairment have ceased, or

iii. Actions have been taken and controls are in place or scheduled for implementation that will likely to bring the surface water back into compliance;

d. The surface water or segment is ephemeral or intermittent. The Department shall re-prioritize the surface water or segment if the presence of the pollutant in the listed water poses a threat to the health and safety of humans, aquatic life, or wildlife using the water, or the pollutant is contributing to the impairment of a downstream perennial surface water or segment;

e. The pollutant poses a low ecological and human health risk;

f. Insufficient data exist to determine the source of the pollutant load;

g. The uncertainty of timely coordination with national and international entities concerning international waters;

h. Naturally occurring conditions are a major contributor to the impairment; and

i. No documentation or effective analytical tools exist to develop a TMDL for the surface water or segment with reasonable accuracy.

C. The Department will target surface waters with high priority factors in subsections (B)(1)(a) through (B)(1)(d) for initiation of TMDLs within two years following EPA approval of the 303(d) List.

D. The Department may shift priority ranking of a surface water or segment for any of the following reasons:

1. A change in federal, state, or tribal policies or priorities that affect resources to complete a TMDL;

2. Resource efficiencies for coordinating TMDL development with other monitoring activities, including the Department's ambient monitoring program that monitors watersheds on a five-year rotational basis;

3. Resource efficiencies for coordinating TMDL development with Department remedial or compliance programs;

4. New information is obtained that will revise whether the surface water or segment is a high priority based on factors in subsection (B); and

5. Reduction or increase in staff or budget involved in the TMDL development.

E. The Department may complete a TMDL initiated before July 12, 2002 for a surface water or segment that was listed as impaired on the 1998 303(d) List but does not qualify for listing under the criteria in R18-11-605, if:

1. The TMDL investigation establishes that the water quality standard is not being met and the allocation of loads is expected to bring the surface water into compliance with standards,

2. The Department estimates that more than 50 percent of the cost of completing the TMDL has been spent,

3. There is community involvement and interest in completing the TMDL, or

4. The TMDL is included within an EPA-approved state workplan initiated before July 12, 2002.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3380, effective July 12, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 12" level="2" title="DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY</p>">

DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANKS

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="DEFINITIONS; APPLICABILITY">

DEFINITIONS; APPLICABILITY

<regElement name="R18.12.101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions prescribed in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1001 and 49-1001.01, the terms used in this Chapter have the following meanings:

"Accidental release" means, with respect to Article 3 only, any release of petroleum from an UST system that is neither expected nor intended by the UST system owner or operator, that results in a need for one or more of the following:

Corrective action,

Compensation for bodily injury, or

Compensation for property damage.

"Ancillary equipment" means any device used to distribute, dispense, meter, monitor, or control the flow of regulated substances to and from an UST system.

"Annual" means, with respect to R18-12-240 through R18-12-245 only, a calendar period of 12 consecutive months.

"Applicant," for purposes of Article 7 only, means an owner or operator who applies for a grant from the UST grant account.

"Assets" means all existing and all probable future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity as a result of past transactions.

"Aviation fuel," for the purpose of Article 4 only, has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 28-101.

"Bodily injury" means injury to the body, sickness, or disease sustained by any person, including death resulting from any of these at any time.

"CAP" means corrective action plan.

"Cathodic protection" means a technique to prevent corrosion of a metal surface by making that surface the cathode of an electrochemical cell.

"Cathodic protection tester" means a person who can demonstrate an understanding of the principles and measurements of all common types of cathodic protection systems as applied to buried or submerged metal piping and tank systems. At a minimum, such a person shall have education and experience in soil receptivity, stray current, structure-to-soil potential, and component electrical isolation measurements of buried metal piping and tank systems.

"CERCLA" means the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

"CFR" means the Code of Federal Regulations, with standard references in this Chapter by Title and Part, so that "40 CFR 280" means Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 280.

"Change-in-service" means changing the use of an UST system from the storage of a regulated substance to the storage of a non-regulated substance.

"Chemical of concern" means any regulated substance detected in contamination from the LUST site that is evaluated for potential impacts to public health and the environment.

"Chief financial officer" means, with respect to local government owners and operators, the individual with the overall authority and responsibility for the collection, disbursement, and use of funds by the local government.

"Clean Water Act" has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

"Compatible" means the ability of two or more substances to maintain their respective physical and chemical properties upon contact with one another under conditions likely to be encountered in the UST during the operational life of the UST system.

"Conceptual site model" means a description of the complete current and potential exposure pathways, based on existing and reasonably anticipated future use.

"Connected piping" means all underground piping including valves, elbows, joints, flanges, and flexible connectors that are attached to a tank system and through which regulated substances flow. For the purpose of determining how much piping is connected to an individual UST system, the piping that joins multiple tanks shall be divided equally between the tanks.

"Consultant" means a person who performs environmental services in an advisory, investigative, or remedial capacity.

"Contamination" means the analytically determined existence of a regulated substance within environmental media outside the confines of an UST system, that originated from the UST system.

"Contractor" means a person who is required to obtain and hold a valid license from the Arizona Registrar of Contractors which permits bidding and performance of removal, excavation, repair, or construction services associated with an UST system.

"Controlling interest" means direct ownership of at least 50 percent of a firm, through voting stock, or otherwise.

"Corrective action services" means any service that is provided to fulfill the statutory requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 and the rules made under &#167; 49-1005.

"Corrective action standard" means the concentration of the chemical of concern in the medium of concern that is protective of public health and welfare and the environment based on either pre-established non-site-specific assumptions or site-specific data, including any applied environmental use restriction.

"Corrosion expert" means a person who, by reason of thorough knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. The person shall be accredited or certified as being qualified by the National Association of Corrosion Engineers or be a registered professional engineer who has certification or licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control of buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.

"Cost ceiling amount" as described in R18-12-605 means the maximum amount determined by the Department to be reasonable for a corrective action service.

"Current assets" means assets which can be converted to cash within one year and are available to finance current operations or to pay current liabilities.

"Current liabilities" means those liabilities which are payable within one year.

"Decommissioning" means, with respect to Article 8 only, activities described in R18-12-271(C)(1) through R18-12-271(C)(4).

"De minimis" means that quantity of regulated substance which is described by one of the following:

When mixed with another regulated substance, is of such low concentration that the toxicity, detectability, or corrective action requirements of the mixture are the same as for the host substance.

When mixed with a non-regulated substance, is of such low concentration that a release of the mixture does not pose a threat to public health or the environment greater than that of the host substance.

"Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"Derived waste" means any excavated soil, soil cuttings, and other soil waste; fluids from well drilling, aquifer testing, well purging, sampling, and other fluid wastes; or disposable decontamination, sampling, or personal protection equipment generated as a result of release confirmation, LUST site investigation, or other corrective action activities.

"Dielectric material" means a material that does not conduct electrical current and that is used to electrically isolate UST systems or UST system parts from surrounding soils or portions of UST systems from each other.

"Diesel" means, with respect to Article 4 only, a liquid petroleum product that meets the specifications in American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D-975-94, "Standard Specification for Diesel Fuel Oils" amended April 15, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

"Director" means the Director of the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"Electrical equipment" means underground equipment that contains dielectric fluid that is necessary for the operation of equipment such as transformers and buried electrical cable.

"Eligible person" means, with respect to Article 6 only, a member of the class of persons regulated by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, and the rules promulgated under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, not otherwise excluded under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052, and including all of the following:

Any owner, operator, or designated representative of an owner or operator.

A political subdivision under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(H).

A person described by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(I).

"Emergency power generator" means a power generator which is used only when the primary source of power is interrupted. The interruption of the primary source of power shall not be due to any action or failure to take any action by the owner or operator of either the emergency generator or of the UST system which stores fuel for the emergency generator.

"Engineering Control" for soil, surface water and groundwater contamination has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Excavation zone" means the volume that contains or contained the tank system and backfill material and is bounded by the ground surface, walls, and floor of the pit and trenches into which the UST system is placed at the time of installation.

"Excess lifetime cancer risk level" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Existing tank system" means a tank system used to contain an accumulation of regulated substances on or before December 22, 1988, or for which installation has commenced on or before December 22, 1988.

"Exposure" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the meaning defined in R18-7-201.

"Exposure assessment" means the qualitative or quantitative determination or estimation of the magnitude, frequency, duration, and route of exposure or potential for exposure of a receptor to chemicals of concern from a release.

"Exposure pathway" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the meaning defined in R18-7-201.

"Exposure route" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Facility" means a single parcel of property and any contiguous or adjacent property on which one or more UST systems are located.

"Facility identification number" means the unique number assigned to a facility by the Department either after the initial notification requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1002 are satisfied, or after a refund claim is submitted and approved under R18-12-409.

"Facility location," for the purpose of Article 4 only, means the street address or a description of the location of a storage facility.

"Facility name" means the business or operational name associated with a storage facility.

"Farm tank" means a tank system located on a tract of land devoted to the production of crops or raising animals, including fish, and associated residences and improvements. A farm tank shall be located on the farm property. The term "farm" includes fish hatcheries, rangeland, and nurseries with growing operations.

"Financial reporting year" means the latest consecutive 12-month period, either fiscal or calendar, for which financial statements used to support the financial test of self-insurance under R18-12-305 are prepared, including the following, if applicable:

A 10-K report submitted to the Securities and Exchange Commission.

An annual report of tangible net worth submitted to Dun and Bradstreet.

Annual reports submitted to the Energy Information Administration or the Rural Electrification Administration.

"Firm" means any for-profit entity, nonprofit or not-for-profit entity, or local government. An individual doing business as a sole proprietor is a firm for purposes of this Chapter.

"Flow-through process tank" means a tank that forms an integral part of a production process through which there is a steady, variable, recurring, or intermittent flow of materials during the operation of the process. The term "flow-through process tank" does not include a tank used for the storage of materials prior to their introduction into the production process or for the storage of finished products or byproducts from the production process.

"Free product" means a mobile regulated substance that is present as a nonaqueous phase liquid (e.g. liquid not dissolved in water).

"Gathering lines" means any pipeline, equipment, facility, or building used in the transportation of oil or gas during oil or gas production or gathering operations.

"Grant request" means the total amount requested on the application for a grant from the UST grant account, plus any cost to the Department for conducting a feasibility determination under R18-12-710, in conjunction with the application

"Groundwater" means water in an aquifer as defined at A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

"Hazard Index" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Hazard quotient" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Hazardous substance UST system" means an UST system that contains a hazardous substance as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001(14)(b) or any mixture of such substance and petroleum, which is not a petroleum UST system.

"Heating oil" means petroleum that is No. 1, No. 2, No. 4--light, No. 4--heavy, No. 5--light, No. 5--heavy, or No. 6 technical grades of fuel oil; other residual fuel oils (including Navy Special Fuel Oil and Bunker C); and other fuels when used as substitutes for one of these fuel oils for heating purposes.

"Hydraulic lift tank" means a tank holding hydraulic fluid for a closed-loop mechanical system that uses compressed air or hydraulic fluid to operate lifts, elevators, and other similar devices.

"IFCI" means the International Fire Code Institute.

"Implementing agency" means, with respect to Article 3 only, the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality for UST systems subject to the jurisdiction of the state of Arizona, or the EPA for other jurisdictions or, in the case of a state with a program approved under 42 U.S.C. 6991 (or pursuant to a memorandum of agreement with EPA), the designated state or local agency responsible for carrying out an approved UST program.

"Indian country" means, under 18 U.S.C. 1151, all of the following:

All land within the limits of an Indian reservation under the jurisdiction of the United States government which is also located within the borders of this state, notwithstanding the issuance of any patent, and including rights-of-way running through the reservation.

All dependent Indian communities within the borders of the state whether within the original or subsequently acquired territory of the state.

All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through such allotments.

"Induration" means the consolidation of a rock or rock material by the action of heat, pressure, or the introduction of some cementing material not commonly contained in the original mass. Induration also means the hardening of a soil horizon by chemical action to form hardpan (caliche).

"Installation" means the placement and preparation for placement of any UST system or UST system part into an excavation zone. Installation is considered to have commenced if both of the following exist:

The owner and operator has obtained all federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the site or installation of the UST system.

The owner and operator has begun a continuous on-site physical construction or installation program or has entered into contractual obligations, which cannot be canceled or modified without substantial loss, for physical construction at the site or installation of the UST system to be completed within a reasonable time.

"Institutional control" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201.

"Legal defense cost" means, with respect to Article 3 only, any expense that an owner or operator, or provider of financial assurance incurs in defending against claims or actions brought under any of the following circumstances:

By EPA or a state to require corrective action or to recover the costs of corrective action;

By or on behalf of a 3rd party for bodily injury or property damage caused by an accidental release; or

By any person to enforce the terms of a financial assurance mechanism.

"Liquid trap" means sumps, well cellars, and other traps used in association with oil and gas production, gathering, and extraction operations (including gas production plants), for the purpose of collecting oil, water, and other liquids. These liquid traps may temporarily collect liquids for subsequent disposition or reinjection into a production or pipeline stream, or may collect and separate liquids from a gas stream.

"Local government" means a county, city, town, school district, water and aqueduct management district, irrigation district, power district, electrical district, agricultural improvement district, drainage and flood control district, tax levying public improvement district, local government public transportation system, and any political subdivision defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001.

"LUST" means leaking UST.

"LUST case" means all of the documentation related to a specific LUST number, which is maintained on file by the Department.

"LUST number" means the unique number assigned to a release by the Department after the notification requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004(A) are met.

"LUST site" means the UST facility from which a release has occurred.

"Maintenance" means those actions necessary to ensure the proper working condition of an UST system or equipment used in corrective actions.

"Motor vehicle fuel," for the purpose of Article 4 only, has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 28-101.

"Nature of the regulated substance" means the chemical and physical properties of the regulated substance stored in the UST, and any changes to the chemical and physical properties upon or after release.

"Nature of the release" means the known or estimated means by which the contents of the UST was dispersed from the UST system into the surrounding media, and the conditions of the UST system and media at the time of release.

"New tank system" means a tank system that will be used to contain an accumulation of regulated substances and for which installation has commenced after December 22, 1988.

"Noncommercial purposes" means, with respect to motor fuel, not for resale.

"On-site control" means, for the purpose of Article 8 only, being at the location where tank service is being performed while tank service is performed.

"On the premises where stored" means, with respect to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001(18)(b) only, a single parcel of property or any contiguous or adjacent parcels of property.

"Operational life" means the period beginning when installation of the tank system has begun and ending when the tank system is properly closed under R18-12-271 through R18-12-274.

"Overfill" means a release that occurs when a tank is filled beyond its capacity, resulting in a discharge of a regulated substance to the environment.

"Owner identification number" means the unique number assigned to the owner of an UST by the Department after the initial notification requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1002 are satisfied, or after a refund claim is submitted and approved pursuant to R18-12-409.

"Petroleum marketing facility" means a facility at which petroleum is produced or refined and all facilities from which petroleum is sold or transferred to other petroleum marketers or to the public.

"Petroleum marketing firm" means a firm owning a petroleum marketing facility. Firms owning other types of facilities with USTs as well as petroleum marketing facilities are considered to be petroleum marketing firms.

"Petroleum UST system" means an UST system that contains or contained petroleum or a mixture of petroleum with de minimis quantities of other regulated substances. These systems include those containing motor fuels, jet fuels, distillate fuel oils, residual fuel oils, lubricants, petroleum solvents, and used oils.

"Pipe" or "Piping" means a hollow cylinder or tubular conduit that is constructed of non-earthen materials.

"Pipeline facility" means new or existing pipe rights-of-way and any associated equipment, gathering lines, facilities, or buildings.

"Point of compliance" means the geographic location at which the concentration of the chemical of concern is to be at or below the risk-based corrective action standard determined to be protective of public health and the environment.

"Point of exposure" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at R18-7-201 for "exposure point."

"Property damage" means physical injury to, destruction of, or contamination of tangible property, including all resulting loss of use of that property; or loss of use of tangible property that is not physically injured, destroyed, or contaminated, but has been evacuated, withdrawn from use, or rendered inaccessible.

"Provider of financial assurance" means an entity that provides financial assurance to an owner or operator of an UST through one of the mechanisms listed in R18-12-306 through R18-12-312 or R18-12-316, including a guarantor, insurer, risk retention group, surety, or issuer of a letter of credit.

"RCRA" means the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act in 42 U.S.C. 6924 (u)

"Receptor" means persons, enclosed structures, subsurface utilities, waters of the state, or water supply wells and wellhead protection areas.

"Release confirmation" means free product discovery, or reported laboratory analytical results of samples collected and analyzed in accordance with the sampling requirements of R18-12-280 and A.A.C. Title 9, Chapter 14, Article 6 which indicates a release of a regulated substance from the UST system.

"Release confirmation date" means the date that an owner or operator first confirms the release, or the date that the owner or operator is informed of a release confirmation made by another person.

"Release detection" means determining whether a release of a regulated substance has occurred from the UST system into the environment or into the interstitial space between the UST system and its secondary barrier or secondary containment around it.

"Remediation" for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination, has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 49-151, except that "soil, surface water and groundwater" is substituted for "soil" where it appears in that Section.

"Repair" means to restore a tank or UST system component that has caused or may cause a release of regulated substance from the UST system.

"Report of work" means a written summary of corrective action services performed.

"Reserved and designated funds" means those funds of a nonprofit, not-for profit, or local government entity which, by action of the governing authority of the entity, by the direction of the donor, or by statutory or constitutional limitations, may not be used for conducting UST upgrades, replacements, or removals, or for installing UST leak detection systems, or conducting corrective actions, including payment for expedited review of related documents by the Department, on releases of regulated substances.

"Residential tank" means an UST system located on property used primarily for dwelling purposes.

"Retrofit" means to add to an UST system, equipment or parts that were not originally included or installed as part of the UST system.

"Risk characterization" means the qualitative and quantitative determination of combined risks to receptors from individual chemicals of concern and exposure pathways, and the associated uncertainties.

"Routinely contains product" or "routinely contains regulated substance" means the part of an UST system which is designed to contain regulated substances and includes all internal areas of the tank and all internal areas of the piping, excluding only the vent piping.

"SARA" means the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986, P.L. 99-499.

"Septic tank" means a water-tight covered receptacle designed to receive or process, through liquid separation or biological digestion, the sewage discharged from a building sewer. The effluent from such receptacle is distributed for disposal through the soil and settled solids and scum from the tank are pumped out periodically and hauled to a treatment facility.

"Site location map" means a representation by means of signs and symbols on a planar surface, at an established scale, of the streets, wells, and general use of the land for properties within at least one-quarter mile of the facility boundaries, with the direction of orientation indicated.

"Site plan" means a representation by means of signs and symbols on a planar surface, at an established scale, of the physical features (natural, artificial, or both) of the facility and surrounding area necessary to meet the requirements under which the site plan is prepared, with the direction of orientation indicated.

"Site Vicinity Map" means a representation by means of signs and symbols on a planar surface, at an established scale, of the natural and artificial physical features, used in the exposure assessment, that occur within at least 500 feet of the facility boundaries, with the direction of orientation indicated.

"Solid Waste Disposal Act" for the purposes of this Chapter means the "federal act" as defined by A.R.S. &#167; 49-921.

"Source area" means either the location of the release from an UST, the location of free product, the location of the highest soil and groundwater concentration of chemicals of concern, or the location of a soil concentration of chemicals of concern which may continue to impact groundwater or surface water.

"Spill" means the loss of regulated substance during the transfer of a regulated substance to an UST system.

"Storage facility" means, for the purpose of Article 4 only, the common, identifiable, location at which deliveries of regulated substances are made to an UST, an above ground storage tank, or to a group of underground and above ground storage tanks, and to which the Department has assigned a single facility identification number.

"Storm-water or wastewater collection system" means piping, pumps, conduits, and any other equipment necessary to collect and transport the flow of surface water run-off resulting from precipitation, or of domestic, commercial, or industrial wastewater to and from retention areas or any areas where treatment is designated to occur. The collection of storm water and wastewater does not include treatment except where incidental to conveyance.

"Substantial business relationship" means the extent of a business relationship necessary under Arizona law to make a guarantee contract issued incident to that relationship valid and enforceable. A guarantee contract is issued "incident to that relationship" if it arises from and depends on existing economic transactions between the guarantor and the owner or operator.

"Substantial governmental relationship" means the extent of a governmental relationship necessary under Arizona law to make an added guarantee contract issued incident to that relationship valid and enforceable. A guarantee contract under R18-12-316 is issued "incident to that relationship" if it arises from a clear commonality of interest in the event of an UST release such as coterminous boundaries, overlapping constituencies, common ground water aquifer, or other relationship other than monetary compensation that provides a motivation for the guarantor to provide a guarantee.

"Supplier" means, for the purpose of Article 4 only, with respect to collection of the UST excise tax, a person who is described by either A.R.S. &#167; 28-6001(A) or (B). The term "supplier" includes a distributor, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 28-5601, who is required to be licensed by A.R.S. Title 28, Chapter 16, Article 1.

"Supplier identification number" means, for the purpose of Article 4 only, the unique number assigned to the supplier by the Department of Transportation for the purpose of administering the motor vehicle fuel tax under A.R.S. Title 28, Chapter 16, Article 1.

"Surface impoundment" means a natural topographic depression, artificial excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials, but which may be lined with artificial materials, that is not an injection well.

"Surface water" has the definition at R18-11-101.

"Surficial soil" means any soil occurring between the current surface elevation and extending to that depth for which reasonably foreseeable construction activities may excavate and relocate soils to surface elevation, and any stockpiles generated from soils of any depth.

"Suspected release discovery date" means the day an owner or operator first has reason to believe, through direct discovery or being informed by another person, that a suspected release exists.

"Suspected release notification date" means the day the Department informs an owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipt, that a UST may be the source of a release.

"Tangible net worth" means the tangible assets that remain after deducting liabilities; such assets do not include intangibles such as goodwill and rights to patents or royalties.

"Tax" means, for the purpose of Article 4 only, the excise tax on the operation of USTs levied by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 2.

"Taxpayer" means, for the purpose of Article 4 only, the owner or operator of an UST who pays the tax.

"Tester" means a person who performs tightness tests on UST systems, or on any portion of an UST system including tanks, piping, or leak detection systems.

"Underground area" means an underground room, such as a basement, cellar, shaft, or vault that provides enough space for physical inspection of the exterior of the tank, situated on or above the surface of the floor.

"Underground storage tank" has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001.

"Unreserved and undesignated funds" means those funds that are not reserved or designated funds and can be transferred at will by the governing authority to other funds.

"Upgrade" means the addition to or retrofit of an UST system or UST system parts, under R18-12-221, to improve the ability to prevent release of a regulated substance.

"UST" means an underground storage tank as defined at A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001.

"UST grant account" or "grant account" means the account designated under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1071.

"UST regulatory program" means the program established by and described in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 and the rules promulgated under that program.

"UST system" or "tank system" means an UST, connected underground piping, impact valve and connected underground ancillary equipment and containment system, if any.

"Vadose zone" has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

"Volatile regulated substance" means any regulated substance that generally has the following chemical characteristics: a vapor pressure of greater than 0.5 mmHg at 20&#176; C, a Henry's Law Constant of greater than 1 x 10-5 atm m3/mol, and which has a boiling point of less than 250&#176; - 300&#176; C.

"Wastewater treatment tank" means a tank system that is designed to receive and treat an influent wastewater through physical, chemical, or biological methods.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.102" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. Owners and operators. As provided in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1016(A), the responsibilities of this Chapter, unless indicated otherwise, are imposed on persons who are the owner or the operator of an UST. If the owner and operator of an UST are separate persons, only one person is required to discharge any specific responsibility. Both persons are liable in the event of noncompliance.

B. Persons in possession or control of property. The requirements of this Chapter are applicable to a person acting under the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1016(C).

C. No supersedence. Nothing in this Chapter supersedes the requirements of the following:

1. A court of competent jurisdiction,

2. An order of the Director under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1013.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.103" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Repealed effective July 30, 1990 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS">

TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS

<regElement name="R18.12.210" level="4" title="Applicability"> <dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Applicability

A. The requirements of this Article apply to all owners and operators of an UST system, except as otherwise provided in subsections (B) through (D).

B. The following UST systems are excluded from the requirements of this Article:

1. Any UST system holding hazardous wastes which are listed or identified under Subtitle C of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, or a mixture of such hazardous waste and other regulated substances;

2. Any wastewater treatment tank system that is part of a wastewater treatment facility regulated under Section 402 or 307(b) of the Clean Water Act;

3. Equipment or machinery that contains regulated substances solely for operational purposes such as hydraulic lift tanks and electrical equipment tanks;

4. Any UST system with a capacity of 110 gallons or less;

5. Any UST system that contains a de minimis concentration of regulated substances;

6. Any emergency spill or overflow containment UST system that is expeditiously emptied after use.

C. Only R18-12-101, R18-12-210, R18-12-211, and the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 and the rules promulgated thereunder apply to the following types of UST systems:

1. Wastewater treatment tank systems other than those specified in subsection (B)(2);

2. Any UST systems containing radioactive material that are regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 42 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 2011 et seq.;

3. Any UST system that is part of an emergency generator system at nuclear power generation facilities regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under 10 CFR 50 Appendix A;

4. Airport hydrant fuel distribution systems;

5. UST systems with field-constructed tanks.

D. R18-12-240 through R18-12-245 do not apply to any UST system that stores fuel solely for use by emergency power generators.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.211" level="4" title="Prohibition for Certain UST Systems">

Prohibition for Certain UST Systems

A. A person shall not install an UST system listed in R18-12-210(C) for the purpose of storing regulated substances unless the UST system, whether of single-wall or double-wall construction, meets all of the following requirements:

1. The UST system will prevent releases due to corrosion or structural failure for the operational life of the UST system;

2. The UST system is cathodically protected against corrosion, constructed of noncorrodible material, steel clad with a noncorrodible material, or designed in a manner to prevent the release or threatened release of any stored substance;

3. The UST system is constructed or lined with material that is compatible with the stored substance.

B. Notwithstanding subsection (A), an UST system without corrosion protection may be installed at a site that is determined by a corrosion expert not to be corrosive enough to cause it to have a release due to corrosion during its operational life. Owners and operators shall maintain records that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this subsection for the remaining operational life of the UST system.

C. Compliance with the corrosion protection provisions of this Section shall be determined in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(A).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.212" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.213" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.214" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.215" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.216" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.217" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.218" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.219" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.220" level="4" title="Performance Standards for New UST Systems">

Performance Standards for New UST Systems

A. Owners and operators of a new UST system shall meet the requirements described in this Section in order to prevent releases due to structural failure, corrosion, or spills and overfills for as long as the UST system is used to store regulated substances.

B. A tank shall be properly designed and constructed, and any portion underground that routinely contains a regulated substance shall be protected from corrosion according to one of the following methods:

1. The tank is constructed of fiberglass-reinforced plastic. Compliance with this subsection shall be determined in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(B);

2. The tank is constructed of steel and is cathodically protected, in accordance with the performance standards of R18-12-281(C), by all of the following:

a. The tank is coated with a suitable dielectric material;

b. The field-installed cathodic protection systems are designed by a corrosion expert;

c. The impressed current systems, if used, are designed to allow determination of current operating status as required in R18-12-231(C);

d. The cathodic protection systems are operated and maintained in accordance with R18-12-231.

3. The tank is constructed of a steel-fiberglass-reinforced-plastic composite. Compliance with this subsection shall be determined in accordance with the performance standard set forth in R18-12-281(D).

4. The tank is constructed of metal without additional corrosion protection measures, and both of the following conditions are met:

a. The tank is installed at a site that is determined by a corrosion expert not to be corrosive enough to cause it to have a release due to corrosion during its operating life;

b. Owners and operators maintain records that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of subsection (B)(4)(a) for the remaining operational life of the tank.

5. The tank construction and corrosion protection are determined by the Department to be designed to prevent the release or threatened release of any stored regulated substance in a manner that is no less protective of human health and the environment than the requirements of subsections (B)(1) through (4).

C. The piping that routinely contains regulated substances and is in contact with the ground shall be properly designed, constructed, and protected from corrosion according to one of the following methods:

1. The piping is constructed of fiberglass-reinforced plastic. Compliance with this subsection shall be determined in accordance with the performance standard set forth in R18-12-281(E).

2. The piping is constructed of steel and in meeting the performance standards of R18-12-281(F) is cathodically protected according to all of the following:

a. The piping is coated with a suitable dielectric material;

b. Field-installed cathodic protection systems are designed by a corrosion expert;

c. Impressed current systems, if used, are designed to allow determination of current operating status as required in R18-12-231(C);

d. Cathodic protection systems are operated and maintained in accordance with R18-12-231.

3. The piping is constructed of metal without additional corrosion protection measures, and all of the following requirements are satisfied:

a. The piping is installed at a site that is determined by a corrosion expert to not be corrosive enough to cause it to have a release due to corrosion during its operating life;

b. The piping meets the performance standards of R18-12-281(G);

c. Owners and operators maintain records that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this subsection for the remaining life of the piping.

4. The piping construction and corrosion protection are determined by the Department to be designed to prevent the release or threatened release of any stored regulated substance in a manner that is no less protective of human health and the environment than the requirements in subsections (C)(1) through (3).

D. Except as provided in subsection (D)(3), owners and operators shall use both of the following spill and overfill prevention equipment systems to prevent spilling and overfilling associated with transfer of a regulated substance to the UST system:

1. Spill prevention equipment that will prevent release of a regulated substance to the environment when the transfer hose is detached from the fill pipe;

2. Overfill prevention equipment that will do one or more of the following:

a. Automatically shut off flow into the tank when the tank is no more than 95% full;

b. Alert the transfer operator when the tank is no more than 90% full by restricting the flow into the tank or triggering a high-level alarm that can be heard at the point of transfer;

c. Restrict flow 30 minutes prior to overfilling, alert the operator with a high level alarm that can be heard at the point of transfer one minute before overfilling, or automatically shut off flow into the tank so that none of the fittings located on top of the tank are exposed to a regulated substance due to overfilling.

3. Owners and operators are not required to use the spill and overfill prevention equipment specified in subsections (D)(1) and (2) if either of the following conditions is met:

a. Alternative equipment is used that is determined by the Department to be no less protective of human health and the environment than the equipment specified in subsections (D)(1) or (2);

b. The tank is filled by transfers of no more than 25 gallons at one time.

E. All tanks and piping shall meet both of the following requirements:

1. Be properly installed in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions;

2. Be installed according to the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(H).

F. Owners shall ensure that one or more of the following methods of certification, testing, or inspection is used to demonstrate compliance with subsection (E):

1. The installer has been certified by the tank and piping manufacturers,

2. The installation has been inspected and certified by a registered professional engineer with education and experience in UST system installation,

3. The installation has been inspected and approved by the Department,

4. All work listed in the manufacturer's installation checklists has been completed,

5. Owners and operators have complied with another method for ensuring compliance with subsection (E) that is determined by the Department to be no less protective of human health and the environment.

G. Owners shall provide a certification of compliance on the UST Notification Form in accordance with R18-12-222(D) and shall ensure that a certification statement in accordance with the applicable requirements of R18-12-222(E) is signed by the installer on the Notification Form prior to submission to the Department.

H. If an UST system is installed or modified to meet the requirements of this Section, owners shall notify the Department in accordance with R18-12-222(F)(2) within 30 days of the date that the UST system is brought into operation or modified.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.221" level="4" title="Upgrading of Existing UST Systems">

Upgrading of Existing UST Systems

A. Not later than December 22, 1998, each existing UST system shall comply with one of the following requirements:

1. New UST system performance standards under R18-12-220;

2. The upgrading requirements described in subsections (B) through (E);

3. Closure requirements, including applicable requirements for release reporting and corrective action, under R18-12-270 through R18-12-274.

B. A steel tank shall be upgraded to meet one of the following requirements:

1. A tank may be upgraded by internal lining if both of the following conditions are met:

a. The internal lining is installed in accordance with the requirements of R18-12-233;

b. Within 10 years after the internal lining is installed, and every five years thereafter, the lined tank is internally inspected and found to be structurally sound with the lining still performing in accordance with original design specifications.

2. A tank may be upgraded by cathodic protection if the cathodic protection system meets the requirements of R18-12-220(B)(2)(b) through (d), and the integrity of the tank is ensured by using at least one of the following methods:

a. The tank is internally inspected and assessed to ensure that it is structurally sound and free of corrosion holes prior to installing the cathodic protection system;

b. The tank has been installed for less than 10 years and is monitored monthly for releases in accordance with R18-12-243(D) through (H);

c. The tank has been installed for less than 10 years and is assessed for corrosion holes by conducting two tightness tests that meet the requirements of R18-12-243(C). The 1st tightness test shall be conducted prior to installing the cathodic protection system. The 2nd tightness test shall be conducted between three and six months following the 1st operation of the cathodic protection system;

d. The tank is assessed for corrosion holes by a method that is determined by the Department to prevent releases in a manner that is no less protective of human health and the environment than the methods described in subsections (B)(2)(a) through (c).

3. A tank may be upgraded by both internal lining and cathodic protection if both of the following requirements are met:

a. The lining is installed in accordance with the requirements of R18-12-233,

b. The cathodic protection system meets the requirements of R18-12-220(B)(2)(b) through (d).

C. Metal piping that routinely contains regulated substances and is in contact with the ground shall be cathodically protected in accordance with the applicable requirements of R18-12-220(C)(2)(b) through (d).

D. Any upgrading by use of corrosion protection described in this Section shall be accomplished in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(I).

E. To prevent spilling and overfilling associated with the transfer of a regulated substance to the UST system, all existing UST systems shall comply with new UST system spill and overfill prevention equipment requirements specified in R18-12-220(D).

F. Owners shall ensure that one or more of the following methods of certification, testing, or inspection is used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this Section by providing a certification of compliance on the UST Notification Form in accordance with R18-12-222(D):

1. The installer has been certified by the equipment or system manufacturers;

2. The installation has been inspected and certified by a registered professional engineer with education and experience in UST system installation;

3. All work listed in the manufacturer's installation checklists has been completed;

4. The owner has complied with another method for ensuring compliance with the requirements of this Section that is determined by the Department to be no less protective of human health and the environment.

G. Owners and operators shall ensure that a certification statement in accordance with the applicable requirements of R18-12-222(E) is signed by the installer on the Notification Form prior to submission to the Department.

H. If an UST system is upgraded in accordance with this Section, owners and operators shall notify the Department in accordance with R18-12-222(F)(2) within 30 days of the date that the UST system is upgraded.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.222" level="4" title="Notification Requirements">

Notification Requirements

A. An owner of an UST system shall comply with the notification requirements of this Section in accordance with those described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1002.

B. An owner shall submit the most current and complete information on each UST system at each facility utilizing the Departmental form titled "Notification for Underground Storage Tanks" ("Notification Form"). An owner shall submit a separate Notification Form to the Department for each facility which is owned. Submitted information shall include all of the following for each UST system:

1. Type of notification specifying one of the following:

a. New facility,

b. Amendment of previous Notification Form,

c. Closure.

2. The name and mailing address of the owner of the UST system;

3. Facility street address and the associated county assessor book, map, and parcel;

4. Type of owner, specifying whether government, commercial, or private;

5. Whether the UST system is located within Indian country;

6. Facility type;

7. The name and mailing address of the operator of the UST system;

8. Compliance with financial responsibility requirements in accordance with R18-12-300 through R18-12-325, and the mechanism or mechanisms used to demonstrate compliance;

9. Facility map including tanks and associated piping in addition to major structures;

10. Status of each UST system as one of the following:

a. Currently in use,

b. Temporarily out of use,

c. Permanently out of use.

11. Date of the UST system installation and date the UST system was 1st brought into operation;

12. Estimated total capacity of the tank;

13. Material of tank construction and method of corrosion protection for each UST system;

14. Date of repair, if tank has been repaired;

15. Material of piping construction and method of corrosion protection for each UST system;

16. Date of repair, if piping has been repaired;

17. Type of piping delivery system;

18. Methods of leak detection currently in use for tank and piping;

19. Whether the UST system is connected to an emergency generator;

20. Substance currently or last stored in the UST system in greatest quantity by volume;

21. If the substance currently or last stored in the UST system is a hazardous substance, identification of the CERCLA name or Chemical Abstracts Service number;

22. If the substance currently or last stored in the UST system is a mixture of substances, identification of the constituents of the mixture.

C. In addition to the information required in subsection (B), if an UST system is permanently closed, temporarily closed, or if a change-in-service has occurred, an owner shall provide all of the following:

1. The estimated date the UST system was last used, and the estimated date the UST system was permanently closed;

2. Identification of the UST system as one of the following:

a. Removed from the ground,

b. Closed in the ground and filled with inert solid materials and a description of those materials,

c. Completed change-in-service and a description of current use,

d. Temporarily closed,

e. Temporarily closed with a request for extension of temporary closure.

3. Whether an UST site assessment was completed;

4. Whether there was evidence of a leak.

D. An owner shall certify under penalty of law that the owner has personally examined and is familiar with the information submitted in the Notification Form and all attached documents, and that based either on direct knowledge or on inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, the owner believes that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. For a new or upgraded UST system, this certification shall include compliance with all the following requirements:

1. Installation of tanks and piping under R18-12-220(E);

2. Cathodic protection of steel tanks and piping under R18-12-220(B) and (C), or R18-12-221(B) through (D);

3. Spill and overfill protection under R18-12-220(D) or R18-12-221(E);

4. Release detection under R18-12-240 through R18-12-245;

5. Financial responsibility under R18-12-300 through R18-12-325.

E. An owner of a new or upgraded UST system shall ensure that the installer certifies on the Notification Form that to the best information and belief of the installer the items set forth in subsections (D)(1) through (4) are true.

F. Any request for an extension of temporary closure shall be made in accordance with R18-12-270. In addition, an owner of an UST system shall notify the Department within 30 days after any one of the following occurs:

1. A change in the operator of the UST system;

2. A replacement or upgrade of any portion of the UST system in accordance with R18-12-220 or R18-12-221;

3. A change in leak detection status in accordance with R18-12-240 through R18-12-245;

4. Temporary closure in accordance with R18-12-270;

5. Return to active service following temporary closure in accordance with R18-12-270(D);

6. Permanent closure or change-in-service in accordance with R18-12-271 through R18-12-274;

7. A change in the contents of the UST system among the categories of regulated substances described in subsections (B)(20), (21), or (22);

8. A change in status of financial responsibility in accordance with R18-12-300 through R18-12-325.

G. In the case of a change of ownership of an UST system, one of the following shall occur:

1. When a vendor sells an UST system or a tank for use as an UST after May 8, 1986, the vendor shall inform the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, that the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) requires owners of certain underground storage tanks to notify the Department within 30 days of the existence of the tank.

2. When a person transfers ownership of an UST system, both of the following shall occur:

a. The transferor shall inform the Department in writing of the transfer of its interest in the UST system including the name and address of the transferor and transferee, name and telephone number of the contact person for the transferee and effective date of the transfer. In addition, the transferor shall advise the transferee of the notification requirements of this Section, utilizing the form referenced in subsection (G)(1);

b. The transferee shall submit to the Department a completed Notification Form within 30 days of the transfer of interest.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.223" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.224" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.225" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.226" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.227" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.228" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.229" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.230" level="4" title="Spill and Overfill Control">

Spill and Overfill Control

A. Owners and operators shall ensure that releases due to spilling or overfilling do not occur. Owners and operators shall ensure, before the transfer is made, that the volume then available in the tank is greater than the volume of regulated substance to be transferred to the tank. Owners and operators also shall ensure that the operation is monitored constantly to prevent overfilling and spilling. Compliance with this subsection shall be determined in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(J).

B. Owners and operators shall report, investigate, and clean up any spills and overfills in accordance with A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1004 and 49-1005 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.231" level="4" title="Operation and Maintenance of Corrosion Protection">

Operation and Maintenance of Corrosion Protection

A. A corrosion protection system shall be operated and maintained to continuously provide corrosion protection to the metal components of an UST system which are subject to the corrosion protection requirements of R18-12-220 and R18-12-221 and to piping which routinely contains regulated substances and is in contact with the ground.

B. An UST system equipped with cathodic protection systems shall be inspected for proper operation by a cathodic protection tester. Owners and operators shall ensure compliance with both of the following requirements:

1. A cathodic protection system shall be tested within six months of installation and at least every three years thereafter,

2. The criteria that are used to determine that cathodic protection is adequate as required by this Section shall be in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(K).

C. An UST system with an impressed current cathodic protection system, in addition to meeting the requirements of subsections (A) and (B) shall be inspected every 60 days to ensure the equipment is operating in accordance with its design specifications.

D. For an UST system using cathodic protection, records of the operation of the cathodic protection shall be maintained in accordance with R18-12-234 to demonstrate compliance with the performance standards in this Section. These records shall provide the following:

1. The results of testing from the last two inspections required by subsection (B),

2. The results of the last three inspections required by subsection (C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.232" level="4" title="Compatibility">

Compatibility

Owners and operators shall use an UST system made of or lined with materials that are compatible with the substance stored in the UST system. Compliance with this Section shall be determined in accordance with the performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(L).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.233" level="4" title="Repairs Allowed">

Repairs Allowed

A. Owners and operators of an UST system shall ensure that repairs will prevent releases due to structural failure or corrosion as long as the UST system is used to store regulated substances. The repairs shall meet the following requirements:

1. Repairs to an UST system shall be properly conducted in accordance with performance standards set forth in R18-12-281(M);

2. Repairs to a fiberglass-reinforced plastic tank shall be made by the manufacturer's authorized representative or in accordance with a performance standard set forth in R18-12-281(N);

3. Any metal pipe sections and fittings that have released a regulated substance as a result of corrosion or other damage shall be replaced. Fiberglass pipe and fittings shall be repaired in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications or in accordance with a code of practice developed by a nationally recognized association or an independent testing laboratory.

B. Repaired tanks and piping shall be tightness tested in accordance with the specifications described in R18-12-243(C) and R18-12-244(B) within 30 days following the date of the completion of the repair unless one of the following procedures is employed:

1. The repaired tank is internally inspected in accordance with a code of practice developed by a nationally recognized association or an independent testing laboratory;

2. The repaired portion of the UST system is monitored monthly for releases in accordance with a method specified in R18-12-243(D) through (H);

3. Another test method is used that is determined by the Department to be no less protective of human health and the environment than those otherwise listed in subsections (B)(1) and (2).

C. Within six months following the repair of any cathodically protected UST system, the cathodic protection system shall be tested in accordance with R18-12-231(B) and (C) to ensure that it is operating properly.

D. Owners and operators of an UST system shall maintain records of each repair for the remaining operational life of the UST system that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this Section.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.234" level="4" title="Reporting and Recordkeeping">

Reporting and Recordkeeping

A. Owners shall submit notification for all UST systems in accordance with R18-12-222. Additionally, owners and operators shall submit the following information to the Department:

1. Reports of all releases including suspected releases in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004 and the rules promulgated thereunder;

2. Corrective actions planned or taken including initial investigation and abatement measures in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005;

3. The information required in accordance with R18-12-271 before starting permanent closure or change-in-service;

4. The site assessment report in accordance with R18-12-271(D).

B. Owners and operators shall maintain all of the following information:

1. A corrosion expert's analysis of site corrosion potential if corrosion protection equipment is not used in accordance with R18-12-211(B), R18-12-220(B)(4) and R18-12-220(C)(3);

2. Documentation of operation of corrosion protection equipment in accordance with R18-12-231;

3. Documentation of UST system repairs in accordance with R18-12-233(D);

4. Documentation of compliance with release detection requirements in accordance with R18-12-245.

C. Owners and operators shall keep the records required by subsection (B) either:

1. At the UST site and immediately available for inspection by the Department,

2. At a readily available alternative site and be provided for inspection to the Department upon request.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.235" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.236" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.237" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.238" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.239" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.240" level="4" title="General Release Detection Requirements for All UST Systems">

General Release Detection Requirements for All UST Systems

A. Owners and operators of a new or existing UST system shall provide a method, or combination of methods, of release detection that meets all of the following requirements:

1. Can detect a release from any portion of the tank and the connected underground piping that routinely contains a regulated substance;

2. Is installed, calibrated, operated, and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, including routine maintenance and service checks for operability or running condition;

3. Meets the performance requirements in R18-12-243 or R18-12-244, with any performance claims and their manner of determination described in writing by the equipment manufacturer or installer;

4. Is capable of detecting the leak rate or quantity specified for that method in R18-12-243 or R18-12-244 with a Probability of Detection (PD) of a release of 0.95 and a Probability of False Alarm (PFA) of 0.05 by the date shown in subsections (A)(4)(a) or (b) unless the method was permanently installed prior to that date:

a. Manual Tank Gauging, in accordance with R18-12-243(B); Tank Tightness Testing, in accordance with R18-12-243(C); Automatic Tank Gauging, in accordance with R18-12-243(D); Line Tightness Testing, in accordance with R18-12-244(B): December 22, 1990;

b. Automatic Line Leak Detectors, in accordance with R18-12-244(A): September 22, 1991.

B. When a release detection method operated in accordance with the performance standards in R18-12-243 and R18-12-244 indicates a release may have occurred, owners and operators shall inform the Department in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004.

C. Owners and operators of an UST system shall comply with the release detection requirements of this Section and R18-12-241 through R18-12-245 by December 22 of the year listed in the following table:

SCHEDULE FOR PHASE-IN OF RELEASE

DETECTION

---------------------------------------------------------------

Year When release detection is required

system (by December 22 of the year indicated)

installed 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993

---------------------------------------------------------------

Before RD P

1965

or

date

unknown

1965-69.. P/RD

1970-74.. P RD

1975-79.. P RD

1980-88.. P RD

New tanks (after December 22, 1988) immediately upon installation.

---------------------------------------------------------------

P = shall begin release detection for all pressurized piping as defined in R18-12-241(B)(1).

RD = shall begin release detection for tanks and suction piping in accordance with R18-12-241(A), (B)(2), and R18-12-242.

D. Any existing UST system that cannot apply a method of release detection that complies with the requirements of this Section and R18-12-241 through R18-12-245 shall complete the closure procedures in R18-12-270 through R18-12-274 by the date on which release detection is required for that UST system under subsection (C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.241" level="4" title="Release Detection for Petroleum UST Systems">

Release Detection for Petroleum UST Systems

A. Owners and operators of petroleum UST systems shall provide release detection for tanks. Tanks shall be monitored for releases at least once every month using one of the methods listed in R18-12-243(D) through (H) except that:

1. An UST system that meets the new or upgraded UST system performance standards of R18-12-220 or R18-12-221, and the monthly inventory control requirements of R18-12-243(A) or the manual tank gauging requirements of R18-12-243(B), may use tank tightness testing conducted in accordance with R18-12-243(C) at least every five years until December 22, 1998, or until 10 years after the tank is installed or upgraded, whichever is later. The initial tank tightness test shall be performed on or before the compliance date for the tank in accordance with R18-12-240(C);

2. An UST system that does not meet the performance standards in R18-12-220 or R18-12-221 may use annual tank tightness testing conducted in accordance with R18-12-243(C) in conjunction with either monthly inventory control conducted in accordance with R18-12-243(A) or the manual tank gauging requirements of R18-12-243(B) until December 22, 1998, when the tank shall be upgraded under R18-12-221 or permanently closed under R18-12-271 through R18-12-274. The initial tank tightness test shall be performed on or before the compliance date for the tank as set forth in R18-12-240(C);

3. A tank with a capacity of 550 gallons or less may use manual tank gauging conducted in accordance with R18-12-243(B) as a sole method for leak detection.

B. Owners and operators of petroleum UST systems shall provide release detection for underground piping. Underground piping that routinely contains petroleum shall be monitored for releases in a manner that meets one of the following requirements:

1. Underground piping that conveys petroleum under pressure shall meet both of the following requirements:

a. Be equipped with an automatic line leak detector which meets the requirements of R18-12-244(A);

b. Have an annual line tightness test conducted in accordance with R18-12-244(B) or have monthly monitoring conducted in accordance with R18-12-244(C).

2. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, underground piping that conveys petroleum under suction shall either have a line tightness test conducted at least every three years in accordance with R18-12-244(B), or use a monthly monitoring method conducted in accordance with R18-12-244(C). Release detection is not required for suction piping that is designed and constructed to meet all of the following standards:

a. The below-grade piping operates at less than atmospheric pressure;

b. The below-grade piping is sloped so that the contents of the pipe will drain back into the storage tank if the suction is released;

c. Only one check valve is included in each suction line;

d. The check valve is located directly below and as close as practical to the suction pump and is capable of being inspected;

e. A method is provided that allows compliance with the requirements of subsections (B)(2)(a) through (d) to be readily determined.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.242" level="4" title="Release Detection for Hazardous Substance UST Systems">

Release Detection for Hazardous Substance UST Systems

A. Owners and operators of existing hazardous substance UST systems shall provide release detection that meets the requirements for petroleum UST systems in R18-12-241. By December 22, 1998, each existing hazardous substance UST system shall be upgraded to meet the release detection requirements for new hazardous substance UST systems in subsection (B).

B. Owners and operators of a new hazardous substance UST system shall provide release detection which meets the following requirements:

1. Secondary containment systems shall be designed, constructed, and installed to meet all of the following requirements:

a. Contain regulated substances released from the UST system until they are detected and removed,

b. Prevent the release of regulated substances to the environment at any time during the operational life of the UST system,

c. Be checked for evidence of a release at least monthly.

2. Double-walled tanks shall be designed, constructed, and installed to meet both of the following requirements:

a. Contain a release from any portion of the inner tank within the outer wall,

b. Detect the failure of the inner wall.

3. External liners, including vaults, shall be designed, constructed, and installed to meet all of the following requirements:

a. Contain 100% of the capacity of the largest UST system within its boundary,

b. Prevent the interference of precipitation or ground-water intrusion with the ability to contain or detect a release of regulated substances,

c. Surround the tank completely so that it is capable of preventing lateral as well as vertical migration of regulated substances.

4. Underground piping shall be equipped with secondary containment that satisfies the requirements of subsection (B)(1) and underground piping that conveys regulated substances under pressure shall be equipped with an automatic line leak detector in accordance with R18-12-244(A).

5. Methods of release detection other than those described in subsections (B)(1) through (4) may be used if owners and operators meet all of the following requirements:

a. Demonstrate to the Department that an alternate method can detect a release of the stored substance as effectively as any of the methods allowed in R18-12-243(B) through (H) can detect a release of petroleum;

b. Provide information to the Department on effective corrective action technologies, health risks, and chemical and physical properties of the stored substance, and the characteristics of the UST site;

c. Obtain approval from the Department in writing to use the alternate release detection method before the installation and operation of the UST system.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.243" level="4" title="Methods of Release Detection for Tanks">

Methods of Release Detection for Tanks

A. If inventory control is used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241, it shall be used in conjunction with tank tightness testing described in subsection (C). Inventory control shall be conducted monthly in accordance with R18-12-281(O) to detect a release of at least 1.0% of flow-through plus 130 gallons on a monthly basis in the following manner:

1. Inventory volume measurements for regulated substance inputs, withdrawals, and the amount still remaining in the tank are recorded each operating day;

2. The equipment used is capable of measuring the level of the regulated substance over the full range of the tank's vertical dimension to the nearest 1/8 of an inch;

3. The regulated substance inputs are reconciled with delivery receipts by measurement of the tank inventory volume before and after delivery;

4. Measurements, as well as deliveries of regulated substances, are made through a drop tube that extends to within one foot of the tank bottom;

5. Dispensing of regulated substances is metered and recorded within the standards established by the entity with jurisdiction. If no standards are established, dispensing which meets an accuracy of six cubic inches for every five gallons of regulated substance withdrawn shall be used;

6. The measurement of any water level in the bottom of the tank is made to the nearest 1/8 of an inch at least once a month;

7. Inventory control shall not be utilized as the sole method of release detection.

B. Manual tank gauging used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. Tank liquid level measurements are taken on a weekly basis at the beginning and ending of a period of at least 36 hours during which no liquid is added to or removed from the UST system;

2. Level measurements are based on an average of two consecutive stick readings at both the beginning and ending of the period;

3. The equipment used is capable of measuring the level of regulated substance over the full range of the tank's vertical dimension to the nearest 1/8 of an inch;

4. A leak is suspected and subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004 and the rules promulgated thereunder if the statistical variation between beginning and ending measurements exceeds the weekly or monthly standards in the following table:

Weekly Monthly

Nominal Standard Standard

Tank Capacity (1 test) (average of 4

tests)

550 gallons or less 10 gallons 5 gallons

551-1,000 gallons 13 gallons 7 gallons

1,001-2,000 gallons 26 gallons 13 gallons

5. Manual tank gauging may be used as the sole method of release detection only for tanks of 550 gallons or less capacity. Manual tank gauging may be used in place of inventory control in subsection (A), for tanks of 551 to 2,000 gallons. This method shall not be used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 for tanks of greater than 2,000 gallons capacity.

C. If tank tightness testing is used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241, it shall be used in conjunction with the inventory control method described in subsection (A) or the manual tank gauging method described in subsection (B) and shall be capable of detecting a 0.1 gallon per hour leak rate from any portion of the tank that routinely contains regulated substance while accounting for the effects of thermal expansion or contraction of the regulated substance, vapor pockets, tank deformation, evaporation or condensation, and the location of the water table.

D. Equipment for automatic tank gauging that tests for the loss of regulated substance and conducts inventory control used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 shall meet both of the following requirements:

1. The automatic regulated substance level monitor test shall be performed at least monthly and be capable of detecting a 0.2 gallon per hour leak rate from any portion of the tank that routinely contains regulated substance,

2. Inventory control shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of subsection (A).

E. Testing or monitoring for vapors within the soil gas of the excavation zone used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 shall be conducted at least monthly and shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. The characteristics of the site are assessed to ensure that the leak detection method will comply with the requirements in subsections (E)(2) through (8);

2. The leak detection system is constructed and designed so that the number and positioning of monitoring wells will detect releases into the excavation zone from any portion of the system which routinely contains a regulated substance within 30 days from the date of commencement of a release;

3. The stored regulated substance, or a tracer compound placed in the UST system, will produce a vapor level that is detectable by the monitoring devices in the monitoring wells within 30 days from the date of commencement of a release from the UST system;

4. The materials used as backfill will allow diffusion of vapors from releases into the excavation area such that a release is detected within 30 days from the date of commencement of a release from the UST system;

5. The groundwater, rainfall, soil moisture, or other known interferences will not render the measurement of vapors by the monitoring device inoperable so that a release could go undetected by the monitoring devices in the monitoring wells for more than 30 days from the date of commencement of the release from the UST system;

6. The level of background contamination at the site will not interfere with the method used to detect releases from the tank system;

7. The vapor monitors are designed and operated to detect any significant increase in concentration above a documented background level of the regulated substance stored in the tank system, a component or components of that substance, or a volatile tracer compound placed in the tank system;

8. Monitoring wells are clearly marked and secured to avoid unauthorized access and tampering.

F. Testing or monitoring for liquids on the groundwater used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 shall be conducted monthly and meet the following requirements:

1. The characteristics of the site are assessed to ensure that the leak detection method will comply with the requirements in subsections (F)(2) through (9);

2. The leak detection system shall be constructed and designed so that the number and positioning of monitoring wells or devices will detect releases into the excavation zone from any portion of the system which routinely contains a regulated substance;

3. The regulated substance stored is immiscible in water and has a specific gravity of less than 1;

4. Groundwater is never more than 20 feet from the ground surface and the hydraulic conductivity of the material between the UST system and the monitoring wells or devices is not less than 0.01 centimeters per second;

5. Monitoring wells or devices intercept the excavation zone or are as close to it as is technically feasible;

6. The slotted portion of the monitoring well casing shall be designed to prevent migration of natural soils or filter pack into the well and to allow entry of regulated substance on the water table into the well under both high and low ground-water conditions;

7. The continuous monitoring devices or manual methods used can detect the presence of at least 1/8 of an inch of free product on top of the groundwater in the monitoring wells;

8. Monitoring wells shall be sealed from the ground surface to the top of the filter pack;

9. Monitoring wells are clearly marked and secured to avoid unauthorized access and tampering.

G. Interstitial monitoring between the UST system and a secondary barrier immediately around or beneath it which is used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 shall be conducted at least monthly and shall be designed, constructed and installed to detect a leak from any portion of the UST system that routinely contains a regulated substance, and shall meet one of the following requirements:

1. For double-walled UST systems, the sampling or testing method shall be able to detect a release through the inner wall in any portion of the UST system that routinely contains a regulated substance.

2. For UST systems with a secondary barrier within the excavation zone, characteristics of the site and system components shall be designed and constructed to detect a release between the UST system and the secondary barrier and shall meet all of the following requirements:

a. The secondary barrier around or beneath the UST system shall be constructed of synthetic materials which are sufficiently thick and impermeable to prevent structural weakening of the secondary barrier as a result of contact with any released regulated substance. The rate of permeability shall not exceed 10-6 centimeters per second for the regulated substance stored. In addition, the secondary barrier shall be capable of directing any release to the monitoring point and permit its detection;

b. The barrier is compatible with the regulated substance stored so that a release from the UST system will not cause a deterioration of the barrier allowing a release to pass through undetected;

c. For cathodically protected UST systems, the secondary barrier shall be installed so that it does not interfere with the proper operation of the cathodic protection system;

d. The groundwater, soil moisture, or rainfall will not render the testing or sampling method used inoperative so that a release could go undetected for more than 30 days;

e. The characteristics of the UST site are assessed to ensure that the secondary barrier is always above the groundwater and not in a 25-year flood plain, unless the barrier and monitoring designs are for use under such conditions;

f. Monitoring wells are clearly marked and secured to avoid unauthorized access and tampering.

3. For tanks with an internally fitted liner, an automated device shall be able to detect a release between the inner wall of the tank and the liner, and the liner shall be compatible with the substance stored.

H. Any other type of release detection method, or combination of methods, may be used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 if all of the following requirements are met:

1. The monitoring is conducted at least monthly;

2. The Department determines that the method meets either of the following requirements:

a. The method can detect a 0.2 gallon per hour leak rate or a release of 150 gallons within 30 days with probability of detection and probability of false alarm in accordance with R18-12-240(A)(4);

b. Owners and operators can demonstrate that the method is able to detect a release as effectively as any of the methods allowed in subsections (C) through (G). In comparing methods, the Department shall consider the size of release that the method can detect and the frequency and reliability with which it can be detected. If the method is approved, owners and operators shall comply with any conditions imposed by the Department on its use to ensure the protection of human health and the environment.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.244" level="4" title="Methods of Release Detection for Piping">

Methods of Release Detection for Piping

A. An automatic line leak detection method for piping used to meet the requirements of R18-12-241 which alerts the operator to the presence of a leak by restricting or shutting off the flow of regulated substances through piping or triggering an audible or visual alarm may be used only if it detects leaks of three gallons per hour, at 10 pounds per square inch line pressure within one hour. An annual test of the operation of the leak detector shall be conducted in accordance with the manufacturer's requirements;

B. A periodic line tightness test of piping may be used as a method of release detection for piping for the purpose of meeting the requirements of R18-12-241 only if it can detect a 0.1 gallon per hour leak rate, at 1 times the operating pressure.

C. Any of the applicable tank methods described in R18-12-243(E) through (H) may be used as a method of release detection for piping for the purpose of meeting the requirements of R18-12-241 if they are designed to detect a release from any portion of the underground piping that routinely contains regulated substances.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.245" level="4" title="Release Detection Recordkeeping">

Release Detection Recordkeeping

A. Owners and operators shall maintain records in accordance with R18-12-234 demonstrating compliance with all applicable requirements of R18-12-240 through R18-12-244. The following records shall be maintained for the operational life of the release detection system or five years from the date indicated below, whichever is the shorter time period:

1. All written performance claims pertaining to any release detection system used, and the manner in which these claims have been justified or tested by the equipment manufacturer or the installer. The retention period shall start at the date of installation;

2. Written documentation of all calibration, maintenance, and repair of release detection equipment permanently located on-site. The retention period shall start at the date of completion of the servicing work.

B. Any schedules of required calibration and maintenance provided by the release detection equipment manufacturer shall be maintained for at least five years from the date of installation.

C. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (D), the results of any sampling or testing shall be maintained for at least five years from the date of receipt by owners and operators of the results.

D. The results of tank tightness testing conducted in accordance with R18-12-243(C) shall be retained from the date of receipt by owners and operators of the results until the next test is conducted and the results of that test are received.

E. Results of any monitoring shall be maintained for at least one year from the date of receipt by owners and operators of the monitoring results.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.246" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.247" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.248" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.249" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.250" level="4" title="Applicability and Scope">

Applicability and Scope

A. Release reporting and corrective action. Except for a release from an UST system excluded by R18-12-210(B), or for the corrective action requirements of R18-12-260 through R18-12-264.01, for a release subject to Subtitle C corrective action requirements in Section 3004(u) of RCRA, as amended, R18-12-250 through R18-12-264.01 apply to a release or suspected release discovered:

1. On or after the effective date of this Section; or

2. Before the effective date of this Section, but only for those sections of R18-12-250 through R18-12-264.01 with required activities not initiated by the effective date of this Section.

B. No supersedence. Nothing in R18-12-250 through R18-12-264.01 supersedes any of the following:

1. Immediate reporting to the National Response Center and to the Division of Emergency Services within the Arizona Department of Emergency and Military Affairs, under CERCLA, and SARA Title III;

2. A CAP submitted to the Department under 40 CFR 280.66 before the effective date of this Section and subsequently approved; and

3. A work plan under the UST Assurance Fund preapproval requirements of Article 6 of this Chapter submitted to the Department before the effective date of this Section and subsequently approved.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.251" level="4" title="Suspected Release">

Suspected Release

A. 24 hour notification. An owner or operator shall notify the Department, within 24 hours after discovery of a suspected release, except for either:

1. A spill or overfill of 25 gallons or less of petroleum or a hazardous substance that is less than its reportable quantity under CERCLA, contained and cleaned up within 24 hours, or

2. The conditions described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001(16)(b) or (c)(i) exist for 24 hours or less.

B. 24 hour notification content. If known, the notification shall identify the:

1. Individual notifying the Department;

2. UST involved and the reason for notifying the Department;

3. Facility involved;

4. Owner and the operator of the UST facility; and

5. Investigation and containment actions taken as of the date of the notification.

C. Requirement to investigate suspected releases. Within 90 calendar days from the suspected release discovery date or the suspected release notification date, whichever is earlier, an owner or operator shall complete the investigation requirements of this subsection and confirm whether the suspected release is a release. The investigation shall include:

1. Tightness tests of the tank and all connected piping meeting the requirements of R18-12-243(C) and R18-12-244(B). Further investigation is required if the results of the tightness test indicate that the system is either not tight or contaminated media is the basis for suspecting a release.

2. If further investigation is required under subsection (1), a site check meeting the requirements of this subsection must be performed. An owner or operator shall measure for the presence of a release where contamination is likely to be present and shall consider the:

a. Nature of the regulated substance;

b. Type of initial alarm or cause for suspicion;

c. Type of backfill;

d. Depth to groundwater; and

e. Conditions of the regulated substance and the site in identifying the presence and source of the release.

D. Release Confirmation. If a release is confirmed, the owner or operator shall notify the Department as required by R18-12-260(A), cease further compliance with this Section, and perform corrective actions under R18-12-260 through R18-12-264.01.

E. 14 day report. The owner or operator shall submit a written status report, on a form provided by the Department, within 14 calendar days after the suspected release discovery date or the suspected release notification date, whichever is earlier. If the suspected release is confirmed to be a release within the 14 day period, the 14 day report is satisfied when the report required by R18-12-260(C) is submitted. If known on the date the 14 day report is submitted, an owner or operator shall identify the:

1. UST that is the source of the suspected release;

2. Nature of the suspected release;

3. Regulated substance suspected to be released; and

4. Initial response to the suspected release.

F. 90 day report. If the suspected release is not confirmed to be a release the owner or operator shall submit a written report, on a form provided by the Department, within 90 calendar days after the suspected release discovery date or suspected release notification date, whichever is earlier, showing that the investigation has been completed and a release does not exist. Unless previously submitted, the 90 day report shall identify the:

1. UST suspected to be the source of the release;

2. Nature of the suspected release;

3. Regulated substance suspected to be released;

4. Response to the suspected release;

5. Repair, recalibration, or replacement of a monthly monitoring device described in R18-12-243(D) through (H) or R18-12-244(C), and any repair or replacement of faulty UST system equipment that may have been the cause of the suspected release;

6. Results of any tightness test conducted under subsection (C)(1);

7. Person, if the site check described in subsection (C)(2) was not performed, having direct knowledge of the circumstances of the suspected release who observed contaminated media during the discovery or investigation.

8. Laboratory analytical results on samples collected during the site check described in subsection (C)(2); and

9. Site plan showing the location of the suspected release and site check sample collection locations.

G. Investigation of suspected releases required by the Department. If the Department becomes aware of an on- or off-site impact of a regulated substance, the owner or operator shall be notified and may be required, based on an assessment of site specific information, to perform an investigation under subsection (C). If an investigation is required, the Department shall describe the type of impact and the rationale for its decision that the UST system may be the source of the impact.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.252" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.253" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.254" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.255" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.256" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.257" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.258" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.259" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.260" level="4" title="Release Notification, and Reporting">

Release Notification, and Reporting

A. 24 hour release notification. An owner or operator shall notify the Department within 24 hours after the release confirmation date of the following:

1. A release of a regulated substance;

2. A spill or overfill of petroleum that results in a release exceeding 25 gallons, or causes a sheen on nearby surface water that is reportable to the National Response Center under 40 CFR 110;

3. A spill or overfill of petroleum resulting in a release of 25 gallons or less that is not contained and cleaned up within 24 hours;

4. A spill or overfill of a hazardous substance that equals or exceeds its reportable quantity under CERCLA; and

5. A spill or overfill of a hazardous substance that is less than the reportable quantity under CERCLA, not contained and cleaned up within 24 hours.

B. Release notification information. If known on the date that the 24 hour notification is submitted, an owner or operator shall notify the Department under subsection (A) and shall include the:

1. Individual providing notification;

2. UST involved and the reason for confirming the release;

3. Facility involved;

4. Owner and operator of the facility involved; and

5. Investigations, containment, and corrective actions taken as of the date and time of the notice.

C. 14 day report. An owner or operator shall submit a report, on a form provided by the Department, within 14 calendar days after the release confirmation date. The report shall include:

1. The nature of the release, and the regulated substance and the estimated quantity released;

2. The elapsed time over which the release occurred;

3. A copy of the results of any tightness test, meeting the requirements of R18-12-243(C) or R18-12-244(B), performed to confirm the release;

4. Laboratory analytical results of samples demonstrating the release confirmation; and

5. The initial response and corrective actions taken as of the date of the report and anticipated actions to be taken within the first 90 calendar days after the release confirmation date.

D. UST system modifications. An owner or operator shall repair, upgrade, or close the UST system, that is the source of the release, as required under this Article and the owner shall notify the Department as required by R18-12-222.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.261" level="4" title="Initial Response, Abatement, and Site Characterization">

Initial Response, Abatement, and Site Characterization

A. 24 hour initial response. An owner or operator shall begin response actions within 24 hours of the release confirmation date to prevent any further release, and identify and mitigate fire, explosion, and vapor hazards.

B. 60 day initial abatement. An owner or operator shall begin the following initial abatement measures as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 calendar days of the release confirmation date:

1. Removal of as much of the regulated substance from the UST system as is necessary to prevent a further release;

2. Visually inspect for and mitigate further migration of any aboveground and exposed below ground release into surrounding soils and surface water;

3. Continue to monitor and mitigate any fire and safety hazards posed by vapors or free product; and

4. Investigate for the possible presence of free product and, if found, initiate the requirements of R18-12-261.02.

C. Initial site characterization required. An owner or operator shall develop, from readily available sources, initial site characterization information on site-specific geology, hydrology, receptors, potential sources of the contamination, artificial pathways for contaminant migration, and occupancies of the facility and surrounding area. Information on any discovered free product shall be gathered and a site check, meeting the requirements of R18-12-251(C)(2), shall be performed, unless conducted as part of the investigation of a suspected release.

D. 90 day report. An owner or operator shall submit an initial site characterization report to the Department, on a Department provided form, within 90 calendar days after the release confirmation date. If known, the report shall include the:

1. Nature of the release, the regulated substance released, and the estimated quantity of the release;

2. The estimated time period when the release occurred;

3. Initial response and abatement actions described in subsections (A) and (B), and any corrective actions taken as of the date of the submission;

4. Estimated or known site-specific lithology, depth to bedrock, and groundwater depth, flow direction, and quality. The date and source of the information shall be included;

5. Location, use, and identification of all wells registered with Arizona Department of Water Resources, and other wells on and within one-quarter mile of the facility;

6. Location and type of receptors, other than wells, on and within one-quarter mile of the facility;

7. Current occupancy and use of the facility and properties immediately adjacent to the facility;

8. Data on known sewer and utility lines, basements, and other artificial subsurface structures on and immediately adjacent to the facility;

9. Copies of any report of any tightness test meeting the requirements under R18-12-243(C) or R18-12-244(B), performed during the investigation of the suspected release;

10. Laboratory analytical results of samples analyzed and received as of the date of the report;

11. Site plan showing the location of the facility property boundaries, release, sample collections for samples with laboratory analytical results submitted with the report, and identified receptors;

12. Current LUST site classification form described in R18-12-261.01(E); and

13. Information on any free product discovered under R18-12-261.02.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-261.01. LUST Site Classification

A. LUST site analysis. An owner or operator shall determine a LUST site classification by analyzing current and future threats to public health and the environment based on site-specific information known at the time of the determination.

B. LUST site classification factors. The owner or operator shall determine any threats to public health and the environment by addressing the following:

1. Presence and levels of vapors;

2. Presence of free product;

3. Extent of contamination;

4. Type and location of receptor;

5. Impacts and reasonably foreseeable impacts to current and future receptors; and

6. Estimated time between the date of the analysis and the impact to receptors.

C. LUST site classification. An owner or operator shall select a classification for the LUST site from one of the following, based on the analysis performed under subsection (B):

1. Classification 1: immediate threats;

2. Classification 2: short term threats from impacts that are reasonably foreseeable at or within two years;

3. Classification 3: long term threats from impacts that are reasonably foreseeable after two years; or

4. Classification 4: contamination exists, but no demonstrable long term threat has been identified, or information indicates the site cannot be otherwise classified under this subsection.

D. LUST site classification form submission. An owner or operator shall submit to the Department the LUST site classification form described in subsection (E) as required by R18-12-260 through R18-12-264.01, and when LUST site conditions indicate the classification has changed, or if contamination has migrated, or is anticipated to migrate, to a property where the owner or operator does not have access.

E. LUST site classification form contents. An owner or operator shall submit the LUST site classification, on a Department provided form, that includes the following information:

1. Date of preparation;

2. LUST number assigned to the release that is the subject of the classification;

3. The status of corrective action activities on the date that the classification form is submitted;

4. The regulated substance and the estimated volume (in gallons) released, the UST identification number from the notification form described in R18-12-222, the component of the UST where the release occurred, and whether the release is a spill or overfill;

5. The factors considered in determining the LUST site classification described in subsection (B);

6. The distance between the identified contamination and each receptor;

7. The estimated time, from the date on the form until impact to a receptor; and

8. The classification of the LUST site.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-261.02. Free Product

A. Free product investigation. An owner or operator shall investigate for free product if site specific information indicates the potential existence for free product, and if discovered, determine its extent.

B. Free product removal. If free product is discovered, the owner or operator shall:

1. Begin removal as soon as practicable;

2. Remove free product in a manner minimizing the spread of contamination using recovery and disposal techniques based on site-specific hydrologic, geologic, and demographic conditions;

3. Comply with local, state, and federal laws or regulations when treating, discharging, or disposing recovery byproducts;

4. Use abatement of free product migration as a minimum objective for the design of the free product removal system; and

5. Handle any flammable product in a safe and competent manner to prevent fire and explosion.

C. Forty-five day free product report. If free product is discovered, the owner or operator shall submit a status report, on a Department provided form, within 45 calendar days of free product discovery and with subsequent reports required by the Department. The status report shall contain the following information known at the time of the report:

1. The estimated quantity, type, extent and thickness of free product observed or measured;

2. A description of free product removal measures taken;

3. A description of any discharge that will take place during the recovery operation and where this discharge will be located; and

4. A description of the type of treatment applied to and the effluent quality expected from any discharge.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.262" level="4" title="LUST Site Investigation">

LUST Site Investigation

A. Requirement to investigate. An owner or operator shall investigate a release at and from a LUST site to determine the full extent of the release of regulated substances and shall:

1. Determine the full extent of contamination;

2. Identify physical, natural, and artificial features at or surrounding the LUST site that are current or potential pathways for contamination migration;

3. Identify current or potential receptors; and

4. Obtain any additional data necessary to determine site-specific corrective action standards and to justify the selection of remedial alternatives to be used in responses to contaminated soil, surface water, and groundwater.

B. Completion of investigation activities. The owner or operator shall complete the investigation activities described in subsection (A) and submit the report described in subsection (D) within a time established by the Department.

C. Determining the full extent of contamination. The owner or operator shall determine, within each contaminated medium, the full extent, location, and distribution of concentrations of each chemical of concern stored in the UST over its operational life. The full extent of contamination shall be determined upon receipt of laboratory analytical results delineating the vertical and lateral extent of the contamination.

D. LUST site characterization report. An owner or operator shall submit a report of the information developed during the investigation required in subsection (A), in format approved by the Department. The report shall be submitted within the time established in subsection (B). The report submitted under this subsection and an on-site investigation report submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1053 shall contain the following minimum information, except that an on-site investigation report is not required to include the extent of contamination beyond the facility property boundaries:

1. A site history summary;

2. Information on bedrock, if encountered during the investigation;

3. The hydrologic characteristics and uses of groundwater and surface water of the local area;

4. A concise description of factors considered in determining the full extent of contamination;

5. A concise summary of the results of the investigation including a conceptual site model;

6. A site vicinity map, site location map and a site plan;

7. A tabulation of all field screening and laboratory analytical results and water level data acquired during the investigation;

8. Laboratory sample analytical and associated quality assurance and quality control reports and chain-of-custody forms;

9. A tabulation of all wells registered with the Arizona Department of Water Resources, and other wells located within one-quarter mile of the facility property boundary;

10. The lithologic logs for all subsurface investigations; and

11. The as-built construction diagram of each well installed as part of this investigation.

E. Conditions for approval of the site characterization report. The Department shall approve the site characterization report if the Department determines it meets the requirements of this Section and A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005, and contains the information required by subsection (D), or the Department has enough information to make an informed decision to approve the report.

F. Notice of decision. The Department will determine if the conditions in subsection (E) are or are not satisfied and shall either approve or not approve the report and notify an owner or operator in writing. The notification shall include any conditions on which the approval or non-approval is based and an explanation of the process for resolving disagreements under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1091.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.263" level="4" title="Remedial Response">

Remedial Response

A. Remedial response not required. An owner or operator shall comply with R18-12-263.03 for LUST case closure if a remedial response is not required for any chemical of concern, when contaminant concentrations in each contaminated medium, at the point of compliance, are documented to be at or below the corrective action standard under R18-12-263.01(A)(1).

B. Remedial response required. The owner or operator shall remediate contamination at and from the LUST site as required by this Section. Remediation activities shall continue until:

1. Contaminant concentration of any chemical of concern, in each contaminated medium, at the point of compliance, is documented to be at or below the corrective action standard determined in R18-12-263.01; and

2. The requirements for LUST case closure in R18-12-263.03 are completed and approved by the Department.

C. Remedial responses that may require a CAP. The Department may request the owner or operator, or the owner or operator may voluntarily submit a CAP, meeting the requirements of this Section, any time after submission of the report in R18-12-261(D). If a CAP is requested, it shall be submitted within 120 calendar days of the owner or operator's receipt of the request, or a longer period of time established by the Department. The Department may request a CAP based on the following:

1. Soil or groundwater contamination extends, or has potential to extend, off the facility property and the LUST site is classification 3 in R18-12-261.01(C);

2. Free product extends off the facility property; and

3. Site-specific conditions indicate a potential level of threat to public health and the environment that is equal to or exceeds the threat in subsections (1) and (2). In determining the extent of threat to public health and the environment, the Department shall consider:

a. The nature of the regulated substance and the location, volume, and distribution of concentrations of chemicals of concern in soil, surface water, and groundwater;

b. The presence and location of known receptors potentially impacted by the release; and

c. The presence of complete exposure pathways.

D. Remedial responses that require a CAP. At any time after Department approval of the report described in R18-12-261(D), the Department shall request that the owner or operator submit a CAP meeting the requirements of this Section within 120 calendar days, or a longer period of time established by the Department, if any of the following exist:

1. The LUST site is classification 1 or 2 in R18-12-261.01(C);

2. The owner or operator proposes a corrective action standard for groundwater or surface water under a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation, described in R18-12-263.01;

3. The owner or operator proposes a corrective action standard for soil under a Tier 3 evaluation, and the point of compliance extends beyond a facility property boundary; or

4. The intended response or remediation technology involves discharge of a pollutant either directly to an aquifer or the land surface or the vadose zone. For purposes of this subsection, the term pollutant has the definition at A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

E. Determination of remediation response. The owner or operator shall choose a remediation technology based on the corrective action requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D) and (E), and the following:

1. Local, state, and federal requirements associated with the technology;

2. Reduction of toxicity, mobility, or volume;

3. Long-term effectiveness and permanence;

4. Short-term effectiveness; and

5. Ability to implement the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern, in each contaminated medium, including considering the results presented in the site characterization report, ease of initiation, operation and maintenance of the technology, and public response to any contamination residual to or resulting from the technology.

F. On-site derived waste. Nothing in this subsection shall supersede more stringent requirements for storage, treatment, or disposal of on-site derived waste imposed by local, state or federal governments. An owner or operator meeting the requirements of this subsection is deemed to have met the exemption provisions in the definition of solid waste at A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01 for petroleum contaminated soil stored or treated on-site. The owner or operator shall prevent and remedy hazards posed by derived waste resulting from investigation or response activities under this Article and shall.

1. Contain on-site derived waste in a manner preventing the migration of contaminants into subsurface soil, surface water, or groundwater throughout the time the derived waste remains on-site, and shall:

a. Restrict access to contaminated areas by unauthorized persons; and

b. Maintain the integrity of any containment system during placement, storage, treatment, or removal of the derived waste;

2. Label on-site derived waste stored or treated in stockpiles, drums, tanks, or other vessels in a manner consistent with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 4, Article 9 and the rules made under that Article; and

3. Treat on-site derived waste to the applicable corrective action standard in R18-12-263.01 if the derived waste is to be returned to the on-site subsurface.

G. Periodic site status report. After approval of the site characterization report, the owner or operator shall submit a site status report, on a form provided by the Department, based on site-specific conditions. The report shall be submitted as requested by the Department, or by the time requested in the CAP under R18-12-263.02. The owner or operator shall continue to submit a site status report until the Department approves a LUST case closure report under R18-12-263.03(F)(1). The report shall:

1. Identify each type of remedial corrective action technology being employed;

2. Provide the date each remedial corrective action technology became operational;

3. Provide the results of monitoring and laboratory analysis of collected samples for each contaminated medium received since the last report was submitted to the Department;

4. Provide a site plan that shows the current location of the components of any installed remediation technology including monitoring and sample collection locations for data collected and reported in subsection (G)(3);

5. Estimate the amount of time that must pass until response activities, including remediation and verification monitoring, will demonstrate that the concentration of each chemical of concern is at or below the corrective action standard determined for that chemical of concern in the specific contaminated medium; and

6. Provide the current LUST site classification form described in R18-12-261.01(E).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-263.01. Risk-based Corrective Action Standards

A. Conducting risk-based tier evaluation and proposing the applicable corrective action standard. The owner or operator shall propose and document, as described in subsection (B), each applicable risk-based corrective action standard, using the procedures of this subsection. The owner or operator shall ensure that each corrective action standard meets the corrective action requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D) and (E), and is consistent with soil remediation standards and restrictions on property use in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 1, Article 4 and the rules made under each. In determining the proposed corrective action standard, the owner or operator shall first perform a Tier 1 evaluation. The owner or operator may subsequently perform progressively more site-specific, risk-based tier evaluations (Tier 2 or Tier 3) after considering the comparative differences in input parameters, the cost effectiveness in conducting both the additional evaluation and remediation to the next tier corrective action standard, and the cumulative estimate of risk to public health and the environment.

1. For a Tier 1 evaluation, the owner or operator shall:

a. Base assumptions on conservative scenarios where all potential receptors are exposed to the maximum concentration of each chemical of concern in each contaminated medium detected in contamination at and from the LUST site;

b. Assume that all exposure pathways are complete;

c. Use the assumed point of exposure at the source or the location of the maximum concentration as the point of compliance;

d. Compare the maximum concentration of each chemical of concern in each contaminated medium at the point of compliance with the applicable Tier 1 corrective action standard in subsections (A)(1)(e) through (A)(1)(j);

e. For soil, use the applicable corrective action standard in R18-7-203(A)(1) and (2) and (B);

f. For surface water, use the applicable corrective action standard in R18-11-112 or Appendix A (18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1);

g. For groundwater, use the applicable corrective action standard in R18-11-406;

h. For contaminated groundwater that is demonstrated to discharge or potentially discharge to surface water, use the applicable corrective action standard in R18-11-108, R18-11-112, or Appendix A (18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1);

i. If a receptor is or has the potential to be impacted, for those chemicals of concern in soil or surface water with no numeric standard established in rule or statute, use a corrective action standard consistent with R18-7-206 or R18-11-108, as applicable, using updated, peer-reviewed scientific data applying those equations and methodologies used to formulate the numeric standards established in R18-7-203(A)(2) or Appendix A (18 A.A.C. 11, Article 1), or for leachability and protection of the environment, a concentration determined on the basis of methods approved by the Department; and

j. If a public or private water supply well is or has the potential to be impacted, for those chemicals of concern in groundwater with no numeric water quality standard established in rule or statute, use a corrective action standard consistent with R18-11-405, using updated, peer-reviewed scientific data applying those equations and methodologies used to formulate the numeric standards established in R18-11-406.

2. For a Tier 2 evaluation the owner or operator shall:

a. Apply site-specific data to the same equations used to develop the Tier 1 corrective action standard, or, in the case of volatilization from subsurface soil, a Department-approved equation that accounts for the depth of contamination;

b. For those chemicals of concern with no numeric standard established in statute or rule, use a corrective action standard based on updated, peer-reviewed scientific data, and provided through environmental regulatory agencies and scientific organizations;

c. Use Department-approved values for equation parameters, if the values are different than those used in Tier 1 or not obtained through site-specific data;

d. Eliminate exposure pathways that are incomplete due to site-specific conditions, or institutional or engineering controls, from continued evaluation in this tier;

e. Use as the point of compliance a location between the source and the point of exposure for the nearest known or potential on-site receptor, or the nearest downgradient facility property boundary, whichever is the nearest to the source;

f. Use representative concentrations of chemicals of concern that are the lesser of the 95% upper confidence level or maximum concentration in the contaminated medium at the point of compliance;

g. Use as the Tier 2 corrective action standard, a concentration determined under subsections (A)(2)(a) through (A)(2)(c), R18-7-206, R18-11-108, and R18-11-405; and

h. Compare the representative concentration of each chemical of concern, in each contaminated medium, at the point of compliance with the proposed Tier 2 corrective action standard, to determine if remediation is required.

3. For a Tier 3 evaluation the owner or operator shall:

a. Apply more site-specific data than required in the development of Tier 2 corrective action standards in alternative and more sophisticated equations appropriate to site-specific conditions. The owner or operator shall use equations and methodology of general consensus within the scientific community that is published in peer-reviewed professional journals, publications of standards, and other literature;

b. Use the nearest known or potential receptor as the point of exposure;

c. Use as the point of compliance the point of exposure or some location between the source and the point of exposure, regardless of the facility boundary;

d. Use representative concentrations that are the actual or modeled concentrations in the medium of concern at the point of compliance;

e. Use as the Tier 3 corrective action standard a concentration consistent with subsections (A)(3)(a) through (A)(3)(d);

f. Compare the representative concentration of each chemical of concern in each contaminated medium at the point of compliance with the Tier 3 corrective action standard to determine if remediation is required; and

g. Choose the remedial action upon completion of the Tier 3 evaluation that will result in concentrations of chemicals of concern presenting a hazard index no greater than 1 and a cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10-6 and 1 x 10-4.

4. All risk-based corrective action standards proposed under the tier evaluations in subsections (A)(1) through (3) are based on achieving similar levels of protection of public health and the environment. For Tier 2 and Tier 3 evaluations, a cumulative risk assessment is warranted if multiple pathways of exposure are present, or reasonably anticipated, and one or more of the following conditions impacts or may impact current or future receptors:

a. More than 10 carcinogens are identified;

b. More than one class A carcinogen is identified;

c. Any non-carcinogen has a hazard quotient exceeding 1/nth of the hazard index of 1, where n represents the total number of non-carcinogens identified; or

d. More than 10 non-carcinogens are identified.

B. Documentation of tier evaluation. The owner or operator shall document each tier evaluation performed in response to contaminated soil, surface water and groundwater. The owner or operator shall prepare each evaluation using a Department provided format and complying with this subsection.

1. For a Tier 1 evaluation the owner or operator shall provide the following information:

a. Each chemical of concern detected in the contamination at and from the LUST site;

b. Each medium contaminated, identified as soil, surface water, or groundwater;

c. The maximum concentration of each chemical of concern for each contaminated medium.

d. The current and future use of the facility and surrounding properties;

e. Each receptor evaluated;

f. The Tier 1 corrective action standard for each chemical of concern for each contaminated medium; and

g. The proposed corrective actions for each chemical of concern that exceeds the Tier 1 corrective action standard.

2. For the Tier 2 evaluation the owner or operator shall provide the following information:

a. Each chemical of concern evaluated;

b. Each medium contaminated, identified as surficial soil, subsurface soil, surface water, or groundwater;

c. The representative concentration of each chemical of concern for each contaminated medium;

d. A detailed description of the current and future use of the facility and surrounding properties;

e. The point of exposure;

f. The point of compliance;

g. The revised conceptual site model;

h. Parameters necessary to utilize the leachability equations, if groundwater is or may be impacted by the release, published in federal and state peer-reviewed professional journals, publications of standards, or other literature accepted within the scientific community;

i. Identification and justification for alternate assumptions or site-specific information used in place of the default assumptions of the Tier 1 evaluation, or used in a Department-approved model under subsection (A)(2) for subsurface volatilization;

j. Any supporting calculations and reference citations used in the development of Tier 2 corrective action standards;.

k. A table of the calculated Tier 2 corrective action standards;

l. A description of any institutional or engineering controls to be implemented; and

m. Proposed corrective actions for chemical of concerns that exceeds a Tier 2 corrective action standard.

3. For the Tier 3 evaluation the owner or operator shall provide the following information:

a. Each chemical of concern evaluated;

b. Each medium contaminated, identified as surficial soil, subsurface soil, surface water, or groundwater;

c. The representative concentration of each chemical of concern for each contaminated medium;

d. A detailed description of the current and future use of the facility and surrounding properties, including a demonstration of the current and foreseeable use of groundwater within one-quarter mile of the source;

e. The point of exposure;

f. The point of compliance;

g. A revised conceptual site model;

h. Identification and justification for alternate assumptions, methodology or site-specific information used in place of the assumptions for the Tier 2 evaluation;

i. Any supporting calculations and reference citations used in the development of Tier 3 corrective action standards;

j. Results and validation of modeling for soil leaching, groundwater plume migration, and surface water hydrology;

k. A table of the calculated Tier 3 corrective action standards;

l. Risk characterization, and cumulative lifetime excess cancer risk, and hazard index for current and potential receptors for all chemicals of concern in all contaminated media;

m. A description of any institutional or engineering controls to be implemented; and

n. Proposed corrective actions for chemical of concern that exceeds a Tier 3 corrective action standard.

4. When a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation relies on the use of an institutional or engineering control in establishing a corrective action standard, the owner or operator shall:

a. Demonstrate that the institutional or engineering control is legal, and technically and administratively feasible;

b. Record any institutional or engineering control with the deed for all properties impacted by the release;

c. Communicate the terms of the institutional or engineering control to current and future lessees of the property, and to those parties with rights of access to the property; and

d. Ensure that the terms of the institutional or engineering control be maintained throughout any future property transactions until concentrations of chemicals of concern meet a corrective action standard at the point of compliance that does not rely on the use of the institutional or engineering control. For the institutional or engineering control to be implemented, the owner or operator shall prepare an institutional or engineering control that includes the following, as appropriate:

i. Chemicals of concern;

ii. Representative concentrations of the chemicals of concern;

iii. Any Tier 2 or Tier 3 corrective action standard;

iv. Exposure pathways that are eliminated;

v. Reduction in magnitude or duration of exposures to chemicals of concern;

vi. The cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk and hazard index if determined under subsection (A)(4);

vii. A brief description of the institutional or engineering control;

viii. Any activity or use limitation for the site;

ix. The person responsible for maintaining the institutional or engineering control;

x. Performance standards;

xi. Operation and maintenance plans;

xii. Provisions for removal of the institutional or engineering control if the owner or operator demonstrates that representative concentrations of chemicals of concern comply with an alternative corrective action standard not dependent on the institutional or engineering control; and

xiii. A statement of intent that informs lessees and parties with rights of access of the terms described in subsections (B)(4)(d)(i) through (xii).

C. Submittal of tier evaluation. The owner or operator shall submit to the Department the tier evaluation conducted under subsection (A) and provide, in accordance with subsection (B), the following:

1. Documentation of the Tier 1 evaluation with the site characterization report described in R18-12-262(D), and

2. Documentation of the Tier 2 evaluation as soon as practicable during the course of conducting risk-based responses to contamination, as a stand alone document or in conjunction with one of the following:

a. The site characterization report described in R18-12-262(D);

b. The CAP as described in R18-12-263.02(B); or

c. The corrective action completion report described in R18-12-263.03(D).

3. Documentation of the Tier 3 evaluation shall be submitted to the Department as soon as practicable during the course of conducting risk-based responses to contamination, as a stand alone document or in conjunction with the CAP described in R18-12-263.02(B).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-263.02. Corrective Action Plan

A. An owner or operator shall prepare a CAP that protects public health and the environment. The Department shall apply the following factors to determine if the CAP protects public health and the environment:

1. The physical and chemical characteristics of the chemical of concern, including toxicity, persistence, and potential for migration;

2. The hydrologic and geologic characteristics of the facility and the surrounding area;

3. The proximity, quality, and current and future uses of groundwater and surface water;

4. The potential effects of residual contamination on groundwater and surface water;

5. The risk characterization for current and potential receptors; and

6. Any information gathered in accordance with R18-12-251 through R18-12-263.03.

B. CAP contents. An owner or operator shall prepare a CAP in a format provided by the Department that includes:

1. The extent of contamination known at the time of the CAP submission, including a current LUST site classification form, as described in R18-12-261.01(E);

2. A description of any responses to soil, surface water, or groundwater contamination initiated;

3. A determination of the foreseeable and most beneficial use of surface water or groundwater within one-quarter mile of the outermost boundaries of the contaminated water, if a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation is used for the corrective action standard for either medium. In making this determination the owner or operator shall:

a. Conduct a survey of property owners and other persons using or having rights to use water within one-quarter mile of the outermost extent of contaminated water; and

b. Include within the CAP the names and addressed of persons surveyed and the results;

4. A description of goals and expected results;

5. The corrective action standard for each chemical of concern in each affected medium, and the tier evaluation documents;

6. If active remedial methodologies are proposed the owner or operator shall:

a. Describe any permits required for the operation of each remediation technology and system.

b. Describe, in narrative form, the conceptual design, operation, and total estimated cost of three remedial alternatives proposed to perform corrective actions on contaminated soil, surface water or groundwater. Also include data and conclusions supporting the selection and design of each technology and system, including criteria for evaluation of effectiveness in meeting stated objectives and an abandonment plan. The information described in this subsection is not required if the remedial technology in the CAP is limited to approval of corrective action standards developed under Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation.

c. Justify the selection of the remedial alternative chosen for the contamination at and from the LUST site. The owner or operator shall consider site-specific conditions and select a remedial alternative that best meets all of the remediation criteria listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D).

d. Provide schedules for the implementation, operation, and demobilization of any remediation technology and periodic reports as described in R18-12-263(G) to the Department.

7. The reasonably foreseeable effects of residual contamination on groundwater and surface water.

8. Additional information necessary to analyze the site-specific conditions and effectiveness of the proposed remedial response, which may include, but is not limited to a feasibility study.

C. Modification of CAP. The owner or operator shall modify the CAP upon written request of the Department to meet the requirements of subsections (A) and (B). The request for modification shall describe any necessary modification and its rationale. The owner or operator shall respond to the request in writing within 45 calendar days of receipt, or a longer time period approved by the Department. If the requested modification is not made within 45 days, the Department shall disapprove the CAP, and notify the owner or operator in writing under subsection (H)(2).

D. Preliminary CAP approval. If the requirements of subsections (B) and (C) are met, the Department shall provide written notice to the owner or operator that the CAP is complete, and provide public notice required by R18-12-264.01.

E. Implementation before approval. An owner or operator may, in the interest of minimizing environmental contamination and promoting more effective remediation, begin implementation of the remediation technologies, in the CAP, before the plan is approved by the Department, if the owner or operator:

1. Informs the Department in writing before implementation;

2. Complies with any conditions imposed by the Department consistent with the provisions of subsection (A), including halting any activity or mitigating adverse consequences from implementation; and

3. Obtains all necessary permits and approvals for the remediation activities.

F. Modification due to public comment. An owner or operator shall modify the CAP upon written request of the Department that modification is required because of public comment received. The request shall describe any necessary modification and its rationale. The owner or operator shall respond to the modification request within 45 calendar days after receipt. If the requested modification is not made in writing within 45 days, the Department may disapprove the CAP and notify the owner or operator in writing described in subsection (H)(2).

G. Conditions for CAP approval. The Department shall approve a CAP only if the following conditions are met:

1. The CAP contains all elements required in subsections (B), (C), and (F), or the Department makes a determination that it has enough information to make an informed decision to approve the CAP; and

2. The CAP demonstrates that the corrective actions described are necessary, reasonable, cost-effective, technically feasible and meet the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005.

H. Notice of CAP approval. The Department shall notify the owner or operator in writing that it is approving or disapproving the CAP as follows:

1. If the conditions in subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2) are satisfied, the Department shall approve the CAP and notify the owner or operator. If the approved CAP includes a corrective action standard for water that is based on a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation, the Department shall send a copy of the notice to the Arizona Department of Water Resources, the applicable county, and municipality where the CAP will be implemented, and water service providers and persons having water rights that may be impacted by the release. The notice shall also be sent to any persons submitting written or oral comments on the proposed CAP. The notice shall include any conditions upon which the approval is based and an explanation of the process for resolving disagreements over the determination under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1091.

2. If the conditions of subsections (G)(1) or (2) are not satisfied, the Department shall disapprove the CAP and notify the owner or operator in writing of the disapproval. The Department shall send the notice to any persons submitting written or oral comments on the proposed CAP. The notice shall include an explanation of the rationale for the disapproval and an explanation of the process for resolving disagreements under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1091.

I. CAP implementation. If the CAP is approved, the owner or operator shall begin implementation in accordance with the approved schedule.

J. CAP termination. The Department may terminate an implemented CAP, and may require a new CAP if the corrective action standards of the approved CAP are not being achieved. The Department shall provide notice to the owner or operator and the public under R18-12-264.01 if termination of the CAP is being considered.

K. Revisions to an approved CAP. The Department may approve revisions to an approved CAP without additional public notice unless the revision involves alternative remediation methodologies, or may adversely affect public health or the environment.

L. New CAP. The Department shall require a new CAP under R18-12-263(C) or (D) if a revision involves an alternative remediation methodology or may adversely affect public health or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-263.03. LUST Case Closure

A. LUST case closure request. An owner or operator requesting LUST case closure by the Department shall do so in writing, and submit a corrective action completion report that meets the requirements of this Section. The owner or operator shall submit the request for LUST case closure only after the site investigation requirements in R18-12-261 and R18-12-262, and any remedial response required by R18-12-263 are satisfied.

B. Verification that corrective action standard is met. The owner or operator shall verify that the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern in each contaminated medium is met, and provide documentation of the verification described in subsection (D).

C. Method of water quality verification. If LUST site investigations indicate that water quality was threatened or impacted, the owner or operator shall use an appropriate method of water quality verification. The owner or operator shall provide documentation that contaminant concentrations are at or below the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern in the contaminated groundwater and surface water. In selecting a method of water quality verification, the owner or operator shall consider:

1. Site-specific hydrologic conditions;

2. The full extent of water contamination, as documented in the site characterization report required by R18-12-262; and

3. The existence and location of known receptors that are or may be impacted by the release.

D. Contents of corrective action completion report. The owner or operator shall include the following information in the corrective action completion report, except that identical information previously submitted to the Department is not required to be resubmitted if the name, date, and applicable page(s) of any previous report containing the information required by this subsection is provided:

1. A description of the vertical and lateral extent of contamination;

2. A statement of the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern in each contaminated medium and the evaluation described in R18-12-263.01(B) for each tier evaluated;

3. A list of remediation technologies used to reach the corrective action standard;

4. Documentation verifying that the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern, in each medium of concern, has been met. Verification is not required if an initial investigation regarding soil, surface water, or groundwater described in R18-12-262 demonstrates the corrective action standard for each chemical of concern in each medium of concern has been met;

5. All sample collection locations shall be shown for both the site investigation described in R18-12-262 and the LUST case closure verification described in this Section;

6. Verification that Arizona Department of Water Resources permitted monitor wells, recovery wells, or vapor extraction wells that are abandoned before submission of the LUST case closure request, have been abandoned as required under A.A.C. R12-15-816 and that recovery wells or vapor extraction wells without Arizona Department of Water Resources permits have been abandoned in a manner that ensures that the well will not provide a pathway for contaminant migration;

7. Documentation showing compliance with the requirements for the storage, treatment, or disposal of any derived waste in R18-12-263(F);

8. Documentation showing any institutional or engineering controls that have been implemented, and any legal mechanisms that have been put in place to ensure that the institutional or engineering controls will be maintained;

9. The current LUST site classification form in R18-12-261.01(E); and

10. Any additional information the owner or operator determines is necessary to verify that the LUST case is eligible for closure under this Section.

E. Conditions for approval of LUST case closure. The Department shall inform the owner or operator that a corrective action completion report is approved if it meets the requirements of this Section and A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005, and contains all of the information in subsection (D), or the Department determines that it has enough information to make an informed decision to approve the report and close the LUST case file.

F. Notice of LUST case closure decision. The Department shall provide written notice to the owner or operator that the corrective action completion report either does or does not comply with the requirements of this Section, and that case closure is approved or denied. LUST case closure occurs as follows:

1. If the Department determines that the conditions in subsection (E) are satisfied, the Department shall approve the report, close the LUST case, and notify the owner or operator. The notification shall include any conditions upon which the approval is based and explain the process for resolving disagreements provided by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1091; or

2. If the Department determines that the conditions in subsection (E) are not satisfied, the Department shall disapprove the report and notify the owner or operator. The notification shall include any conditions upon which the disapproval is based and explain the process for resolving disagreements under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1091.

G. Change in foreseeable or most beneficial use of water. If the Department is notified of a change in the foreseeable or most beneficial use of water, documented under a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation, the Department shall reopen the LUST case file and require the owner or operator to perform additional corrective actions as necessary to meet the requirements of R18-12-261 through R18-12-264.01.

H. Subsequent discovery of contamination. If evidence of previously undocumented contamination is discovered at or emanating from the LUST site, the Department may reopen the LUST case file based on an assessment of site specific information and require an owner or operator to perform additional corrective actions necessary to comply with the requirements of R18-12-261 through R18-12-264.01.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.264" level="4" title="General Reporting Requirements">

General Reporting Requirements

A. Standard first page. An owner or operator making a written submission to the Department under R18-12-251 through R18-12-263.03 shall prepare a cover page, on a Department provided form, that contains the following:

1. The name, address, and daytime telephone number of the person responsible for submitting the document, identified as owner, operator, a political subdivision under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(H), a person under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(I), or other person notifying the Department of a release or suspected release or conducting corrective actions under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1016(C)(2) or (4), and any identifying number assigned to the person by the Department;

2. Identification of the type of document or request being submitted;

3. The LUST number assigned by the Department to the release that is the subject of the document. If no LUST number is assigned, the date the release or suspected release was reported to the Department;

4. The name and address of the facility, and the facility identification number;

5. The name, address, daytime telephone number, and any identification number assigned by the Department of the owner and operator and the owner of the property that contains LUST; and

6. A certification statement signed by the owner or operator or the person conducting the corrective actions under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1016(C) that reads: "I hereby certify, under penalty of law, that this submittal and all attachments are, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of a fine and imprisonment for knowing violations."

B. Professional registration requirements. Both the professional submitting a written report to the Department under R18-12-260 through R18-12-263.03 and the report shall meet the requirements of the Arizona Board of Technical Registrations under A.R.S. Title 32, Chapter 1 and the rules made under that Chapter.

C. Certified remediation specialist. If the contaminated medium is limited to soil and involves only a Tier 1 or Tier 2 evaluation, an owner or operator may request that the Department accept, without review for completeness or deficiencies, a site characterization report described in R18-12-262(D) or corrective action completion report described in R18-12-263.03(D), signed by a certified remediation specialist meeting the requirements of (B). The Department may audit up to 25% of the documents submitted annually under this subsection. The Department shall select documents to be audited at random, unless the Department receives a written request to review a specific document. The Department shall review the audited document to determine whether it complies with R18-12-262 or R18-12-263.03. The Department shall approve the document based solely on the seal and signature of the certified remediation specialist, if the following certification is signed and notarized by both the certified remediation specialist and the owner or operator. The language of the certification shall be as follows:

"I hereby certify that I have reviewed the attached report on the underground storage tank (UST) release(s) reported to the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality and have determined that all requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 and the rules made under that Section have been met. I request approval of this report as submitted. I agree to indemnify and hold harmless the state of Arizona, the Department of Environmental Quality, and their officers, directors, agents or employees from and against all claims, damages, losses, attorneys' fees, and expenses, arising out of Departmental acceptance of this report based solely on my signature and seal as a certified remediation specialist, including, but not limited to, bodily injury, sickness, disease or injury to or destruction of tangible property, including any loss of use therefrom caused in whole or in part by any negligent act or omission of mine as a certified remediation specialist, any subcontractor, anyone directly or indirectly employed by me or any subcontractor, or anyone for whose acts I or any subcontractor may be liable, regardless of whether or not caused in part by a party indemnified by this certification."

D. Department approval and liability waiver. The owner or operator shall be notified by the Department that the acceptance of a document complying with subsection (C) is based solely on the notarized statement of the certified remediation specialist, without Department review, and that no liability, associated with the acceptance, accrues to the state.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

R18-12-264.01. Public Participation

A. Public notice. If public notice is required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005, or rules made under that Section, the Department shall provide a minimum of 30 calendar days notice to the public regarding a public comment period. The Department shall use methods of public notice designed to reach those members of the public directly affected by the release and the planned corrective actions including, but not limited to, publication in a newspaper of general circulation, posting at the facility, mailing a notice to owners of property affected or potentially affected by contamination from the release and corrective actions, or posting on the Department's internet site. If a CAP includes a corrective action standard for water based on a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation, the Department shall send a copy of the notice to the Arizona Department of Water Resources, the applicable county and any municipality where the CAP will be implemented, water service providers and persons having water rights that may be impacted by the release.

B. Public notice contents. The Department shall provide notice to the public that includes all of the following:

1. Identifies the name of the document submitted to the Department that is available for public comment;

2. Identifies the facility where the release occurred and the site of the proposed corrective actions.

3. Identifies the date the document was submitted to the Department, and name of person who submitted the document;

4. Provides a specific explanation if a corrective action standard for water is based on a Tier 2 or Tier 3 evaluation;

5. Identifies at least two locations where a copy of the document can be viewed by the public, including the Department's Phoenix office and the public library located nearest to the LUST site;

6. Explains that any comments on the document shall be sent to the Underground Storage Tank Program of the Department within the time-frame specified in the notice; and

7. Describes the public meeting provisions of subsection (C).

C. Public meeting. After consideration of the amount of public interest, and before approving a document requiring public participation, the Department may hold a public meeting to receive comments on a document undergoing public review. If the Department holds a public meeting, the Department shall schedule the meeting and notify the public, in accordance with subsection (A), of the meeting time and location.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.265" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.266" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.267" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.268" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

R18-12-269. Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.270" level="4" title="Temporary Closure">

Temporary Closure

A. Owners shall notify the Department in accordance with R18-12-222(F)(4) within 30 days of the date that an UST system is temporarily closed.

B. Owners and operators of a temporarily closed UST system shall continue operation and maintenance of corrosion protection in accordance with R18-12-231, and release detection in accordance with R18-12-240 through R18-12-245. Discovery of a release or suspected release shall be subject to the provisions of R18-12-274. Release detection is not required if the temporarily closed UST system is emptied of all regulated substances and accumulated residues. The UST system is empty when all contents have been removed from the system so that no more than 2.5 centimeters (1 inch) of residue or 0.3% by weight of the total capacity of the UST system remain in the system. Spill and overfill requirements in accordance with R18-12-220(D), R18-12-221(E) and R18-12-230 do not have to be met during temporary closure.

C. Owners and operators of any UST system which is temporarily closed for three months or more shall also comply with both of the following requirements before the end of the third month following the date on which the UST system began temporary closure:

1. Vent lines left open and functioning;

2. All other lines, pumps, manways, and ancillary equipment capped and secured in accordance with R18-12-281(P)(1).

D. To bring an UST system back into use, owners shall notify the Department in accordance with R18-12-222(F)(5) within 30 days after the date that the UST system is brought back into use.

E. Any temporarily closed UST system that cannot be brought back into service within 12 months from the date it went into temporary closure, shall comply with one of the following before the expiration of the 12-month period:

1. Permanently close the system in accordance with R18-12-271 through R18-12-274,

2. Obtain an extension of temporary closure from the Department in accordance with subsection (G). To be effective, such an extension shall be granted in writing by the Department prior to expiration of the initial 12-month period of temporary closure.

F. A request for an extension shall be made by the owner using the Notification Form as described in R18-12-222(C)(3). The request shall include the results of a site assessment conducted in accordance with R18-12-272. A site assessment is not required if the UST system meets the new system standards of R18-12-220 or the upgrade standards of R18-12-221 provided both of the following are met:

1. The system has had corrosion protection installed in accordance with R18-12-220(B) and (C) or R18-12-221(B) and (C) which has been maintained in accordance with R18-12-231,

2. The system has had an external leak detection system installed in accordance with R18-12-243(E) or R18-12-243(F) which has been maintained in accordance with R18-12-240.

G. Owners requesting an extension of temporary closure shall submit the request in accordance with subsection (F) no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the 12-month period of temporary closure. The Department shall inform the owner, in writing by certified mail, if the extension request is granted or denied. The UST shall be considered to be in extended temporary closure until the Department's determination is made and the owner is informed in writing. An extension of temporary closure which is granted by the Department shall include the duration and the terms and conditions of the extension. Terms and conditions shall be based upon the Department's assessment of what is reasonably necessary to protect human health and the environment. When the request for extension is denied, the UST system shall complete permanent closure in accordance with R18-12-271 through R18-12-274 or return to active service within 180 days of the date on which the Department informed the owner of the denial of the extension request, as evidenced by the return receipt. In the event of a denial of a request for an extension, the UST shall be considered to be in extended temporary closure until the 180 day period following notice of the denial has elapsed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.271" level="4" title="Permanent Closure and Change-in-service">

Permanent Closure and Change-in-service

A. At least 30 days before beginning permanent closure or a change-in-service under subsection (C), owners and operators shall inform the Department in writing of their intent to permanently close or make a change-in-service of an UST. If closure or change-in-service is not completed within six months from the date the Department is informed, the information is deemed to be expired. Owners and operators shall provide the Department with all of the following information:

1. UST system owner name, address, and telephone number;

2. Facility name or company site identifier;

3. Facility street address;

4. Description of each UST system to be closed, including date of installation, total capacity, and construction material;

5. The estimated date of permanent closure or change-in-service.

B. The Department shall waive the 30-day notice described in subsection (A) if the permanent closure is in response to a corrective action conducted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 which was reported under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004. In addition, the Department may determine another reasonable time period for the notice of intent to permanently close or make a change-in-service to the UST system if any of the following exist:

1. An emergency that threatens human health or the environment,

2. The Department agrees to a request made by an entity operating under an Intergovernmental Agreement with the Department delegating closure inspection authority.

C. To permanently close or make a change-in-service to an UST system, owners and operators shall comply with R18-12-281(P) and shall perform all of the following steps:

1. Develop documented evidence that the contents of the system are a regulated substance. Unless system contents can be documented through delivery receipts or knowledge of process, a waste determination in accordance with R18-8-261(A) shall be performed. If contents are not a regulated substance, they may be subject to hazardous, solid or special waste regulations as follows:

a. If the contents of an UST system are determined to meet the definition of a hazardous waste based upon a waste determination, the contents may be subject to the requirements of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-901 et seq. and the rules promulgated thereunder;

b. If the contents of an UST system are not a regulated substance and not a hazardous waste, the contents may be subject to the requirements of R18-8-511 and R18-8-512.

2. Drain and flush back into the tank regulated substances from piping and any other ancillary equipment that routinely contains regulated substances. All piping, dispensers, and other ancillary equipment to be closed shall be capped or removed;

3. Empty to the standard set forth in R18-12-270(B) and clean the UST by removing all liquids and accumulated residues. The liquids and accumulated residues which meet the definition of hazardous waste pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-921(5) may be subject to regulation under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-901 et seq. If the liquids and accumulated residues are not hazardous waste, they may be subject to regulation pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-701 et seq;

4. Remove from the ground or fill completely with inert solid materials all tanks permanently taken out-of-operation unless the UST system component is making a change-in-service;

5. Perform the site assessment at closure or change-in-service in accordance with R18-12-272. The site assessment shall be performed after informing the Department but prior to completion of the permanent closure or change-in-service. If the tank is removed, samples shall be taken at the time of removal.

D. Owners and operators who permanently close or make a change-in-service of an UST system shall prepare a closure report in a format provided by the Department. The closure report shall be submitted to the Department within 30 days of the completion of closure or change-in-service. The report shall be maintained by the Department for at least three years from the date of receipt as evidenced by the post mark or the date stamped on the document by the Department. The report shall demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this Section and R18-12-272. In addition, the report shall include all of the following:

1. The name of the facility owner and operator, facility name and address, facility identification number, and a certification statement signed by the UST owner or operator or the authorized agent of the owner or operator that reads: "I hereby certify, under penalty of law, that this submittal and all attachments were prepared under my direction and supervision, and that the information submitted is true, accurate, and complete to the best of my knowledge."

2. Information concerning the required soil sampling, conducted in accordance with R18-12-272, which shall include the rationale for selecting sample types, sample locations, and measurement methods and, for each sample, all of the following: sample location identification number; sample depth; sampling date; date of laboratory analysis; lithology of sample; field soil vapor readings, if obtained; analytical methods used; laboratory results; numerical detection limits; and all sampling quality assurance and quality control results;

3. Information concerning the required water sampling, conducted in accordance with R18-12-280, which shall include, for each sample, all of the following: sample location identification number; sampling date; date of laboratory analysis; laboratory results; analytical methods used; numerical detection limits; and all sampling quality assurance and quality control results;

4. Copies of all original laboratory reports and chain-of-custody forms, and any supporting laboratory documents which discuss any analytical quality assurance and quality control anomalies experienced by the laboratory. The laboratory reports shall include, for each sample, all of the following: analytical methods; sample collection date; extraction date; sample analysis date; laboratory detection limits; and all analytical quality assurance and quality control analyses conducted by the laboratory for or during the analyses of the subject samples;

5. A brief, site-specific narrative description of the sampling quality assurance and quality control program followed in the field in accordance with R18-12-280(B). Any sampling quality assurance and quality control anomalies shall be discussed in detail. The report shall include a determination as to the validity of the data from a scientific standpoint;

6. A scaled map showing the locations of the tank, piping, and dispensers and the locations of all samples obtained in accordance with R18-12-272.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.272" level="4" title="Assessing the UST Site at Closure or Change-in-service">

Assessing the UST Site at Closure or Change-in-service

A. Before permanent closure or a change-in-service is completed, owners and operators shall measure for the presence of a release at the UST site by taking samples for laboratory analysis. Samples shall be obtained in the areas where contamination would most likely occur, or where stained soils, odors, vapors, free product, or other evidence indicates that a release may have occurred. Measurement for presence of a release shall be performed according to all of the following:

1. Owners and operators shall document the environmental condition of the UST site and the presence or absence of any contamination resulting from the operation of the UST system at the site through analyses performed on samples of native soil, and of water encountered during the UST closure assessment;

2. Specific locations for the required sampling at the UST system site shall be determined by the presence of stained soils, odors, vapors, free product, or other evidence indicating that a release may have occurred. In selecting sample types, sample locations, and measurement methods, owners and operators shall also consider the method of closure, the nature of the stored substance, the type of backfill, the depth to groundwater, and other factors which may identify the presence of a release. At a minimum, each site shall be sampled in accordance with the following:

a. If water is not present in the excavation at the time an UST is removed or if the UST is filled with a solid inert material as described in R18-12-271(C)(4), a minimum of two distinct soil samples shall be taken from native soils beneath each tank that has a capacity to hold more than 550 gallons. The samples shall be taken from beneath each end of each tank. In cases where the fill pipe or pump is located above the center of the tank, an additional sample shall be taken from beneath the center of the tank. If the capacity of the tank is 550 gallons or less, then one sample shall be taken from native soils beneath the center of the tank;

b. If water is present above the floor of the excavation at the time an UST is removed, distinct samples of native soils shall be taken from the walls of the excavation at the soil-water interface at both ends of the tank;

c. If native soil cannot be collected in accordance with R18-12-280 due to large clast size or induration, or if the excavation zone is constructed in bedrock one of the following shall be performed:

i. Samples of the UST excavation backfill material shall be collected from beneath the UST system in accordance with locations described in subsection (A)(2)(a).

ii. If the UST excavation backfill material cannot be sampled, the Department shall be contacted for further instruction.

d. If water is encountered during activities required under this Section, a sample of the water shall be collected for analysis. If a sheen or free product is observed on the water or in the sample, the sampling requirements of subsection (A)(2) do not have to be met, however, further reporting and investigation shall be conducted in accordance with R18-12-274;

e. If piping is permanently closed in accordance with R18-12-271(C)(2) distinct samples of native soil shall be collected every 20 linear feet along the piping trench. In addition, distinct samples of native soil shall be collected under elbows, joints, fittings, dispensers and areas of corrosion;

f. Stockpiled excavated soil shall be sampled in accordance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 4, Article 9, and the rules promulgated thereunder.

3. All required sampling shall be performed in accordance with R18-12-280.

B. The requirements of this Section are satisfied if owners and operators document all of the following:

1. The UST system is monitored by one of the external release detection methods described in R18-12-243(E) or (F),

2. The release detection system has been operated in accordance with the requirements of R18-12-240,

3. The release detection system indicates no releases have occurred.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.273" level="4" title="Application of Closure Requirements to Previously Closed Systems">

Application of Closure Requirements to Previously Closed Systems

When directed to do so by the Department, owners and operators of an UST system which was permanently closed before December 22, 1988, shall assess the excavation zone and close the UST system in accordance with R18-12-271, R18-12-272, and R18-12-274 if known, suspected, or potential releases from the UST system, in the judgment of the Department, may pose a current or potential threat to human health or the environment.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.274" level="4" title="Release Reporting and Corrective Action for Closed Systems">

Release Reporting and Corrective Action for Closed Systems

If a release or suspected release is discovered during temporary closure under R18-12-270 or in the performance of the procedures described in R18-12-272(A), owners and operators shall report the release and perform corrective action as required under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1004 and 49-1005 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.275" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.276" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.277" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.278" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.279" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.280" level="4" title="Sampling Requirements">

Sampling Requirements

A. Required analytical procedures. For all sampling under this Chapter, an owner or operator shall:

1. Analyze samples for the chemicals of concern associated with regulated substances stored in the UST during its operational life by analytical test methods that are approved for analysis of each chemical of concern under A.A.C. R9-14-601 through R9-14-617. Before collecting samples, the Department may approve, a different procedure after considering whether the analytical data will be representative of the concentrations and compositions of volatile regulated substances existing in the contaminated medium;

2. Perform sample analyses using a laboratory licensed for the selected analytical method by the Arizona Department of Health Services under A.A.C. R9-14-601 through A.A.C. R9-14-617; and

3. Analyze samples within the specified time period required for the analytical test method under A.A.C. R9-14-601 through A.A.C. R9-14-617.

B. Quality assurance and quality control (QA/QC). For all required sampling under this Chapter, an owner or operator shall:

1. Decontaminate sampling equipment as provided in R18-12-281(Q);

2. Handle and transport samples using a methodology that will result in analytical data that is representative of the concentrations and compositions of the chemicals of concern that may exist in the contaminated medium;

3. Follow chain-of-custody procedures under R18-12-281(S), for all required sampling, including the condition and temperature of the samples received by the laboratory on the chain-of-custody record; and

4. Follow generally accepted industry standards. For the purpose of subsection (B), "generally accepted industry standards" means those QA/QC procedures that are described in publications of national organizations concerned with corrective actions or that otherwise appear in peer-reviewed literature.

C. Soil sampling. An owner or operator shall perform all soil sampling required under this Chapter using a methodology that will result in analytical data that is representative of the concentrations and compositions of the chemicals of concern that may exist in the contaminated soil. The owner or operator shall use a sampling method that is based on consideration of all of the following criteria:

1. The specific chemicals of concern potentially involved,

2. Site-specific lithologic conditions,

3. Depth of sample collection, and

4. Generally accepted industry standards. For the purpose of subsection (C), "generally accepted industry standards" means those soil sampling activities that are described in publications of national organizations concerned with corrective actions or that otherwise appear in peer-reviewed literature.

D. Groundwater sampling. An owner or operator shall perform all required groundwater sampling under this Chapter using a methodology that will result in analytical data that is representative of the concentrations and compositions of the chemicals of concern that may exist in the groundwater. The owner or operator shall use a sampling method that is based on consideration of all of the following criteria:

1. The specific chemicals of concern potentially involved,

2. Site-specific hydrologic conditions,

3. Site-specific monitor well construction details,

4. Depth of sample collection, and

5. Generally accepted industry standards. For the purpose of subsection (D), "generally accepted industry standards" means those groundwater sampling activities that are described in publications of national organizations concerned with corrective actions or that otherwise appear in peer-reviewed literature.

E. Surface water sampling. An owner or operator shall perform all required surface water sampling under this Chapter using a methodology that will result in analytical data that is representative of the concentrations and compositions of the chemicals of concern that may exist in the surface water. The owner or operator shall use a sampling method that is based on consideration of all of the following:

1. The specific chemicals of concern involved or potentially involved,

2. Site-specific hydrologic conditions, and

3. Generally accepted industry standards. For the purpose of subsection (E), "generally accepted industry standards" means those surface water sampling activities that are described in publications of national organizations concerned with corrective actions or that otherwise appear in peer-reviewed literature.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3894, effective August 20, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.281" level="4" title="UST System Codes of Practice and Performance Standards">

UST System Codes of Practice and Performance Standards

A. Compliance with R18-12-211(B) shall be determined by utilization of The National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0285-85, "Standard Recommended Practice Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems" amended as of 1985 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. Compliance with R18-12-220(B)(1) shall be determined by utilization of one of the following:

1. Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1316, "Standard for Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Plastic Underground Storage Tanks for Petroleum Products" July 1983, and amended May 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada CAN4-S615-M83, "Standard for Reinforced Plastic Underground Tanks for Petroleum Products" February 1983 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D 4021-86, "Standard Specification for Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Polyester Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks" amended July 25, 1986 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. Compliance with R18-12-220(B)(2) shall be determined by utilization of one of the following:

1. Steel Tank Institute, "Specification for STI-P3 System of External Corrosion Protection of Underground Steel Storage Tanks" amended as of November 1, 1989 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1746, "External Corrosion Protection Systems for Steel Underground Storage Tanks" amended November 7, 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada CAN/ULC-S603.1-92, "Standard for Galvanic Corrosion Protection Systems for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids" amended as of September 1992 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State and Underwriters Laboratories of Canada CAN4-S631-M84, "Standard for Isolating Bushings for Steel Underground Tanks Protected with Coatings and Galvanic Systems" amended as of October 1992 (and no future amendments or editions), which are incorporated by reference and are on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

4. National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0285-85, "Standard Recommended Practice Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems" and Underwriters Laboratories Standard 58, "Standard for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids" amended as of August 3, 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

D. Compliance with R18-12-220(B)(3) shall be determined by utilization of one of the following:

1. Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1746, "External Corrosion Protection Systems for Underground Storage Tanks" (November 7, 1990);

2. Steel Tank Institute ACT-100, "Specification for External Corrosion Protection of FRP Composite Steel Underground Storage Tanks" amended as of March 6, 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

E. Compliance with R18-12-220(C)(1) shall be determined by utilization of all of the following:

1. Underwriters Laboratories Subject 971, "Standard for NonMetallic Underground Piping for Flammable Liquids" March 17, 1992 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. Underwriters Laboratories Standard 567, "Pipe Connectors for Flammable and Combustible Liquids and LP Gas" amended as of May 29, 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada Subject C-107C-M1984, "Guide for Glass Fibre Reinforced Plastic Pipe and Fittings for Flammable Liquids" June 1984 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

4. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada Standard CAN/ULC-S633-M90, "Standard for Flexible Underground Hose Connectors for Flammable and Combustible Liquids" amended as of June 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

F. Compliance with R18-12-220(C)(2) shall be determined by utilization of all of the following:

1. National Fire Protection Association Standard 30, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code" amended as of August 17, 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1615, "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems" amended as of November 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems" amended as of December 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

4. National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0169-92, "Standard Recommended Practice Control of External Corrosion on Underground or Submerged Metallic Piping Systems" 1983, amended as of 1992 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

G. Compliance with R18-12-220(C)(3)(b) shall be determined by utilization of both of the following:

1. National Fire Protection Association Standard 30, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code" (August 17, 1990);

2. National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0169-92, "Control of External Corrosion on Submerged Metallic Piping Systems" (1992).

H. Compliance with R18-12-220(E)(2) shall be determined by utilization of one of the following:

1. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1615, "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems" November 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989;

2. Petroleum Equipment Institute Publication PEI/RP100-90, "Recommended Practices for Installation of Underground Liquid Storage Systems" amended as of 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. American National Standards Institute Standard B31.3, "Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery Piping" amended as of 1993 with Addenda (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State, and American National Standards Institute Standard B31.4, "Liquid Transportation Systems for Hydrocarbons, Liquid Petroleum Gas, Anhydrous Ammonia, and Alcohols" 1992 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

I. Compliance with R18-12-221(D) shall be determined by utilization of all of the following:

1. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1631, "Interior Lining of Underground Storage Tanks" amended as of April 1992, October 1995 addendum (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. National Leak Prevention Association Standard 631, "Spill Prevention, Minimum 10-year Life Extension of Existing Steel Underground Storage Tanks By Lining Without the Addition of Cathodic Protection" amended as of September 1988 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0285-85, "Standard Recommended Practice Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems" (1985).

4. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping System" (December 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989).

J. Compliance with R18-12-230(A) shall be determined by utilization of one of the following:

1. National Fire Protection Association Publication 385, "Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids" amended as of 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1621, "Bulk Liquid Stock Control At Retail Outlets" December 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State, and National Fire Protection Association Standard 30, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code" (August 17, 1990).

K. Compliance with R18-12-231(B)(2) shall be determined by utilization of National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard RP0285-85, "Standard Recommended Practice Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems" (1985).

L. Compliance with R18-12-232 shall be determined by utilization of both of the following:

1. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1626, "Storing and Handling Ethanol and Gasoline-Ethanol Blends at Distribution Terminals and Service Stations" April 1985 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1627, "Storage and Handling of Gasoline-Methanol/Cosolvent Blends at Distribution Terminals and Service Stations" August 1986 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

M. Compliance with R18-12-233(A)(1) shall be determined by utilization of all of the following:

1. National Fire Protection Association Standard 30, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code" (August 17, 1990);

2. American Petroleum Institute Publication 2200, "Repairing Crude Oil, Liquefied Petroleum Gas, and Product Pipelines" amended as of April 1983 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1631, "Interior Lining of Underground Storage Tanks" (December 1987);

4. National Leak Prevention Association Standard 631, "Spill Prevention, Minimum 10-year Life Extension of Existing Underground Storage Tanks By Lining Without the Addition of Cathodic Protection" (September 1988).

N. Compliance with R18-12-233(A)(2) shall be determined by utilization of Fiberglass Petroleum Tank &amp; Piping Institute T-90-01 "Remanufacturing of Fiberglass Reinforced Plastic (RFP) Underground Storage Tanks" July 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

O. Compliance with R18-12-243(A) shall be determined by utilization of American Petroleum Institute Publication 1621, "Bulk Liquid Stock Control At Retail Outlets" (December 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989).

P. Compliance with R18-12-271(C) shall be determined by utilization of all of the following:

1. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1604, "Removal and Disposal of Used Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks" amended as of December 1987, Supplement March 6, 1989 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. American Petroleum Institute Publication 2015, "Safe Entry and Cleaning Petroleum Storage Tanks" amended as of January 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1631, "Interior Lining of Underground Storage Tanks" (April 1992).

4. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health Publication 80-106, "Criteria for a Recommended Standard Working in Confined Spaces" amended as of December 1979 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Q. Compliance with R18-12-280(B)(1) shall be determined by utilization of American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D 5088-90, "Practice for Decontamination of Field Equipment Used at Nonradioactive Waste Sites" revised as of June 29, 1990 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

R. Compliance with R18-12-280(B)(2) and (C) shall be determined by utilization of both of the following:

1. American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D 4547-91: "Standard Practice for Sampling Waste and Soils for Volatile Organics" revised as of August 15, 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D 4700-91, "Standard Guide for Soil Sampling from the Vadose Zone" revised as of July 15, 1991 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

S. Compliance with R18-12-280(B)(3) shall be determined by utilization of American Society for Testing and Materials Standard D 4840-88, "Standard Practice for Sampling Chain of Custody Procedures" approved June 1988 and published in October 1988, re-approved as of 1993 (and no future amendments or editions), which is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY">

FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY

<regElement name="R18.12.300" level="4" title="Financial Responsibility; Applicability">

Financial Responsibility; Applicability

A. R18-12-301 through R18-12-325 apply to all owners and operators of petroleum UST systems, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

B. Owners and operators of a petroleum UST system are subject to the requirements of R18-12-301 through R18-12-325 if the petroleum UST system is being used on the effective date of this Section, or anytime thereafter.

C. State and federal government entities whose debts and liabilities are the debts and liabilities of a state or the United States are exempt from the requirements of this Article.

D. R18-12-303 through R18-12-325 do not apply to owners and operators of any UST system excluded or deferred under 40 CFR 280.10(b) or 40 CFR 280.10(c) as described in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1021. 40 CFR 280.10(b) and 40 CFR 280.10(c), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

E. If owners and operators of a petroleum underground storage tank are separate persons, only one person is required to demonstrate financial responsibility; however, both parties are liable in event of noncompliance. Regardless of which party complies, the date set for compliance at a particular facility is determined by the characteristics of the owner as set forth in R18-12-301.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.301" level="4" title="Financial Responsibility; Compliance Dates; Allowable Mechanisms; Evidence">

Financial Responsibility; Compliance Dates; Allowable Mechanisms; Evidence

A. Owners and operators shall submit to the Department evidence of all financial assurance mechanisms used to demonstrate financial responsibility under this Article for an underground storage tank as follows:

1. All petroleum marketing firms owning 1,000 or more USTs and all other UST owners that report a tangible net worth of $20 million or more to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), Dun and Bradstreet, the Energy Information Administration, or the Rural Electrification Administration: within 180 days after the effective date of this Section;

2. All petroleum marketing firms owning 100-999 USTs: within 180 days after the effective date of this Section;

3. All petroleum marketing firms owning a total of 13-99 USTs which are located at more than one facility: within 180 days after the effective date of this Section;

4. All petroleum UST owners not described in subsections (A)(1) through (3), excluding all local government entities: by December 31, 1993;

5. All local government entities: one year from the date of final federal promulgation of additional mechanisms for use by local government entities to comply with financial responsibility requirements for underground storage tanks containing petroleum.

B. Owners and operators shall use the financial assurance mechanisms in this Article to comply with financial responsibility requirements as follows:

1. Owners and operators, including local government owners and operators, may use any one or combination of the financial assurance mechanisms listed in R18-12-305 through R18-12-312 to demonstrate financial responsibility under this Article for one or more underground storage tanks;

2. Local government owners and operators may also use any one or combination of the financial assurance mechanisms listed in R18-12-314 through R18-12-317 to demonstrate financial responsibility under this Article for one or more underground storage tanks.

C. Owners and operators shall submit evidence of compliance with the requirements of this Article. Owners and operators shall submit to, and maintain with, the Department a copy of any one or combination of the assurance mechanisms specified in R18-12-305 through R18-12-312, and R18-12-314 through R18-12-317 currently in effect along with a copy of the standby trust agreement, if required. Owners and operators using an assurance mechanism specified in R18-12-305 through R18-12-312 and R18-12-314 through R18-12-317 shall submit to, and maintain with, the Department an updated copy of a certification of financial responsibility worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.111(b)(11)(i), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.111(b)(11)(i), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. In addition, local government owners and operators shall comply with one or more of the following:

1. Local government owners and operators using the local government bond rating test under R18-12-314 shall submit a copy of its bond rating published within the last 12 months by Moody's or Standard &amp; Poor's;

2. Local government owners and operators using the local government guarantee under R18-12-316, if the guarantor's demonstration of financial responsibility relies on the bond rating test under R18-12-314 shall submit a copy of the guarantor's bond rating published within the last 12 months by Moody's or Standard &amp; Poor's;

3. Local government owners and operators using a local government fund under R18-12-317 shall submit the following documents:

a. A copy of the state constitutional provision or local government statute, charter, ordinance, or order dedicating the fund;

b. Year-end financial statements for the most recent completed financial reporting year showing the amount in the fund. If the fund is established under R18-12-317(A)(3) using incremental funding backed by bonding authority, the financial statements shall show the previous year's balance, the amount of funding during the year, and the closing balance in the fund;

c. If the fund is established under R18-12-317(A)(3) using incremental funding backed by bonding authority, owners and operators shall also submit documentation of the required bonding authority, including either the results of a voter referendum under R18-12-317(A)(3)(a), or attestation by the state attorney general as specified under R18-12-317(A)(3)(b).

4. Local government owners and operators using the local government guarantee supported by the local government fund shall submit a copy of the guarantor's year-end financial statements for the most recent completed financial reporting year showing the amount of the fund.

D. Owners and operators shall maintain evidence of all financial assurance mechanisms used to demonstrate financial responsibility under this Article for an underground storage tank until released from the requirements of this Article under R18-12-323. Owners and operators shall maintain such evidence at the underground storage tank site or a readily available alternative site. Records maintained off-site shall be provided for inspection to the Department upon request.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.302" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.303" level="4" title="Amount and Scope of Required Financial Responsibility">

Amount and Scope of Required Financial Responsibility

A. Owners and operators of petroleum USTs shall demonstrate financial responsibility for taking corrective action and for compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of petroleum USTs in at least the following per-occurrence amounts:

1. For owners and operators of petroleum USTs that are located at petroleum marketing facilities, or that handle an average of more than 10,000 gallons of petroleum per month based on annual throughput for the previous calendar year: $1 million;

2. For owners and operators of petroleum USTs not described in subsection (A)(1): $500,000.

B. Owners and operators of petroleum USTs shall demonstrate financial responsibility for taking corrective action and for compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of a petroleum UST in at least the following annual aggregate amounts:

1. For owners and operators of 1 to 100 petroleum USTs: $l million,

2. For owners and operators of 101 or more petroleum USTs: $2 million.

C. For the purposes of subsections (B) and (G) only, "a petroleum underground storage tank" means a single containment unit and does not mean combinations of single containment units.

D. Except as provided in subsection (E), if owners and operators use separate mechanisms or combinations of separate mechanisms to demonstrate financial responsibility for taking corrective action, compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by sudden accidental releases, or compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by nonsudden accidental releases, the amount of assurance provided by each mechanism or combination of mechanisms shall be in the full amount specified in subsections (A) and (B).

E. If owners and operators use separate mechanisms or combinations of separate mechanisms to demonstrate financial responsibility for different petroleum USTs, the annual aggregate required shall be based on the number of tanks covered by each such separate mechanism or combination of mechanisms.

F. If owners and operators utilize one mechanism, separate mechanisms, or combinations of separate mechanisms to demonstrate financial responsibility for petroleum USTs in more than one state or territory, with more than one implementing agency, the identification of systems covered by each mechanism shall include the implementing agency for each facility or group of facilities. All facilities subject to the requirements of this rule shall also be identified by the UST facility identification number assigned by the Department.

G. Owners and operators shall review the amount of aggregate assurance provided whenever additional petroleum USTs are acquired or installed. If the number of petroleum underground storage tanks for which assurance shall be provided exceeds 100, owners and operators shall demonstrate financial responsibility in the amount of at least $2 million of annual aggregate assurance by the anniversary of the date on which the mechanism demonstrating financial responsibility became effective. If assurance is being demonstrated by a combination of mechanisms, owners and operators shall demonstrate financial responsibility in the amount of at least $2 million of annual aggregate assurance by the 1st-occurring effective date anniversary of any one of the mechanisms combined, other than a financial test or guarantee, to provide assurance.

H. The amounts of assurance required under this Section exclude legal defense costs.

I. The per-occurrence and annual aggregate coverage amounts required by this Section do not limit the liability of owners and operators.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.304" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.12.305" level="4" title="Financial Test of Self-insurance">

Financial Test of Self-insurance

A. Owners, operators, or guarantors may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by passing a financial test as specified in this Section. To pass the financial test of self-insurance, owners, operators, or guarantors shall meet the criteria of either subsection (B) or (C) based on year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.

B. In order to pass a financial test of self-insurance under this subsection, owners operators, or guarantors shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. Have a tangible net worth of at least 10 times all of the following:

a. The total of the applicable aggregate amount required by R18-12-303, based on the number of underground storage tanks for which a financial test of self-insurance is used to demonstrate financial responsibility;

b. The sum of the corrective action cost estimates, the current closure and post-closure care cost estimates, and amount of liability coverage for which a financial test of self-insurance is used to demonstrate financial responsibility under R18-8-264;

c. The sum of current plugging and abandonment cost estimates for which a financial test of self-insurance is used to demonstrate financial responsibility under 40 CFR 144.63. 40 CFR 144.63, amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

2. Have a tangible net worth of at least $10 million,

3. Have a letter signed by the chief financial officer worded as specified in subsection (D),

4. Do either one of the following:

a. File financial statements annually with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, the Energy Information Administration, or the Rural Electrification Administration.

b. Report annually the firm's tangible net worth to Dun and Bradstreet, and Dun and Bradstreet shall have assigned the firm a financial strength rating of 4A or 5A.

5. The firm's year-end financial statements, if independently audited, cannot include an adverse auditor's opinion, a disclaimer of opinion, or a "going concern" qualification.

C. In order to pass a financial test of self-insurance under this subsection, owners, operators, or guarantors shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. Owners, operators, or guarantors shall meet the financial test requirements of 40 CFR 264.147(f)(1), substituting the appropriate amount specified in either R18-12-303(B)(1) or (2) for the "amount of liability coverage" each time specified in that Section. 40 CFR 264.147(f)(1), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

2. The fiscal year-end financial statements of owners, operators, or guarantors shall be examined by an independent certified public accountant and be accompanied by the accountant's report of the examination;

3. The firm's year-end financial statements cannot include an adverse auditor's opinion, a disclaimer of opinion, or a "going concern" qualification;

4. Owners, operators, or guarantors shall have a letter signed by the chief financial officer, worded as specified in subsection (D);

5. If the financial statements of owners, operators, or guarantors are not submitted annually to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, the Energy Information Administration or the Rural Electrification Administration, owners, operators, or guarantors shall obtain a special report by an independent certified public accountant stating all of the following:

a. The accountant has compared the data that the letter from the chief financial officer specifies as having been derived from the latest year-end financial statements of owners, operators, or guarantors, with the amounts in such financial statements.

b. In connection with the comparison under subsection (C)(5)(a), no matters came to the accountant's attention which caused the accountant to believe that the specified data should be adjusted.

D. To demonstrate that it meets the financial test under subsection (B) or (C), the chief financial officer of owners, operators, or guarantors, shall sign, within 120 days of the close of each financial reporting year, as defined by the 12-month period for which financial statements used to support the financial test are prepared, a letter worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.95(d), except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.95(d), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

E. If owners and operators, using a financial test of self-insurance for financial responsibility find that they no longer meet the requirements of the financial test based on the year-end financial statements, owners and operators shall obtain alternative coverage within 150 days of the end of the financial reporting year for which financial statements have been prepared.

F. The Director may require reports of financial condition at any time from owners, operators, or guarantors. If the Director finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that owners, operators, or guarantors, no longer meet the financial test requirements, owners and operators shall obtain alternate coverage within 30 days after notification of such a finding.

G. If owners and operators fail to obtain alternate assurance within 150 days of finding that they no longer meet the requirements of the financial test based on the year-end financial statements, or within 30 days of notification by the Director that they no longer meet the requirements of the financial test, owners and operators shall notify the Director of such failure within 10 days.

H. Owners and operators may use self-insurance in combination with a guarantee only if, for the purpose of meeting the requirements of the financial test under this Section, the financial statements of the owner or operator are not consolidated with the financial statements of the guarantor.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.306" level="4" title="Guarantee">

Guarantee

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining a guarantee that conforms to the requirements. The guarantor shall be either one of the following:

1. A firm that meets any one of the following descriptions:

a. Possesses a controlling interest in the owner or operator,

b. Possesses a controlling interest in a firm described under subsection (A)(1)(a),

c. Is controlled through stock ownership by a common parent firm that possesses a controlling interest in the owner or operator.

2. A firm engaged in a substantial business relationship with the owner or operator and who issues the guarantee as an act incident to that business relationship.

B. Within 120 days of the close of each financial reporting year, the guarantor shall demonstrate that it meets the financial test criteria of R18-12-305 based on year-end financial statements for the latest completed financial reporting year by completing the letter from the chief financial officer described in R18-12-305(D) and shall deliver the letter to owners and operators. If the guarantor fails to meet the requirements of the financial test at the end of any financial reporting year, within 120 days of the end of that financial reporting year the guarantor shall send by certified mail, before cancellation or nonrenewal of the guarantee, notice to owners or operators. If the Director notifies the guarantor that the guarantor no longer meets the requirements of the financial test of R18-12-305(B) or (C) and (D), the guarantor shall notify owners and operators within 10 days of receiving such notification from the Director. In both cases, the guarantee terminates no less than 120 days after the date the owner and operator receives the notification, as evidenced by the return receipt. Owners and operators shall obtain alternate coverage as specified in R18-12-318.

C. The guarantee shall be worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.96(c), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.96(c), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

D. Owners and operators who use a guarantee to satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 shall establish a standby trust fund when the guarantee is obtained. Under the terms of the guarantee, all amounts paid by the guarantor under the guarantee will be deposited directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Director under R18-12-322. This standby trust fund shall meet the requirements specified in R18-12-313.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.307" level="4" title="Insurance and Risk Retention Group Coverage">

Insurance and Risk Retention Group Coverage

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining liability insurance that conforms to the requirements from a qualified insurer or risk retention group. Such insurance may be in the form of a separate insurance policy or an endorsement to an existing insurance policy.

B. Each insurance policy shall be amended by an endorsement worded as specified in 40 CFR 280.97(b)(1) or evidenced by a certificate of insurance worded as specified in 40 CFR 280.97(b)(2), except that instructions in brackets shall be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.97(b)(1) and (2) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), are incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. Termination under 40 CFR 280.97(b)(1) and (2) as referenced in this Section means only those changes that could result in a gap in coverage as where the insured has not obtained substitute coverage or has obtained substitute coverage with a different retroactive date than the retroactive date of the original policy.

C. Each insurance policy shall be issued by an insurer or a risk retention group that, at a minimum, is licensed to transact the business of insurance or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer in one or more states.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.308" level="4" title="Surety Bond">

Surety Bond

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this Section. The surety company issuing the bond shall be among those listed as acceptable sureties on federal bonds in the June 30, 1995, Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury. Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury, amended as of June 30, 1995, (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. The surety bond shall be worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.98(b), except that instructions in brackets shall be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.98(b) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. Under the terms of the bond, the surety shall become liable on the bond obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond. In all cases, the surety's liability is limited to the per-occurrence and annual aggregate penal sums.

D. Owners and operators who use a surety bond to satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 shall establish a standby trust fund when the surety bond is acquired. Under the terms of the bond, all amounts paid by the surety under the bond shall be deposited directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Director under R18-12-322. This standby trust fund shall meet the requirements specified in R18-12-313.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.309" level="4" title="Letter of Credit">

Letter of Credit

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the requirements of this Section. The issuing institution shall be an entity that has the authority to issue letters of credit in this state and whose letter of credit operations are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.

B. The letter of credit shall be worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.99(b), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.99(b) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. Owners and operators who use a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 shall also establish a standby trust fund when the letter of credit is acquired. Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Director shall be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Director under R18-12-322. This standby trust fund shall meet the requirements specified in R18-12-313.

D. The letter of credit shall be irrevocable with a term specified by the issuing institution. The letter of credit shall provide that credit be automatically renewed for the same term as the original term unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies the owner or operator by certified mail of its decision not to renew the letter of credit. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120 days shall begin on the date when the owner or operator receives the notice, as evidenced by the return receipt.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.310" level="4" title="Certificate of Deposit">

Certificate of Deposit

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the corrective action requirements, but not the 3rd-party compensation requirements, of R18-12-303 by obtaining an irrevocable certificate of deposit and preparing a Certification and Agreement that conforms to the requirements of this Section. The issuing institution shall meet all of the following:

1. Has the authority to issue certificates of deposit in Arizona,

2. Certificate of deposit operations are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency,

3. Is a member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

B. The certificate of deposit may be used for the full required amount of corrective action coverage. Alternatively, it may be used for part of the required amount of corrective action coverage when used in combination with other mechanisms allowed under this Article which provide the remaining amount of coverage. In all cases, the full required amount of 3rd-party compensation coverage shall be met with another mechanism or mechanisms allowed under this Article.

C. Owners and operators who use a certificate of deposit to meet the corrective action requirements of R18-12-303 shall comply with all of the following:

1. The certificate of deposit document and the records of the issuing institution shall designate the Department as the sole payee. The original certificate of deposit, a blank signature card, and the certification and agreement executed in accordance with subsection (D) shall be submitted to the Department. The Department shall return the signature card to the issuing institution with the current Director's signature and the signature of an alternative person designated by the Director affixed;

2. If the issuing institution is unwilling or unable to prepare a certificate of deposit made payable only to the Department, the owner or operator and the issuing institution shall prepare and execute an assignment in the presence of a notary public with a copy provided to the issuing institution which allows only the Department access to the certificate of deposit;

3. The owner or operator's Social Security or Tax Identification number shall appear on the certificate of deposit;

4. All interest accrued on the certificate of deposit shall be applied back to the certificate of deposit;

5. Upon verification by the Department that the requirements of this Article are met using another mechanism or combination of mechanisms, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Director for release of the certificate of deposit. Within 30 days of receipt of the request from the owner or operator under this subsection, the Director shall release to the owner or operator the certificate of deposit and the certification and agreement.

D. The owner or operator shall prepare, execute, and submit to the Department and the issuing institution a Certification and Agreement which shall be worded as shown in Appendix A except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.

E. The certificate of deposit shall be irrevocable with an automatically renewable term, the length of which may be specified by owners and operators. The initial term and the automatic renewal term shall be stated on the certificate of deposit.

F. The Department may present for payment any certificate of deposit to the issuing institution and receive cash if either of the following occur:

1. The owner or operator reports a release in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004 from an underground storage tank covered by the certificate of deposit and makes a written request to the Director for payment of corrective action expenses required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005. If a request for payment is made the owner or operator shall submit an invoice for corrective action services which have been performed as required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005;

2. The conditions of R18-12-322(B)(1) exist.

G. The Department shall pay, from funds received from cashing the certificate of deposit, corrective action expenses if they are determined to be reasonable. Corrective action expenses shall be considered reasonable if they meet the criteria for reasonableness of cost under R18-12-605.

H. The Director shall, within 30 days of the date on which the certificate of deposit is cashed, return to the owner or operator any funds received from cashing the certificate of deposit which are in excess of the amount of financial responsibility being demonstrated by the certificate of deposit. The Director shall place funds received from the certificate of deposit which have not been used to meet the expenses payable under subsection (G) in an UST Assurance Fund until such time as they are needed. If upon completion of all corrective action, as evidenced by a corrective action closure letter issued by the Department, the costs incurred are less than the amount received from cashing of the certificate of deposit, any excess funds remaining after final payment shall be refunded to the owner or operator within 30 days of receipt by the Department of a written request for refund.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

Appendix A. Certification and Agreement - Certificate of Deposit

CERTIFICATION AND AGREEMENT

CERTIFICATE OF DEPOSIT

____________________________________________________________

[Name of owner or operator]

____________________________________________________________

[Address of owner or operator]

a __________________________________________________________

[Insert "corporation," "partnership," "association," or "proprietorship"]

Hereby certifies that it has elected to use a Certificate of Deposit in accordance with R18-12-310 to cover all or part of its financial responsibility requirement for taking corrective action under Arizona Revised Statutes Title 49, Chapter 6, &#167; 49-1006 as follows:

Section 1. This coverage is provided under Certificate of Deposit [Certificate of Deposit number] payable to the Department of Environmental Quality issued by [Name and address of issuing institution], [insert "Incorporated in the state of _________" or "a national bank"] for the period from [ / /19 ], through [ / /19 ] and is automatically renewable for a term of [Insert number of months] months in the amount of $___________. Both the Certificate of Deposit and the issuing institution meet the requirements of R18-12-310.

Section 2. The original of the Certificate of Deposit has been delivered to the Department of Environmental Quality, hereinafter known as the Department, to be held by the Department, along with this agreement, as proof of [Insert owner or operator]'s financial responsibility for taking corrective action caused by [Insert either "sudden accidental releases" or "nonsudden accidental releases" or "accidental releases"; if coverage is different for different tanks or locations, indicate the type of coverage applicable to each tank or location] arising from operating the underground storage tanks(s) identified in Section 3 of this agreement. The amounts of financial assurance coverage provided by this Certificate of Deposit are:

[insert the dollar amount of "each occurrence" and "annual aggregate" provided by the Certificate of Deposit; if the amount of coverage is different for different types of coverage or for different underground storage tanks or locations, indicate the amount of coverage for each type of coverage and/or for each underground storage tank or location].

Section 3. The following underground storage tanks are covered by the Certificate of Deposit:

[List the number of tanks at each facility and the name(s) and address(es) of the facility(ies) where the tanks are located. If more than one instrument is used to assure different tanks at any one facility, for each tank covered by this instrument, list the tank identification number provided in the notification submitted pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1002, and the name and address of the facility.]

Section 4. [Insert owner or operator] is held firmly unto the state of Arizona in the amount of those sums for those periods of time as set forth herein, until this Certification and Agreement is amended or renewed or released in accordance with R18-12-310. The Certificate of Deposit or any funds resulting from cashing of the Certificate of Deposit shall be maintained or disbursed only in accordance with the provisions of AAC R18-12-310.

Section 5. This Agreement shall remain in force during the term of the Certificate of Deposit and during any period of time prior to full expenditure or release of funds received from cashing of the Certificate of Deposit. [Insert owner or operator] shall notify the Department in writing immediately of any event which may impair this agreement. If the Department receives such notice, or otherwise has reason to believe that this agreement has been materially impaired, the Department may unilaterally amend the terms and conditions of this agreement to rectify any such impairment.

Section 6. The institution issuing the Certificate of Deposit is not a party to this agreement. Its obligations are set forth in its Certificate of Deposit. Nothing in this agreement diminishes or qualifies the issuing institution's obligations under its Certificate of Deposit.

The provisions hereof shall bind and inure to the benefit of the parties hereto and their successors and assigns.

Signed and dated this _____day of __________, 19__

Date: _______________________________________

[Typed name of owner or operator]

BY:_______________________________

Title: _____________________________

Appendix A. Certification and Agreement - Certificate of Deposit Continued

NOTARIZATION OF SIGNER'S ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

STATE _______________)

) SS.

COUNTY OF_____________)

The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this

______day of ___________, 19__, by __________________________

as ______________________________of __________________________

___________________________________________________

NOTARY PUBLIC

My Commission Expires:

_____________________

APPROVED:

STATE OF ARIZONA

DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

Date:______________________ By:_____________________________

___________________________Director, ADEQ

Historical Note:

Appendix A adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.311" level="4" title="State Fund or Other State Assurance">

State Fund or Other State Assurance

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining coverage under an approved state fund which conforms to the requirements of this Section. The state fund shall be approved by a U.S. EPA Regional Administrator as a full or partial mechanism which may be used to meet the requirements of 40 CFR 280.93. 40 CFR 280.93 amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. The state fund may be used to meet the requirements of this Article only as follows:

1. For facilities within this state which are eligible for coverage;

2. For the amounts and types of coverage approved by the U.S. EPA Regional Administrator;

3. Until such approval is withdrawn by the EPA Administrator and owners and operators are notified, in accordance with R18-12-319(A)(2), that the fund may no longer be used for compliance with financial responsibility requirements.

B. Owners and operators shall submit to the Department, in accordance with R18-12-301(C), a copy of the form prescribed by the Department, completed by owners and operators which sets forth the nature of the state's assumption of responsibility. The form shall include, or have attached to it, the following information:

1. The owner or operator's name and address,

2. The facility's name and address,

3. The amount of funds for corrective action resulting from sudden accidental releases or non-sudden accidental releases or accidental releases which are assured by the state,

4. If only certain tanks at a facility are assured by the state, those tanks which are assured by the state shall be identified by the tank identification number.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.312" level="4" title="Trust Fund">

Trust Fund

A. Owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by establishing a trust fund that conforms to the requirements of this Section. The trustee shall be an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal agency or an agency of the state in which the fund is established.

B. The wording of the trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 280.103(b)(1), and shall be accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment as specified in 40 CFR 280.103(b)(2). 40 CFR 280.103(b)(1) and (2), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), are incorporated by reference and are on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. The trust fund, when established, shall be funded for the full required amount of coverage, or funded for part of the required amount of coverage and used in combination with other mechanisms that provide the remaining required coverage.

D. If the value of the trust fund is greater than the required amount of coverage, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Director for release of the excess.

E. If other financial assurance as specified in the Sections R18-12-305 through R18-12-311 and R18-12-314 through R18-12-317 is substituted for all or part of the trust fund, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Director for release of the excess.

F. Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for release of funds as specified in subsections (D) or (E) the Director shall instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator such funds as the Director specifies in writing.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.313" level="4" title="Standby Trust Fund">

Standby Trust Fund

A. Owners and operators using any one of the mechanisms authorized by R18-12-306, R18-12-308, and R18-12-309 shall establish a standby trust fund when the mechanism is acquired. The trustee of the standby trust fund shall be an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal agency or an agency of the state in which the fund is established.

B. The standby trust agreement shall be worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.103(b) (1) and 40 CFR 280.103(b)(2), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.

C. The Director shall instruct the trustee to refund the balance of the standby trust fund to the provider of financial assurance if the Director determines that no additional corrective action costs or 3rd-party liability claims will occur as a result of a release covered by the financial assurance mechanism for which the standby trust fund was established.

D. Owners and operators may establish one standby trust fund as the depository mechanism for all funds assured in compliance with this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.314" level="4" title="Local Government Bond Rating Test">

Local Government Bond Rating Test

A. General purpose local government owners and operators or a local government serving as a guarantor that has the legal authority to issue general obligation bonds may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by having a currently outstanding issue or issues of general obligation bonds of $1 million or more, excluding refunded, with a Moody's rating of Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa, or a Standard &amp; Poor's rating of AAA, AA, A, or BBB. If a local government has multiple outstanding issues, or if a local government's bonds are rated by both Moody's and Standard and Poor's, the lowest rating shall be used to determine eligibility. Bonds that are backed by credit enhancement other than municipal bond insurance may not be considered in determining the amount of applicable bonds outstanding.

B. Local government owners and operators or a local government serving as a guarantor that is not a general purpose local government and does not have the legal authority to issue general obligation bonds may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by having a currently outstanding issue or issues of revenue bonds of $1 million or more, excluding refunded issues and by also having a Moody's rating of Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa, or a Standard &amp; Poor's rating of AAA, AA, A, or BBB as the lowest rating for any rated revenue bond issued by the local government. If bonds are rated by both Moody's and Standard &amp; Poor's, the lower rating for each bond shall be used to determine eligibility. Bonds that are backed by credit enhancement may not be considered in determining the amount of applicable bonds outstanding.

C. Local government owners and operators, or a guarantor, or both, shall maintain a copy of its bond rating published within the last 12 months by Moody's or Standard &amp; Poor's.

D. To demonstrate that it meets the local government bond rating test, the chief financial officer of a general purpose local government owner or operator, or the guarantor, or both, shall sign a letter worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.104(d), except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.104(d), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

E. To demonstrate that it meets the local government bond rating test, the chief financial officer of a local government owner and operator, or the guarantor, or both, shall sign a letter worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.104(e), except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.104(e), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

F. The Director may require reports of financial condition at any time from local government owners and operators, or the local government guarantor, or both. If the Director finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that the local government owner or operator, or the guarantor, or both, no longer meets the local government bond rating test requirements of this Section, the local government owner or operator shall obtain alternative coverage within 30 days after notification of such a finding.

G. If local government owners and operators using the bond rating test to provide financial assurance finds that it no longer meets the bond rating test requirements, the local government owner or operator shall obtain alternative coverage within 150 days of the change in status.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.315" level="4" title="Local Government Financial Test">

Local Government Financial Test

A. Local government owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by passing the financial test specified in this Section. To be eligible to use the financial test, local government owners and operators shall have the ability and authority to assess and levy taxes or to freely establish fees and charges. To pass the local government financial test, owners and operators shall meet the criteria of subsections (B)(2) and (3) based on year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.

B. To pass the local government financial test, owners and operators shall meet all of the following:

1. Local government owners and operators shall have the following information available, as shown in the year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year:

a. Total revenues: consists of the sum of general fund operating and non-operating revenues including net local taxes, licenses and permits, fines and forfeitures, revenues from use of money and property, charges for services, investment earnings, sales such as property or publications, intergovernmental revenues whether or not restricted, and total revenues from all other governmental funds including enterprise, debt service, capital projects, and special revenues, but excluding revenues to funds held in a trust or agency capacity. For purposes of this test, the calculation of total revenues shall exclude all interfund transfers between funds under the direct control of the local government using the financial test, liquidation of investments, and issuance of debt;

b. Total expenditures: consists of the sum of general fund operating and non-operating expenditures including public safety, public utilities, transportation, public works, environmental protection, cultural and recreational, community development, revenue sharing, employee benefits and compensation, office management, planning and zoning, capital projects, interest payments on debt, payments for retirement of debt principal, and total expenditures from all other governmental funds including enterprise, debt service, capital projects, and special revenues. For purposes of this test, the calculation of total expenditures shall exclude all interfund transfers between funds under the direct control of the local government using the financial test;

c. Local revenues: consists of total revenues, as defined in subsection (B)(1)(a), minus the sum of all transfers from other governmental entities, including all monies received from federal, state, or local government sources;

d. Debt service: consists of the sum of all interest and principal payments on all long-term credit obligations and all interest-bearing short-term credit obligations. It includes interest and principal payments on general obligation bonds, revenue bonds, notes, mortgages, judgments, and interest bearing warrants. It excludes payments on non-interest-bearing short-term obligations, interfund obligations, amounts owed in a trust or agency capacity, and advances and contingent loans from other governments;

e. Total funds: consists of the sum of cash and investment securities from all funds, including general, enterprise, debt service, capital projects, and special revenue funds, but excluding employee retirement funds, at the end of the local government's financial reporting year. It includes federal securities, federal agency securities, state and local government securities, and other securities such as bonds, notes, and mortgages. For purposes of this test, the calculation of total funds shall exclude agency funds, private trust funds, accounts receivable, value of real property, and other non-security assets.

2. The local government's year-end financial statements, if independently audited, cannot include an adverse auditor's opinion or a disclaimer of opinion. The local government cannot have outstanding issues of general obligation or revenue bonds that are rated as less than investment grade.

3. Local government owners and operators shall have a letter signed by the chief financial officer worded as specified in subsection (C).

C. To demonstrate that it meets the financial test under subsection (B), the chief financial officer of the local government owner or operator shall sign, within 120 days of the close of each financial reporting year, as defined by the 12-month period for which financial statements used to support the financial test are prepared, a letter worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.105(c), except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.105(c) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

D. If local government owners and operators using the test to provide financial assurance find that it no longer meets the requirements of the financial test based on the year-end financial statements, the owner or operator shall obtain alternative coverage within 150 days of the end of the year for which financial statements have been prepared.

E. The Director may require reports of financial condition at any time from local government owners and operators. If the Director finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that the local government owner or operator no longer meets the financial test requirements of subsections (B) and (C), the owner or operator shall obtain alternate coverage within 30 days after notification of such a finding.

F. If the local government owner or operator fails to obtain alternate assurance within 150 days of finding that it no longer meets the requirements of the financial test based on the year-end financial statements or within 30 days of notification by the Director that it no longer meets the requirements of the financial test, the owner or operator shall notify the Director of such failure within 10 days.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.316" level="4" title="Local Government Guarantee">

Local Government Guarantee

A. Local government owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by obtaining a guarantee that conforms to the requirements of this Section. The guarantor shall be either the state in which the local government owner or operator is located or a local government having a "substantial governmental relationship" with the owner or operator and issuing the guarantee as an act incident to that relationship. A local government acting as the guarantor shall meet the requirements of one of the following:

1. Demonstrate that it meets the bond rating test requirements of R18-12-314 and deliver a copy of the chief financial officer's letter as contained in R18-12-314(D) or R18-12-314(E) to the local government owner or operator;

2. Demonstrate that it meets the financial test requirements of R18-12-315 and deliver a copy of the chief financial officer's letter as contained in R18-12-315(C) to the local government owner or operator;

3. Demonstrate that it meets the local government fund requirements of R18-12-317(A)(1), R18-12-317(A)(2) or R18-12-317(A)(3) and deliver a copy of the chief financial officer's letter as contained in R18-12-317(B) to the local government owner or operator.

B. If the local government guarantor is unable to demonstrate financial assurance under R18-12-314, R18-12-315, R18-12-317(A)(1), R18-12-317(A)(2) or R18-12-317(A)(3), at the end of the financial reporting year, the guarantor shall send by certified mail, before cancellation or non-renewal of the guarantee, notice to the owner or operator. The guarantee will terminate no less than 120 days after the date the owner or operator receives the notification, as evidenced by the return receipt. The owner or operator shall obtain alternative coverage as specified in R18-12-318.

C. The guarantee agreement shall be worded as specified in subsection (D) or (E), depending on which of the following alternative guarantee arrangements is selected:

1. If, in the default or incapacity of the owner or operator, the guarantor guarantees to fund a standby trust as directed by the Director, the guarantee shall be worded as specified in subsection (D);

2. If, in the default or incapacity of the owner or operator, the guarantor guarantees to make payments as directed by the Director for taking corrective action or compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage, the guarantee shall be worded as specified in subsection (E).

D. If the guarantor is a state, the "local government guarantee with standby trust made by a state" shall be worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.106(d), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.106(d) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. If the guarantor is a local government, the "local government guarantee with standby trust made by a local government" shall be worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.106(d), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with relevant information and the brackets deleted.

E. If the guarantor is a state, the "local government guarantee without standby trust made by a state" shall be worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.106(e), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.106(e) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State. If the guarantor is a local government, the "local government guarantee without standby trust made by a local government" shall be worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.106(e), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with relevant information and the brackets deleted.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.317" level="4" title="Local Government Fund">

Local Government Fund

A. Local government owners and operators may satisfy the requirements of R18-12-303 by establishing a dedicated fund account that conforms to the requirements of this Section. Except as specified in subsection (A)(2), a dedicated fund may not be commingled with other funds or otherwise used in normal operations. A dedicated fund shall be considered eligible if it meets one of the following requirements:

1. The fund is dedicated by state constitutional provision, or local government statute, charter, ordinance, or order to pay for taking corrective action and for compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of petroleum underground storage tanks and is funded for the full amount of coverage required under R18-12-303, or funded for part of the required amount of coverage and used in combination with other mechanisms that provide the remaining coverage;

2. The fund is dedicated by state constitutional provision, or local government statute, charter, ordinance, or order as a contingency fund for general emergencies, including taking corrective action and compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of petroleum underground storage tanks, and is funded for five times the full amount of coverage required under R18-12-303, or funded for part of the required amount of coverage and used in combination with other mechanisms that provide the remaining coverage. If the fund is funded for less than five times the amount of coverage required under R18-12-303, the amount of financial responsibility demonstrated by the fund may not exceed 1/5 the amount in the fund;

3. The fund is dedicated by state constitutional provision, or local government statute, charter, ordinance or order to pay for taking corrective action and for compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of petroleum underground storage tanks. A payment is made to the fund once every year for seven years until the fund is fully-funded. This seven-year period is referred to as the "pay-in-period." The amount of each payment shall be determined by the following formula:

TF - CF

--------

Y

where TF is the total required financial assurance for the owner or operator, CF is the current amount in the fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in-period, and one of the following is met:

a. The local government owner or operator has available bonding authority, approved through voter referendum, if such approval is necessary prior to the issuance of bonds, for an amount equal to the difference between the required amount of coverage and the amount held in the dedicated fund. This bonding authority shall be available for taking corrective action and for compensating 3rd parties for bodily injury and property damage caused by accidental releases arising from the operation of petroleum underground storage tanks;

b. The local government owner or operator has a letter signed by the state attorney general stating that the use of the bonding authority will not increase the local government's debt beyond the legal debt ceilings established by the relevant state laws. The letter shall also state that prior voter approval is not necessary before use of the bonding authority.

B. To demonstrate that it meets the requirements of the local government fund, the chief financial officer of the local government owner or operator, or guarantor, or both, shall sign a letter worded exactly as provided in 40 CFR 280.107(d), except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.107(d) amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.318" level="4" title="Substitution of Financial Assurance Mechanisms by Owner and Operator">

Substitution of Financial Assurance Mechanisms by Owner and Operator

A. Owners and operators may substitute any alternate financial assurance mechanisms as specified in R18-12-305 through R18-12-312 and R18-12-314 through R18-12-317, if at all times owners and operators maintain an effective financial assurance mechanism or combination of mechanisms that satisfies the requirements of R18-12-303.

B. After obtaining alternate financial assurance as specified in R18-12-305 through R18-12-312 and R18-12-314 through R18-12-317, an owner or operator may cancel a financial assurance mechanism by providing notice to the provider of financial assurance.

C. Upon replacement of any financial assurance mechanism, the owner or operator shall forward evidence of financial responsibility and certification of financial responsibility to the Department as required in R18-12-301(C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.319" level="4" title="Cancellation or Nonrenewal by a Provider of Financial Assurance">

Cancellation or Nonrenewal by a Provider of Financial Assurance

A. Except as otherwise provided, a provider of financial assurance may cancel or fail to renew an assurance mechanism by sending a notice of termination by certified mail to the owner or operator in accordance with one of the following:

1. Termination of a local government guarantee, guarantee, surety bond, or letter of credit shall not occur until 120 days after the date on which the owner or operator receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt;

2. Termination of insurance or risk retention group coverage, or state-funded assurance, except for non-payment of premium or misrepresentation by the insured, shall not occur until 60 days after the date on which the owner or operator receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt. Termination for non-payment of premium or misrepresentation by the insured shall not occur until a minimum of 10 days after the date on which the owner or operator receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt.

B. If a provider of financial responsibility cancels or fails to renew for reasons other than incapacity of the provider as specified in R18-12-324, owners and operators shall obtain alternate coverage as specified in this Article within 60 days after receipt of the notice of termination. If owners and operators fails to obtain alternate coverage within 60 days after receipt of the notice of termination, owners and operators shall notify the Director of such failure and submit all of the following:

1. The name and address of the provider of financial assurance,

2. The effective date of termination,

3. The evidence of the financial assurance mechanism subject to the termination submitted in accordance with R18-12-301.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.320" level="4" title="Reporting by Owner and Operator">

Reporting by Owner and Operator

A. Owners and operators shall submit documented evidence of financial responsibility as described under R18-12-301(C) to the Director according to any of the following:

1. Within 30 days after owners and operators identify a release from an underground storage tank required to be reported under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

2. If owners and operators fail to obtain alternate coverage as required by R18-12-319(B), within 30 days after the owner or operator receives notice of any one of the following:

a. Commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a provider of financial assurance as a debtor;

b. Suspension or revocation of the authority of a provider of financial assurance to issue a financial assurance mechanism;

c. Failure of a guarantor to meet the requirements of the financial test;

d. Other incapacity of a provider of financial assurance.

3. As required by R18-12-305(G) and R18-12-319(B).

B. Owners and operators shall include in the initial or updated Notification Form a certification of compliance with the financial responsibility requirements of this Article.

C. The Director may, at any time, require owners and operators to submit evidence of financial assurance or other information relevant to compliance with R18-12-301 through R18-12-325.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.321" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Repealed effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.322" level="4" title="Drawing on Financial Assurance Mechanisms">

Drawing on Financial Assurance Mechanisms

A. Except as provided in subsection (D), the Director shall require the guarantor, surety, or institution issuing a letter of credit to place the amount of funds stipulated by the Director, up to the limit of funds provided by the financial assurance mechanism, into the standby trust if either of the following circumstances exist:

1. Occurrence of both of the following circumstances:

a. The owner or operator fails to establish alternate financial assurance within 60 days after receiving notice of cancellation of the guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or, as applicable, other financial assurance mechanism;

b. The Director determines or has reason to believe that a release from an underground storage tank covered by the financial assurance mechanism has occurred and so notifies the owner or operator, or owners and operators notify the Director pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004 and the rules promulgated thereunder of a release from an underground storage tank covered by the financial assurance mechanism.

2. The conditions of subsections (B)(1), (2), or (3) are satisfied.

B. The Director may draw on a certificate of deposit or standby trust fund when any of the following occurs:

1. The Director makes a final determination that a release has occurred and immediate or long-term corrective action for the release is needed, and owners and operators, after appropriate notice and opportunity to comply, have not conducted corrective action as required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 and the rules promulgated thereunder;

2. The Director receives a certification from the owner or operator and the 3rd-party liability claimant and from attorneys representing the owner or operator and the 3rd-party liability claimant that a 3rd-party liability claim should be paid. The certification shall be worded as provided in 40 CFR 280.112(b)(2)(i), except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 40 CFR 280.112(b)(2)(i), amended as of July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State;

3. The Director receives a valid final court order establishing a judgment against the owner or operator for bodily injury or property damage caused by an accidental release from an underground storage tank covered by financial assurance under this Article and the Director determines that the owner or operator has not satisfied the judgment.

C. If the Director determines that the amount of corrective action costs and 3rd-party liability claims eligible for payment under subsection (B) may exceed the balance of the certificate of deposit or standby trust fund and the obligation of the provider of financial assurance, the 1st priority for payment shall be corrective action costs necessary to protect human health and the environment. The Director shall pay 3rd-party liability claims in the order in which the Director receives certifications under subsection (B)(2) and valid court orders under subsection (B)(3).

D. A governmental entity acting as guarantor under R18-12-316(E), the local government guarantee without standby trust, shall make payments as directed by the Director under the circumstances described in subsections (A), (B), and (C).

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.323" level="4" title="Release from Financial Responsibility Requirements">

Release from Financial Responsibility Requirements

Owners and operators are no longer required to maintain financial responsibility under this Article for an underground storage tank after the tank has completed permanent closure or change-in-service in accordance with the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1008 and the rules promulgated thereunder or, if corrective action is required, after corrective action has been completed and the tank has completed permanent closure or change-in-service under A.R.S &#167; 49-1008 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.324" level="4" title="Bankruptcy or Other Incapacity of Owner, Operator, or Provider of Financial Assurance">

Bankruptcy or Other Incapacity of Owner, Operator, or Provider of Financial Assurance

A. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming an owner or operator as debtor, owners and operators shall notify the Director by certified mail of such commencement and submit the appropriate forms listed in R18-12-301 documenting current financial responsibility.

B. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a guarantor providing financial assurance as debtor, such guarantor shall notify the owner or operator by certified mail of such commencement as required under the terms of the guarantee specified in R18-12-306.

C. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a local government owner or operator as debtor, the local government owner or operator shall notify the Director by certified mail of such commencement and submit the appropriate forms listed in R18-12-301 documenting current financial responsibility.

D. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a guarantor providing a local government financial assurance as debtor, such guarantor shall notify the local government owner or operator by certified mail of such commencement as required under the terms of the guarantee specified in R18-12-316.

E. Owners and operators who obtain financial assurance by a mechanism other than the financial test of self-insurance will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance in the event of a bankruptcy or incapacity of its provider of financial assurance, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the provider of financial assurance to issue a guarantee, insurance policy, risk retention group coverage policy, surety bond, letter of credit, or certificate of deposit. Owners and operators shall obtain alternate financial assurance as specified in this Article within 30 days after receiving notice of such an event. If owners and operators do not obtain alternate coverage within 30 days after such notification, owners and operators shall notify the Director.

F. Within 30 days after receipt of notification that a state fund or other state assurance has become incapable of paying for assured corrective action costs or 3rd-party liability compensation, owners and operators shall obtain alternate financial assurance.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.325" level="4" title="Replenishment of Guarantees, Letters of Credit, or Surety Bonds">

Replenishment of Guarantees, Letters of Credit, or Surety Bonds

A. If a standby trust is funded upon the instruction of the Director with funds drawn from a guarantee, local government guarantee with standby trust, letter of credit, or surety bond, and if the amount in the standby trust is reduced below the full amount of coverage required, owners and operators shall by the anniversary date of the financial mechanism from which the funds were drawn do either of the following:

1. Replenish the value of financial assurance to equal the full amount of coverage required;

2. Acquire another financial assurance mechanism for the amount by which funds in the standby trust have been reduced.

B. For purposes of this Section, the full amount of coverage required is the amount of coverage to be provided under R18-12-303. If a combination of mechanisms was used to provide the assurance funds which were drawn upon, replenishment shall occur by the earliest anniversary date among the mechanisms.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK EXCISE TAX">

UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK EXCISE TAX

<regElement name="R18.12.401" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted with changes effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4). Repealed effective July 30, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.402" level="4" title="Duties and responsibilities of a supplier; certain regulated substances">

Duties and responsibilities of a supplier; certain regulated substances

The duties and responsibilities of a supplier with respect to a regulated substance that is refined, manufactured, produced, compounded, or blended in this state, or imported into this state by the supplier, as described by this Article are imposed only to the extent that the regulated substance is also aviation fuel, diesel, or motor vehicle fuel.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted with changes effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.403" level="4" title="Periodic payments; deductions">

Periodic payments; deductions

A. On or before the 25th day of each month, a supplier shall pay to the Director of the Department of Transportation an amount equal to one cent for each gallon of regulated substance which is refined, manufactured, produced, compounded, or blended in this state or imported into this state by the supplier during the preceding month.

B. A supplier may deduct from the payments required to be made under subsection (A) either or both of the following amounts:

1. An amount equal to the product of one cent multiplied by the number of gallons of regulated substance sold or delivered to a person to whom an exemption certificate has been issued pursuant to R18-12-410(C) or to whom an exemption certificate number has been assigned pursuant to R18-12-410(D) during the month for which the supplier is making a payment.

2. An amount equal to the sum of the amounts of refunds approved by the Department under R18-12-409 and submitted to the Department of Transportation during the month for which the supplier is making a payment.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.404" level="4" title="Reporting requirements for suppliers">

Reporting requirements for suppliers

A. On or before the 25th day of each month, a supplier shall submit a monthly summary report on forms prescribed by the Department pursuant to subsection (B) indicating all gallons acquired and sold by that supplier during the preceding month. A supplier shall submit a monthly summary report even if the supplier is not making a payment as described in R18-12-403. The monthly report shall be accompanied by schedules prescribed for the purpose of obtaining detailed information about the gallons acquired and sold by that supplier. The forms and schedules shall be prescribed by the Department and may include forms and schedules prescribed by the Department of Transportation for the administration of the motor vehicle fuel tax. A written or computerized report setting forth all information required on the prescribed forms and schedules will be accepted in lieu of a report on the prescribed form. The report and schedules shall contain the following information:

1. The number of gallons in the supplier's inventory at the beginning of the reporting period.

2. The number of gallons brought into Arizona during the report period for which the supplier is reporting and for which the supplier is paying tax, including date shipped, the name of the person from whom the regulated substance was acquired, the shipping point, manifest or pipeline shipment number, Arizona destination, and type of regulated substance.

3. The number of gallons blended or compounded in Arizona during the report period that the supplier is reporting and on which the supplier is paying tax, including date blended or compounded, and the types of constituent substances being blended or compounded.

4. The number of gallons which are tax due.

5. The number of gallons acquired tax paid during the report period including date shipped, shipping point, name and account number of supplier, invoice number, Arizona destination, and type of regulated substance.

6. The total number of gallons that are tax due and tax paid.

7. The number of gallons sold tax paid to suppliers during the report period, including date shipped, shipping point, name and account number of supplier, invoice number, Arizona destination, and type of regulated substance.

8. The number of gallons sold as tax exempt sales during the report period, including date sold, name of person claiming exempt sale, delivery address of regulated substance sold, exemption certificate number utilized for sale, invoice number, and type of regulated substance.

9. The number of gallons sold to underground storage tank owners during the report period, including total gallons for each type of regulated substance sold.

10. The number of gallons sold exported to destinations outside of Arizona during the report period including date sold, Arizona shipping point, name of purchaser outside of Arizona, invoice number, out-of-state destination and type of regulated substance.

11. The number of gallons of regulated substance sold or exported.

12. The ending book inventory indicating the gallon difference between the number of gallons received tax due and tax paid and the number of gallons sold or exported.

13. The ending physical inventory indicating the number of gallons in the person's inventory at the end of the report period including location of Arizona storage.

14. The gallon difference between ending book inventory and ending physical inventory.

B. The monthly report described in subsection (A) is considered to be the return form required by A.R.S. &#167; 28-1599.45(D).

C. On or before March 31 of any year, each supplier shall submit to the Department of Transportation an annual report indicating the name and owner identification number of each underground storage tank owner or operator to whom the supplier made a sale during the preceding calendar year and the total number of gallons sold annually to that owner or operator by type of regulated substance. The Department of Transportation, for good cause, may extend the time for making the annual report required by this subsection.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted with changes effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.405" level="4" title="Invoice requirements for suppliers">

Invoice requirements for suppliers

A supplier shall provide the following information on the invoice for each sale of a regulated substance:

1. The supplier identification number assigned to that supplier by the Department of Transportation.

2. Except as otherwise provided in R18-12-410(E), the underground storage tank excise tax associated with that sale, stated as a separate item.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.406" level="4" title="Reports and returns, net gallons required to be indicated">

Reports and returns, net gallons required to be indicated

All reports and returns submitted pursuant to this Article shall indicate net gallons in any instance where the number of gallons of regulated substances are required to be reported.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.407" level="4" title="Payment of tax; annual return">

Payment of tax; annual return

A. A taxpayer shall pay the tax as measured by the quantity of regulated substances placed in an underground storage tank owned or operated by the taxpayer in any calendar year. The tax shall be paid at the rate of one cent for each gallon of regulated substance.

B. The tax is due and payable annually on or before March 31 for the preceding calendar year. The tax is delinquent if it is not postmarked on or before that date or if it is not received by the Department on or before March 31 for taxpayers electing to file in person.

C. At the time that the tax is paid, the taxpayer shall prepare and file with the tax an annual return on a form prescribed by the Director. The taxpayer shall provide all of the following information:

1. The owner identification number of the owner of the tank.

2. The taxpayer's name and address, including street number and name, post office box, city, state, county, and zip code.

3. The time period covered by the return.

4. The total number of storage facilities reported on by the return.

5. The types of regulated substances placed in underground storage tanks during the calendar year covered by the return.

6. The total number of gallons of regulated substances, by type and by facility identification number, placed in underground storage tanks during the calendar year covered by the return.

7. The supplier identification number of each supplier from whom the taxpayer received regulated substances which were placed in underground storage tanks.

8. The tax due, by type of regulated substance.

9. The tax paid, by type of regulated substance.

10. Any credits or refunds claimed, by type of regulated substance and by exemption certificate number.

11. The total tax due.

D. The taxpayer shall sign a sworn statement or otherwise certify, under penalty of perjury, that the information contained in the return is true, complete, and correct according to the best belief and knowledge of the taxpayer filing the report.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently with changes adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.408" level="4" title="Affidavit of tax responsibility">

Affidavit of tax responsibility

The tax shall be collected from the owner of an underground storage tank unless the owner and the operator of the underground storage tank file a notarized affidavit with the Department designating the operator as primarily responsible for the tax.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.409" level="4" title="Refunds">

Refunds

A. Any person who pays the tax but is not liable for the tax under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 may claim a refund of the tax paid.

B. A claim for a refund shall be submitted on forms prescribed by the Director. A person claiming a refund shall provide the following information:

1. The name, address and telephone number of the person claiming the refund.

2. The facility name.

3. The facility location.

4. The supplier identification number.

5. The type of regulated substances.

6. The number of gallons of regulated substances.

7. The date of the transaction for which the refund is claimed or the time period covered if the claim involves more than one transaction.

8. The reason justifying the payment of a refund.

9. The amount of tax paid and supporting documentation for the amount of refund claimed, including an invoice showing the tax paid as required by R18-12-405.

C. The person claiming the refund shall sign a sworn statement or otherwise certify, under penalty of perjury, that the information contained in the return is true, complete and correct.

D. If the Department determines that a person claiming a refund is entitled to the refund, the Department shall issue a refund payment or a letter of credit. A person who has been denied a refund by the Department may request a hearing on the denial within 30 days after receiving notice of the denial. The hearing shall be conducted pursuant to R18-1-201 through R18-1-219.

E. Any person eligible to claim a refund of the tax may assign the claim to the person from whom the regulated substance was purchased. The assignee of the claim may claim the refund if the assignor of the claim certifies in writing to the assignee on forms prescribed by the Director that the assignor relinquishes all interest in the refund and will not also claim a refund from the Director. A copy of an invoice corresponding to the sale for which an assignment of a refund is sought shall accompany any assignment.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently with changes adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.410" level="4" title="Exemption certificates">

Exemption certificates

A. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (D), any person who has claimed and has been awarded a refund of tax paid may apply for and be issued an exemption certificate as provided in this Section.

B. An application for an exemption certificate shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the Director. A person applying for an exemption certificate shall provide the following information:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the person applying for the exemption certificate.

2. The facility name and the facility location of the storage facility for which the exemption certificate is sought.

3. The reason justifying the issuance of an exemption certificate.

C. If the Department determines that the person applying for an exemption certificate is not liable for paying the tax, the Department shall issue the exemption certificate. A person who has been denied an exemption certificate may request a hearing on the denial within 30 days after receiving notice of the denial. The hearing shall be conducted pursuant to R18-1-201 through R18-1-219.

D. The following exemption certificate numbers are established to characterize the following circumstances:

1. Deliveries to storage facilities in Indian country: 00-0100001.

2. Deliveries to state-owned storage facilities: 00-0200002.

3. Deliveries to federally owned storage facilities: 00-0300003.

E. A supplier shall not include the tax in the amounts charged by the supplier for deliveries of regulated substances if the person to whom the regulated substances are delivered presents a valid exemption certificate.

Historical Note

Temporary rule adopted effective July 3, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-3). Temporary rule readopted effective December 28, 1990, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 90-4). Temporary rule readopted effective June 28, 1991, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1031(H) and (I), effective for 180 days (Supp. 91-2). Temporary rule permanently with changes adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="FEES">

FEES

<regElement name="R18.12.501" level="4" title="Fees">

Fees

A. Each owner and operator of an underground storage tank who is required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1020 to pay annually to the Department a fee of $100.00 for each tank shall make the required payment on or before March 15 of each year.

B. For any check or other instrument used to pay the annual fees described in this Section that is returned to the Department as dishonored by the drawer's financial institution, the owner and operator of the tank shall pay a charge of $25.00.

C. An owner and operator of an underground storage tank may request in writing that the Department approve an alternate schedule for paying the fee required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1020. The Department will approve an alternate schedule if the following conditions are met:

1. The owner and the operator request and receive approval of the schedule from the Department before March 15 of the year for which the schedule is requested.

2. Each partial payment made under the schedule will equal to at last 25% of the total payment due on March 15.

3. The first partial payment is made on March 15 of the year for which the schedule is requested.

4. The total amount due is paid by September 15 of the year for which the schedule is requested.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 26, 1991 (Supp. 91-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK ASSURANCE FUND">

UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK ASSURANCE FUND

<regElement name="R18.12.601" level="4" title="Qualification Standards for Performing Corrective Action Services">

Qualification Standards for Performing Corrective Action Services

A. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (B), an individual who performs or directly supervises or manages the rendering of corrective action services shall meet the qualification standards described in this Section. Compliance with applicable qualification standards is required for Departmental payment. Except as otherwise provided in R18-12-602, Departmental qualification review shall take place at the time application for reimbursement is made.

B. Subsection (A) shall not apply to persons for corrective action services performed after September 15, 1989, and prior to the effective date of this Section, and for corrective action services in progress on the effective date of this Section. The Department shall reimburse for the corrective action services described in this subsection if the services have been accepted by the Department as complying with the UST regulatory program, and if the documentation of costs of the corrective action meets the requirements of R18-12-605. For purposes of this subsection, corrective action services are considered to be in progress if work is actually being performed on the effective date of this Section or if a contract describing work to be performed has been entered into by the owner and operator of the UST system and the person performing the corrective action services as of the effective date of this Section.

C. An individual, by satisfying the appropriate standards set forth in this Section, and providing verifiable documentation in accordance with subsection (H), shall be considered qualified for any one or more of the following categories of corrective action services: consultant, contractor, or tester.

D. An individual shall be considered to be qualified as a consultant for purposes of this Section if the individual meets both of the following conditions:

1. Possession of, pursuant to subsection (G), approved experience of either a supervisory or managerial nature, in three UST corrective actions within the past five years relating to the category for which qualification is sought.

2. Possession of one of the following:

a. A valid Arizona registration where such is required by the Board of Technical Registration pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 32-101 through 32-145.

b. Where registration is not required under subsection (D)(2)(a) above, a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university in the physical sciences or a related field.

E. An individual is qualified as a contractor for purposes of this Section if both of the following conditions are met:

1. The individual possesses a valid Arizona license where such license is required by the Registrar of Contractors pursuant to &#167;&#167; 32-1121 through 32-1129.01.

2. The individual meets either of the following requirements:

a. Possession of certification by the Department as a tank service provider in accordance with Article 8 of this Chapter for the activities for which qualification is sought under this subsection.

b. Possession of, pursuant to subsection (G), approved experience in the completion of three UST corrective action tasks within the past five years relating to the category for which qualification is sought.

F. An individual who conducts tank testing, piping testing, or UST system testing shall be considered to be qualified as a tester for purposes of this Section if the individual has obtained the tightness testing certification described under R18-12-803(2) in accordance with Article 8 of this Chapter.

G. Experience is approved if that approval is obtained in one of the following ways:

1. For an Arizona project, project approval by the Department.

2. For a project outside Arizona, project approval from the governing entity responsible for administering the UST program in that state, where such approval is based upon corrective action standards pursuant to 40 CFR 280.60 through 280.67. 40 CFR 280.60 through 280.67, as amended as of July 1, 1991 (and no future editions), is incorporated herein by reference and is on file with the Department of Environmental Quality the with the Office of the Secretary of State.

3. For a project outside Arizona, where no approval standards exist or where approval standards are not equivalent to the corrective action standards described in paragraph (2), approval by the Department which is based upon a submitted report of work evaluated by the Department in accordance with R18-12-605(F).

H. Verifiable documentation of the experience described in subsections (D), (E), or (F) shall consist of all of the following information:

1. The title and site location of the corrective action service.

2. The name, telephone number, and address of the owner and operator for whom the corrective action service was conducted.

3. Where the firm served as a subcontractor for an UST corrective action service, the name and address of the prime contractor.

4. A brief narrative summary of the corrective action service.

5. The start date and the completion date of the corrective action service.

I. Even though an individual meets the qualification standards described in subsection (D), (E), or (F), a Departmental finding of any of the following shall result in a failure to meet qualification standards:

1. A failure to provide adequate documentation of the work performed.

2. A failure to perform the work described in the documentation.

3. The work fails to meet generally accepted industry standards.

4. A failure to perform work in a timely manner.

5 A failure to otherwise meet the UST regulatory program standards.

6. A falsification of documents.

J. The purpose of the qualification requirements imposed by this Section is to foster quality in the performance of the corrective action services for which reimbursement from the assurance fund is sought. Neither the state of Arizona nor the Department of Environmental Quality nor their officers, agents or employees guarantee the performance of a qualified consultant, contractor or tester selected by an owner or operator to perform corrective action services.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.602" level="4" title="Prequalification Status">

Prequalification Status

A. A firm may become prequalified for future corrective action services by demonstrating to the Department that it meets the conditions of this Section, in addition to R18-12-601. A firm achieving prequalification status under R18-12-602 shall have its name included on a Departmental list which is made available to the public.

B. Where a firm seeks qualification for more than one category, application shall be made separately for each qualification category sought.

C. The Department may grant prequalification status to a firm which has in its employ at least one employee, who meets the qualifications described in R18-12-601(D), (E), or (F) for the category in which the firm seeks qualification and who will directly perform, supervise or manage corrective action services.

D. A firm seeking prequalification status shall provide the Department all of the following information on a form prescribed by the Department:

1. The name of any owner, officer, or public official who has authority to sign reports of corrective action services.

2. The name, title, and telephone number of the firm's contact person.

3. The name and qualifications of each individual who will directly supervise or manage a corrective action activity and a demonstration that each individual is qualified as described in R18-12-601(D), (E), or (F) for the category of activity that will be supervised or managed.

E. Neither the state of Arizona nor the Department of Environmental Quality nor their officers, directors, agents or employees guarantee the performance of a firm selected by an owner or operator from the Department's list of firms prequalified to perform corrective action services.

F. As a condition precedent to obtaining prequalification status, a firm shall agree to indemnify and hold harmless the state of Arizona, the Department of Environmental Quality, and their officers, directors, agents or employees from and against all claims, damages, losses, attorneys' fees and expenses arising out of Departmental designation of the firm as one prequalified to perform corrective action services eligible for reimbursement under the underground storage tank financial assurance fund, including, but not limited to, bodily injury, sickness, disease or injury to or destruction of tangible property including the loss of use resulting therefrom, caused in whole or in part by any negligent act or omission of the firm, any subcontractor, anyone directly or indirectly employed by any of them, or anyone for whose acts any of them may be liable, regardless of whether or not is caused in part by a party indemnified hereunder.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.603" level="4" title="Retention of Prequalification Status">

Retention of Prequalification Status

A. A firm which holds prequalification status pursuant to R18-12-602 has a continuing duty to provide, on a timely basis, information or material to the Department which may affect the firm's prequalification status. This information includes, but is not limited to, the addition to or deletion from the firm's employee roster those individuals meeting the qualifications set forth in R18-12-60l(D), (E), or (F).

B. Prequalification status for a firm shall remain valid until the occurrence of either of the following:

1. The firm informs the Department that it no longer wishes prequalification status.

2. The Department revokes prequalification status as de scribed in subsections (C) and (D).

C. If the Director has reason to believe that the work of any prequalified firm fails to meet the UST regulatory program standards or fails to meet any of the requirements described in this Section, the Department may issue a written notice of performance review. Such notice of performance review shall identify specific areas of Departmental concern and provide notification of ongoing Departmental oversight in the areas specified. The Department may revoke prequalification status on the basis of any one of the following findings:

1. A failure to demonstrate or maintain compliance with the prequalification standards set forth in R18-12-602.

2. A failure to provide notice to the Department as provided in subsection (A) of this Section.

3. A failure to provide adequate documentation of work performed.

4. A failure to perform work described in the documentation of work performed.

5. Work which fails to meet generally accepted industry standards.

6. A failure to otherwise meet the UST regulatory program standards.

D. In every case, falsification of documents will result in Departmental revocation of prequalification status.

E. Within 90 days after notification of performance review, the Department shall advise the firm of one of the following determinations:

1. The Department has determined that performance review is no longer warranted.

2. The performance review is extended for a period of 90 days.

3. The Department revokes the prequalification status of the firm and states the basis for such revocation.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.604" level="4" title="Individual Applicant: Application Requirements">

Individual Applicant: Application Requirements

A. An eligible person seeking partial reimbursement of corrective action costs shall make application in a format prescribed by the Department.

B. An applicant shall provide the Department with all of the following information regarding the applicant:

1. The name, telephone number, and mailing address of the applicant.

2. The name or names that are to appear on the payment warrant, and the appropriate federal employer identification (tax) number or social security number.

3. A description of the applicant's status as an entity eligible for partial coverage of costs.

4. Where a direct payment to a designated representative is requested pursuant to R18-12-607(A), an authorization to the Department to make a direct payment to the person designated.

5. Where preapproval of funds is requested pursuant to R18-12-607(B), the applicant shall furnish the information set forth in that subsection.

6. The name and telephone number of a person the Department may contact in the event there are questions regarding the application.

C. An applicant shall provide the Director with all of the following information regarding the corrective action site:

1. The leaking underground storage tank file number.

2. The facility name and site address.

D. An applicant shall provide the Department, in a format prescribed by the Department, all of the following information regarding the corrective action service for which reimbursement is sought:

1. The identification of the time period covered by the application.

2. The identification of a report of work performed which is on file with the Department, for the corrective action covered by the application.

3. A statement as to whether the application is the first request for reimbursement of corrective action expenses incurred in response to the release.

4. The number of previous requests for reimbursement that have been submitted relative to the Leaking Underground Storage Tank file number.

5. The total amount of all corrective action expenses, indicating which were previously reimbursed or previously submitted for reimbursement for this release.

6. The total amount of all costs for which reimbursement is requested and supporting documentation for all of the following categories of costs:

a. Personnel.

b. Excavation.

c. Drilling.

d. Field analysis.

e. Laboratory analysis.

f. Soil or aquifer tests.

g. Tank, piping, or UST system tests.

h. Vehicles.

i. Direct purchases, including, but not limited to, equipment purchases.

j. Lease or rental.

k. Purging, removal, transport, or disposal of UST systems.

l. Indirect costs for administrative or general expenses.

m. Professional services costs directly related to any required permit application.

n. Other expenses, directly related to the required corrective actions, except those described in subsection (D)(7).

o. Any required permit fees.

7. The total amount of costs incurred for professional services directly related to the preparation of the assurance fund application.

8. Documentation of the amount of the assurance fund deductible chosen and documentation of costs incurred for purposes of determining whether the deductible has been met.

9. The name and address of the person who performed, or who will perform, reimbursable services, including all of the following information:

a. Identification of the service provider as a consultant, contractor, or tester.

b. A statement as to whether the firm employed by the owner to perform corrective action holds prequalification status pursuant to R18-12-602.

c. The name and telephone number of the project contact person.

10. An estimate of the total cost of the project where either of the following occur:

a. The claim for reimbursement represents a phase of work.

b. The claim for reimbursement represents a request pursuant to R18-12-607(B).

11. Where an estimate of the total cost is submitted under subsection (D)(10) above, a statement certifying that the estimate is accurate and complete to the applicant's best information and belief.

E. In addition to complying with subsections (A) through (D) and subsections (F) and (I), an applicant applying on behalf of a for-profit firm shall provide the Department with a copy of all of the following:

1. The most recent year federal and state income tax returns identified by firm name and address.

2. The most recent year-end financial statements for the firm, including profit and loss statement, balance sheet, and all prepared notes and schedules to the financial statements, including all of the following:

a. Total revenues and total expenses.

b. Profit after tax, if applicable.

c. Total assets and total liabilities.

d. Intangible assets.

e. Current year-end and prior year-end net worth.

3. For sole proprietorships, a personal financial statement of the owner.

4. For partnerships and S corporations, the personal financial statement and tax returns of owners of 20% or more of the firm.

5. Additional financial information determined by the Department as necessary to establish financial need.

F. Where the applicant firm is a wholly owned subsidiary, the Department shall determine financial need based upon the financial statements of the parent corporation.

G. In addition to complying with subsections (A) through (D) and subsection (I), an applicant applying on behalf of a political subdivision shall provide the Department with the most recent year-end copy of the following:

Certified financial report with all prepared notes and schedules to the certified financial report.

H. In addition to complying with subsections (A) through (D) and subsection (I), an applicant applying on behalf of a non-profit entity shall provide the Department with a copy of all of the following:

1. The most recent year-end statement of revenues and expenses, balance sheet, and all prepared notes and schedules to the financial statements, including all of the following:

a. Total revenues and total expenses.

b. Total net operating excess or loss.

c. Current year-end and prior year-end restricted fund balances.

d. Current year-end and prior year-end unrestricted fund balance.

2. The most recent year federal and state income tax returns.

I. The application shall include a certification statement which includes all of the following:

1. Where the applicant is not the owner, or is not the sole owner, an authorization by the owner(s) that the applicant is the designated representative of the owner(s). The authorization must be sufficient to bind the owner(s) to decisions made on his or her behalf by the designated representative.

2. A statement that to the applicant's best information and belief, all information provided on the application and attachments is true and complete.

J. Costs incurred for professional fees directly related to preparation of the assurance fund application shall be credited toward the deductible amount and shall not be reimbursed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.605" level="4" title="Determination of Reasonableness of Cost">

Determination of Reasonableness of Cost

A. On at least an annual basis the Director shall establish a list of corrective action services and respective cost ceiling amounts from which payment will be made. A Departmental list shall be compiled from one or more of the following sources:

1. Annual cost survey responses, including services and costs, completed by persons who perform corrective action services.

2. A determination by the Department of services and costs which should be added to a Departmental list pursuant to subsection (D) below.

3. Such other information as is typically considered in the state procurement process in determining reasonable costs.

B. Eligible costs are those costs which are all of the following:

1. For work determined by the Department to be required under the UST regulatory program.

2. Included on the Departmental list or added pursuant to subsection (D).

3. Supported by adequate documentation as defined in subsection (E).

4. For actual work performed, as described in the documentation, and the case file.

5. For work which meets generally accepted industry standards.

6. For work which meets the UST regulatory program standards.

C. A corrective action cost is considered reasonable if it does not exceed the cost ceiling amount established in the Departmental list. That portion of the costs which exceed the ceiling is not considered reasonable and shall not be paid. Eligible costs which fall at or below the ceiling amount shall be presumed to be reasonable and shall be paid. The Department shall pay the invoice amount for eligible costs where that invoice amount is lower than the cost ceiling amount.

D. Where a submitted category of cost is not on the Departmental list, the Department will evaluate the cost for possible payment. Where the submitted category of cost is evaluated and the Department determines that inclusion on the Departmental list is appropriate, the submitted category of cost will be added to the Departmental list. The Department will refer to one or more of the following in evaluating a submitted category of cost:

1. Estimated figures contained in current national reference volumes as are typically used by procurement professionals and estimators.

2. Historical data.

3. Limited survey data.

E. In determining the reasonable cost of a given corrective action service, and for purposes of meeting the deductible and evaluating claims for reimbursement, the Director shall consider both financial reasonableness and technical reasonableness. Documentation of financial reasonableness shall be considered adequate if it includes all of the following:

1. Hourly labor rate, time, and cost for each labor classification utilized in the corrective action service.

2. Equipment rate, time, and cost for each equipment classification utilized in the corrective action service.

3. Itemized material costs expended in the corrective action service.

4. Subcontractor services itemized and documented as in subsections (E)(1) through (3).

5. The applicant shall identify all amounts referenced in subsections (E)(1) through (4) of this subsection to a report of work performed on file with the Department.

6. The invoice amount supported by copies of cancelled checks, if available, or financial institution statements. If neither copies of cancelled checks nor financial institution statements are available, a certification statement, by invoice, from the vendor.

F. A Departmental determination of technical reasonableness shall consider facts available to the claimant at the time technical decisions were made. The determination by the Department of technical reasonableness shall be based on the appropriateness of the utilized technology in view of the site-specific conditions and the adequacy of the corrective action in addressing the contamination at the site. In addition, technical reasonableness consists of a determination by the Department that the corrective action service met the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 in effect when the corrective action was performed.

G. For corrective action costs including the deductible amount referenced in R18-12-604(D)(7), all the requirements of this Article shall be satisfied in order to be considered eligible for reimbursement.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

R18-12-605.01. Soil Clean-up Standards

A. The payment provisions of this Section shall apply to all costs of corrective action services conducted on or after November 15, 1996, for that portion of a release which is confined to soil, as defined under A.A.C. R18-7-201(25).

B. Subject to the provisions of subsections (C) through (G) of this Section, no payment from the assurance fund shall be made for corrective action expenses incurred to remediate the release of a regulated substance to a standard more stringent than either of the following:

1. The background concentration for any component of the released regulated substance determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-204,

2. The greatest allowable remaining concentration for any component of the released regulated substance permitted under A.A.C. R18-7-205.

C. If the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance is greater than the remediation standards described in subsection (B) of this Section, the assurance fund shall pay, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1052, 49-1054 and this Article, corrective action expenses incurred in accordance with the following, as elected by the eligible person:

1. Reducing the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance to the greatest allowable remaining concentration determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-204 or permitted under A.A.C. R18-7-205.

2. Reducing the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance, including the cost of the site specific risk assessment, to the following:

a. For properties described in A.A.C. R18-7-206(C)(1) through (3), to the greatest allowable remaining concentration determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-206 (C).

b. For properties not described in A.A.C. R18-7-206(C)(1) through (3), to the greatest allowable remaining concentration in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-206(D)(2) or A.A.C. R18-7-206(E). The cost of engineering controls determined under A.A.C. R18-7-206(E) shall be paid as follows:

i. Corrective action expense for a site-specific risk assessment determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-206(E), shall include the cost of installing engineering controls if the eligible person can demonstrate the cost effectiveness in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(B) and the rules promulgated thereunder.

ii. Corrective action expense for a site-specific risk assessment determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-206(E), shall not include the cost of maintaining engineering controls required under A.A.C. R18-7-206(E).

D. For the period ending August 15, 2001 only, the assurance fund shall pay, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052, &#167; 49-1054, and this Article, corrective action expenses, including the cost of the site-specific risk assessment, incurred for reducing the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance to the greatest allowable remaining concentration determined in accordance with A.A.C. R18-7-206(D)(1) under the following circumstances:

1. If a written contract, entered into prior to April 1, 1996, and not renewed after April 1, 1996, between the property owner and an owner or operator of the UST system, sets forth in express terms a requirement to remediate to the Department's Suggested Soil Cleanup Levels or "SSCLs". The eligible person shall submit a true and correct copy of the contract to the Department for review and acceptance. The submitted contract shall be entitled to confidentiality protection under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1012.

2. If a written contract was entered into prior to April 1, 1996, and is not renewed after April 1, 1996, between the property owner and an owner or operator of the UST system, relating to the ownership or operation of the UST system, and the property owner, who is not the operator of the UST system or an owner, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001.01, refuses to sign a Voluntary Environmental Mitigation Use Restriction ("VEMUR") for a site which has been remediated or determined to be at or below non-residential concentrations. The owner or operator of the UST system shall provide written notice to the Department that the property owner refuses to sign a VEMUR.

E. In all cases, the assurance fund shall pay, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052, A.R.S. &#167; 49-1054, and this Article, corrective action expenses incurred for reducing the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance to a remediation standard established prior to the effective date of this Section by any of the following:

1. An Order of a court of competent jurisdiction;

2. An Order of the Director in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1013;

3. A work plan pre-approved by the Department under R18-12-607 or R18-12-607.01;

4. A corrective action plan in accordance with 40 CFR 280.66 approved by the Department. 40 CFR 280.66, as amended on July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or additions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

F. The assurance fund shall pay, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1052, 49-1054, and this Article, for either of the following:

1. Reducing the concentration of any component of the released regulated substance below the standards of this Section where it was not feasible to control the cleanup technology to limit corrective actions to the standards of this subsection.

2. Demobilizing and abandoning of corrective action equipment at or from the facility.

G. Nothing in this Section shall be used to deny payment for corrective action expenses directly related to the remediation of groundwater, regardless of the concentration of regulated substance reached in the soil.

Historical Note

Adopted under an exemption from A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1014, and &#167;&#167; 49-1052 (B) and (O), effective August 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.606" level="4" title="Determination of Priority of Payment: Ranking Process">

Determination of Priority of Payment: Ranking Process

A. The Department shall allow monthly revenues to accumulate in the assurance account to an amount sufficient to make a fund distribution to eligible applications. If the Department determines sufficient funds are available, applications shall be considered for payment in regular rounds in the order received by the Department. The Department shall utilize a ranking system made up of points described in subsection (D) to apply the priority of payment criteria prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052(F).

B. On a periodic basis no less often than once a year and as often as sufficient funds are available, the Department shall determine the priority of payment of approved claims from funds available. The Department shall obtain information necessary to assign points from all the following sources:

1. Information submitted by the applicant in the application.

2. Other information submitted by the applicant which forms the site specific file.

3. Information obtained from Departmental review or analysis with regard to the site.

C. The Department shall rank claims for payment in a descending numerical order. Each claim will be assigned a numerical ranking and all claims will be paid in consecutive rank order from the highest to lowest rank. Payments shall be made from the assurance account until either all ranked claims have been paid or until assurance account monies are temporarily depleted, whichever occurs first. Claims which remain unpaid at the time the assurance account monies are temporarily depleted shall be deferred for payment until the next round, pursuant subsection (H).

D. The point system shall consist of a composite numerical score comprised of individual scores for the various statutory criteria. For a given period of time, which comprises a regular periodic round, an application score is ranked for payment against other application scores assigned during the same time period.

E. The Department shall rank claims for payment on a scale of 100 possible points. Of these points, financial need criterion can be assigned a maximum of 45, and the risk to human health and the environment criterion can be assigned a maximum of 45, for a total of 90 possible points. If the partial coverage is provided as a preapproved amount to a person performing a corrective action, five points are assigned. Where there is no preapproved amount, no points shall be assigned. If a delay in providing coverage will affect a corrective action in progress, five points are assigned. Where a delay in providing coverage will not affect a corrective action in progress, no points shall be assigned.

F. The Department shall determine a numerical score using the formula described in this subsection. The total numerical score assigned to an application is calculated using the following factors:

1. Financial need (FN).

2. Risk to human health or the environment (R).

3. Preapproved amount (PA).

4. Delay (D).

Expressed mathematically, the total numerical score shall be calculated as follows: (FN)+(R)+(D)+(PA).

G. For applications of equal score, the earlier date of application for coverage shall receive the higher rank. For applications of equal rank and the same date of application for coverage, the earlier date on which a corrective action for which coverage is sought is to be or was taken shall receive the higher rank.

H. A ranked claim, which remains unpaid at the time assurance account monies are depleted shall be held by the Department until such time as additional monies become available. A deferred claim shall receive two points for each deferral.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.607" level="4" title="Direct Pay and Preapproval of Funds">

Direct Pay and Preapproval of Funds

A. For completed work, the Department may make a direct payment where the applicant assigns payment to a designated representative. An applicant who seeks direct payment under this subsection shall authorize the Department to make payments to the designated representative.

B. For corrective action services not yet begun, the Department may preapprove funds where, in the Department's judgment, such preapproval of funds is necessary to begin or to continue corrective action. In addition, all of the following shall be met for Departmental preapproval of funds:

1. Submission of a detailed estimate performed by a qualified person as set forth in Section R18-12-601.

2. Establishment, prior to work being performed, of compliance with the UST regulatory program.

3. Demonstration that the appropriate deductible amount has been met pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1054(A) and the rules promulgated thereunder.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3). Amended effective September 14, 1995 (Supp. 95-3).

R18-12-607.01. Pre-approval

A. The Department shall not make payment from the assurance account for the costs of corrective action performed during a phase of corrective action that is initiated after the effective date of this Section unless the eligible person meets the requirements of this Section. A phase of corrective action is initiated with the first corrective action activity performed following the submission to the Department of a report of work evidencing the completion of any activity performed in compliance with the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D). An application for pre-approval may include multiple phases of corrective action, provided applications that include work plans described under subsections (F), (I), or (K) of this Section are limited to phases described in one of those subsections.

B. An eligible person who elects to begin a phase of corrective action without awaiting approval of a work plan by the Department shall be subject to all of the following pre-approval procedures:

1. Prior to beginning the phase of corrective action the eligible person shall notify the Department, in writing;

2. The technical and financial reasonableness of the corrective action shall be reviewed and approved in accordance with R18-12-605;

3. The eligible person who makes such an election shall:

a. Not accrue five points for pre-approval under R18-12-606(E),

b. Have 15 points subtracted from the composite numerical score determined in accordance with R18-12-606(D);

4. An application for payment of corrective action cost of any phase subject to the election described under subsection (B) shall be ranked for payment in the regular round based on the date the reimbursement application is received by the Department.

C. The pre-approval procedures of this Section shall not apply to corrective action expenses incurred under any of the following:

1. A work plan submitted prior to the effective date of this Section and subsequently approved, in writing, by the Department.

2. A corrective action plan in accordance with 40 CFR 280.66 submitted prior to the effective date of this Section and subsequently approved by the Department. 40 CFR 280.66, as amended on July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or additions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

3. An Order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

4. An Order of the Director in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1013.

D. An eligible person shall be deemed to be in compliance with pre-approval requirements for initial corrective action activities described in this subsection from the date of the report to the Department of the release or of the subsequent discovery of the existence of free product or fire, explosion or vapor hazards, if all of the following are met:

1. Discovery of the release or subsequent discovery of free product or fire, explosion or vapor hazards is reported to the Department.

2. Work and costs are in compliance with the financial and technical reasonableness requirements of R18-12-605.

3. Compliance with one or more of the following:

a. Initial response activities under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(1), subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(F), in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 280.61. 40 CFR 280.61 as amended on July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions) is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

b. Initial abatement measures and site check activities under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(2) and (3), subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(F), in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 280.62. 40 CFR 280.62 as amended on July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions) is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

c. Free product removal under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(5), subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(F), in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 280.64. 40 CFR 280.64 as amended on July 1, 1994 (and no future amendments or editions) is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

4. Confirmation of compliance with the requirements of subsection (D) is demonstrated in the submission to the Department of one of the following:

a. A request for LUST file closure;

b. An application for pre-approval of site characterization in accordance with subsections (G) through (I);

c. An application for pre-approval of response to contaminated soil, surface water or groundwater in accordance with subsections (G), (H), and (K).

5. If the initial corrective action activities are expected to extend beyond 45 days from the date of initiation, the eligible person may continue the initial corrective action activities only if the eligible person submits an application, in accordance with subsections (G), (H) and (K), which includes the continuing initial corrective action activities, for pre-approval to the Department prior to the 45th day.

E. An eligible person shall be deemed to be in compliance with pre-approval requirements for the costs of removing an UST system from the ground if documented contamination exists, corrective action is required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005, and all of the following are met:

1. Discovery of the release is reported to the Department.

2. Work and costs are in compliance with the financial and technical reasonableness requirements of R18-12-605.

3. Work is in compliance with the requirements of R18-12-271.

4. Excavation costs are limited to the costs necessary to excavate the volume of soil required to remove the tank and piping from the ground and meet the sampling requirements of R18-12-272.

5. Confirmation of compliance with the requirements of subsection (E) is demonstrated in the submission to the Department of one of the items under subsection (D)(4)(a) through (c).

F. An eligible person shall be deemed to be in compliance with pre-approval requirements for initial site characterization under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(4) that are performed, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(F), in accordance with the provisions of 40 CFR 280.63, if the person meets the requirements of subsections (F)(1) through (6) or the requirements of subsection (F)(7). 40 CFR 280.63 as amended on July 1, 1994, (and no future amendments or additions), is incorporated by reference and is on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

1. Discovery of the release is reported to the Department.

2. Work and costs are in compliance with the financial and technical reasonableness requirements of R18-12-605.

3. Non-intrusive site information described in subsections (H)(4)(a), (d), and (e) of this Section, is collected.

4. A single vertical boring is drilled as close as physically possible to each confirmed release point, but not further than five feet (1.5 meters) from the release point. Borings shall not be drilled deeper than any of the following:

a. The depth at which groundwater is encountered,

b. 10 feet deeper than the last field detectable evidence of contamination,

c. The depth at which bedrock is encountered.

5. A soil sample for laboratory analysis is taken at least every 10 vertical feet but no more than every five vertical feet during a boring described in subsection (F)(4). All sampling shall meet the requirements of R18-12-280.

6. Confirmation of compliance with the requirements of subsection (F) is demonstrated in the submission to the Department of one of the items under subsections (D)(4)(a) through (c).

7. An eligible person shall submit an application for pre-approval if either of the following exist:

a. A request for pre-approval of site characterization in accordance with subsections (G) through (I) shall be made if site specific conditions prevent compliance with the provisions of subsection (F)(4)(a) through (c) or (F)(5), or if the full horizontal and vertical extent of contamination is not determined under the provisions of subsections (F)(1) through (6).

b. A request for pre-approval of initial site characterization is elected by the eligible person. The request shall be included with the application described under R18-12-604 and shall include the cost estimates described under subsection (G)(2) of this Section. In addition, a work plan that shall be limited to the information described under subsections (H)(1)(a), (H)(2)(a), (H)(2)(e), (H)(3), (H)(4)(a), (H)(4)(d), and (H)(4)(e) of this Section, and a statement that the initial site characterization activities shall be performed, subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(F), in accordance with 40 CFR 280.63 and subsection (F)(4) and (5) of this Section.

G. A request for pre-approval for conducting investigations for soil, waters of the United States and groundwater cleanups under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(6) or responses to contaminated soil, waters of the United States and groundwater under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(7), with the exception of subsection (F)(7)(a), shall be made after the initial site characterization under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(4) is completed and included with the application described under R18-12-604. An application for pre-approval shall include both of the following:

1. A work plan which contains the information set forth under subsections (H) and (I) or (K);

2. A detailed estimate of cost, by category of cost in accordance with R18-12-604(D)(6) and R18-12-605(E), to implement the work plan. Each contingency described in the work plan shall be identified in the estimate and include a separate cost estimate for the contingency.

H. Except as provided under subsection (F)(7)(b) of this Section, any work plan submitted to the Department shall contain all of the following:

1. Facility identification and location information which shall include both of the following:

a. UST facility information including: facility name, facility identification number, street address including city and zip code, county, and the legal description of the property.

b. Description of the current occupancy of the facility, current property use as either residential or non-residential, the zoning classification assigned to the facility and under any pending application for a change in zoning classification, and, where applicable, the master plan designation of the facility as residential or non-residential including identification of the master plan.

2. Name, complete address, daytime telephone and FAX number of each of the following:

a. Eligible person;

b. UST owner;

c. Property owner, if different than the UST owner;

d. UST operator;

e. Person at the facility serving as a contact person to the Department.

3. Name of the environmental consulting firm, name of the firm contact, complete address, daytime telephone and FAX number.

4. UST history and potential contaminant sources, pathways and receptors, including all of the following:

a. Information on the release that is the subject of the pre-approval application including that information required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1004(C), the LUST number assigned to the release, and all currently known or available LUST numbers for other releases reported at the facility.

b. UST excavation information including: dimensions of the height, width, and depth, of the excavation and a description of the material used to backfill the excavation as either clean fill, contaminated soil, presently not backfilled, or another type of backfill. Demonstration of compliance with the requirements of subsection (E) of this Section shall be included in this section of the work plan.

c. A description of all corrective action activities initiated prior to the submittal of the work plan and documentation of any notice submitted to the Department for self-initiated corrective actions.

d. The known or estimated depth to groundwater along with the date and source of this information.

e. Available site specific lithologic and geologic information. If no site specific information is available, information from known LUST releases, identified by LUST number, located within 500 feet of the facility shall be included. If no LUST release exists within 500 feet of the facility, other information shall be reported. The source and date of the information shall be included.

f. Volume and location of excavated soil located at the facility.

g. A list of all waters of the United States located within 1/4 mile of the facility, as listed in 18 A.A.C. 11.

h. Unless the vertical extent of contamination is limited to the vadose zone, a list of all wells registered with the Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR), and any other known or observed wells located within mile of the facility. For ADWR registered wells, the list shall include the Arizona Department of Water Resources registration number, water use category, reported water level, and drill date, if recorded.

i. A list of all schools, hospitals, nursing homes, and residential areas as described under A.R.S. &#167; 49-151(3), located within 500 feet of the facility.

5. Maps and diagrams, in accordance with all of the following:

a. Site location map, drawn to scale, which shall include the local area within a mile of the facility and all of the following information:

i. A north arrow;

ii. The map scale;

iii. The facility, prominently marked.

iv. Streets, roads, alleys or other thoroughfares with labels;

v. The general locations of all items listed in accordance with subsection (H)(4)(i);

vi. The location of other LUST sites listed in accordance with subsection (H)(4)(e) identified by LUST file number;

vii. The location of all wells listed in accordance with subsection (H)(4)(h);

viii. The locations of waters of the United States listed in accordance with subsection (H)(4)(g).

b. All site plans produced in accordance with subsections (H)(5)(c) through (e) of this Section shall be drawn to scale and include all of the following:

i. A north arrow;

ii. The map scale;

iii. The property boundaries;

iv. Adjacent land uses and general locations, as known, of structures surrounding the facility which could affect or be affected by the release including utility corridors, sewer systems, irrigation canals, drainage channels, transportation avenues, wells with any monitor well identification numbers, and waters of the United States;

v. Any buildings, on-site structures, or above ground storage tanks;

vi. The type and extent of on-site ground-surface cover described as asphalt, concrete, soil, or another specific type of cover;

vii. The present and former tank locations including all piping and above ground ancillary equipment with labels giving the size and contents of each tank. If any of this information is not known, estimated information shall be provided;

viii. Location of the release listed in accordance with subsection (H)(4)(a);

ix. Extent of any existing excavations resulting from UST corrective actions and the location of any excavated soil stockpiles;

x. Any structures, such as overhead power lines, that may interfere with drilling access.

c. A site plan which shows previous soil investigations, including all of the following:

i. Boring locations and identification numbers.

ii. Other soil sample collection locations, and identification numbers.

iii. Direct push probe point locations and identification numbers.

d. A site plan showing the results of previous groundwater investigations including all of the following:

i. Surveyed monitor well locations and identification numbers.

ii. Direct push probe points location and identification numbers.

iii. An arrow denoting groundwater flow direction of each aquifer being monitored.

e. A site plan showing the results of previous waters of the United States investigations which shall include both of the following:

i. Waters of the United States sample collection locations and identification number for each location.

ii. An arrow denoting flow direction of the waters of the United States, if applicable.

f. Construction diagrams of existing monitor wells showing well identification numbers and, if available:

i. Total depth and diameter of hole.

ii. Casing material, diameter, screened interval, groundwater elevation, wellhead and surface completion, and intervals for the annular fill materials described as sand, grout, or another specified material.

6. Tabulations of laboratory analytical results and water level data previously acquired to investigate the release which is the subject of the pre-approval application. If the laboratory analytical data have not been previously submitted to the Department, all laboratory analytical reports and chain of custody forms shall be included. Tabulation of laboratory analytical results is not required, nor will be accepted, where no laboratory analytical reports or chain of custody forms exist. The tabulations shall include the following:

a. Soil sampling analytical results including at least the sample identification number, the depth at which each sample was collected, and the date each sample was taken.

b. Groundwater sampling analytical results including at least the sample identification number and the date each sample was taken.

c. Waters of the United States sampling analytical results including the sample identification number and date each sample was taken.

d. Monitor well water level measurement data that shall include, for each measurement, at least the monitor well identification number, date of measurement, elevation of top of casing, screened interval, depth to water, and the water level elevation. If free product is present, include depth to free product and the elevation of the free product level.

7. A proposed work schedule for initiating, monitoring, and completing the corrective action activities under the work plan and for permit acquisition. The schedule shall identify the major activity increments of the work plan, including interim and final reporting to the Department, and include for each increment an estimate of the time for completion, following the Department approval of the work plan.

I. Any work plan submitted to the Department for investigations for soil, waters of the United States, and groundwater cleanups under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(6) shall meet the requirements of subsection (H) and all of the following:

1. All work plans submitted under subsection (I) shall contain all of the following:

a. The number of proposed samples, borings, probe points, and monitoring wells, and a rationale for the total number, locations, and proposed depths.

b. The locations of proposed samples, borings, probe points, and wells shown on the map described in subsection (H)(5)(b).

c. A description, including standard operating procedures, of the field equipment such as drill rig, field vapor detectors, and direct push equipment that will be used to obtain samples and to drill or install borings, wells, and probe points.

d. A list of all applicable permits and off-site access agreements that have been obtained or may be required.

2. If groundwater contamination has been found or if contaminated soils may be in contact with groundwater, all of the following shall be included:

a. A description of the local known or estimated hydrologic conditions such as the depth to groundwater, gradient, flow direction, confining layers, multiple aquifers or water table fluctuation (seasonal or historic) that may affect the construction or location of monitor wells. Known or estimated groundwater flow direction shall be shown on the site plan described in subsection (H)(5)(b).

b. Diagrams showing the construction of proposed wells including:

i. Total depth and diameter of hole.

ii. Casing material, diameter, screened interval, groundwater elevation, wellhead and surface completion, and intervals for the annular fill materials described as sand, grout, or another specified material.

c. A description of proposed well construction materials, and installation and development procedures.

3. If contamination of waters of the United States has been found, all of the following shall be included:

a. The uses of the waters of the United States or any unique waters designation pursuant to 18 A.A.C. 11 and a description of the known or estimated local gradient, flow direction, and average monthly discharge.

b. Nature of the waters of the United States identified as perennial or ephemeral.

4. A contingency plan shall be included that provides for additional soil, waters of the United States, or groundwater investigations, in the event that the investigations conducted under subsections (I)(1) through (3) do not adequately determine the full extent of contamination, or a rationale shall be provided as to why a contingency plan is not required. The contingency plans shall meet the requirements of (I)(1) through (3). The contingency plan shall contain conditions under which the additional investigations shall be performed.

J. A work plan for investigations for soil, waters of the United States, and groundwater cleanups that meets the requirements of subsections (H) and (I) shall be approved by the Department if the eligible person demonstrates through the work plan that the full extent and location of soils contaminated by the release and presence and concentrations of dissolved product contamination in groundwater and waters of the United States will be determined.

K. Any work plan submitted to the Department for responding to contaminated soil, groundwater, and waters of the United States under A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005(D)(7) shall meet the requirements of subsection (H) and all of the following:

1. A report of investigations for soil, waters of the United States, and groundwater cleanups, approved by the Department, that demonstrates characterization of the full horizontal and vertical extent of contamination has been achieved. At a minimum, the report shall contain all of the information requested in subsection (H) and a description of the outcome of any investigations conducted under an approved work plan pursuant to subsection (I). If this report was previously submitted and approved, the date of the report and the date of submittal to the Department shall be submitted and shall be deemed sufficient to meet the requirements of subsection (K);

2. A description of corrective action goals, including numerical cleanup goals for each contaminant released to soil, groundwater, or waters of the United States. A rationale for each goal shall be provided for each contaminant released to soil, groundwater, or waters of the United States. Each rationale shall demonstrate that the cleanup goal is not more stringent than one of the following:

a. The Aquifer Water Quality Standards pursuant to R18-11-405 and R18-11-406 at a designated point of compliance.

b. The Water Quality Standards under Title 18, Chapter 11, Article 1.

c. Soil Cleanup provisions pursuant to R18-12-605.01.

3. Narratives, figures, diagrams, and maps necessary to describe the proposed design and operation of each system used to perform corrective actions. This Section of the work plan shall provide a rationale, including supporting documentation, for the selection and design of each system, including criteria for evaluation of the effectiveness in achieving corrective action goals;

4. The locations and methods to be utilized to verify that corrective action goals have been met;

5. A plan for abandoning or decommissioning corrective action systems after verification that corrective action goals have been met;

6. Copies of all permits that have been obtained and a list of all other permits that may be required;

7. Additional information that the eligible person or the corrective action service provider preparing the work plan determines is necessary for the Department to approve the work plan.

L. A work plan for responding to contaminated soil, groundwater, and waters of the United States that meets the requirements of subsections (H) and (K) shall be approved by the Department if the eligible person demonstrates, pursuant to subsection (K)(1), that the full horizontal and vertical extent of contamination has been characterized and, through the work plan, that its implementation will protect human health, safety, and the environment. In making this determination, the Department shall consider the following:

1. The physical and chemical characteristics of the regulated substance, including its toxicity, persistence, and potential for migration;

2. The hydrogeologic characteristics of the facility and surrounding area;

3. The proximity, quality, and current and future uses of nearby waters of the United States and groundwater;

4. The potential effects of residual contamination on nearby waters of the United States and groundwater;

5. An exposure assessment;

6. Any information assembled in compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005.

M. The review and approval or denial of an application for pre-approval shall be in accordance with the following:

1. The Department shall determine on a site by site basis, if the work plan submitted for pre-approval is the most cost effective corrective action for that site taking into consideration the risk to human health and the environment.

2. The Department shall approve or deny an application for pre-approval within 90 days. The 90-day period shall begin on the date the Department receives the application and shall end on the date the approval or denial is mailed:

a. If the Department sends a statement of technical deficiencies, the period of days taken to deliver the statement and for the eligible person to submit a revised application shall not accrue to the 90-day period.

b. If the Department sends a determination of assurance account ineligibility in accordance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 3, the period of days taken to deliver the statement and for the ineligible person to establish eligibility shall not accrue to the 90-day period.

3. Before the Department makes a final determination of approval or denial of the pre-approval application, the eligible person may elect any of the following options:

a. Notwithstanding subsection (B), if the Department has not made a determination of technical deficiencies within 60 days of the date the Department receives the application, or if the Department has not made a final determination approving or denying an application within 90 days, computed in accordance with subsection (M)(2), of the date the Department receives the application, the eligible person may begin corrective action activities which are the subject of the pre-approval application by providing notice to the Department in accordance with subsection (B), but shall not incur the 15-point penalty provided under that subsection. The eligible person shall receive five points for pre-approval in accordance with R18-12-606(E) and shall be ranked for payment in a regular round in accordance with either of the following:

i. To the extent that work set forth in the pre-approval application reflects work that is subsequently approved, the regular round for such approved work shall be based on the date the Department receives the pre-approval application,

ii. To the extent that work set forth in the pre-approval application reflects work that is subsequently denied, the regular round for such denied work shall be based on the date the Department receives the application for reimbursement of corrective action costs for such work. The application for reimbursement for such work shall be subject to all provisions of this Article except this Section.

b. If the eligible person proceeds with corrective action before day 61, none of the five priority points for pre-approval shall accrue under R18-12-606(E) and the eligible person may elect to do either of the following:

i. Comply with the provisions of subsection (B) of this Section.

ii. Not comply with the provisions of subsection (B) of this Section and receive no payment under this Article for corrective action activities which are the subject of the pre-approval application.

4. If the Department determines that the pre-approval application is complete and the application demonstrates that the requirements of this Section have been met, the Department will inform the eligible person, by certified mail, that the request for pre-approval, including any specific requirements determined by the Department, is approved.

5. If the Department determines that the application for pre-approval fails to meet the requirements of this Section, the Department shall send the eligible person, by certified mail, a statement of technical deficiencies. The Department may include with the statement, any part of the application found to be deficient. The eligible person shall have 30 days from the date of receipt, as evidenced by the date on the return receipt, to correct all technical deficiencies and submit a revised pre-approval application to the Department. The Department shall consider the date of submission of the revised pre-approval application to be the postmarked date or date a hand-delivered application is date-stamped by the Department.

6. If, after the Department receives the revised application, and the Department determines that the application meets the requirements of this Section, the Department shall inform the eligible person, by certified mail, that the request for pre-approval, including any specific requirements determined by the Department, is approved.

7. The Department shall deny, in writing by certified mail, a pre-approval application that is not revised and returned to the Department within 30 days from the date of delivery of the deficiency statement to the eligible person.

8. The Department shall deny, in writing by certified mail, a pre-approval application that is revised and returned to the Department within 30 days, but which remains deficient.

9. The Department shall not make more than one finding of technical deficiencies before it denies a pre-approval application. All technical deficiencies not included in the statement of technical deficiencies shall be deemed acceptable if such technical deficiencies are not directly related to or a consequence of the deficiencies set forth in the statement of technical deficiencies. In no case shall technical deficiencies which violate A.R.S. &#167; 49-104 be deemed acceptable.

N. Before payment will be made in accordance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 3 for work associated with an approved work plan the Department shall review both of the following:

1. Information submitted to ADEQ detailing the work completed for consistency with the approved work plan. Work and its associated costs which are not consistent with the approved work plan will be paid only if the work meets the requirements of subsections (O) through (Q) of this Section.

2. Invoices and bills submitted for consistency with subsection (N)(1) of this Section, and the approved work plan. The Department shall not make payment from the assurance account for invoices and bills which are in excess of the detailed estimate of costs in accordance with subsection (G)(2) pre-approved by the Department.

O. Work conducted outside the scope of the pre-approved work plan shall be reviewed by the Department and paid by the assurance account as follows:

1. If the Department determines that the completed work and associated invoices and bills are reasonable and necessary in accordance with subsection (P) of this Section, and the total of all inconsistent and consistent invoices and bills are within the total pre-approved cost, the Department shall pay the inconsistent costs in accordance with the pre-approved work plan.

2. If the Department determines that the completed work and associated invoices and bills are reasonable and necessary in accordance with subsection (P) of this Section, and the total of all inconsistent and consistent invoices and bills exceeds the total pre-approved cost, the Department shall pay the amount in excess in accordance with R18-12-606 using the date the invoices and bills are submitted to the Department and the priority points allocated to the pre-approved application.

P. For the costs of all corrective action work conducted outside the scope of the pre-approved work plan the Department shall determine if those costs were reasonable and necessary, taking into consideration all of the following:

1. In accordance with R18-12-605, the technical and financial reasonableness of the work.

2. The objectives and contingencies of the pre-approved work plan.

3. Documentation submitted by the eligible person setting forth either of the following:

a. That the costs of the deviation associated with the inconsistent invoices and bills were the direct result of the occurrence of an act of war, an act of God, a legal constraint, or an act or omission of a 3rd party other than an employee or agent of the eligible person.

b. That the costs of the deviation associated with the inconsistent invoices and bills were less than or equal to the costs of the applicable line item in the approved work plan.

Q. The Department shall make payment from the assurance account as follows:

1. All costs incurred by the eligible person in complying with the submission requirements of this Section which meet the financial and technical reasonableness requirements of R18-12-605 shall be paid.

2. For eligible persons who incur costs in accordance with subsections (D), (E), or (F) all costs shall be reviewed, in accordance with Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 3 and R18-12-605, at the time of submission of the reimbursement application to the Department for payment. Eligible persons in compliance with subsections (D), (E), or (F) shall receive the five points for pre-approval under R18-12-606(E).

3. For eligible persons who elect to notify the Department in accordance with subsections (B) or (M)(3)(a) of this Section, all costs shall be reviewed, in accordance with Title 49, Chapter 6, Article 3 and R18-12-605, at the time of submission of the reimbursement application to the Department for payment.

Historical Note

Adopted under an exemption from A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1014, and &#167;&#167; 49-1052 (B) and (O), effective August 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.608" level="4" title="Reduction in Reimbursement">

Reduction in Reimbursement

A. Pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1053, the Department shall determine whether a reduction in reimbursement is justified. The Department shall determine the amount of reduction by employing a reduction calculation. Any reduction determined under this Section shall be applied to the claim after any adjustments are made in accordance with R18-12-601 through R18-12-607.

B. The Department shall determine whether any reduction is necessary by calculating a final numerical score for each claim submitted for reimbursement. The final numerical score is the sum of violation points assigned in accordance with subsections (C), (D), and (E). The final numerical score shall determine the total percentage reduction applied to a given claim.

C. The Department shall identify and calculate points for each violation of the UST regulatory program. The Department shall take into consideration the likely impact of the violation on human health and the environment, and the lack of due care as evidenced by the violation. To calculate the violation points identified with a specific violation, the Department shall assign one to three points per violation for the relative likely impact and one to three points per violation for relative lack of due care. Appendix A lists UST regulatory program violations and the corresponding violation points.

D. The Department shall assign additional points per violation for the following determinations: Two points where noncompliance is determined to be negligent, or five points where the noncompliance is determined to have been done knowingly, or six points where noncompliance is determined to have been done wilfully. For the purposes of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, negligent, knowingly, and wilful have the same meaning as A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 1-215(20), 1-215(12), and 1-215(36), respectively.

E. The Department shall evaluate whether there is full cooperation with the Department in response to a release by assessing whether each element of corrective action is accompanied by full cooperation. "Cooperation" means written communication with the Department regarding compliance with the UST regulatory program which is both timely and responsive, accompanied by a good faith effort to come into compliance with the requirements of the UST regulatory program. "Timely" means accomplished within a specific statutory or regulatory deadline or a specific deadline imposed by the Department in writing. Any deadline extension which is granted by the Department before the original deadline is passed, and which is met, is timely for the purposes of the extension. The Department shall assign points for failure to fully cooperate. Failure to fully cooperate in a given element will result in the assignment of ten points for that element. Failure to cooperate in all five elements of corrective action will result in the assignment of 50 points. For purposes of this subsection, the following are identified as the elements of corrective action:

1. Initial response and site check.

2. Initial abatement measures and initial site characterization.

3. Removal of free product.

4. Investigations for soil, surface water, and groundwater contamination.

5. Responses to contaminated soil, surface water, and groundwater.

F. The Department shall determine the reduction in reimbursement, if any, based upon the total numerical score calculated in accordance with this Section. The percentage of reduction is identified as follows: a claim assigned a score of ten points or less will result in no reduction in reimbursement. A claim assigned 11 points will result in a 1% reduction. Each additional point assigned will result in an additional 1% reduction. Claims which are assigned 110 or more points will result in a 100% reduction in reimbursement.

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective September 21, 1992, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 92-3). Emergency expired. Emergency rule adopted again effective January 13, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Adopted permanently with changes effective April 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-2).

APPENDIX A

<table> SAF REDUCTION IN REIMBURSEMENT Violation Checklist: Page 1 REGULATORY CITATION VIOLATIONS LIKELY IMPACT POINTS LACK OF DUE CARE POINTS NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS A.R.S. 49-1002 (40 CFR 280.22) Failure to notify the Department of the existence of all known UST systems or to provide complete certification of all required information on Notification forms. 3 3 TASK PERFORMANCE STANDARDS/GENERAL OPERATING REQUIREMENTS A.R.S. 49-1009 (40 CFR 280.20) Installation of an UST system which is not designed to prevent releases due to corrosion or structural failure for the operational life of the system; installation after December 22, 1988, of an UST system that fails to meet accepted industry codes and standards for design and construction, or improper installation of an UST system. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1009 (40 CFR 280.32) Installation or use of an UST system which is made of or lined with materials which are not compatible with the regulated substance stored in or dispensed from the UST system. 3 3 (40 CFR 280.21) Failure to meet all standards for upgrading an UST system after December 22, 1998. 3 3 (40 CFR 280.30) Failure to take actions to prevent spills or overfills, or to report, investigate, and clean up any spill or overfill. 3 3 (40 CFR 280.31) Failure to properly operate, maintain, test, or inspect a cathodic protection system, or to maintain every record of cathodic protection system inspections. 2 2 (40 CFR 280.33) Failure to repair and/or replace an UST system or parts of an UST system in accordance with accepted codes and standards and/or manufacturer's specifications. 2 3 (40 CFR 280.33) Failure to ensure that repaired UST systems are tightness tested within 30 days of completion of repair. 2 3 (40 CFR 280.33) Failure to test cathodic protection system within six months of repair of a steel UST system. 2 2 (40 CFR 280.33) Failure to maintain records of each repair to an UST system. 1 1 A.R.S. 49-1009 Failure to perform or cause to be performed a tightness test to determine compliance, as required by the Department. 2 3 </table>

APPENDIX A

<table> SAF REDUCTION IN REIMBURSEMENT Violation Checklist: Page 2 REGULATORY CITATION VIOLATIONS LIKELY IMPACT POINTS LACK OF DUE CARE POINTS RELEASE DETECTION &amp; RECORDKEEPING REQUIREMENTS A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.40) Failure to provide release detection which can detect a release from any portion of the tank that routinely contains product, or to close any UST system that cannot meet release detection requirements, by the required phase-in-date. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.40) Failure to install, calibrate, or maintain a release detection method in accordance with manufacturer's instructions. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.41) Failure to apply a method of release detection as required for a petroleum UST system. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.42) Failure to install double-walled tanks and secondary containment as required for hazardous substance USTs installed after December 22, 1988; failure to apply a method of release detection as required for a hazardous substance UST system. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.45) Failure to maintain any records of release detection monitoring, including results of sampling, testing, or monitoring for release detection for at least one year. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.45) Failure to maintain every record of release detection for at least one year; failure to retain results of tightness testing until next test is conducted. 1 1 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.45) Failure to document all release detection performance claims for five years after installation, where applicable. 1 1 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.45) Failure to document any or every calibration, maintenance, and repair of release detection for at least one year. 1 2 A.R.S. 49-1003 (40 CFR 280.45) Failure to maintain manufacturer's schedule of required calibration and maintenance for five years. 1 2 FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY A.R.S. 49-1006 (40 CFR 280.93) Failure to maintain any financial responsibility assurance coverage; failure to meet the financial responsibility requirements for per-occurrence and annual aggregate coverage in full; failure to establish evidence of financial responsibility consistent with the requirements of 40 CFR 280.90 through 40 CFR 280.111. 3 3 FEES &amp; TAXES A.R.S. 49-1020 Failure to pay the annual tank fee. 1 2 A.R.S. 49-1032 Failure to file the annual tax return; failure to pay the tax. 1 2 </table>

APPENDIX A

<table> SAF REDUCTION IN REIMBURSEMENT Violation Checklist: Page 3 REGULATORY CITATION VIOLATIONS LIKELY IMPACT POINTS LACK OF DUE CARE POINTS INSPECTION A.R.S. 49-1011 Failure to furnish to the Department information relating to a UST system, as required by the Department. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1011 Failure to permit the Department to conduct monitoring and testing of a UST system or the surrounding soils, air, surface water or groundwater, as required by the Department. 3 3 CLOSURE A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.70) Failure to continue operation and maintenance of cathodic protection system in a temporarily closed UST system. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.70) Failure to continue operation and maintenance of release detection in a temporarily closed UST system which contains a regulated substance. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.70) Failure to permanently close or upgrade a temporarily closed UST system after 12 months of temporary closure. 1 2 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.71) Failure to notify the Department of a temporary or permanent closure, or change in service, 30 days in advance. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.71) Failure to temporarily or permanently close an UST system, or accomplish a change in service, in a safe and secure manner which prevents the release of regulated substances; failure to remove an UST system from the ground or fill it with an inert material. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.72) Failure to measure for the presence of a release where contamination is most likely to be present, before closure of an UST system, or change in service. 3 2 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.73) Failure to assess the excavation zone and close in accordance with 40 CFR 280.70-74, as required by the Department, an UST system which was permanently closed before December 22, 1988. 3 2 A.R.S. 49-1008 (40 CFR 280.74) Failure to maintain closure records or change in service records for at least three years. 2 2 RELEASE REPORTING AND INVESTIGATION REQUIREMENTS A.R.S. 49-1004 (40 CFR 280.50) Failure to report to the Department a suspected or confirmed release (including spills and overfills) within 24 hours of discovery of the release. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1004 (40 CFR 280.52) Failure to report to the Department in writing, within 14 days of the 24-hour report, the required information regarding a suspected release, including the nature of the release and corrective actions taken and planned. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1004 (40 CFR 280.52) Failure to investigate and confirm a release using accepted procedures; failure to perform or cause to perform a tank test to confirm a release, as requested by the Department. 3 3 </table>

APPENDIX A

<table> SAF REDUCTION IN REIMBURSEMENT Violation Checklist: Page 4 REGULATORY CITATION VIOLATIONS LIKELY IMPACT POINTS LACK OF DUE CARE POINTS CORRECTIVE ACTION A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.60) Failure to take corrective actions in response to soil, surface water and groundwater, as required by the Department. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.61) Failure to take immediate action to stop the release and identify hazards (within 24 hours). 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.53) Failure to contain and immediately clean up a spill or overfill of petroleum that is less than 25 gallons. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.53) Failure to contain and immediately clean up a spill or overfill of a hazardous substance that is less than the reportable quality. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.62) Failure to initiate free product removal as soon as practicable. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.64) Failure to submit a report on free product removal with 45 days of confirmation of release (or other time specified by the Department). 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.64) Failure to submit a plan for automatic continuous free product removal within the time period specified by the Department. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.63) Failure to submit a site characterization report within the time period specified by the Department. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.65) Failure to determine the full extent of contamination, and characterize the contamination by constituents and concentrations. 3 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.65 &amp; 40 CFR 280.66) Failure to submit any or every quarterly monitoring report subsequent to installation of groundwater monitoring wells, as specified by the Department. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.66) Failure to submit a corrective action plan as required by the Department. 2 3 A.R.S. 49-1005 (40 CFR 280.66) Failure to implement a corrective action plan as required by the Department. 3 3 </table>

Historical Note

Emergency rule adopted effective September 21, 1992, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 92-3). Emergency expired. Emergency rule adopted again effective January 13, 1993, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 41-1026, valid for only 90 days (Supp. 93-1). Adopted permanently with changes effective April 15, 1993 (Supp. 93-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.609" level="4" title="Payment Determinations; Disagreements">

Payment Determinations; Disagreements

A. When a payment determination is made under this Article, the Department shall inform the applicant in writing of all the following:

1. The original amount of the applicant's claim.

2. Any and all reductions or adjustments which reduce or change the original claim amount.

3. A summary of the determinations which were made to arrive at the final payment amount.

B. If an applicant receiving a payment determination under subsection (A) disagrees with that determination, the applicant shall notify the Department in writing of those specific parts of the determination with which the applicant disagrees. The notification of disagreement shall be returned to the Department within ten days after the date of the issuance of the payment determination. The Department shall reconsider the payment determination in light of the notice of disagreement made by the applicant and may change the payment amount if appropriate.

C. Within 15 days after making a payment determination under subsection (A), or within 15 days after receiving a notification of disagreement if one is filed, the Department shall issue a warrant for the payment determination amount, with an explanation of any difference between the warrant amount and the original payment determination amount. The warrant and any explanation made under this subsection, subsection (B), or both shall be considered the Department's final determination.

D. Any final determination shall advise the applicant of the appeal procedures described in R18-12-610.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="R18.12.610" level="4" title="Appeals">

Appeals

A. Any applicant aggrieved by a final determination of the Department under R18-12-609 may appeal the determination by filing a request for a hearing within 30 days after the receipt of the final determination. The request for hearing shall specify which portions of the final determination are being disputed and the nature of the appellant's dispute.

B. Within 30 days after receipt of a request for a hearing, the Department shall appoint or, if permitted by law, request that the Department of Administration appoint a hearing officer and otherwise conduct a contested case hearing in accordance with the procedures established in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 41-1061 through 41-1066 and R18-1-201 through R18-1-219.

C. The hearing officer shall issue a recommended decision in writing within 30 days after the close of evidence in the contested case hearing. The recommended decision shall contain proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law and a proposed order for the Director's signature. Within 15 days after receipt of the recommended decision, any party to the hearing shall be entitled to submit written comments on the recommended decision for consideration by the Director. Within 60 days of the issuance of the recommended decision, the Director shall issue a final decision, which shall adopt, modify, or reverse the recommended decision of the hearing officer.

D. During the pendency of an appeal under this Section, any amount in dispute shall be placed in a separate reserved account until the final determination of the appeal.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 21, 1992 (Supp. 92-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK GRANT PROGRAM">

UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK GRANT PROGRAM

<regElement name="R18.12.701" level="4" title="Allocation of Grant Account Funds">

Allocation of Grant Account Funds

The Department shall determine the total amount of funds in the grant account on the last day of the application submission period. Subject to the provisions of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1015(A), the Department shall allocate the total amount of available funds as follows:

1. Up to and including 5.0% of the total amount of available funds shall be allocated for the expenses incurred by the Department in administering the fund.

2. Of the total amount available after the allocation for administrative expenses, an amount for use by applicants classified as local governments shall be reserved based on the number of active facilities, developed from the UST database, in accordance with the following formula:

Percentage amount reserved for local governments = number of local government facilities &#247; the total number of facilities, excluding state and federal facilities.

3. Funds remaining, after subtracting the amounts determined under subsections (A)(1) and (2) from the total amount in the grant account, shall be reserved for applicants classified as other than local governments.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.702" level="4" title="Eligible Projects">

Eligible Projects

A. An owner or operator of a UST may apply to the Department, during an application submission period, for a grant for the purpose of funding any of the following eligible projects:

1. Installing a leak detection system that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1003 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

2. Upgrading a UST system by the addition of spill prevention, overfill prevention, or corrosion protection that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1009 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

3. Replacing a non-complying UST with a UST of equal or smaller volume that meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1009 and the rules promulgated thereunder. The eligible project may include the cost of removing of the existing UST system. Removal of an existing UST system shall meet the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1008 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

4. Paying the portion of necessary and reasonable corrective action expenses not covered by the assurance account as prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1054. The corrective action shall meet the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1005 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

5. Removing a UST from the ground if the UST will not be replaced and the removal meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-1008 and the rules promulgated thereunder.

6. Paying for expedited review of the applicant's workplan, site characterization reports, corrective action plans, monitoring reports, and other information as prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1052.

B. An eligible project shall be limited to the work specified in the application, which shall be approved by the Department pursuant to R18-12-709. An eligible project shall not include any of the following:

1. Adding to or altering of all or part of any building or appurtenant structure at the facility.

2. Demolishing a building or appurtenant structure at the facility unless the demolition is necessary to complete the eligible project. If demolishing a building or appurtenant structure is necessary to complete the eligible project, grant funds shall not be used to reconstruct or replace all or part of the building or appurtenant structure demolished.

3. Resurfacing with new materials of a kind and quality exceeding those in place before beginning the project. Resurfacing shall be limited to the minimum area of surfacing required to be removed or destroyed during the project. Resurfacing shall not include the cost of replacing islands unless necessary for the continued operation of the facility as demonstrated in the business plan required under R18-12-708.

4. Replacing or refurbishing dispensers, canopies, awnings, or similar items that are not part of the actions necessary to comply with the statutory requirements for the project set forth in subsection (A).

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.703" level="4" title="Amount of Grant Per Applicant or Facility">

Amount of Grant Per Applicant or Facility

A. Under this Article, the Department shall grant to any owner or operator a maximum of $100,000. If the owner and the operator are the same person, a maximum of $100,000 shall be granted to that person.

B. Under this Article, the Department shall grant a maximum of $100,000 for eligible projects to be completed at any one facility.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.704" level="4" title="Grant Application Submission Period">

Grant Application Submission Period

A. The Department shall establish the beginning and ending dates of each grant application submission period. The Department shall publish the dates of each submission period in the public notices section of the Arizona Republic newspaper and in the Underground Storage Tank News, a quarterly newsletter published by the Department and available at the Department upon request.

B. The Department shall consider an application to be received on the date the application is postmarked or, if hand delivered, on the date stamped on the application by the Department. The Department shall not consider an application received after the ending date of the submission period.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

18-12-705. Grant Application Process

A. In accordance with the provisions of R18-12-706(A), an owner or operator shall submit to the Department during a grant application submission period described in R18-12-704 all of the information described in R18-12-706, except that the surety bond, general liability insurance, mechanic's lien, and contract, if required under R18-12-706(D)(2), may be submitted separately from the work plan. If the owner or operator elects to submit separately the proof of surety bond, general liability insurance, mechanic's lien, or contract, then the owner or operator shall submit that information to the Department not later than 60 days after receiving the Department's notice of grant issue approval under R18-12-714(A), measured from the date of the certified mail return receipt, otherwise the grant issue shall be forfeited in accordance with R18-12-714(D). The Department shall not issue a warrant for the payment of the grant if the Department has not received all information required under this Article.

B. After the close of the submission period, the Department shall review grant applications in the order received and allocate priority ranking points to each application in accordance with R18-12-711 or R18-12-712. If no priority points are allocated under R18-12-711(B)(3)(a) or R18-12-712(B)(1), the Department shall inform the applicant in writing that the application has been rejected.

C. If an application is not rejected, the Department shall review the application and determine whether there are deficiencies in the information submitted. The Department shall inform the applicant in writing of any deficiencies and of the resubmission provisions under R18-12-709(B).

D. If a grant application involves either upgrading a UST system with corrosion protection under R18-12-702(A)(2) or replacing a UST system under R18-12-702(A)(3), the Department shall determine the feasibility of upgrading the system in accordance with the requirements of R18-12-710.

E. Following the end of the resubmission period, the Department shall determine which applicants are to receive grant funds in accordance with R18-12-713 and make payments in accordance with R18-12-714.

F. The Department shall accept for consideration grant applications and grant application resubmissions that are submitted before or after commencement or completion of the work that is the subject of the grant application or application resubmission.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.706" level="4" title="Grant Application Contents">

Grant Application Contents

A. An owner or operator seeking a grant to fund an eligible project as described in R18-12-702 shall submit to the Department an application on a form provided by the Department. The application may contain information on more than one project at the facility if all requirements under this Article are met for each project. If the same information is required for more than one project on the same application, the information shall be included only once and a reference made on the application to that information.

B. The application shall contain all of the following information:

1. The name, daytime telephone number, and mailing address of the applicant;

2. The federal employer identification (tax) number or social security number of the applicant;

3. A description of the applicant's status as either an owner or operator and classification as either a local government or other than local government;

4. The total number of UST facilities owned or operated by the applicant;

5. The UST owner identification number assigned by the Department to the person who owns the facility where the eligible project was or will be conducted;

6. The name and daytime telephone number of a person the Department may contact if there are questions regarding the application or its attachments.

C. The application shall contain all of the following information regarding the facility and UST on which the eligible project was or will be conducted:

1. The facility name, site address, and the associated County Assessor book, map, and parcel number;

2. The UST facility identification number assigned by the Department;

3. The date of installation of the UST;

4. The regulated substance stored in the UST over the past 12 months;

5. The Leaking Underground Storage Tank number assigned by the Department to any releases at the facility;

6. A statement as to whether the facility is involved in marketing regulated substances from UST systems;

7. The distance, in miles, from the facility to the nearest alternative source of the same regulated substance as stored in the UST system;

8. If the eligible project is described under R18-12-702(A)(1) through (3), a business plan prepared in accordance with R18-12-708.

D. An application, except an application for a corrective action grant as described in R18-12-702(A)(4) or an application for expedited review as described in R18-12-702(A)(6), shall contain the information required by subsections (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (8) for the eligible project. An application for a corrective action grant as described in R18-12-702(A)(4) shall contain the information required by subsections (D)(1), (2), (3), (5), (6) and (8). An application for an expedited review as described in R18-12-702(A)(6) shall contain the information required by subsections (D)(1), (3), (5) and (7).

1. A statement of the kind of eligible project as listed in R18-12-702(A).

2. A work plan which meets the requirements of R18-12-707. The work plan shall be the basis for cost bids submitted with the application.

3. The total amount of grant funds requested. If the amount requested is based on three cost bids that are required under (D)(4), then the amount requested shall be the lowest of the cost bids.

4. Three written, detailed, firm, fixed cost bids for completing the eligible project. All three cost bids shall be for projects that will use the same methodology to achieve compliance with the regulatory requirements for the project and shall include for each itemized cost a description of the kind of work, equipment, or materials and any labor, transportation, or other activities that constitute the itemized cost. Each itemized cost shall refer to the specific item or portion of the work plan that describes that cost.

5. The total amount of costs incurred for professional services directly related to the preparation of the grant application.

6. If the eligible project is a corrective action as described in R18-12-702(A)(4), then the grant applicant shall also include a copy of the direct payment or reimbursement determinations for that corrective action issued by the Department in accordance with R18-12-609, otherwise the applicant shall include a statement that the information identified at R18-12-601 through R18-12-607.01 was submitted to the Department as required for the Department to make the SAF preapproval, direct payment, or reimbursement determinations.

7. If the eligible project is an expedited review as described in R18-12-702(A)(6), the application shall identify the documents the applicant is requesting be reviewed on an expedited basis. A schedule of costs for an expedited review of documents shall be used to determine the grant amount. The schedule of costs shall include each type of document and the corresponding cost for the expedited review of that document.

8. The name and address of each service provider, including subcontractors, that performed, or will perform, services required to conduct the eligible project, and all of the following information for each service provider:

a. Identification as a consultant, contractor, engineer, subcontractor, tester, or other professional classification and whether a license from the Board of Technical Registrations is required for the profession;

b. Contractor license number issued by the Registrar of Contractors;

c. License number issued by the Board of Technical Registrations;

d. The name and daytime telephone number of the project contact person.

E. An applicant applying on behalf of an individual, or a firm classified as other than local government, shall submit to the Department the information described in subsections (E)(1) through (3) and, if applicable, (E)(4).

1. For all applicants, the balance sheet from the most recent completed fiscal year for the firm, and all prepared notes and schedules to the balance sheet. The closing date of the balance sheet shall not be more than one year from the date of the application. The balance sheet shall include all of the following:

a. Total assets and total liabilities,

b. Total intangible assets,

c. Total current assets and total current liabilities, and

d. Current year-end net worth.

2. For individuals and sole proprietorships, the applicant's personal financial statement that meets all of the requirements of subsection (E)(1).

3. For partnerships, limited liability companies and S corporations, the personal financial statement that meets the requirements of subsection (E)(1) for each owner of 20% or more of the firm.

4. For applicants who wish to be eligible for priority ranking points under R18-12-711(G), a copy of the most current federal and state annual income tax returns that show all of the following:

a. Total revenues and total expenses, and

b. Total revenues from operation of UST facilities.

F. If the applicant firm is a wholly owned subsidiary, the applicant shall provide to the Department a copy of all documents required under subsection (E) for the parent firm. The Department shall determine financial need based upon the financial statements of the parent firm.

G. If an application is made on behalf of a nonprofit or not-for-profit entity organized under the provisions of A.R.S. Title 10, the applicant shall submit to the Department a copy of the letter from the Corporation Commission granting nonprofit or not-for-profit status and the most recent year-end balance sheet and all prepared notes and schedules to the balance sheet. The closing date of the balance sheet shall not be more than one year from the date of the application. The balance sheet shall include all of the following:

1. The information described under subsections (E)(1)(a) through (d);

2. Current year-end and the prior year-end reserved and designated fund balances;

3. Current year-end and the prior year-end unreserved and undesignated fund balance;

4. If the applicant wishes to be eligible for priority ranking points under R18-12-711(G), a copy of the most recent year-end statement of revenues and expenses prepared simultaneously with the balance sheet that shows all of the information required under subsections (E)(4)(a) and (b).

H. If application is made on behalf of a local government, the applicant shall submit to the Department a copy of the balance sheet for the most recent completed fiscal year and all prepared notes and schedules to the balance sheet. The closing date of the balance sheet shall not be more than one year from the date of the application. The balance sheet shall include all of the following:

1. Current year-end and the prior year-end reserved and designated fund balances,

2. Current year-end and the prior year-end unreserved and undesignated fund balance, and

3. Total current assets and total current liabilities.

I. The applicant shall sign, have notarized, and attach to the application a certification statement that, to the applicant's best information and belief, all information provided on the application and attachments to the application is true and complete.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.707" level="4" title="Work Plan">

Work Plan

A. A work plan for a grant for an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(1) through (3) shall contain all of the following:

1. A site plan, drawn to scale, that includes a diagram of the facility showing the location of each UST involved in the project, the access routes to each UST involved, obstructions to access to each UST including natural or artificial barriers, canopies, buildings, and other structures.

2. A plan or report of the specific material or equipment installation or removal activities.

3. A timetable for the incremental steps and completion of the project tasks not yet commenced or completed.

4. The specifications and certifications provided by the manufacturer or a 3rd party for all equipment the installation of which is the subject of the grant application, including 3rd-party certification of performance standards for probability of detection and probability of false alarm for leak detection equipment in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1003.

5. If the eligible project includes the installation of a cathodic protection system under R18-12-702(A)(2) or R18-12-702(A)(3), the engineering plan for the installation of the system prepared by a corrosion expert and supporting documents that demonstrate the effectiveness of the system under the site-specific conditions.

6. The original or duplicate of an American Institute of Architects surety bond form A311 with a penal sum in the amount of the contract, which names the Department and the applicant as dual obligees and the contractor as principal for each service provider on the eligible project, and which provides that a lawsuit under the bond may be filed within two years from the date on which final payment under the contract falls due. The surety company issuing the bond shall be among those listed as acceptable sureties on federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury, Washington, D.C., as amended on June 30, 1995, and no future editions, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

7. A copy of the comprehensive general liability insurance policy or a certificate of insurance for the general liability insurance policy providing coverage for each contractor who will provide services during the eligible project. The comprehensive general liability insurance policy shall have a minimum limit of liability of $1,000,000, include coverage for pollution liability, and name the Department as a named insured for any liabilities incurred in relation to the eligible project.

8. A copy of any mechanics' lien placed on the facility or the equipment at or to be installed at the facility in conjunction with the eligible project.

9. A copy of each contract signed by the owner or operator concerning the eligible project.

B. A work plan for a grant for an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(4) shall consist of the information required under subsections (A)(7) through (9), except that the contractor comprehensive general liability insurance policy is not required to include coverage for pollution liability.

C. A work plan for a grant for an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(5) shall comply with the requirements of subsections (A)(1) through (4), and (A)(6) through (9) and contain provisions for compliance with the standards of the American Petroleum Institute Publication 1604, "Removal and Disposal of Used Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks," amended December 1987, Supplement March 1989, Washington, D.C., and no future editions, incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Secretary of State.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended under an exemption from A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6 pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1014, and &#167;&#167; 49-1052 (B) and (O), effective August 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-3). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.708" level="4" title="Business Plan">

Business Plan

A. An application for an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(1) through (3) shall contain a business plan that demonstrates the potential for continued operation, for at least three years after issuance of the grant, of the facility at which the UST is located. The business plan shall contain all of the following:

1. A description of the current operations of the applicant which contains all of the following:

a. The designation of the applicant as an individual, sole proprietorship, general partnership, limited partnership, C-corporation, S-corporation, joint venture, nonprofit or not-for-profit entity, local government, or another specified form of legal organization;

b. The nature of the operation and its history during its life or the last three years, whichever is the shorter period;

c. A discussion of the market in which the applicant operates, including the kinds of products and services provided, the geographic area served, and a general description of the size, growth, density, and distribution of the population served; and

d. The number of employees and the number of hours worked per week by each.

2. A written statement of the job history and work experience of each owner or officer of the applicant and of each manager of the facility; and

3. A description of projected operations of the facility that includes all of the following:

a. A description of planned changes to the operation of the facility. If no changes are planned, a statement of the reason for requesting a grant and how receipt of the grant will assist in continued operation of the facility; and

b. An estimate of expected revenue and expenses by year for the three-year period following issuance of a grant. The estimate shall contain the major assumptions for:

i. Revenue by source by year; and

ii. Expenses, including annual debt service and contingent liabilities, by year.

B. The Department shall review the business plan in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, to determine whether the business is a viable entity capable of continuing in business for three years following the grant issue. All of the following shall be considered:

1. Existence of a significant contingent liability,

2. History of profits or losses from operations,

3. Extent of owner equity,

4. Market potential,

5. Stability of key management personnel, and

6. Legality of operations.

C. The applicant shall have the financial statements required under this Section prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. A financial analysis by a certified public accountant shall not result in a qualification.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.709" level="4" title="Review of Application">

Review of Application

A. The Department shall review a grant application to determine whether the application contains all of the information required by this Article.

B. If the Department determines the application is not complete or otherwise fails to meet the requirements of this Article, the Department shall send to the applicant, by certified mail, a written statement of deficiencies. The Department may include in the mailing, any part of the application found to be deficient. The applicant shall have 30 days from the date of receipt, as evidenced by the date on the return receipt, to correct all deficiencies and resubmit the application or information to the Department. The Department shall consider the date the application is postmarked or hand delivered to be the date of resubmission to the Department. The Department shall not consider an application that remains deficient at the end of the resubmission period.

C. If the Department determines that an application contains information required by this Article, the Department shall approve the application and place it in priority order in accordance with the provisions of R18-12-713.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.710" level="4" title="Feasibility Determination">

Feasibility Determination

A. For eligible projects listed in R18-12-702(A)(2) and (3) that involve corrosion protection, the Department shall determine the feasibility of upgrading or replacing the UST. The Department shall base its feasibility determination on a report of internal inspection of the existing UST conducted by an Arizona licensed contractor. The inspection report shall include a certification by the contractor that the inspection was conducted in accordance with the American Petroleum Institute publication 2015, "Safe Entry and Cleaning of Petroleum Storage Tanks," (January, 1991) and the American Petroleum Institute publication 1631, "Interior Lining of Underground Storage Tanks," 2nd edition (December, 1987), and no later amendments or editions, both of which are incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

B. The Department shall ensure that the amount of grant monies approved for an eligible project is consistent with the results of the feasibility determination. If the feasibility determination concludes that a UST can be upgraded with corrosion protection, but the application requests grant funds for replacing the UST, the Department shall not approve an amount in excess of the estimated cost of upgrading the UST. If a UST cannot be upgraded with corrosion protection, and the application requests grant funds to upgrade the UST, the Department may approve the amount of the estimated cost of replacing the UST.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.711" level="4" title="Criteria for Determining Priority Ranking Points for Applicants Other Than Local Governments">

Criteria for Determining Priority Ranking Points for Applicants Other Than Local Governments

A. The Department shall allocate priority ranking points to a grant application for an owner or operator who is not a local government in accordance with this Section. The maximum number of priority ranking points is 105.

B. Subject to the provisions of subsections (B)(1) and (2) and in accordance with subsections (B)(3)(a) and (b), the Department shall allocate a maximum of 50 priority ranking points for financial need.

1. If the applicant is a Chapter S corporation, the balance sheets from the most current completed fiscal year for the corporation and for each person who owns 20% or more of the corporation shall be combined to determine the total tangible net worth, current assets, and current liabilities to be used in subsections (B)(3)(a) and (b).

2. If the applicant is a nonprofit or not-for-profit entity organized under A.R.S. Title 10, the total tangible net worth, current assets, and current liabilities used to determine the number of priority ranking points under subsections (B)(3)(a) and (b) may be reduced by any reserved and designated fund balances. All reserved and designated fund balances to be deducted shall appear on the balance sheet submitted in accordance with R18-12-706(G).

3. Priority ranking points shall be allocated as follows:

a. A maximum of 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the grant request divided by tangible net worth. The tangible net worth shall be determined from the information submitted as required under R18-12-706(E) through (G) and the provisions of subsections (B)(1) and (2). If the applicant has a negative tangible net worth, 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated. If the indicated tangible net worth is positive, priority ranking points shall be allocated as follows:

PERCENTAGE POINTS

20% or more 25 Points

16% up to but not including 20% 20 Points

12% up to but not including 16% 15 Points

8% up to but not including 12% 10 Points

4% up to but not including 8% 5 Points

Less than 4% 0 Points

b. A maximum of 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of total current assets divided by total current liabilities. Current assets and current liabilities shall be determined from the information submitted as required under R18-12-706(E) through (G) and subsections (B)(1) and (2). Priority ranking points shall be allocated as follows:

PERCENTAGE POINTS

Less than 100% 25 Points

100% up to but not including 125% 20 Points

125% up to but not including 150% 15 Points

150% up to but not including 175% 10 Points

175% up to but not including 200% 5 Points

200% or more 0 Points

C. A maximum of 10 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the date of installation of the tank as follows:

DATE OF INSTALLATION POINTS

1. After December 22, 1988 0 Points

2. May 7, 1985 through December 22, 1988 3 Points

3. Before May 7, 1985 10 Points

D. If the program is described under subsection R18-12-702(A)(4) or (6), a maximum of 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the threat to human health and the environment by the presence of an active leaking underground storage tank (LUST) site at the facility that is the subject of the eligible project as follows:

1. Active LUST site at the facility that has

impacted groundwater 25 Points

2. Active LUST site at the facility that has not

impacted groundwater 15 Points

3. No active LUST site at the facility 0 Points

E. A maximum of five priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the extent of the geographic area served depending on whether or not the facility markets regulated substances as follows:

1. Marketing facility 5 Points

2. Other than Marketing facility 0 Points

F. A maximum of 10 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the distance to the nearest alternative source of regulated substance to the community as follows:

DISTANCE POINTS

1. Less than 5 miles 0 Points

2. 5 miles up to 10 miles 5 Points

3. 10 miles or more 10 Points

G. An additional five priority ranking points shall be allocated to an applicant who, based on information in the application, meets all of the following:

1. Has annual total revenue of less than $1 million,

2. Derives at least 50% of annual total revenue from the operation of UST facilities, and

3. Owns or operates no more than two UST facilities.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.712" level="4" title="Criteria for Determining Priority Ranking Points for Applicants That Are Local Governments">

Criteria for Determining Priority Ranking Points for Applicants That Are Local Governments

A. The Department shall allocate priority ranking points to a grant application of an owner or operator that is a local government in accordance with this Section. The maximum number of priority ranking points is 100, consisting of the points allocated in accordance with subsections (B) and (C).

B. The Department shall allocate a maximum of 50 priority points for financial need as follows:

1. A maximum of 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the grant request divided by total unreserved and undesignated fund balance. If the total unreserved or undesignated fund balance is negative, 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated. If the total unreserved or undesignated fund balance is positive, priority ranking points shall be allocated as follows:

PERCENTAGE POINTS

20% or more 25 Points

16% up to but not including 20% 20 Points

12% up to but not including 16% 15 Points

8% up to but not including 12% 10 Points

4% up to but not including 8% 5 Points

Less than 4% 0 Points

2. A maximum of 25 priority ranking points shall be allocated based on the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of total current assets divided by total current liabilities. Current assets and current liabilities shall be determined from the balance sheet submitted in accordance with R18-12-706(H). Priority ranking points shall be allocated in accordance with R18-12-711(B)(3)(b).

C. Additional priority ranking points shall be allocated in accordance with R18-12-711(C) through (F).

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.713" level="4" title="Determination of Grants to Be Issued">

Determination of Grants to Be Issued

A. The Department shall determine the following within 90 days after close of the submission period:

1. The total amount of the request for each application which is approved under R18-12-709, and any feasibility determination expenditure incurred by the Department in complying with the requirements of R18-12-710. Subject to the provisions of R18-12-703, the total of the amount approved and the feasibility determination expense shall be the amount of the grant issue;

2. The total number of priority ranking points allocated to each applicant under R18-12-711 or R18-12-712;

3. The amount of funds available for each classification of applicant in accordance with R18-12-701(2) and (3); and

4. The date on which each complete application was received or, if the application was not complete, the date on which the information requested in the deficiency statement which completed the application was received.

B. The Department shall rank each application within each applicant classification in numerical order by priority ranking points with the greatest number of priority ranking points being the highest rank.

C. From the total amount of funds available for each applicant classification, the Department shall subtract, in descending order of total priority ranking points allocated to each applicant, the amount approved for each eligible project until all available funds are committed. Applications that have funds committed shall be approved for issuance. Applications that do not have funds committed shall be denied for issuance.

D. If two or more applicants have the same number of priority ranking points and available grant funds are insufficient to make issues to all of these applicants, the applications shall be ranked by date received. The application with the earliest received date stamped on the application shall have 1st commitment for grant issue. The application with the next earliest date received shall have next commitment, and so forth until all available grant funds are committed. If an application was received incomplete and the deficiencies were corrected later, the application shall be deemed received on the date the material completing the application was received.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2).

<regElement name="R18.12.714" level="4" title="Grant Issuance; Notification; Payment">

Grant Issuance; Notification; Payment

A. Not later than 90 days after the end of the submission period or, if applicable, the resubmission period, the Department shall notify each applicant in writing of the denial or approval of a grant issuance. The determination of denial or approval shall be made in accordance with R18-12-713. A notice of grant approval shall contain all of the following:

1. A statement of the original amount of the applicant's grant request,

2. An explanation of all reductions or adjustments that reduce or change the original grant request amount and the reason for each change,

3. A statement of the amount of the grant issue, and

4. The provisions of subsections (B) through (D).

B. The Department shall not make any grant payment to the applicant or a person providing services or equipment to the applicant until the Department receives all of the following:

1. Proof of surety bond, general liability insurance, mechanic's lien and contract if required under R18-12-707. The grant applicant may submit these documents to the Department before or after commencement or completion of the work that is the subject of the grant application but shall submit these documents not later than 60 days after receiving the notice of grant issue approval, measured from the date of the certified mail return receipt.

2. Invoices for work performed or equipment installed in conjunction with the eligible project. If the work performed is an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(1), (2), (3), or (5), then each invoice shall reference the work performed or the equipment installed to the specific item or task in the work plan. If the work performed is an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(4), then the applicant shall submit a copy of the direct payment or reimbursement determinations received pursuant to R18-12-609(A) in addition to the invoices for that work.

3. For work performed that is not an eligible project under R18-12-702(A)(4), a written statement, signed by the applicant and the person acting as general contractor on the eligible project, which certifies that all work, equipment, or materials itemized on each invoice have been performed, used, or installed in accordance with this Chapter. The statement shall contain, for each invoice itemized, the invoice number and the total amount of the invoice. The signatures appearing on the certification shall be notarized.

4. An agreement signed by the applicant and the person serving as general contractor on the approved eligible project, which designates the name to be shown as payee on all warrants issued in payment for work and equipment on the approved project.

C. The Department shall not make total payments that exceed the grant amount approved by the Department in accordance with this Article, or that exceed the amount actually incurred to complete the eligible project, whichever is less. The Department shall not make payments to cover the cost of work that is not an eligible project under R18-12-702 unless the cost is for professional services directly related to the preparation of the grant application that are approved by the Department.

D. If all of the requirements of subsection (B) are met, and subject to the provisions of subsection (C), the Department shall issue a warrant for the amount of the submitted invoice or invoices. If an applicant is notified of a grant issuance but fails to meet the requirements of subsection (B)(1) not later than 60 days after receiving the notice of grant issue measured from the date of the certified mail return receipt, then the Department shall inform the applicant in writing that the grant issue has been forfeited by the applicant. The Department shall return a forfeited grant issue to the grant fund.

Historical Note

Adopted effective May 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Amended effective October 21, 1998 (Supp. 98-4).

ARTICLE 8. TANK SERVICE PROVIDER

CERTIFICATION

<regElement name="R18.12.801" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. Beginning from and after December 31, 1996, a person shall not perform tank service on an underground storage tank system unless the person is certified under this Article by the Department or is supervised by a person certified under this Article by the Department in accordance with R18-12-802 or R18-12-806. The certification requirements of this Article shall not apply to the site assessment or sampling requirements of this Chapter.

B. A person who performs or supervises tank service shall present to the Department proof of certification when requested by the Department.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.802" level="4" title="Transition">

Transition

A. If a tank service provider does not obtain certification pursuant to R18-12-806 by January 31, 1997, the tank service provider who is subject to the requirements of this Article shall request, before January 31, 1997 temporary certification in writing from the Department. The request for temporary certification shall be submitted to the Department on the application form described under R18-12-806, except only the information described under R18-12-806(B)(1), (B)(2), (B)(4), and (B)(5), shall be included. The Department shall issue a temporary certification card for the tank service category requested within 15 days following receipt of an administratively complete application.

B. A temporary certification granted pursuant to subsection (A) of this Section expires March 31, 1997.

C. When a tank service provider receives certification pursuant to R18-12-806, temporary certification is void.

D. Temporary certification granted pursuant to subsection (A) cannot be used to satisfy the requirements under R18-12-601.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.803" level="4" title="Categories of Certification">

Categories of Certification

The Department may certify a person who performs or supervises tank service in any one or more of the following categories:

1. Installation and retrofit of an UST,

2. Tightness testing of an UST,

3. Cathodic protection testing of an UST,

4. Decommissioning of an UST,

5. Interior lining of an UST.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.804" level="4" title="International Fire Code Institute Certification; Manufacturer Certification">

International Fire Code Institute Certification; Manufacturer Certification

A person qualifies for certification by the Department as a tank service provider if the following conditions are met:

1. The person holds certification from IFCI for the category of certification being sought.

2. If required by the manufacturer, the person holds a manufacturer's certification for the use of a piece of equipment or methodology in addition to holding the IFCI certification for the category of certification being sought.

3. The person submits evidence of qualification under this Section for the category of certification being sought in accordance with R18-12-806(B)(3).

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.805" level="4" title="Alternative Certification">

Alternative Certification

A. A person qualifies for certification by the Department as a tank service provider under this Section if the requirements of R18-12-804(1) cannot be met because an IFCI certification is not available for the category of certification being sought and all of the following conditions exist:

1. The manufacturer of the technology has a process for certification of tank service providers and the person seeking qualification under this Section has received the manufacturer's certification.

2. The manufacturer's certification is based on training or examination that evaluates competency specific to the category of tank service;

3. The certification training or examination emphasizes the applicable codes of practice found in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 and the rules promulgated thereunder;

4. The tank service technology is protective of human health and the environment;

5. The person submits evidence of qualification under this subsection for the category of certification being sought in accordance with R18-12-806 (B)(3).

B. A person qualifies for certification by the Department for the category of cathodic protection tester without holding an IFCI certification if all the following conditions exist:

1. The person holds certification by the National Association of Corrosion Engineers as a "corrosion specialist," "cathodic protection specialist," "senior corrosion technologist," or a "corrosion technologist."

2. The person submits evidence of qualification under this subsection in accordance with R18-12-806(B)(3).

C. If certification is developed by IFCI for a category that has been previously certified under subsection (A) of this Section, the IFCI certification shall be required. The Department shall notify, in writing, all tank service providers certified for that category of the existence of the replacement IFCI certification. A certified tank service provider will have 90 days from the date of receipt of notice from the Department to obtain the IFCI certification under R18-12-804. Alternative certification under this Section is void 91 days after the tank service provider is notified that the IFCI certification is required for certification under this Article.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.806" level="4" title="Application; Certification">

Application; Certification

A. Except as provided in R18-12-802, a person who seeks to supervise or perform any category of tank service under R18-12-803 beginning from and after December 31, 1996, shall obtain and submit a completed application form to the Department on the form prescribed by the Department. A person who seeks certification for more than one category shall submit a separate application form for each category.

B. A completed application form shall include all the following information:

1. Name, address (mail and physical), telephone number (home and business), aliases, and employer;

2. Name of the category of tank service for which certification is sought;

3. Proof of qualification as described in R18-12-804 or R18-12-805 for the category of tank service for which certification is being sought;

4. Two 1 inch by 1 inch color portraits, of the applicant;

5. A certification statement that the information submitted pursuant to this subsection is true, accurate, and complete.

C. The Department shall either grant or deny certification within an overall time-frame of 30 days after receipt of an application as evidenced by the date stamped on the application by the Department upon receipt. Within 15 days of receipt of the application, the Department shall issue, by certified mail or personal service, a notice of deficiency if the application is not administratively complete. If the deficiency is not cured within 30 days of the applicant's receipt of a notice of deficiency, as evidenced by the return receipt or documentation of service, the application is denied and re-application is required for certification. If the application is administratively complete, the Department shall have the remaining number of the total of 30 days for substantive review of the application to either issue a certification card or deny the application. If an application is denied, a hearing may be requested pursuant to A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10. If the Department issues a written notice of deficiencies within the administrative completeness time-frame, the administrative completeness review time-frame and the overall time-frame are suspended from the date the notice is issued until the date that the Department receives the missing information from the applicant. The date the Department receives the missing information is determined by the date received stamp on the missing information.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.807" level="4" title="Duration; Renewal; Changes">

Duration; Renewal; Changes

A. Certification under this Article shall be issued for two years unless the qualifying certification under R18-12-804 or R18-12-805 is valid for a period of time less than two years. Certification expires either at the expiration of the qualifying certification under R18-12-804 or one year following issuance of certification under R18-12-806, whichever is later. Certification under R18-12-805 requirements shall be for the period allowed under the technology manufacturer's certification or two years, whichever is shorter, but in no event for a period of time less than one year.

B. A person seeking renewal of certification shall submit to the Department an application form, in accordance with the provisions of R18-12-806.

C. The tank service provider shall notify the Department of any change to the information reported in the application form on file with the Department, by submitting a new application form within 30 days after the change.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.808" level="4" title="Discontinuation of Tank Service">

Discontinuation of Tank Service

A. If the Department discovers that a supervisor or provider of tank service is or has supervised or performed tank service in Arizona without the Department certification required under this Article, or the tank service supervised or performed by a certified person is not in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, and the rules promulgated thereunder, the Department shall immediately notify the person performing tank service to stop work and make the area safe by securing the tank area to prevent bodily injury and unauthorized access.

B. If the Department stops work pursuant to subsection (A), before work can continue, a certified tank service provider shall determine if the work already completed complies with the standards set forth in A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, and the rules promulgated thereunder and certify the work which meets those standards.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="R18.12.809" level="4" title="Suspension; Revocation of Certification">

Suspension; Revocation of Certification

A. If the Department discovers that a tank service provider has falsified documents to obtain certification under this Article, the Department shall notify the tank service provider in writing, by certified mail or personal service, that certification is revoked effective 30 days after receipt of the notice, as evidenced by the return receipt or documentation of service, unless a hearing is requested pursuant to A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10. The revocation under this subsection shall be for two years. The Department shall not accept an application from an individual whose certification has been revoked under this subsection for the revoked category of certification until the end of the revocation period.

B. If the Department discovers that a tank service provider has not performed tank service in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 and the rules promulgated thereunder, the Department shall notify the tank service provider in writing, by certified mail or personal service, that certification is suspended for 30 days, effective 30 days after receipt of the notice, as evidenced by the return receipt or documentation of service, unless a hearing is requested pursuant to A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10.

C. If the Department discovers that a tank service provider has not performed tank service in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 and the rules promulgated thereunder, after the individual has had certification suspended pursuant to subsection (B), the Department shall notify the tank service provider in writing, by certified mail or personal service, that certification is suspended for 90 days, effective 30 days after receipt of the notice as evidenced by the return receipt or documentation of service, unless a hearing is requested pursuant to A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10. The tank service provider shall surrender the certification card to the Department within 15 days following the effective date of the suspension. Failure to surrender the certification card shall result in revocation of certification for the remainder of the certification period. The tank service provider may request the certification card be returned after the 90-day suspension.

D. If the Department discovers that a tank service provider has not performed tank service in compliance with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6 and the rules promulgated thereunder, after the individual has had certification suspended pursuant to subsection (C), the Department shall notify the tank service provider in writing, by certified mail or personal service, that certification is revoked for two years, effective 30 days after receipt of the notice as evidenced by the return receipt or documentation of service, unless a hearing is requested pursuant to A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, Article 10. The tank service provider shall surrender the certification card to the Department within 15 days following the effective date of the revocation. The Department shall not accept an application from an individual whose certification has been revoked under this subsection for the revoked category of certification until the end of the revocation period.

E. The Department shall publish, on a quarterly basis, a list of all tank service providers who have received suspension or revocation pursuant to this Section during that quarter or whose revocation or suspension remains in effect for any portion of that quarter.

Historical Note

Adopted effective December 6, 1996 (Supp. 96-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 13" level="2" title="SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT">

SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

Editor's Note: Article 2, consisting of Section R18-13-201, was adopted under an exemption from the provisions of A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01(C)(1) and (2). Exemption from A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6 means the Department did not submit notice of proposed rulemaking to the Secretary of State for publication in the Arizona Administrative Register; the Department did not submit the rules to the Governor's Regulatory Review Council for review; and the Department was not required to hold public hearings on this Section (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="SOLID WASTE DEFINITIONS; EXEMPTIONS">

SOLID WASTE DEFINITIONS; EXEMPTIONS

Editor's Note: The following Section was adopted under an exemption from the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act which means that these rules were not reviewed by the Governor's Regulatory Review Council; the agency did not submit notice of proposed rulemaking to the Secretary of State for publication in the Arizona Administrative Register; and the agency was not required to hold public hearings on these rules (Supp. 98-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.201" level="4" title="Land Application of Biosolids Exemption">

Land Application of Biosolids Exemption

A. This Section applies only to biosolids as defined in R18-13-1501(7). The land application of biosolids, when placed on or applied to the land in full conformity with 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 15 and A.R.S. &#167; 49-761(F), and if the site of land application has ceased to receive application of biosolids and all applicable site restrictions set by 18 A.A.C. have been satisfied, is exempt statewide from the definition of solid waste found at A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01(A). This exemption applies only when the biosolids and the soil to which it has been applied remain at the site of the application.

B. This exemption does not alter or set any new standard for the soil remediation standards found at 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2.

Historical Note

Adopted under and exemption from A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter 6, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01(C)(1) and (2), effective July 27, 1998 (Supp. 98-3). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4004, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.202" level="4" title="Coal Slurry Discharges from Pipeline Leaks Exemption">

Coal Slurry Discharges from Pipeline Leaks Exemption

This Section applies only to coal slurry discharges onto the ground from pipeline leaks. Coal slurry discharges onto the ground from pipeline leaks are exempt statewide from the definition of solid waste prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.01(A) if both of the following conditions are met:

1. The discharge was the result of an accidental pipeline leak.

2. The thickness of the layer of coal slurry on the ground that resulted from the discharge is 3 inches or less.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by exempt rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4004, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="REFUSE AND OTHER OBJECTIONABLE WASTES">

REFUSE AND OTHER OBJECTIONABLE WASTES

<regElement name="R18.13.301" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.302" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

A. "Approved" means acceptable to the Department.

B. "Ashes" means residue from the burning of any combustible material.

C. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality or a local health department designated by the Department of Environmental Quality.

D. "Garbage" means all animal and vegetable wastes resulting from the processing, handling, preparation, cooking, and serving of food or food materials.

E. "Manure" means animal excreta, including cleanings from barns, stables, corrals, pens, or conveyances used for stabling, transporting, or penning of animals or fowls.

F. "Person" means the state, a municipality, district or other political subdivision, a cooperative, institution, corporation, company, firm, partnership or individual.

G. "Refuse" means all putrescible and nonputrescible solid and semisolid wastes, except human excreta, but including garbage, rubbish, ashes, manure, street cleanings, dead animals, abandoned automobiles, and industrial wastes.

H. "Rubbish" means nonputrescible solid wastes, excluding ashes, consisting of both combustible and noncombustible wastes, such as paper, cardboard, waste metal, tin cans, yard clippings, wood, glass, bedding, crockery and similar materials.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-502, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.303" level="4" title="Responsibility">

Responsibility

A. The owner, agent, or the occupant of any premises, business establishment, or industry shall be responsible for the sanitary condition of said premises, business establishment, or industry. No person shall place, deposit, or allow to be placed or deposited on his premises or on any public street, road, or alley any refuse or other objectionable waste, except in a manner described in these rules.

B. The owner, agent, or the occupant of any premises, business establishment, or industry shall be responsible for the storage and disposal of all refuse accumulated, by a method or methods described in these rules.

C. The collection and disposal of all refuse not acceptable for collection by a collection agency is the responsibility of each occupant, business establishment, or industry where such refuse accumulates, and all such refuse shall be stored, collected, and disposed of in a manner approved by the Department.

D. All dangerous materials and substances shall, where necessary, be rendered harmless prior to collection and disposal.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-503, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.304" level="4" title="Inspection">

Inspection

Representatives of the Department shall make such inspections of any premises, container, process, equipment, or vehicle used for collection, storage, transportation, disposal, or reclamation or refuse as are necessary to ensure compliance with these rules.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-504, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.305" level="4" title="Collection Required"> <dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Collection Required

A. Where refuse collection service is available, the following refuse shall be required to be collected: Garbage, ashes, rubbish, and small dead animals which do not exceed 75 pounds in weight.

B. The following refuse is not considered acceptable for collection but may be collected at the discretion of the collection agency where special facilities or equipment required for the collection and disposal of such wastes are provided:

1. Dangerous materials or substances, such as poisons, acids, caustics, infected materials, radioactive materials, and explosives.

2. Materials resulting from the repair, excavation, or construction of buildings and structures.

3. Solid wastes resulting from industrial processes.

4. Animals exceeding 75 pounds in weight, condemned animals, animals from a slaughterhouse, or other animals normally considered industrial waste.

5. Manure.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-505, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.306" level="4" title="Notices">

Notices

A. All collection agencies shall provide each householder, or business establishment served, with a copy of the requirements governing the storage and collection of refuse which shall cover at least the following items:

1. Definitions.

2. Places to be served.

3. Places not to be served.

4. Scheduled day or days of collection.

5. Materials acceptable for collection.

6. Materials not acceptable for collection.

7. Preparation of refuse for collection.

8. Types and size of containers permitted.

9. Points from which collections will be made.

10. Necessary safeguards for collectors.

B. All such notices governing storage and collection shall conform to these rules.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-506, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.307" level="4" title="Storage">

Storage

A. All refuse shall be stored in accordance with the requirements of this Section. The owner, agent, or occupant of every dwelling, business establishment, or other premises where refuse accumulates shall provide a sufficient number of suitable and approved containers for receiving and storing of refuse, and shall keep all refuse therein, except as otherwise provided by this Chapter.

B. Garbage shall be stored in durable, rust resistant, nonabsorbent, watertight, and easily cleanable containers, with close fitting covers and having adequate handles or bails to facilitate handling. The size of the container shall be determined by the collection agency.

C. Rubbish and ashes shall be stored in durable containers. Bulky rubbish such as tree trimmings, newspapers, weeds, and large cardboard boxes shall be handled as directed by the collection agency. Where garbage separation is not required, containers for the storage of mixed rubbish and garbage shall meet the requirements specified in subsection (B) above.

D. Containers for the storage of refuse shall be maintained in such a manner as to prevent the creation of a nuisance or a menace to public health. Containers that are broken or otherwise fail to meet the requirements of the rules shall be replaced, by the owner of said containers, with approved containers.

E. Manure and droppings shall be removed from pens, stables, yards, cages, conveyances, and other enclosures as often as necessary to prevent a health hazard or the creation of a nuisance. All material removed shall be handled and stored in a manner that will maintain the premises nuisance free.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-507, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.308" level="4" title="Frequency of Collection">

Frequency of Collection

A. The frequency of collection shall be in accordance with rules of the collection agency but not less than that shown in the following schedules:

1. Garbage only -- twice weekly.

2. Refuse with garbage -- twice weekly.

3. Rubbish and ashes -- as often as necessary to prevent nuisances and fly breeding.

B. A variance from the required frequency rate may be granted to allow for the collection of garbage once weekly. The variance may be granted by the Department of Environmental Quality upon submission of an acceptable plan approved by the local health department demonstrating that no public health hazards or nuisances will exist and that fly breeding will be controlled by either biological, chemical, or mechanical means. The variance may be revoked whenever the Department of Environmental Quality determines that the circumstances warranting the variance no longer exist.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-508, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.309" level="4" title="Place of Collection">

Place of Collection

A. All refuse shall be properly placed on the premises for convenient collection as designated by the collection agency.

B. Where alleys are provided, collection shall be made on the alley side of the premises.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-509, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.310" level="4" title="Vehicles">

Vehicles

A. Vehicles used for collection and transportation of garbage, or refuse containing garbage, shall have covered, watertight, metal bodies of easily cleanable construction, shall be cleaned frequently to prevent a nuisance or insect breeding, and shall be maintained in good repair.

B. Vehicles used for collection and transportation of refuse shall be loaded and moved in such a manner that the contents, including ashes, will not fall, leak, or spill therefrom. Where spillage does occur, it shall be picked up immediately by the collector and returned to the vehicle or container.

C. Vehicles used for collection and transportation of rubbish or manure shall be of such construction as to prevent leakage or spillage, and shall provide a cover to prevent blowing of materials or creating a nuisance.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-510, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.311" level="4" title="Disposal; General">

Disposal; General

A. All refuse shall be disposed of by a method or methods included in these rules and shall include rodent, insect, and nuisance control at the place or places of disposal. Approval must be obtained from the Department for all new disposal sites and may change in the method of disposal prior to use.

B. Carcasses of large dead animals shall be buried or cremated, unless satisfactory arrangements have been made for disposal by rendering or other approved methods.

C. All public "dumping grounds", provided in compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 9-441, shall be maintained and operated in accordance with the requirements of these rules.

D. Manure shall be disposed of by sanitary landfill, composting, incineration, or used as fertilizer in such a manner as not to create insect breeding or a nuisance.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-511, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.312" level="4" title="Methods of Disposal">

Methods of Disposal

Approval must be obtained from the Department for any method or methods used for the disposal of refuse prior to the start of operations, and shall be accomplished by one or more of the methods listed below:

1. Sanitary landfill -- Consists of the disposal of refuse on land and the daily compaction and covering of the refuse with 6 to 12 inches of earth so as to prevent a health hazard or nuisance. The final compacted earth cover shall be a minimum of 2 feet in depth. Where sanitary landfill operations are proposed, the Department will require the following:

a. The landfill shall be located so that seepage will not create a health hazard, nuisance, or cause pollution of any watercourse or water bearing strata.

b. Adequate and proper surface drainage shall be provided to prevent ponding or erosion by rainwater of the finished fill.

c. Provision shall be made for the control of insects, rodents, wind blown refuse, and accidental fire.

d. Burning of refuse is prohibited.

e. An all weather access road is required.

f. Suitable equipment and operating personnel shall be provided.

g. Salvaging, if permitted, shall be rigidly controlled.

h. A variance from the daily compaction and covering requirement may be granted for sites serving less than 2,000 people by the Department of Environmental Quality upon submission of an acceptable plan approved by the local health department demonstrating that no public health hazards or nuisances will exist. The variance will allow for compaction and cover every two weeks at sites serving less than 500 people; weekly compaction and cover for sites serving from 500 to 1,000 people; and twice weekly compaction and cover for sites serving from 1,000 to 2,000 people. The variance may be revoked whenever the Department of Environmental Quality determines that the circumstances warranting the variance no longer exist.

2. Incineration -- Where incineration is to be employed, the plans and specifications, along with any other information necessary to evaluate the project, shall be submitted to the Department and approval received prior to construction. In addition, an approved method for the disposal of non-combustible refuse is required. Where incineration is proposed, the following items shall be provided.

a. The capacity of the incinerator shall be sufficient for the maximum production of refuse expected.

b. Noncombustible refuse shall be disposed of by methods approved by the Department.

c. Skilled personnel to assure the proper operation and maintenance of the facilities in a nuisance-free manner.

3. Composting -- This method of disposal is acceptable to the Department under the following conditions:

a. That plans and specifications and other information necessary to evaluate the project are submitted to the Department and approval received prior to start of construction.

b. That provisions are made for the proper disposal of all refuse not considered suitable for composting.

c. Skilled personnel shall be provided to assure the proper operation and maintenance of the facilities in a nuisance-free manner.

4. Garbage grinding -- This method, involving the separate collection and disposal of garbage into a community sewerage system through commercial type grinders or mandatory community-wide installation of individual household grinders, will be acceptable to the Department provided that suitable means shall be provided for the disposal of all remaining refuse.

5. Hog feeding -- This method of disposal will only be approved under the following conditions:

a. The garbage is collected and stored in suitable containers.

b. Only approved type vehicles are used for collection.

c. All garbage is effectively heat-treated in accordance with Title 24, Chapter 7, Article 3 (A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 24-941 through 24-949).

d. All remaining refuse, including nonedible garbage, is collected and disposed of separately by methods approved by the Department.

6. Manure disposal -- Manure shall be disposed of by sanitary landfill, composting, incinerating, or used as a fertilizer in such a manner as not to create insect breeding or a nuisance.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-512, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

ARTICLE 7. SOLID WASTE FACILITY PLAN

REVIEW FEES

<regElement name="R18.13.701" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions provided in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-701, 49-701.01, and 49-851, and 18 A.A.C. 13, the following definitions apply in this Article:

1. "Aquifer Protection Permit" means the permit that is required pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-241.

2. "Application" means the solid waste facility plan that an operator submits to the Department for approval.

3. "C &amp; D landfill" means a Non-MSWLF that only accepts construction or demolition waste as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

4. "Change" means either a Type III or a Type IV change to an approved solid waste facility plan which the director has determined requires the submission of an amended facility plan in accordance with either A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06 or the design and operation rules adopted under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-761 and 49-762.06.

5. "Complex plan" means any of the following:

a. A solid waste facility plan that contains two or more different types of waste storage, treatment, or disposal components.

b. A solid waste plan for multiple solid waste facilities.

c. A solid waste facility plan that includes a special waste management plan component or an application for an Aquifer Protection Permit.

6. "Direct cost" means the costs to the Department to maintain a plan review program, excluding indirect costs, but consisting of programmatic cost, non-billable administrative cost, and non-billable programmatic cost.

7. "Direct labor cost" means time spent by a plan reviewer in: the actual review of a facility plan; data input for licensing time-frames tracking; developing the facility file; time at the facility or proposed site; time at a public hearing; and time at meetings with the applicant or the applicant's representatives.

8. "Indirect cost" means the cost that the Department charges all of its non-general fund programs. Examples of indirect cost are: rent; utilities; and the Department's administrative support programs such as human resources, payroll, time keeping, etc.

9. "MSWLF" means a municipal solid waste landfill as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

10. "New solid waste facility plan" means either of the following:

a. A plan submitted for review by the operator of a new solid waste facility, as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

b. The plan submitted by an operator of an existing solid waste facility as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701, that is operating without prior Department plan approval.

11. "Non-billable administrative cost or time" means time spent by a plan reviewer doing activities that are not directly related to a plan review project. Examples of non-billable administrative time are: holidays and leave time; time spent by a plan reviewer in training, attending staff meetings, answering phones, preparing reports, etc.

12. "Non-billable programmatic cost or time" means time spent by a plan reviewer doing activities directly related to a plan review project, but that are outside the applicant's control. Examples of non-billable programmatic time are: answering inquires from the public and attending public meetings about the plan review project; writing progress reports and briefings for supervisors; and traveling to the facility site or to public meetings and hearings.

13. "Non-MSWLF" means a landfill that is not a municipal solid waste landfill as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

14. "Other reasonable direct cost" means costs documented in writing by the Department relating to plan review. Examples of other reasonable direct cost are laboratory analysis charges, public notice advertising, presiding officer expenses, court reporter expenses, facility rentals, and contract services.

15. "Programmatic cost or time" means those costs that are directly associated with a plan review project, consisting of both direct labor cost and other reasonable direct cost.

16. "Solid waste facility plan" means a plan or the individual components of a plan, such as the design, operational, closure, or post-closure plan, or the demonstration of financial responsibility as required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-770, submitted to the Department for review and plan approval.

17. "Special waste management plan component" means a portion of a solid waste facility plan that is prepared and submitted to the Department in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-857 for approval pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-857.01 and 49-762.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 1, 1996; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-4). Amended effective May 15, 1997 (Supp. 97-2). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3747, effective November 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.702" level="4" title="Solid Waste Facility Plan Review Fees">

Solid Waste Facility Plan Review Fees

A. With each application submitted for approval pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.03, the applicant shall remit an initial fee in accordance with one of the schedules in this subsection, unless otherwise provided in subsection (B). This subsection also lists the maximum fees that the Department will bill the applicant. All fees paid shall be payable to the state of Arizona. The Department shall deposit the fees paid into the Solid Waste Fee Fund established pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-881, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

<table> Schedule A New - Solid Waste Facility Plan Review Fees Initial Maximum Solid Waste Facilities Plans: MSWLF C &amp; D Landfill and Other Non-MSWLF Other Solid Waste Facilities $5,936 $56,900 $2,987 $35,000 $1,609 $23,800 Special Waste Management Plan Component $556 $3,700 </table>

<table> Schedule B Change and Update of Demonstration of Financial Responsibility - Solid Waste Facility Plan Review Fees Initial Maximum Change to Solid Waste Facilities Plans: MSWLF C &amp; D Landfill and Other Non-MSWLF Other Solid Waste Facilities $766 $28,400 $597 $17,500 $322 $11,900 Change to Special Waste Management Plan Component $278 $1,800 Update of Demonstration of Financial Responsibility $278 $1,800 </table>

<table> Schedule C Closure - Solid Waste Facility Plan Review Fees Initial Maximum Solid Waste Facilities Plans: MSWLF C &amp; D Landfill and Other Non-MSWLF Other Solid Waste Facilities $1,379 $15,000 $1,532 $16,000 $1,226 $18,300 Special Waste Management Plan Component $111 $700 </table>

B. For a complex plan, fees shall be determined as follows:

1. The initial fee submitted with the plan shall be equal to the initial fee for the single component with the highest initial fee as set forth in schedules in subsection (A).

2. The maximum fee shall be the sum total of the maximum fee for each individual component as set forth in schedules in subsection (A).

C. The Department shall issue to the applicant a final itemized bill within 30 days after the Department issues the approval or disapproval of the application. If the Department determines that the actual cost of reviewing the plan is less than the initial fee and any interim fees paid, the Department shall refund the difference to the applicant within 30 days after the issuance of the approval or disapproval of the application. If the Department determines that the actual cost of plan review is greater than the corresponding amount listed, the Department shall list the amount that the applicant owes on the final itemized bill, except that the final itemized bill shall not exceed the applicable maximum fee specified in subsection (A) or (B). The applicant shall pay in full the amount due within 30 days of receipt of the final itemized bill.

D. If the final bill is not paid within the 30 days, the Department shall mail a second notice to the applicant. Failure to pay the amount due within 60 days of receipt of the notice shall result in the Department initiation of proceedings for suspension of the approval, in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 41-782. The suspension shall continue until full payment is received at the Department. If full payment is not received at the Department within 365 days of the date of the approval, the approval shall be revoked in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 41-782. The Department shall not review any further plans for an entity which has not paid all fees due for a previous review of a solid waste facility plan.

E. When determining actual cost under subsection (C), the Department shall use an hourly billing rate for all direct labor hours spent working on the review of a plan, plus any other reasonable direct cost which were incurred but are not included in the hourly billing rate.

F. The hourly rate is $58.81, beginning September 1, 2002, and shall remain in effect until it is either changed or repealed.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 1, 1996; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-4).

Corrected typographical error "facilities" in Schedules A, B, and C, to reflect Section filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 1, 1995. Section amended effective May 15, 1997; except for special waste management plan component fees listed in Schedules A, B, and C, which become effective July 1, 1997 (Supp. 97-2). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3869, effective October 1, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3747, effective November 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.703" level="4" title="Review of Bill">

Review of Bill

A. An applicant who disagrees with the final bill received from the Department for plan review and issuance or denial of a solid waste facility plan approval under this Article may make a written request to the Director for a review of the bill and may pay the bill under protest. The request for review shall specify the matters in dispute and shall be received by the Department within 10 working days of the date of receipt of the final bill.

B. Unless the Department and applicant agree otherwise, the review shall take place within 30 days of receipt by the Department of the request. Notice of the time and place of review shall be mailed to the requester at least 10 working days prior to the review. The Director shall make a final decision as to whether the time and costs billed are correct and reasonable. The final decision shall be mailed to the applicant within 10 working days after the date of the review and is subject to appeal pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-769.

Historical Note

Adopted effective July 1, 1996; filed in the Office of the Secretary of State December 1, 1995 (Supp. 95-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.704" level="4" title="Number of Billable Hours">

Number of Billable Hours

The Department shall determine the number of billable hours by subtracting from the number of hours in a work year, both the non-billable administrative hours and the non-billable programmatic hours.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3747, effective November 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.705" level="4" title="Determining the Average Cost Per Employee">

Determining the Average Cost Per Employee

The Department shall determine the average cost per employee by dividing the Department's total direct cost for maintaining the plan review program equally between the plan reviewers as outlined in the following steps:

1. By calculating the average salary of the plan reviewers.

2. By calculating an average employee related cost and adding the average employee related cost to the average plan reviewer's salary from subsection (1).

3. By prorating the section's management cost, to which the plan reviewers are assigned, on a per section employee basis, and adding the section management prorated cost to the total cost from subsection (2).

4. By prorating the unit's management costs, to which the plan reviewers are assigned, on a per unit employee basis, and adding the prorated unit management cost to the total cost from subsection (3).

5. By prorating the section's operating, travel and equipment cost, to which the plan reviewers are assigned per section employee, and adding the prorated operating, travel and equipment cost to the total cost from subsection (4).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3747, effective November 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.706" level="4" title="Determining the Hourly Billing Rate">

Determining the Hourly Billing Rate

The Department shall determine the hourly billing rate by dividing the average cost per employee from R18-13-705(5) by the number of billable hours from R18-13-704.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 3747, effective November 1, 2002 (Supp. 02-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 8" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 9" level="3" title="SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT PLANNING">

SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT PLANNING

<regElement name="R18.13.901" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.902" level="4" title="Regional Boundaries">

Regional Boundaries

A. To facilitate solid waste management, the following regional boundary designations are established for planning purposes:

1. The state of Arizona shall be divided into six districts comprised of the following counties:

I Maricopa

II Pima

III Apache, Coconino, Navajo, Yavapai

IV Mohave, Yuma

V Gila, Pinal

VI Cochise, Graham, Greenlee, Santa Cruz

2. Petitions for a change in regional boundaries may be submitted to the Director. If the Director finds that the request is justified, he may adopt the revision as a new rule in accordance with Department procedures for adoption of rules.

3. The Director may revise the regional boundary rules if he finds that such revision is necessary to accomplish a workable statewide comprehensive solid waste management plan. Such revisions shall be made in accordance with Department procedures for adoption of rules.

B. To facilitate statewide hazardous waste management the state of Arizona shall be undivided and shall constitute one district for hazardous waste management planning purposes.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-402, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 10" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 11" level="3" title="COLLECTION, TRANSPORTATION, AND DISPOSAL OF HUMAN EXCRETA">

COLLECTION, TRANSPORTATION, AND DISPOSAL OF HUMAN EXCRETA

Article 11 recodified from existing Sections in 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 6 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1101" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1102" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

A. "Chemical toilet" means a toilet with a watertight, impervious pail or tank that contains a chemical solution placed directly under the seat and a pipe or conduit that connects the riser to the tank.

B. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Quality or a local health department designated by the Department.

C. "Earth-pit privy" means a device for disposal of human excreta in a pit in the earth.

D. "Human excreta" means human fecal and urinary discharges and includes any waste that contains this material.

E. "License" means a stamp, seal, or numbered certificate issued by the Department.

F. "Pail or can type privy" means a privy equipped with a watertight container, located directly under the seat for receiving deposits of human excreta, that provides for removal of a waste receptacle that can be emptied and cleaned.

G. "Person" means the state, a municipality, district or other political subdivision, a cooperative, institution, corporation, company, firm, partnership, or individual.

H. "Sewage" means the waste from toilets, baths, sinks, lavatories, laundries, and other plumbing fixtures in residences, institutions, public and business buildings, mobile homes, and other places of human habitation, employment, or recreation.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-602 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1103" level="4" title="General Requirements">

General Requirements

A. Any person owning or operating a vehicle or appurtenant equipment used to store, collect, transport, or dispose of sewage or human excreta that is removed from a septic tank or other on-site wastewater treatment facility; earth pit privy, pail or can type privy, or other type of privy; sewage vault; or fixed or transportable chemical toilet shall obtain a license for each vehicle from the Department. The person shall apply, in writing, on forms furnished by the Department and shall demonstrate that each vehicle is designed and constructed to meet the requirements of this Article.

B. A person shall operate and maintain the vehicle and equipment so that a health hazard, environmental nuisance, or violation of a water quality standard established under 18 A.A.C. 11 is not created.

C. License terms.

1. Each license is valid so long as the vehicle is operated by the same person for the same purpose and is maintained according to this Article.

2. The license is not transferable either from person to person or from vehicle to vehicle.

3. The license holder shall ensure that the license number is plainly and durably inscribed in contrasting colors on the side door panels of the vehicle and the rear face of the tank in figures not less than 3 inches high, and that the numbers are legible at all times.

D. Any person owning or operating a vehicle or appurtenant equipment used to collect, store, transport, or dispose of sewage or human excreta shall obtain a permit from the local health department in each county in which the person proposes to operate.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-603 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed; new Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1104" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-604 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1105" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1106" level="4" title="Inspection">

Inspection

The Department may inspect vehicles and appurtenant equipment used to collect, store, transport, or dispose sewage or human excreta as necessary to assure compliance with this Article.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-606 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1107" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1108" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-608 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1109" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1110" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1111" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1112" level="4" title="Sanitary Requirements"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Sanitary Requirements

A. A person owning or operating a vehicle or appurtenant equipment to collect, store, transport, or dispose of sewage or human excreta shall ensure that:

1. Sewage and human excreta is collected, stored, transported, and disposed of in a sanitary manner and does not endanger the public health or create an environmental nuisance;

2. The vehicle is equipped with a leak-proof and fly-tight container that has a capacity of at least 750 gallons and all portable containers, pumps, hoses, tools, and other implements are stored within a covered and fly-tight enclosure when not in use;

3. Contents intended for removal are transferred as quickly as possible by means of a portable fly-tight container or suction pump and hose to the transportation container.

4. The transportation container is tightly closed and made fly-tight immediately after the contents have been transferred,

5. Portable containers are kept fly-tight while being transported to and from the vehicle,

6. Any waste dropped or spilled in the process of collection is cleaned up immediately and the area disinfected;

7. The vehicle, tools, and equipment are maintained in good repair at all times and, at the end of each day's work, all portable containers, transportation containers, suction pumps, hose, and other tools are cleaned and disinfected; and

8. All wastes collected are disposed of according to the recommendations of the local county health department and that no change in the recommended method of disposal is made without its prior approval. The local county health department shall recommend disposal by one of the following methods:

a. At a designated point into a sewage treatment facility or sewage collection system with the approval of the owner or operator of the facility or system,

b. By burying all wastes from chemical toilets in an area approved by the local county health department, or

c. Into a sanitary landfill with approval of the owner or operator of the landfill and following any precautions designated by the owner and operator to protect the health of the workers and the public.

B. Open dumping is prohibited except in designated areas approved by the local county health department.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-612 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1113" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-613 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1114" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-614 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1115" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-615 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1116" level="4" title="Suspension and Revocation">

Suspension and Revocation

A. If a Department inspection indicates that a licensed vehicle is not maintained and operated or work cannot be performed according to this Article, the Department shall notify the owner in writing of all violations noted.

B. The Department shall give the owner a reasonable period of time to correct the violations and comply with the provisions of this Article. If the owner fails to comply within the time limit specified, the Department may suspend or revoke the vehicle license based on the number and severity of violations. The Department shall follow the provisions of A.R.S. Title 41, Chapter, Article 10 in any suspension or revocation proceeding.

C. The Department shall consider the revocation or suspension of a permit by a local health department for violation of this Article as grounds for revocation of the vehicle license. The local health department shall immediately suspend both the vehicle license and the permit issued by the local health department for gross violation of this Article if in the opinion of the local health department a serious health hazard or environmental nuisance exists.

D. The owner of the vehicle whose license is suspended or revoked may appeal the final administrative decision as permitted under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1092.08.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-616 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1117" level="4" title="Reinstatement">

Reinstatement

Upon request of the vehicle owner, the Department may reinstate a suspended or revoked vehicle license following a Department reinspection and based on an evaluation of compliance with the requirements of this Article.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-617 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1118" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-618 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1119" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-619 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1120" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-620 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1356, effective June 7, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 12" level="3" title="WASTE TIRES">

WASTE TIRES

<regElement name="R18.13.1201" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions provided in A.R.S. &#167; 44-1301, the following definitions apply in this Article:

"Aquifer protection permit" means an authorization issued by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241 et seq.

"Burial cell" means an area where mining waste tires are placed in or on the land for burial.

"Mining" means activities dedicated to the exploration, extraction, beneficiation, and processing, including smelting and refining, of metallic ores.

"Mining facility" means any land, building, installation, structure, equipment, device, conveyance, or area dedicated to mining.

"Mining waste tire" means an off-road tire that is greater than three feet in outside diameter that was used in mining.

"Operator" means an owner, part owner, management agency, or lessee of a mining facility, a person responsible for the overall operation or control of a mining facility, or an authorized representative of the operator.

"Person" is defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201.

"Waste tire cover" means waste tires that are chopped or shredded into pieces that do not exceed four inches in diameter used for cover at a solid waste landfill.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-701, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5695, effective November 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1202" level="4" title="Burial of Mining Waste Tires">

Burial of Mining Waste Tires

A. The operator shall file with the Director a one-time notice within 24 hours after commencement of burial of mining waste tires consisting of a map of the mining facility that clearly identifies the locations and dimensions of each burial cell and the estimated number of mining waste tires that will be buried in each cell. The operator shall identify each burial cell using an alphabetical or numeric identifier. If a mining facility uses a new burial cell not included in the commencement of burial notice, the operator shall notify the Department within 24 hours after commencement of burial in that cell.

B. An operator shall only permit burial of mining waste tires in areas that are, or will be, included in an aquifer protection permit issued for the mining facility. An operator shall not permit burial of mining waste tires in leach areas unless prior to burial the Department issues an aquifer protection permit covering the leach area.

C. An operator shall not permit a burial cell to be located within 10 feet of another burial cell.

D. An operator shall not permit the burial of mining waste tires unless the tires are waste generated at the mining facility or another mining facility of the same owner.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-702, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5695, effective November 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1203" level="4" title="Cover Requirements">

Cover Requirements

A. The operator shall cover all mining industry off-road motor vehicle waste tires buried pursuant to this Article with a minimum of 6 inches of earthen material within 50 days of placement, or sooner if necessary, to prevent vector breeding or fire.

B. The operator shall place final cover over the off-road motor vehicle waste tires within 180 days after placement of the last tire which will be buried in a cell. The final cover shall consist of earthen material which is at least 3 feet deep or which complies with the requirements of the aquifer protection permit for the area where the burial cell is located.

C. The operator shall maintain final cover in compliance with this Section for as long as the mining industry off-road motor vehicle waste tires remain in the burial cell.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-703, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1204" level="4" title="Annual Report">

Annual Report

By March 30 of each year, until a burial cell closure certification is filed with the Department, the operator of the mining facility shall file an annual report with the Director which documents the location of each burial cell established during the preceding calendar year, the alphabetical or numerical identifier of each burial cell, and the number of off-road motor vehicle waste tires which were placed in each burial cell for burial during the preceding calendar year. If no tires were placed in the burial cell for burial during the preceding year, the annual report shall so indicate.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-704, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1205" level="4" title="Burial Cell Closure Certification">

Burial Cell Closure Certification

An operator shall file with the Director a burial cell closure certification within 30 days after placing final cover over the mining waste tires under R18-13-1203(B). The certificate shall contain a statement by the operator that no additional tires will be buried in the burial cell and a statement by an Arizona registered engineer certifying that the cover requirements of R18-13-1203 have been met.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-705, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5695, effective November 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1206" level="4" title="Storage">

Storage

At no time shall more than 500 mining industry off-road motor vehicle waste tires be stored at the mining facility outside of a burial cell unless the mining facility has Department approval to operate a waste tire collection facility, pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 44-1304 and 49-762.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-706, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1207" level="4" title="Maintenance of Records">

Maintenance of Records

For at least three years after the burial cell closure certification is filed with the Department, the mining facility operator shall maintain, at the mining facility, records which document the number of tires buried in each cell.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-707, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1208" level="4" title="Inspections">

Inspections

The Department may inspect a mining facility, during regular operating hours, to determine whether mining industry off-road motor vehicle waste tire burial is in compliance with this Article.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-708, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1209" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-709, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5695, effective November 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1210" level="4" title="Waste Tire Cover">

Waste Tire Cover

Waste tires used as cover at a solid waste landfill shall be used according to the solid waste facility plan required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-762. An operator shall not permit mining waste tires to be used as cover at a solid waste landfill for more than two consecutive days at a time.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-710, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5695, effective November 27, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 13" level="3" title="SPECIAL WASTE">

SPECIAL WASTE

<regElement name="R18.13.1301" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the terms prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-851, the terms in this Article shall have the following meanings:

1. "Disposal" means discharging, depositing, injecting, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing special waste into or on land or water so that the special waste or any constituent of the special waste may enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or discharged into any waters, including groundwater.

2. "Exception report" means a report that a generator shall submit to the Director which notifies the Director that the generator has not received a copy of the special waste manifest from the primary or alternate special waste receiving facility to which the special waste was sent pursuant to the generator's instructions on the special waste manifest, or from any special waste receiving facility to which special waste was sent.

3. "Generator" means a person whose act or process onsite produces a special waste listed in, or designated pursuant to, A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-852, 49-854, and 49-855, or whose act or process first causes such special waste to be subject to regulation.

4. "Identification number" means an alphanumeric identifier issued by the Department to each generator, special shipper, and special waste receiving facility to be used on documents, as required pursuant to this Article, in conjunction with shipment of special waste.

5. "Off-site consignment" means a generator's delivery of materials or wastes for transport off-site to a special waste receiving facility within Arizona for treatment, storage, recycling, or disposal.

6. "Off-site" means any property located within Arizona that is not onsite as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-851(3).

7. "Operator" means a person who owns and controls all or part of a special waste receiving facility, or who leases, operates, or controls such facility, a person responsible for the overall operation of such a facility, a management agency, or an authorized representative.

8. "Recycling" means recycling as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49- 831(21).

9. "Shredder residue" means waste from the shredding of motor vehicles.

10. "Significant manifest discrepancy" means a difference of more than 10% by weight for bulk shipments, any variation in a piece count for a batch delivery, or any difference in the type of special waste received as compared to the type of special waste listed on the manifest.

11. "Special waste receiving facility" means an off-site location to which special waste is sent to be treated, recycled, stored, or disposed.

12. "Special waste manifest" means a form provided by the Department, shown as Exhibit A to this Article, and used to identify the origin, quantity, composition, routing, and destination of special waste during its transportation from a generator's facility to a special waste receiving facility.

13. "Special waste shipper" means a person who transports special waste for off-site treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal.

14. "Treatment" means any method, technique, or process designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of special waste.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-301, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1302" level="4" title="Special Waste Generator Manifesting Requirements">

Special Waste Generator Manifesting Requirements

A. A generator shall request a generator identification number on a form provided by the Director, and shown as Exhibit B to this Article, prior to shipping special waste. Within 30 days of receiving the completed form, the Director shall issue the identification number to the generator.

B. Prior to off-site consignment of special waste, the generator shall do all of the following:

1. Complete and sign the "Generator" section of a special waste manifest.

2. Obtain the handwritten signature of the special waste shipper on the special waste manifest.

3. Retain the generator's copy of the special waste manifest.

4. Give the special waste manifest and the remaining attached copies to the special waste shipper or forward it to the receiving facility.

C. Within 14 days after shipment was accepted by a special waste shipper for off-site consignment, the generator shall submit to the Director one legible copy of each special waste manifest with the generator's section completed and containing signatures of the generator and special waste shipper.

D. If, within 35 days after the date the waste was accepted by the initial special waste shipper, the generator does not receive a completed copy of this special waste manifest with the handwritten signature of the special waste receiving facility operator, the generator shall contact the special waste shipper and the special waste receiving facility operator to determine the status of the special waste.

E. The generator shall submit an exception report to the Director if the generator does not receive a completed, signed, legible copy of the special waste manifest within 45 days of the date the waste was accepted by the initial special waste shipper for off-site consignment. The exception report shall contain both of the following:

1. A cover letter, signed by the generator, which explains the efforts made to locate the special waste and the results of those efforts.

2. A legible copy of the special waste manifest which was signed by the generator and the special waste shipper and retained by the generator.

F. The generator shall retain a legible copy of each signed special waste manifest for at least three years from the date of acceptance of a shipment of special waste for off-site consignment.

G. If a person is required to have a manifest, shipping paper or shipping record under federal law for the special waste, the federal manifest, shipping paper, or shipping record may be used in lieu of the Arizona special waste manifest form so long as the federal manifest, shipping paper, or shipping record includes all the information required on the Arizona special waste manifest form.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-302, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1303" level="4" title="Special Waste Shipper Manifesting Requirements">

Special Waste Shipper Manifesting Requirements

A. A special waste shipper who receives special waste in Arizona for transport to a special waste receiving facility in Arizona shall request a special waste shipper identification number on a form provided by the Director and shown as Exhibit B to this Article. The Director shall issue an identification number within 30 days of receipt of the completed form.

B. A special waste shipper shall:

1. Accept special waste for intrastate shipment to a special waste receiving facility only if the waste is accompanied by a special waste manifest which is completed and signed in accordance with the provisions of R18-8-302.

2. Deliver the entire shipment of special waste to a special waste receiving facility as designated on the special waste manifest. If unable to deliver the special waste to the primary or alternate special waste receiving facility designated on the special waste manifest:

a. Return the special waste to the generator, or

b. Contact the generator and obtain instructions for an alternate special waste receiving facility and deliver the waste accordingly.

C. Shipments of special waste between facilities owned by the same generator shall be exempt from the requirements of rules adopted pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-856.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-303, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1304" level="4" title="Special Waste Receiving Facility Manifesting Requirements">

Special Waste Receiving Facility Manifesting Requirements

A. A special waste receiving facility shall request an identification number on a form provided by the Director, and shown as Exhibit B to this Article, and obtain the number prior to receiving special waste. The Department shall issue the identification number within 30 days of receipt of the completed form.

B. A special waste receiving facility shall receive only special waste for which it has a special waste manifest signed and dated by the generator and special waste shipper. In the "Facility" section of the special waste manifest, the operator of the special waste receiving facility shall do all of the following:

1. Enter the identification number.

2. Sign and date each copy of a special waste manifest to certify that the type and amount of special waste, as stated on the special waste manifest, was received.

3. Indicate on the special waste manifest any significant discrepancies between the description, volume, or weight of the special waste as stated on the special waste manifest and the special waste received.

C. After completing the "Facility" portion of the special waste manifest, the operator of the special waste receiving facility shall send one legible copy each of the signed special waste manifest to the Director and the generator within 30 days of the delivery of the special waste.

D. Upon discovery of a significant manifest discrepancy in the special waste manifest and the special waste received, the operator of the special waste receiving facility shall:

1. Contact the generator and special waste shipper to attempt to reconcile the discrepancy.

2. If the discrepancy cannot be resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, submit a letter to the Director, along with the special waste manifest within five days. The letter shall describe the significant manifest discrepancy and all attempts to reconcile it.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-304, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1305" level="4" title="Records">

Records

All records required by this Article shall be retained for at least three years. If notification of an enforcement action by the Department has been received, the records shall be retained until a final determination has been made in the matter or in accordance with the final determination.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-305, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1306" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.13.1307" level="4" title="Best Management Practices for Waste from Shredding Motor Vehicles"> <dwc name="enter" times="18"><dwc name="arsen" times="1"><dwc name="barium" times="1"><dwc name="cadmium" times="3"><dwc name="chromium" times="1"><dwc name="lead" times="3"><dwc name="mercuri" times="1"><dwc name="selenium" times="1"><dwc name="polychlorin biphenyl" times="2"><dwc name="pcb" times="7">

Best Management Practices for Waste from Shredding Motor Vehicles

A. A generator of shredder residue shall follow sampling protocol as follows or submit to the Department for review and approval, at least two weeks prior to the sampling event, an alternative written sampling plan which is consistent with requirements set forth in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste," EPA SW-846, 3rd Edition, Volume II, Chapter Nine, Sampling Plan, Physical/Chemical Method, EPA, Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response, Washington, D.C., September 1986, and updated November 1990, and no future editions or amendments, ("EPA Sampling Plan"), herein incorporated by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State:

1. Sample collection shall be done in accordance with one of the following:

a. Sampling procedure 1, consisting of both of the following steps:

i. The generator shall collect samples from a shredder residue sampling pile which shall consist of the average amount of shredder residue from eight hours of operation of the shredder. The shredder residue sampling pile shall be formed into a square shape for sampling purposes. Refer to Exhibit 1.

ii. One 2,000-gram sample shall be collected from each sample point as indicated in Exhibit 1. Samples from sample points A-1, B-1, and C-1 shall be collected from the top of the pile. Samples from sample points A-2, B-2, and C-2 shall be collected from the base of the pile. A sample from sample point C-3 shall be collected at the vertical midpoint at the center of the pile. The seven 2,000-gram samples shall be numbered consecutively. Three of the seven 2,000-gram samples shall then be chosen at random by selecting numbers from a calculator programmed to generate random numbers. The samples shall be analyzed for the constituents and at the frequencies listed in Table A of this Section.

b. Sampling procedure 2, consisting of both of the following steps:

i. The generator shall collect seven 2,000-gram samples during or immediately following the normal generation of shredder residue. For each sample, shredder residue shall be collected for 8 to 12 minutes, during which a minimum of 500 pounds shall be generated. This process shall be performed seven times to create seven 500-pound amounts. Each 500-pound amount shall be formed into a square shape for sampling purposes. Refer to Exhibit 1.

ii. Twenty 100-gram samples shall be collected from throughout each of the seven 500-pound piles generated. Upon completion of collection, all 20 samples from each of the seven 500-pound piles shall be combined together into seven separate 2,000-gram samples and numbered consecutively. Three of the seven 2,000-gram samples shall then be chosen at random by selecting numbers from a calculator programmed to generate random numbers. The samples shall be analyzed for the constituents and at the frequencies listed in Table A of this Section.

2. Each 2,000 grams of shredder residue collected shall include both large and small particles, in proportion to shredder residue generated. The generator shall use a container which is large enough to hold the entire amount of shredder residue collected from each sample point.

3. The generator shall comply with requirements for sample preservation, temperature, and holding times, as set forth in the EPA Sampling Plan.

4. Each one of the three 2,000-gram samples selected at random shall be divided into four equal 500-gram portions and a 200-gram subsample shall be taken from each of the four equal 500-gram portions. Each subsample shall then be passed through a 9.5mm screen. All particles which do not pass through the 9.5mm screen shall be hand cut until small enough to pass through the screen. All four 200-gram subsamples shall then be remixed together and redivided into four equal 200-gram portions. The following amounts shall be taken for constituent sampling:

a. 10-15 grams per 200-gram subsample for a total of 40-60 grams per 2,000-gram sample for Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCB) analysis as set forth in subsection (A)(10).

b. 25 grams per 200-gram subsample for a total of 100 grams per sample for toxicity characteristic leaching procedure extractions for contaminants as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1 (incorporated by reference in R18-8-261(A)), as set forth in subsection (A)(7).

c. 1.25 grams per 200-gram subsample for a total of 5 grams per 2,000-gram sample for extraction fluid determination.

5. Each constituent sample shall be put into a container. Container labeling and chain-of-custody documentation shall be consistent with the requirements in the EPA Sampling Plan.

6. The constituent samples shall be analyzed by a laboratory licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 36-495.

7. Of the three samples selected at random, one sample amount required by subsection (A)(4)(b) shall be analyzed for the extractable heavy metals arsenic, barium, cadmium, chromium, lead, mercury, selenium, and silver, as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1. The remaining two samples shall each be analyzed for extractable cadmium and lead.

8. If the results of all three of the analyses for any extractable heavy metal in subsection (A)(7) above are below the Regulatory Level of the Maximum Concentration of Contaminants for the Toxicity Characteristic as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1, the simple arithmetic mean of the extractable cadmium and lead and the single analysis for the remaining six extractable heavy metals shall be used to determine if the sampled shredder residue will be classified as hazardous waste.

9. If the analyses of any one of three selected samples exceeds the regulatory level as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1, an additional subsample from the sample in question shall be subjected to confirmation analysis. If the confirmation sample analysis totals are in excess of the regulatory level as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1, the remaining four of the original seven samples shall be analyzed for those extractable heavy metals which exceed the regulatory level as set forth in 40 CFR 261.24, Table 1. The simple arithmetic mean of the results of all seven samples shall be used to determine if the sampled shredder residue will be classified as hazardous waste.

10. The three samples selected at random shall be analyzed for PCB concentration in the amounts required by subsection (A)(4)(a). If the samples contain concentrations of PCB less than 50 mg/kg, the simple arithmetic mean of the three samples shall be used for reporting to the Director. If any one of the three samples contains concentrations of PCB greater than 50 mg/kg, an additional subsample from the sample in question shall be subjected to confirmation analysis. If the PCB concentration for that sample exceeds 50 mg/kg, the remaining four of the original seven samples shall be analyzed for PCB, in amounts required by subsection (A)(4)(a), and the simple arithmetic mean of all the samples shall be used to determine if the sampled shredder residue will be classified as hazardous waste.

B. Shredder residue determined to be hazardous waste shall be managed in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 et seq. and R18-8-260 et seq.

C. The generator shall do all of the following:

1. Secure the facility to prevent unauthorized entry;

2. Cover or otherwise manage the shredder residue pile to prevent wind dispersal;

3. Place the shredder residue pile on a surface with a permeability coefficient equal to or less than 1 x 10

-7

cm/s;

4. Design, construct, operate, and maintain a run-on control system capable of preventing flow onto the waste pile during peak discharge from, at a minimum, a 25-year storm;

5. Design, construct, operate, and maintain a run-off management system to collect and control at a minimum, the water volume resulting from a 24-hour, 25-year storm;

6. Provide collection and holding facilities for run-on and run-off control systems, which shall have a permeability coefficient equal to or less than 1 x 10

-7

cm/s;

7. Record the date accumulation of shredder residue begins.

D. Shredder residue shall be treated, recycled, sorted, stored, or disposed at a Department-approved special waste facility approved in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-857. A facility which seeks to become a special waste facility shall submit a special waste management plan to the Department to ensure compliance with subsection (C) of this Section.

E. A generator shall not store shredder residue for longer than 90 days. A special waste facility shall not store shredder residue for longer than one year.

F. The owner or operator of a special waste facility shall pay, to the Department, the fees required by A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-855(H) and 49-863 in the amount of 66&#162; per cubic yard of uncompacted shredder residue of $1.50 per cubic yard of compacted shredder residue received or $2.00 per ton.

G. Shredder residue which has been determined to be nonhazardous pursuant to this Section shall be transported in accordance with the requirements for transportation of garbage as set forth in R18-8-510.

Historical Note

Section recodified from A.A.C. R18-8-307, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Table A. Target Analyses and Sampling Frequency

<table> Constituents Frequency * TCLP Metals Quarterly * TCLP Volatiles Annually * TCLP Semi-volatiles Annually Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCB) Quarterly </table>

* Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)

Historical Note

Table A recodified from 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Exhibit 1. Selection of Sample Points, Shredder Waste Pile

<img src="18-13-1.gif"/>Historical Note

Exhibit 1 recodified from 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Appendix A. Application for Arizona Special Waste Identification Number

<img src="18-13-2.gif"/>Instructions for the Completion of the ADEQ Application for the Arizona Special Waste Identification Number.

1. Place an "X" in the appropriate box indicating which type of operation you will be performing.

2. Enter the complete company/agency name.

3. Enter the complete address. Do not use P.O. Box or Route Number.

4. Enter the complete address if it is different than the address listed in item 3.

5. Enter the name, job title, and complete phone number of the person who will act as the company/agency contact.

6. Enter the complete address of the company/agency contact listed in item 5.

7. Enter the name, complete address, and phone number of the company's/agency's legal owner.

8. Enter the signature of the person who will assume the responsibility of completion of this form and its contents.

9. Enter the name and title of the responsible person listed in item 8.

10. Enter the date that the responsible person signed the document.

11. List all special wastes that the applicant generates, transports, stores, or receives.

Historical Note

Appendix A recodified from 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

Appendix B. Special Waste Manifest

ARIZONA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

SPECIAL WASTE MANIFEST

<img src="18-13-3.gif"/>Instructions for the Completion of the ADEQ Special Waste Manifest

1. Enter the generator's Arizona Identification Number in box 1.

2. Enter the Emergency Response Notification Phone Number in box 2.

3. Enter the generator's name and complete mailing address, including city, state, and zip code, along with the generator's phone number, including the area code, in box 3.

4. Enter the transporter's name, transporter's Arizona identification number, and telephone number, including the area code, in box 4.

5. Complete this box if a second transporter is to be used to transport the special waste to the receiving facility, following the instructions outlined in number 4 in box 5.

6. Enter the name, address, and physical site location of the primary special waste receiving facility. In the appropriate spaces, include the facility's Arizona identification number and the telephone number, including the area code, in box 6.

7. Enter the name, address, and physical site location of the alternate special waste receiving facility. In the appropriate spaces, include the facility's Arizona identification number and the telephone number, including the area code, in box 7.

8. Enter United States Department of Transportation description (Including proper shipping name, hazard class, and identification number, if applicable) (For all non-Department of Transportation-regulated materials, enter the proper name, physical state, and description of all contents of the waste).

Mark an "X" in this column if waste is classified as a hazardous material.

Container Number

Enter the number of containers being shipped for each waste.

Total Quantity

Numerical value representing the number of containers multiplied by the container size. Answer will be listed in pounds, gallons, or cubic yards.

Unit weight or volume

P - Pounds

G - Gallons

Y - Cubic Yards

9. Use this space to indicate special transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal information. Emergency response telephone numbers or similar information may be included here in box 9.

10. Print or type the generator's name followed by their signature and date in box 10.

11. Print or type the primary transporter's name followed by their signature and date in box 11.

12. Print or type the secondary transporter's name followed by their signature and date in box 12.

13. Indicate significant discrepancies in this box. Significant manifest discrepancy is defined as "a difference of more than 10% by weight for bulk shipments, any variation in a piece count for batch deliveries, or an obvious difference in a special waste type is discovered by inspection or analysis between the type or amount of a special waste designated in a special waste manifest, and the type or amount received by a special waste receiving facility" in box 13.

14. Print or type the receiving facility's owner or operator name followed by their signature and date in box 14.

Historical Note

Appendix B recodified from 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 3, filed in the Office of the Secretary of State September 29, 2000 (Supp. 00-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 14" level="3" title="BIOHAZARDOUS MEDICAL WASTE AND DISCARDED DRUGS">

BIOHAZARDOUS MEDICAL WASTE AND DISCARDED DRUGS

<regElement name="R18.13.1401" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="microorgan" times="2"><dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701, the following definitions apply in this Article:

1. "Administrative consent order" means a bilateral agreement between the consenting party and the Department. A bilateral agreement is not subject to administrative appeal.

2. "Alternative treatment technology" means a treatment method other than autoclaving or incineration, that achieves the treatment standards described in R18-13-1415.

3. "Approved medical waste facility plan" means the document that has been approved by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04, and that authorizes the operator to accept biohazardous medical waste at its solid waste facility.

4. "Autoclaving," means using a combination of heat, steam, pressure, and time to achieve sterile conditions.

5. "Biohazardous medical waste" is composed of one or more of the following:

a. Cultures and stocks: Discarded cultures and stocks generated in the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of a human being or animal or in any research relating to that diagnosis, treatment or immunization, or in the production or testing of biologicals.

b. Human blood and blood products: Discarded products and materials containing free-flowing blood or free-flowing blood components.

c. Human pathologic wastes: Discarded organs and body parts removed during surgery. Human pathologic wastes do not include the head or spinal column.

d. Medical sharps: Discarded sharps used in animal or human patient care, medical research, or clinical laboratories. This includes hypodermic needles; syringes; pipettes; scalpel blades; blood vials; needles attached to tubing; broken and unbroken glassware; and slides and coverslips.

e. Research animal wastes: Animal carcasses, body parts, and bedding of animals that have been infected with agents that produce, or may produce, human infection.

6. "Biologicals" means preparations made from living organisms or their products, including vaccines, cultures, or other biological products intended for use in diagnosing, immunizing, or treating humans or animals or in research pertaining to these activities.

7. "Biological indicator" means a representative microorganism used to evaluate treatment efficacy.

8. "Blood and blood products" means discarded human blood and any product derived from human blood, including but not limited to blood plasma, platelets, red or white blood corpuscles, and other derived products.

9. "C.F.R." means the Code of Federal Regulations.

10. "Chemotherapy waste" means any discarded material that has come in contact with an agent that kills or prevents the reproduction of malignant cells.

11. "Dedicated vehicle" means a motor vehicle or trailer that is pulled by a motor vehicle used by a transporter for the sole purpose of transporting biohazardous medical waste.

12. "Discarded drug" means any prescription medicine, over-the-counter medicine, or controlled substance, used in the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of a human being or animal, that the generator intends to abandon. The term does not include hazardous waste or controlled substances regulated by the United States Drug Enforcement Agency.

13. "Disposal facility" means a municipal solid waste landfill that has been approved by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 to accept untreated biohazardous medical waste for disposal.

14. "Facility plan" has the meaning given to it in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

15. "Free flowing" means liquid that separates readily from any portion of a biohazardous medical waste under ambient temperature and pressure.

16. "Generator" means a person whose act or process produces biohazardous medical waste, or a discarded drug, or whose act first causes medical waste or a discarded drug to become subject to regulation.

17. "Hazardous waste" has the meaning prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-921.

18. "Health care worker" means, with respect to R18-13-1403(B)(5), a person who provides health care services at an off-site location that is none of the following: a residence, a facility where health care is normally provided, or a facility licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services.

19. "Improper disposal of biohazardous medical waste" means the disposal by a person of untreated or inadequately treated biohazardous medical waste at any place that is not approved to accept untreated biohazardous medical waste.

20. "Independent testing laboratory" means a testing laboratory independent of oversight activities by a provider of alternative treatment technology.

21. "Medical sharps container" means a vessel that is rigid, puncture resistant, leak proof, and equipped with a locking cap.

22. "Medical waste," as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701, means "any solid waste which is generated in the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of a human being or animal or in any research relating to that diagnosis, treatment or immunization, or in the production or testing of biologicals, and includes discarded drugs but does not include hazardous waste as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-921 other than conditionally exempt small quantity generator waste."

23. "Medical waste treatment facility" or "treatment facility" means a solid waste facility approved by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 to accept and treat biohazardous medical waste from off-site generators.

24. "Multi-purpose vehicle" means any motor vehicle operated by a health care worker, where the general purpose is the non-commercial transporting of people and the hauling of goods and supplies, but not solid waste. A multi-purpose vehicle is limited to hauling biohazardous medical waste generated off site by health workers in providing services. "Off site" for purposes of this definition means a location other than a hospital or clinic.

25. "Off site" means a location that does not fall within the definition of "on site" contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-701.

26. "Packaging" or "properly packaged" means the use of a container or a practice under R18-13-1407.

27. "Putrescible waste" means waste materials capable of being decomposed rapidly by microorganisms.

28. "Radioactive material" has the meaning under A.R.S. &#167; 30-651.

29. "Secure" means to lock out or otherwise restrict access to unauthorized personnel.

30. "Spill" means either of the following:

a. Any release of biohazardous medical waste from its package while in the generator's storage area.

b. Any release of biohazardous medical waste from its package or the release of packaged biohazardous medical waste by the transporter at a place or site that is not a medical waste treatment or disposal facility.

31. "Store" or "storage" means, in addition to the meaning under A.R.S. &#167; 49-701, either of the following:

a. The temporary holding of properly packaged biohazardous medical waste by a generator in a designated accumulation area awaiting collection by a transporter.

b. The temporary holding of properly packaged biohazardous medical waste by a transporter or a treater at an approved medical waste storage facility or treatment facility.

32. "Technology provider" means a person that manufactures, or a vendor who supplies alternative medical waste treatment technology.

33. "Tracking document" means the written instrument that signifies acceptance of biohazardous medical waste by a transporter, or a transfer, storage, treatment, or disposal facility operator.

34. "Transportation management plan" means the transporter's written plan consisting of both of the following:

a. The procedures used by the transporter to minimize the exposure to employees and the general public to biohazardous medical waste throughout the process of collecting, transporting, and handling.

b. The emergency procedures used by the transporter for handling spills or accidents.

35. "Transporter" means a person engaged in the hauling of biohazardous medical waste from the point of generation to a Department-approved storage facility or to a Department-approved treatment or disposal facility.

36. "Treat" or "treatment" means, with respect to the methods used to render biohazardous medical waste less infectious: incinerating, autoclaving, or using the alternative treatment technologies prescribed in this Article.

37. "Treated medical waste" means biohazardous medical waste that has been treated and that meets the treatment standards of R18-13-1415. Treated medical waste that requires no further processing is considered solid waste.

38. "Treater" means a person, also known as an operator, who receives solid waste facility plan approval for the purpose of operating a medical waste treatment facility to treat biohazardous medical waste that is generated off site.

39. "Treatment certification statement" means the written document provided by either a generator who treats biohazardous medical waste on site or by a treater, to inform a solid waste disposal or recycling facility that biohazardous medical waste has been treated as prescribed in this Article, and therefore is no longer subject to regulation under this Article.

40. "Treatment standards" mean the levels of microbial inactivation, prescribed in R18-13-1415, to be achieved for a specific type of biohazardous medical waste.

41. "Universal biohazard symbol" or "biohazard symbol" means a representation that conforms to the design shown in 29 CFR 1910.145(f)(8)(ii) (Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration, July 1, 1998) and which is incorporated by reference in this rule. This incorporation does not include any later amendments or editions. Copies of the incorporated material are available for inspection at the Department of Environmental Quality and the Office of the Secretary of State.

42. "Vehicle not dedicated to the transportation of biohazardous medical waste but which is engaged in commerce" means a motor vehicle or a trailer pulled by a motor vehicle whose primary purpose is the transporting of goods that are not solid waste or biohazardous medical waste and that is used by a transporter for the temporary transportation of biohazardous medical waste.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1402" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. This Article applies to the following:

1. A generator who treats biohazardous medical waste on site, before disposing of it as treated medical waste, and to any equipment used for that purpose. Specific requirements for a generator who treats on site are prescribed in R18-13-1405.

2. A generator who contracts with a medical waste treatment facility for the purpose of treating biohazardous medical waste. Specific requirements for such a generator are prescribed in R18-13-1406.

3. A person who transports biohazardous medical waste and any motor vehicle used for that purpose.

4. A medical waste treatment facility operator, a medical waste treatment facility, and any equipment used for medical waste treatment.

5. A person who provides alternative medical waste treatment technology for the purpose of treatment, and to any technology used for treatment.

6. A person in possession of biohazardous medical waste if the waste does not meet the treatment standards in R18-13-1415.

7. An operator of a Department-approved disposal facility who accepts untreated biohazardous medical waste.

8. A person who generates medical sharps in the preparation of human remains.

9. A person who generates medical sharps in the treatment of animals.

10. A generator of discarded drugs not returned to the manufacturer.

B. The requirements for biohazardous medical waste set out for collection do not apply to the manner in which the generator collects, or handles biohazardous medical waste inside the generator's place of business.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1403" level="4" title="Exemptions; Partial Exemptions"> <dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Exemptions; Partial Exemptions

A. The following persons are exempt from the requirements of this Article:

1. Law enforcement personnel handling biohazardous medical waste for law enforcement purposes.

2. A person in possession of radioactive materials.

3 A person who returns unused medical sharps to the manufacturer.

4. A household generator residing in a private, public, or semi-public residence who generates biohazardous medical waste in the administration of self care or the agent of the household generator who administers the medical care. This exemption does not apply to the facility in which the person resides if that facility is licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services.

5. A generator that separates medical devices from the medical waste stream that are sent out for re-processing and returned to the generator.

6. A person in possession of human bodies regulated by A.R.S. Title 36.

7. A person who sends used medical sharps via the United States Postal Service or private shipping agent to a treatment facility.

B. The following are conditionally exempt from the requirements of this Article:

1. A person who prepares human corpses, remains, and anatomical parts that are intended for interment or cremation. However, if medical sharps are generated during the preparation of the human remains, they must be disposed of as prescribed by this Article.

2. A person who operates an emergency rescue vehicle, an ambulance, or a blood service collection vehicle if the biohazardous medical waste is returned to the home facility for disposal. This facility is considered to be the point of generation for packaging, treatment, and disposal.

3. A person who discharges discarded drugs and liquid and semi-liquid biohazardous medical wastes, excluding cultures and stocks, to the sanitary sewer system if the operator of the wastewater sewer system and treatment facility allows, permits, authorizes, or otherwise approves of the discharges.

4. A person who possesses hazardous waste regulated by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 5.

5. A health care worker who uses a multi-purpose vehicle in the conduct of routine business other than transporting waste, is exempt from the requirements of R18-13-1409 if the health care worker complies with all of the following:

a. Packages the biohazardous medical waste according to R18-13-1407.

b. Secures the packaged biohazardous medical waste within the vehicle so as to minimize spills.

c. Transports the biohazardous medical waste to the place of business or to a medical waste treatment or disposal facility.

d. Cleans the vehicle when it shows visible signs of contamination.

e. Secures the vehicle to prevent unauthorized contact with the biohazardous medical waste.

6. A person who transports biohazardous medical waste between multiple properties separated by a public thoroughfare and which is owned or operated by the same owner or governmental entity is exempt from the requirements of R18-13-1409 if the person complies with R18-13-1403(B)(5)(a) through (e).

7. A hospital that chooses to accept medical sharps from staff physicians who generate medical sharps in a private practice is exempt from the requirement to obtain facility plan approval as long as the hospital collects medical sharps for off-site treatment or disposal.

C. The following are exempt from some of the requirements of this Article:

1. A generator who treats biohazardous medical waste on site and who accepts for treatment medical waste described in R18-13-1403(A)(4) is exempt from the requirement to obtain solid waste facility plan approval prescribed in R18-13-1410.

2. A generator who self-hauls biohazardous medical waste to a Department-approved medical waste treatment, storage, transfer, or disposal facility is exempt from the requirements of R18-13-1409 if the generator complies with R18-13-1403(B)(5)(a) through (e).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1404" level="4" title="Transition and Compliance Dates">

Transition and Compliance Dates

A. Unless otherwise specified in subsections (B) through (H), the date for compliance with this Article by generators, transporters, treaters, providers of alternative medical waste technology, and persons in possession of untreated biohazardous medical waste is the effective date of this Article.

B. A person who provides alternative medical waste treatment technology used by a generator before the effective date of this Article shall perform all of the following:

1. Register the alternative medical waste technology with the Department as prescribed in R18-13-1414 within 90 days after the effective date of this Article.

2. Not provide alternative technology 90 days after the effective date of this Article unless a Departmental registration certificate is received.

3. After receipt of the Departmental registration certificate, provide to all generators using the alternative treatment technology a copy of the registration certificate and the alternative technology manufacturer's specifications.

C. A generator who utilizes alternative medical waste treatment technology before the effective date of this Article shall obtain, within 180 days after the effective date of this Article, the Departmental registration number and equipment specifications, described in R18-13-1414, from the technology provider. If documentation of Departmental registration is not on file with the generator, the Department shall classify biohazardous medical waste treated 180 days after the effective date of this Article using the unregistered alternative treatment technology as untreated biohazardous medical waste.

D. A generator who utilizes incineration or autoclaving for onsite treatment of biohazardous medical waste before the effective date of this Article may continue to do so after the effective date if the treatment requirements of R18-13-1415 and the onsite treatment requirements of R18-13-1405 are met.

E. A transporter of biohazardous medical waste in business on the effective date of this Article shall register, within 90 days after the effective date of this Article, as required in R18-13-1409(A).

F. An operator of a medical waste storage facility, who has obtained approval for a solid waste facility under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 on or before the effective date of this Article, may continue to store biohazardous medical waste if the facility complies with the design and operation standards prescribed in R18-13-1411. The addition of a refrigeration unit is a Type II change as described in R18-13-1413(A)(2).

G. An operator of a medical waste transfer facility shall obtain solid waste facility plan approval that meets the requirements of R18-13-1410 within 180 days after the effective date of this Article.

H. An operator of a medical waste treatment facility who has obtained Departmental plan approval to operate a medical waste treatment facility on or before the effective date of this Article may continue to operate under that plan approval if both of the following are met:

1. The treater complies with the treatment standards of R18-13-1415 and the recordkeeping requirements of R18-13-1412, except as noted in the subsection below.

2. If the treater determines that the waste is not being treated to the applicable treatment standards of R18-13-1415, the treater informs the Department within two working days after the date on the determination, and within 30 working days enters into an administrative consent order to bring the facility into compliance.

I. An operator of an existing municipal solid waste landfill who intends to accept untreated biohazardous medical waste shall submit a notice of a Type III change and an amended facility plan within 180 days after the effective date of this Article.

J. Notwithstanding subsection (H), if the Department determines that an updated solid waste facility plan is required, a treater shall submit an updated plan within 180 days after the date on the Department's determination. The treater may continue to operate under the conditions specified in subsection (H) of this Section while the Department reviews and determines whether to approve or deny the updated plan.

K. After the effective date of this Article, solid waste facility plan approval under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 is required for a new medical waste treatment or disposal facility before construction.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1405" level="4" title="Biohazardous Medical Waste Treated On Site">

Biohazardous Medical Waste Treated On Site

A. A person who treats biohazardous medical waste on site shall use incineration, autoclaving, or an alternative medical waste treatment method that meets the treatment standards prescribed in R18-13-1415.

B. A generator who uses:

1. Incineration shall follow the requirements of subsections (C), (F), (G), and (H),

2. Autoclaving shall follow the requirements of subsections (D), (F), (G) and (H), or

3. An alternative treatment method shall follow the requirements of subsections (E), (F), (G), and (H).

C. A generator who incinerates biohazardous medical waste on site shall comply with all of the following requirements:

1. Obtain a permit if required by the local or state air quality agency having jurisdiction.

2. Reduce the biohazardous medical waste, excluding metallic items, into carbonized or mineralized ash.

3. Determine whether incinerator ash is hazardous waste as required by hazardous waste rules promulgated under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 5.

4. Dispose of the non-hazardous waste incinerator ash at a Department-approved municipal solid waste landfill.

D. A generator who autoclaves biohazardous medical waste on site shall comply with all of the following requirements:

1. Further process by grinding, shredding, or any other process, any recognizable animals and human tissue, organs, or body parts, to render such waste non-recognizable and ensure effective treatment.

2. Operate the autoclave at the manufacturer's specifications appropriate for the quantity and density of the load.

3. Keep records of operational performance levels for six months after each treatment cycle. Operational performance level recordkeeping includes all of the following:

a. Duration of time for each treatment cycle.

b. The temperature and pressure maintained in the treatment unit during each cycle.

c. The method used to determine treatment parameters in the manufacturer's specifications.

d. The method in manufacturer's specifications used to confirm microbial inactivation and the test results.

e. Any other operating parameters in the manufacturer's specifications for each treatment cycle.

4. Keep records of equipment maintenance for the duration of equipment use that include the date and result of all equipment calibration and maintenance.

E. A generator who uses an alternative treatment method on site shall comply with all of the following requirements:

1. Use only alternative treatment methods registered under R18-13-1414.

2. Further process by grinding, shredding, or any other process, any recognizable animals and human tissue, organs, or body parts, to render this waste non-recognizable and ensure effective treatment.

3. Follow the manufacturer's specifications for equipment operation.

4. Supply upon request all of the following:

a. The Departmental registration number for the alternative medical waste treatment technology and the type of biohazardous medical waste that the equipment is registered to treat.

b. The equipment specifications that include all of the following:

i. The operating procedures for the equipment that enable the treater to comply with the treatment standards described in this Article for the type of waste treated.

ii. The instructions for equipment maintenance, testing, and calibration that enable the treater to comply with the treatment standards described in this Article for the type of waste treated.

5. Maintain a training manual regarding the proper operation of the equipment.

6. Maintain a treatment record consisting of a log of the volume of medical waste treated and a schedule of calibration and maintenance performed under the manufacturer's specifications.

7. Maintain treatment records for six months after the treatment date for each load treated.

8. Maintain the equipment specifications for the duration of equipment use.

F. A generator shall do all of the following:

1. Package the treated medical waste according to the waste collection agency's requirements;

2. Attach to the package or container a label, placard, or tag with the following words: "This medical waste has been treated as required by the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality standards" before placing the treated medical waste out for collection as a general solid waste. The generator shall ensure that the treated medical waste meets the standards of R18-13-1415.

3. Upon request of the solid waste collection agency or municipal solid waste landfill, provide a certification that the treated medical waste meets the standards of R18-13-1415.

4. Make treatment records available for Departmental inspection upon request.

G. A generator of medical sharps shall handle medical sharps as prescribed in R18-13-1419.

H. A generator of chemotherapy waste, cultures and stocks, or animal waste shall handle that waste as prescribed in R18-13-1420.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1406" level="4" title="Biohazardous Medical Waste Transported Off Site for Treatment">

Biohazardous Medical Waste Transported Off Site for Treatment

A. A generator of biohazardous medical waste shall package the waste as prescribed in R18-13-1407 before self-hauling or before setting the waste out for collection by a transporter.

B. A generator shall obtain a copy of the tracking document signed by the transporter signifying acceptance of the biohazardous medical waste. A generator shall keep a copy of the tracking document for one year from the date of acceptance by the transporter. The tracking document shall contain all of the following information:

1. Name and address of the generator, transporter, and medical waste treatment, storage, transfer, or disposal facility, as applicable.

2. Quantity of biohazardous medical waste collected by weight, volume, or number of containers.

3. Identification number attached to bags or containers.

4. Date the biohazardous medical waste is collected.

C. A generator of chemotherapy waste, cultures and stocks, or animal waste shall handle the waste as prescribed in R18-13-1420.

D. A generator of medical sharps shall handle the waste as prescribed in R18-13-1419.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1407" level="4" title="Packaging"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="2">

Packaging

A. A generator who sets biohazardous medical waste out for collection for off-site treatment or disposal shall package the biohazardous medical waste in either of the following:

1. A red disposable plastic bag that is:

a. Leak resistant,

b. Impervious to moisture,

c. Of sufficient strength to prevent tearing or bursting under normal conditions of use and handling,

d. Sealed to prevent leakage during transport,

e. Puncture resistant for sharps, and

f. Placed in a secondary container. This container shall be constructed of materials that will prevent breakage of the bag in storage and handling during collection and transportation and bear the universal biohazard symbol. The secondary container may be either disposable or reusable.

2. A reusable container that bears the universal biohazard symbol and that is:

a. Leak-proof on all sides and bottom, closed with a fitted lid, and constructed of smooth, easily cleanable materials that are impervious to liquids and resistant to corrosion by disinfection agents and hot water, and

b. Used for the storage or transport of biohazardous medical waste and cleaned after each use unless the inner surfaces of the container have been protected by disposable liners, bags, or other devices removed with the waste. "Cleaning" means agitation to remove visible particles combined with one of the following:

i. Exposure to hot water at a temperature of at least 180 degrees Fahrenheit for a minimum of 15 seconds.

ii. Exposure to an EPA-approved chemical disinfectant used under established protocols and regulations.

iii. Any other method that the Department determines is acceptable, if the determination of acceptability is made in advance of the cleaning.

B. A generator shall handle any container used for the storage or transport of biohazardous medical waste that is not capable of being cleaned as described in subsection (A)(2)(b), or that is disposable packaging, as biohazardous medical waste.

C. A generator shall not use reusable containers described in subsection (A)(2) for any purpose other than the storage of biohazardous medical waste.

D. A generator shall not reuse disposable packaging and liners and shall manage such items as biohazardous medical waste.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1408" level="4" title="Storage">

Storage

A. A generator may place a container of biohazardous medical waste alongside a container of solid waste if the biohazardous medical waste is identified and not allowed to co-mingle with the solid waste. The storage area shall not be used to store substances for human consumption or for medical supplies.

B. Once biohazardous medical waste has been packaged for shipment off site, a generator shall provide a storage area for biohazardous medical waste until the waste is collected and shall comply with both of the following requirements:

1. Secure the storage area in a manner that restricts access to, or contact with the biohazardous medical waste to authorized persons.

2. Display the universal biohazard symbol and post warning signs worded as follows for medical waste storage areas: (in English) "CAUTION -- BIOHAZARDOUS MEDICAL WASTE STORAGE AREA -- UNAUTHORIZED PERSONS KEEP OUT" and (in Spanish) "PRECAUCION -- ZONA DE ALMACENAMIENTO DE DESPERDICIOS BIOLOGICOS PELIGROSOS -- PROHIBIDA LA ENTRADA A PERSONAS NO AUTORIZADAS."

C. Beginning at the time the waste is set out for collection, a generator who stores biohazardous medical waste shall comply with all of the following requirements:

1. Keep putrescible biohazardous medical waste unrefrigerated if it does not create a nuisance. However, refrigerate at 40&#176; F. or less putrescible biohazardous medical waste kept more than seven days.

2. Store biohazardous medical waste for 90 days or less unless the generator has obtained facility plan approval under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 and is in compliance with the design and operational requirements prescribed in R18-13-1412.

3. Keep the storage area free of visible contamination.

4. Protect biohazardous medical waste from contact with water, precipitation, wind, or animals. A generator shall ensure that the waste does not provide a breeding place or a food source for insects or rodents.

5. Handle spills by re-packaging the biohazardous medical waste, re-labeling the containers and cleaning any soiled surface as prescribed in R18-13-1407(A)(2)(b).

6. Notwithstanding subsection (C)(1), if odors become a problem, a generator shall minimize objectionable odors and the off-site migration of odors. If the Department determines that a generator has not acted or adequately addressed the problem, the Department shall require the waste to be removed or refrigerated at 40&#176; F or less.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1409" level="4" title="Transportation">

Transportation

A. A transporter shall register with the Department in addition to possessing a permit, license, or approval if required by a local health department, environmental agency, or other governmental agency with jurisdiction.

B. Upon receiving all of the following information from a transporter, the Department shall issue the registration after assigning a registration number to the transporter:

1. The name, address, and telephone number of the transportation company or entity.

2. All owners' names, addresses, and telephone numbers.

3. All names, addresses, and telephone numbers of any agents authorized to act on behalf of the owner.

4. A copy of either the certificate of disclosure required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-109 or a written acknowledgment that this disclosure is not required.

5. Photocopies or other evidence of the issuance of a permit, license, or approval if required by a local health department, environmental agency, or other governmental agency with jurisdiction.

6. A copy of the transportation management plan required in subsection (C).

C. A person who transports biohazardous medical waste shall maintain in each transporting vehicle at all times a transportation management plan consisting of both of the following:

1. Routine procedures used to minimize the exposure of employees and the general public to biohazardous medical waste throughout the process of collecting, transporting, and handling.

2. Emergency procedures used for handling spills or accidents.

D. A transporter who accepts biohazardous medical waste from a generator shall leave a copy of the tracking document described in R18-13-1406(B) with the person from whom the waste is accepted. A transporter shall ensure that a copy of the tracking document accompanies the person who has physical possession of the biohazardous medical waste. Upon delivery to a Department-approved transfer, storage, treatment, or disposal facility, the transporter shall obtain a copy of the tracking document, signed by a person representing the receiving facility, signifying acceptance of the biohazardous medical waste.

E. A transporter who transports biohazardous medical waste in a vehicle dedicated to the transportation of biohazardous medical waste shall ensure that the cargo compartment can be secured to limit access to authorized persons at all times except during loading and unloading. In addition, the cargo compartment shall be constructed in compliance with one of the following:

1. Have a fully enclosed, leak-proof cargo compartment consisting of a floor, sides, and a roof that are made of a non-porous material impervious to biohazardous medical waste and physically separated from the driver's compartment.

2. Haul a fully enclosed, leak-proof cargo box made of a non-porous material impervious to biohazardous medical waste.

3. Tow a fully enclosed leak-proof trailer made of a non-porous material impervious to biohazardous medical waste.

F. A person who transports biohazardous medical waste in a vehicle not dedicated to the transportation of biohazardous medical waste, but that is used longer than 30 consecutive days, shall comply with the following:

1. Subsections (A) and (C) through (G).

2. Clean the vehicle as prescribed in R18-13-1407(A)(2)(b) before it is used for another purpose.

G. A person who transports biohazardous medical waste shall comply with all of the following:

1. Accept only biohazardous medical waste packaged as prescribed in R18-13-1407.

2. Accept biohazardous medical waste only after providing the generator with a signed tracking form as prescribed in R18-13-1406(B), and keep a copy of the tracking document for one year.

3. Deliver biohazardous medical waste to a Department-approved biohazardous medical waste storage, transfer, treatment, or disposal facility within 24 hours of collection or refrigerate the waste for not more than 90 days at 40&#176; F or less until delivery.

4. Not hold biohazardous medical waste longer than 96 hours in a refrigerated vehicle unless the vehicle is parked at a Department-approved facility.

5. Not unload, reload, or transfer the biohazardous medical waste to another vehicle in any location other than a Department-approved facility, except in emergency situations. Combination vehicles or trailers may be uncoupled and coupled to another cargo vehicle or truck trailer as long as the biohazardous medical waste is not removed from the cargo compartment.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1410" level="4" title="Storage, Transfer, Treatment, and Disposal Facilities; Facility Plan Approval">

Storage, Transfer, Treatment, and Disposal Facilities; Facility Plan Approval

A. A person shall obtain solid waste facility plan approval from the Department as prescribed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.04 to construct any facility that will be used to store, transfer, treat, or dispose of biohazardous medical waste that was generated off site. Plan approval shall be obtained before starting construction of the medical waste treatment or disposal facility. This requirement also applies to solid waste facilities for which an operator self-certifies under A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.05, if the facility also will receive biohazardous medical waste.

B. If an air quality permit is required for the facility under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 3, the person shall include evidence of that air quality permit, or evidence of an air quality permit application with the application for solid waste facility plan approval.

C. A person applying for facility plan approval shall ensure that the plan contains information demonstrating how the plan will comply with this Article.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1411" level="4" title="Storage and Transfer Facilities; Design and Operation"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Storage and Transfer Facilities; Design and Operation

An operator of a storage facility or transfer facility shall comply with all of the following design and operation requirements:

1. Design the facility so that biohazardous medical waste is always handled and stored separately from other types of solid waste if accepted at the facility.

2. Display prominently the universal biohazard symbol as prescribed in R18-13-1401.

3. Construct the storage area from smooth, easily cleanable non-porous material that is impervious to liquids and resistant to corrosion by disinfecting agents and hot water.

4. Protect biohazardous medical waste from contact with water, precipitation, wind, or animals.

5. Specify in the application for facility plan approval the maximum storage time that biohazardous medical waste will remain at the facility. If the biohazardous medical waste will be stored for more than 24 hours, the operator shall equip the facility with a refrigerator to refrigerate the biohazardous medical waste. The operator of the facility shall maintain the temperature in the refrigerator at 40&#176; F. or less.

6. Accept biohazardous medical waste only if it is accompanied by the tracking form. The operator shall sign the tracking form and keep a copy of the acceptance documentation for one year;

7. Accept biohazardous medical waste if it is packaged as described in R18-13-1407. If a biohazardous medical waste container is damaged or leaking, improperly labeled, or otherwise unacceptable, a transfer facility operator shall do one of the following:

a. Reject the waste and return it to the transporter.

b. Accept the waste and immediately repackage it as prescribed in R18-13-1407(A).

8. Clean the storage area daily as prescribed in R18-13-1407(A)(2).

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1412" level="4" title="Treatment Facilities; Design and Operation"> <dwc name="radioact" times="1">

Treatment Facilities; Design and Operation

A. An operator who applies for facility plan approval shall comply with all of the following:

1. Submit to the Department the following documentation:

a. Equipment specifications that identify the proper type of medical waste to be treated in the equipment and any design or equipment restrictions.

b. Manufacturer's specifications and operating procedures for the equipment that describe the type and volume of waste to be treated, monitoring data of the treatment process, and calibration and testing of the equipment, providing specific details about the capability of the equipment to achieve the treatment standards prescribed in R18-13-1415.

c. Instructions for equipment maintenance, testing, and calibration that ensure the equipment achieves the treatment standards prescribed in R18-13-1415.

d. Training manual for the equipment.

e. Written certification from the manufacturer stating that the equipment, when operated properly, is capable of achieving the treatment standards prescribed in R18-13-1415.

2. Submit to the Department and have readily available at the facility, an operations procedure manual describing how the waste will be handled from the time it is accepted by the treater through the treatment process and final disposition of the treated waste. The operations procedure manual shall include all of the following:

a. Provisions for treating biohazardous medical waste within 24 hours of receipt or refrigerating immediately at 40&#176; F. or less upon determination that treatment or disposal will not occur within 24 hours.

b. A contingency plan if the treatment equipment is out of service for an extended period of time. The plan shall address the manner and length of time for storage of the waste. An operator shall not store biohazardous medical waste more than 90 days. The plan shall be based on the capacity of the treatment equipment to treat all waste at the facility, including any backlog of stored waste and any new waste intake. If the 90-day time-frame will be exceeded, the operator shall either stop accepting waste until the backlog is treated, or contract with another treatment facility for treating the waste.

c. Procedures for handling hazardous chemicals, radioactive waste, and chemotherapy waste. The plan shall provide for scanning biohazardous medical waste with a Geiger counter and handling waste that measures above background level in a manner that complies with state and federal law.

3. Have on hand written procedures stating that biohazardous medical waste is to be accepted from a transporter only if the waste is accompanied by a tracking form, and written procedures that require compliance with both of the following:

a. The treater or the treater's authorized agent shall sign the tracking document and keep a copy of the acceptance documentation for one year.

b. If a biohazardous medical waste container is damaged or leaking, improperly labeled, or otherwise unacceptable, a treater shall do one of the following:

i. Reject the waste and return it to the transporter.

ii. Accept the waste and transfer it directly from the transporting vehicle to the treatment processing unit.

iii. If the waste will not be treated immediately, repackage the waste for storage.

4. Assure that the facility is designed to meet both of the following requirements:

a. Any floor or wall surface in the processing area of the facility which may come into contact with biohazardous medical waste is constructed of a smooth, easily cleanable non-porous material that is impervious to liquids.

b. The floor surface in the treatment and storage area either has a curb of sufficient height to contain spills or slopes to a drain that connects to an approved sanitary sewage system, septic tank system, or collection device.

5. Store biohazardous medical waste as required in R18-13-1408.

6. Comply with all of the following if the treatment method is incineration:

a. Reduce the incinerated medical waste, excluding metallic items, into carbonized or mineralized ash by incineration.

b. Determine whether the ash is hazardous waste as required under R18-8-262.

7. Conduct any autoclaving according to the manufacture's specifications for the unit.

8 Use only alternative medical waste treatment methods that achieve the treatment standards in R18-13-1415(A).

9. Treat animal waste, chemotherapy waste, and cultures and stocks as prescribed in R18-13-1420.

10. Treat medical sharps as prescribed in R18-13-1419.

11. Keep records of equipment maintenance and operational performance levels for three years. The records shall include the date and result of all equipment calibration and maintenance. Operational performance level records shall indicate the duration of time for each treatment cycle and:

a. For steam treatment and microwaving treatment records, both the temperature and pressure maintained in the treatment unit during each cycle and the method used for confirmation of temperature and pressure.

b. For chemical treatment, a description of the solution used.

c. For incineration, the temperature maintained in the treatment unit during operation.

d. Any other operating parameters in the manufacturer's specifications.

e. A description of the treatment method used and a copy of the maintenance test results.

12. Not open the red bag prior to treatment unless opening the bag is required to treat the contents. Transfer of the entire contents, when performed as part of the treatment process, is permitted.

B. The treater shall make treatment records available for Departmental inspection upon request.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1413" level="4" title="Changes to Approved Medical Waste Facility Plans">

Changes to Approved Medical Waste Facility Plans

A. As required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06, before making any change to an approved facility plan a treatment facility owner or operator shall submit a notice to the Department stating which of the following categories of change is requested:

1. A Type I change to an approved medical waste facility plan is a change not described in subsection (A)(2), (3), or (4).

2. A Type II change to an approved medical waste facility plan is a change in which treatment equipment is replaced with equal or like equipment, resulting in either no increase to treatment capacity or the addition of equipment that is not directly used in the treatment process.

3. A Type III change to an approved medical waste facility plan is a change described by one of the following:

a. Treatment equipment is added, resulting in less than a 25% increase in treatment capacity.

b. The storage area is enlarged resulting in less than a 25% increase in storage capacity.

c. Treatment technology is changed.

4. A Type IV change to an approved medical waste facility plan is a change described by one of the following:

a. Treatment equipment is added, resulting in a 25% or more increase in treatment capacity.

b. The storage area is enlarged resulting in a 25% or more increase in storage capacity.

c. Treatment equipment is added that requires an environmental permit.

d. An expansion of the treatment facility onto land not previously described in the approved plan.

B. As required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.06, a treatment facility operator who has identified a change under subsection (A) shall comply with one of the following:

1. For a Type I change, make the change without notice to, or approval by the Department.

2. For a Type II change, before making any change, provide written notification that describes the change to the Department. The addition of refrigeration units only for compliance with this Article is a Type II change for which no Departmental approval is required.

3. For a Type III or Type IV change, submit an amended plan to the Department for approval before making any change. Departmental approval is required prior to making any change.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1414" level="4" title="Alternative Medical Waste Treatment Methods: Registration and Equipment Specifications">

Alternative Medical Waste Treatment Methods: Registration and Equipment Specifications

A. A manufacturer or its agent who applies for alternative medical waste treatment method registration shall submit to the Department all of the following:

1. The manufacturer or company name and address.

2. The name, address, and telephone number of the person who submits the application.

3. A description of the alternative medical waste treatment method.

4. A list of any other states in which the treatment method is used, including a copy of any state approvals.

5. A description of by-products generated as result of the alternative treatment method.

6. A certification statement that the contents of the application are true and accurate to the knowledge and belief of the applicant.

7. Written documentation demonstrating that the alternative medical waste treatment method is capable of compliance with the treatment standards in this Article for the type of waste treated. The manufacturer shall employ a laboratory independent of any oversight activities by the manufacturer to provide this analysis.

8. The manufacturer's equipment specifications for the alternative medical waste treatment method being registered, including all of the following:

a. Unit model number, or serial number.

b. Equipment specifications that identify the proper type of biohazardous medical waste to be treated by the equipment and any design or equipment restrictions.

c. Operating procedures for the equipment that ensure the equipment complies with the treatment standards prescribed in this Article for the type of waste treated.

d. Instructions for equipment maintenance, testing, and calibration that ensure the equipment complies with the treatment standards prescribed in this Article for the type of waste treated.

9. Written documentation of registration if required by A.R.S. &#167; 3-351.

B. The Department shall make a determination whether to approve the registration application. If the Department approves the application, it shall issue to the applicant a certification of registration containing an alternative medical waste treatment method registration number. Only an alternative technology method with a valid Department issued registration number meets the requirements of this Article.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1415" level="4" title="Treatment Standards, Quantification of Microbial Inactivation and Efficacy Testing Protocols"> <dwc name="microorgan" times="20">

Treatment Standards, Quantification of Microbial Inactivation and Efficacy Testing Protocols

A. A treater using an alternative treatment technology shall ensure that treatment achieves either of the following treatment standards:

1. A 6 log

10

inactivation in the concentration of vegetative microorganisms.

2. A 4 log

10

inactivation in the concentration of Bacillus stearothermophilus or Bacillus subtilis as is appropriate to the technology.

B. A treater utilizing an alternative treatment method shall conduct efficacy studies to demonstrate that the treatment mechanisms are capable of achieving the standards in subsection (A) through either of the following:

1. Mycobacterial species used as indicators of vegetative microorganisms:

a. Mycobacterium phlei, or

b. Mycobacterium bovis (BOG) (ATCC 35743)

2. Spore suspensions of one of the following two bacterial species, as appropriate to the technology, used as biological indicators in efficacy tests of thermal, chemical, and irradiation treatment systems. Studies shall demonstrate a 4 log

10

reduction in the concentration of viable spores, through the use of an initial inoculum suspension of 5 log

10

or greater of:

a. Bacillus stearothermophilus (ATCC 7953), or

b. Bacillus subtilis (ATCC 19659).

C. A treater utilizing an alternative treatment method shall quantify microbial inactivation as follows:

1. Microbial inactivation, or "kill" efficacy is equated to "Log

10

Kill" that is defined as the difference between the logarithms of the number of viable test microorganisms before and after treatment. This definition is stated as:

Log

10

Kill = Log

10

(cfu/g "I") - Log

10

(cfu/g "R")

where:

Log

10

Kill is equivalent to the term Log

10

reduction,

"I" is the number of viable test microorganisms introduced into the treatment unit,

"R" is the number of viable test microorganisms recovered from the treatment unit, and

"cfu/g" are colony forming units per gram of waste solids.

2. For those treatment processes that can maintain the integrity of the biological indicator carrier of the desired microbiological test strain, biological indicators of the required strain and concentration may be used to demonstrate microbial inactivation. Quantification is evaluated by growth or no growth of the cultured biological indicator.

3. For those treatment mechanisms that cannot ensure or provide integrity of the biological indicator, quantitative measurement of microbial inactivation requires a two-step approach: Step 1 "Control" and Step 2 "Test". The purpose of Step 1 is to account for the reduction of test microorganisms due to loss by dilution or physical entrapment.

a. Step 1:

i. Use microbial cultures of a predetermined concentration necessary to ensure a sufficient microbial recovery at the end of this step.

ii. Add suspension to a standardized medical waste load that is to be processed under normal operating conditions without the addition of the treatment agent (that is, heat, chemicals).

iii. Collect and wash waste samples after processing to recover the biological indicator organisms in the sample.

iv. Plate the recovered microorganism suspensions to quantify microbial recovery. The number of viable microorganisms recovered serves as a baseline quantity for comparison to the number of recovered microorganisms from wastes processed with the treatment agent.

v. The required number of recovered viable indicator microorganisms from Step 1 must be equal to or greater than the number of microorganisms required to demonstrate the prescribed Log reduction, either a 6 Log

10

reduction for vegetative microorganisms or a 4 Log

10

reduction for bacterial spores. This can be defined by the following equation:

Log

10

RC = Log

10

IC - Log

10

NR

or

Log

10

NR = Log

10

IC - Log

10

RC

where:

Log

10

RC is greater than 6 for vegetative microorganisms and greater than 4 for bacterial spores and where:

Log

10

RC is the number of viable "control" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids recovered in the non-treated, processed waste residue;

Log

10

IC is the number of viable "control" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids introduced into the treatment unit;

Log

10

NR is the number of "control" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids which were not recovered in the non-treated, processed waste residue. Log

10

NR represents an accountability factor for microbial loss.

b. Step 2:

i. Use microbial cultures of the same concentration as in Step 1.

ii. Add suspension to the standardized medical waste load that is to be processed under normal operating conditions with the addition of the treatment agent.

iii. Collect and wash waste samples after processing to recover the biological indicator organisms in the sample.

iv. Plate recovered microorganism suspensions to quantify microbial recovery.

v. From data collected from Step 1 and Step 2, the level of microbial inactivation, "Log

10

Kill", is calculated by employing the following equation:

Log

10

Kill = Log

10

IT - Log

10

NR - Log

10

RT

where:

Log

10

Kill is equivalent to the term Log

10

reduction;

Log

10

IT is the number of viable "Test" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids introduced into the treatment unit. Log

10

IT = Log

10

IC;

Log

10

NR is the number of "Control" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids which were not recovered in the non-treated, processed waste residue;

Log

10

RT is the number of viable "Test" microorganisms in colony forming units per gram of waste solids recovered in treated, processed waste residue.

D. A treater shall employ the appropriate methodology to determine efficacy of the treatment technology following the protocols in subsection (C) that are congruent with the treatment method.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1416" level="4" title="Recycled Materials">

Recycled Materials

A. Once a generator places biohazardous medical waste in a red bag as required in R18-13-1407, a person shall not remove any of the biohazardous medical waste from the bag until the biohazardous medical waste has been treated as required in R18-13-1415.

B. A generator of biohazardous medical waste intending to recycle any portion of the biohazardous medical waste shall segregate that portion of biohazardous medical waste from the portion of biohazardous medical waste that will not be recycled. The generator shall do either of the following:

1. Treat the biohazardous medical waste intended for recycling as required in R18-13-1415 before sending the treated medical waste to a recycler.

2. Follow the requirements in R18-13-1406, R18-13-1407, and R18-13-1408, before either contracting with a transporter to haul or self-hauling the biohazardous medical waste to a treatment facility for treatment. After treatment, the treated medical waste may be sent to a recycler.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1417" level="4" title="Disposal Facilities: Operation">

Disposal Facilities: Operation

An operator of a municipal solid waste landfill that accepts untreated biohazardous medical waste shall comply with all the following in design and operational requirements:

1. Accept biohazardous medical waste only if packaged according to R18-13-1407.

2. Keep the biohazardous medical waste disposal area separate from the general purpose disposal area.

3. Clearly label the biohazardous medical waste disposal area, informing persons that the disposal area contains untreated medical waste.

4. Not drive directly over deposited medical waste. The operator shall achieve compaction by first spreading a layer of soil that is sufficiently thick to prevent compaction equipment from coming into direct contact with the waste, or dragging waste over the area.

5. Cover the biohazardous medical waste with 6 inches of compacted soil at the end of the working day or more often as necessary to prevent vector breeding and odors.

6. Not allow salvaging of untreated biohazardous medical waste from the landfill.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1418" level="4" title="Discarded Drugs">

Discarded Drugs

A. A generator of discarded drugs not returned to the manufacturer shall destroy the drugs on site prior to placing the waste out for collection. A generator shall destroy the discarded drugs by any method that prevents the drug's use. If federal or state law prescribes a specific method for destruction of discarded drugs, the generator shall comply with that law.

B. A generator of discarded drugs may flush them down a sanitary sewer if allowed by the wastewater treatment authority.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1419" level="4" title="Medical Sharps">

Medical Sharps

Medical sharps shall be handled as follows:

1. A generator who treats biohazardous medical waste on site shall place medical sharps in a sharps container after rendering them incapable of creating a stick hazard by using an encapsulation agent or any other process that prevents a stick hazard. Medical sharps encapsulated or processed in this manner are considered to be solid waste.

2. A generator who ships biohazardous medical waste off site for treatment shall either:

a. Place medical sharps in a medical sharps container and follow the requirements of R18-13-1406, or

b. Package and send medical sharps to a treatment facility via a mail-back system as prescribed by the instructions provided by the mail-back system operator. An Arizona treatment facility shall render medical sharps incapable of creating a stick hazard by using an encapsulation agent or any other process that prevents a stick hazard.

3. A person operating a treatment facility who accepts medical sharps for treatment shall either:

a. Encapsulate medical sharps to prevent stick hazard, or

b. Use any other process that prevents a stick hazard.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="R18.13.1420" level="4" title="Additional Handling Requirements for Certain Wastes">

Additional Handling Requirements for Certain Wastes

A. A person who treats the following biohazardous medical waste categories shall meet the following additional requirements:

1. Cultures and stocks shall be incinerated, autoclaved, or treated by an alternative medical waste treatment method that meets the treatment standards set forth in R18-13-1415(A) and packaged inside a watertight primary container with absorbent packing materials if shipped off site for treatment or disposal. The primary container shall be placed inside a secondary inner container that is then placed inside an outer container. If federal or state law prescribes specific requirements for packaging and transporting this waste, the treater shall comply with that law.

2. Chemotherapy waste shall be incinerated or disposed of in either an approved solid waste or hazardous waste disposal facility.

3. Experimental or research animal waste shall be handled as follows:

a. Autoclave bedding on site or package as described in R18-13-1407 for off-site treatment or landfilling.

b. Incinerate animal carcasses on site, or if taken off site for treatment, comply with one of the following requirements:

i. Package the waste in a leakproof, covered container, label the contents and send to an incinerator or a Department-approved landfill, or

ii. If treated by a method other than incineration, pre-process by grinding, then treat by a method that achieves the standards of R18-13-1415(A).

B. If a treater uses grinding in combination with another treatment method described in this Article, the treater shall conduct it in a closed system to prevent humans from being exposed to the release of the waste into the environment. If grinding is used for medical sharps, the grinding shall render the medical sharps incapable of creating a stick hazard.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3776, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 15" level="3" title="RECODIFIED">

RECODIFIED

Editor's Note: The recodification at 7 A.A.R. 2522 described below erroneously moved Sections into 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9. Those Sections were actually recodified to 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 10. See the Historical Notes for more information (Supp. 01-4).

Article 15, consisting of Sections R18-13-1501 through R18-13-1514 and Appendix A, recodified to 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.1501" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-902 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1002 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1502" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-901 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1503" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-903 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1003 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1504" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-904 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1004 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1505" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-905 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1005 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1506" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-906 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1006 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1507" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-907 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1007 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1508" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-908 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1008 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1509" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-909 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1009 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1510" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-910 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1010 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1511" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-911 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1011 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1512" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-912 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1012 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1513" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-913 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1013 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1514" level="4" title="Recodified">

Recodified

Historical Note

Adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Section recodified to R18-9-914 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to R18-9-1014 (Supp. 01-4).

Appendix A. Recodified

Historical Note

Appendix A, "Procedures to Determine Annual Biosolids Application Rates", adopted effective April 23, 1996 (Supp. 96-2). Appendix A recodified to 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 9 at 7 A.A.R. 2522, effective May 24, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Previous note correction: Section actually recodified to 18 A.A.C. 9, Article 10 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 16" level="3" title="BEST MANAGEMENT PRACTICES FOR PETROLEUM CONTAMINATED SOIL">

BEST MANAGEMENT PRACTICES FOR PETROLEUM CONTAMINATED SOIL

Article 16, consisting of Sections R18-13-1601 through R18-13-1614, recodified from 18 A.A.C. 8, Article 16 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002; Section and subsection citations within this Article were also updated under A.R.S. &#167; 41-1011(C) (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1601" level="4" title="Definitions"> <dwc name="benzen" times="3"><dwc name="ethylbenzen" times="3"><dwc name="toluen" times="3"><dwc name="xylen" times="3">

Definitions

In addition to definitions in A.R.S. &#167; 49-851 and A.A.C. R18-13-1301, the terms in this Article shall have the following meanings:

1. "Accumulation site" means an area or site at which PCS from one or more points of generation under the control of the generator of PCS is accumulated for more than 12 hours but less than 90 days prior to treatment, storage, or disposal.

2. "Containment system" means a system designed to contain an accumulation of special waste which meets the design and performance standards in R18-13-1608 and either R18-13-1609 or R18-13-1611.

3. "Excavated" means removed from the earth by scraping or digging a hole or cavity in the earth's surface or otherwise removed from the earth's surface.

4. "Facility" or "special waste receiving facility" means a treatment facility, storage facility, or disposal facility which has been approved by the Director in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-857 or has qualified for Interim Use Facility status pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-858.

5. "Hazardous waste" means hazardous waste as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-921(5).

6. "Non-fuel, non-solvent petroleum product" means a petroleum-based substance refined from virgin crude oil that is not used as a solvent or fuel including mineral oils and hydraulic oils.

7. "Non-regulated soils" means soils contaminated with total petroleum hydrocarbon (TPH) levels equal to or less than 100 mg/kg which are neither hazardous waste, PCS, nor solid waste PCS, and which do not constitute an environmental nuisance pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-141 through 49-144.

8. "PCS" means petroleum-contaminated soils, which are not hazardous waste or solid waste PCS, which are excavated for storage, treatment, or disposal, and which contain contaminants as described by any of the following:

a. TPH which exceeds concentrations of 5,000 mg/kg,

b. Benzene which exceeds concentrations of 0.13 mg/kg,

c. Toluene which exceeds concentrations of 200 mg/kg,

d. Ethylbenzene which exceeds concentrations of 68 mg/kg,

e. Total xylene which exceeds concentrations of 44 mg/kg.

9. "PCS disposal facility" means a site or special waste receiving facility at which the disposal of PCS has been approved by the Director pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-857 or has qualified for Interim Use Facility status pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-858.

10. "Petroleum" means petroleum as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-1001(11).

11. "Point of compliance" means point of compliance as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-244.

12. "Special waste shipper" means a person who transports special waste for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal.

13. "Solid waste PCS" means excavated soils contaminated with petroleum, which are not hazardous waste and which meet any of the following:

a. Have TPH concentrations which exceed 100 mg/kg but which are at or below 5,000 mg/kg;

b. Are soils contaminated with non-fuel, non-solvent petroleum products with a TPH which exceeds 100 mg/kg.

14. "Storage" means the holding of PCS for a period of more than 90 days but less than one year.

15. "Storage facility" means a special waste receiving facility which engages in storage and which has been approved by the Director pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-857 or has qualified for Interim Use Facility status pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-858.

16. "Temporary treatment facility" means an on-site treatment facility, or an off-site treatment facility owned or operated by the generator of PCS, where the PCS is treated to reduce TPH, benzene, toluene, ethylbenzene, or total xylene concentrations and which complies with the requirements of R18-13-1610.

17. "Total petroleum hydrocarbons" or "TPH" means the sum of the aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbon constituents contained in petroleum, as determined through laboratory testing.

18. "Treatability study" means a study in which a special waste is subjected to a treatment process to determine any one or more of the following:

a. Whether the waste is amenable to the treatment process,

b. What pretreatment is required,

c. The optimal process conditions needed to achieve the desired treatment,

d. The efficiency of a treatment process,

e. The characteristics and volumes of residual contaminants from a particular treatment process,

f. Toxicological and health effects.

19. "Treatment facility" means a special waste receiving facility which has been approved by the Director pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-857 or has qualified for Interim Use Facility status pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-858, and at which PCS receives treatment to reduce TPH or benzene, toluene, ethylbenzene, or total xylene concentrations.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1601 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1602" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. The Director declares that PCS, as defined in R18-13-1601(8), constitutes a special waste as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-851(A)(9). Except as otherwise provided in this Section and R18-13-1603, PCS shall be treated, stored, and disposed of in accordance with this Article. PCS shall not be diluted with any material or substance for purposes of avoiding applicability of these rules.

B. PCS which is used in a treatability study shall comply with all of the following:

1. The owner or operator of the facility where a treatability study is to be conducted shall notify the Department of its intent to conduct a treatability study at least 30 days prior to the commencement of the treatability study.

2. The total quantity of PCS used in the treatability study shall not exceed 5000 kilograms, unless evidence is provided which justifies the need for a larger quantity and permission to use a larger amount is granted by the Director.

3. The owner or operator of the facility shall maintain records detailing the treatability study and the results obtained in accordance with R18-13-1614.

4. The treatability study shall be completed and the PCS shall be removed from the site within one year from commencement of the study.

5. Upon completion of the treatability study, the owner or operator of a facility shall dispose of the PCS used in the treatability study in accordance with this Article.

6. Sampling of the PCS shall be conducted in accordance with R18-13-1604(B) and (C) before and after the treatability study is performed.

7. The performance of the treatability study shall not result in an environmental nuisance pursuant to A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-141 through 49-144.

C. PCS which is excavated pursuant to the requirements of A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 6, Underground Storage Tank Regulation, and which is not removed from the site, shall comply with the requirements of R18-13-1610 and R18-13-1612.

D. PCS incorporated into asphalt for use in paving is not subject to other provisions of this Article if the owner or operator of the facility where the asphalt is produced does all of the following:

1. Notifies the Department in writing at least 30 days prior to commencing such incorporation,

2. Maintains records in accordance with R18-13-1614,

3. Stores the PCS prior to incorporation in accordance with R18-13-1611,

4. Uses only soil characterized as PCS based on TPH concentrations as set forth in R18-13-1601(8)(a).

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1602 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1603" level="4" title="Exemptions">

Exemptions

A. Solid waste PCS are exempt from the provisions of this Article, except for the requirements in R18-13-1604, and are subject to A.R.S. &#167; 49-761 et seq.

B. Non-regulated soils are exempt from the provisions of this Article, except for the requirements in R18-13-1604, and are exempt from the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-761 et seq.

C. Asphaltic cement which is not hazardous waste is exempt from the requirements of this Article.

D. Soils which are contaminated with petroleum, which have been generated by households, and which are not hazardous waste, shall be exempt from the requirements of this Article.

E. Soil characterized as PCS solely because the TPH concentration exceeds 5,000 mg/kg may be disposed in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-761 et seq. and shall be exempt from the requirements of this Article, except that the generator shall comply only with the requirements for accumulation sites in R18-13-1612, if either of the following conditions are met:

1. The mathematical product of the TPH (mg/kg) and the number of tons excavated is less than 10,000.

2. The mathematical product of the TPH (mg/kg) and the number of cubic yards excavated is less than 8,500.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1603 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1604" level="4" title="Waste Determination">

Waste Determination

A. A generator of excavated soil contaminated with petroleum shall determine whether the soil is PCS, solid waste PCS, or non-regulated soil. The basis for the determination shall be maintained for at least three years and shall be made available to the Department upon request. The generator shall make such determination using either of the following methods:

1. Testing the soil pursuant to subsection (B) of this Section. Laboratory analysis of these samples shall be performed by a laboratory licensed by the Arizona Department of Health Services. Approved testing methods, which identify concentrations for total recoverable extraction of contaminants, shall be used.

2. Application of knowledge of the characteristics of the contaminated soil in light of the known or potential source of the contamination. The Department may require sampling to confirm the accuracy of applied knowledge.

B. Sampling of soils contaminated with petroleum shall be performed in accordance with a site-specific written sampling plan which is consistent with the requirements set forth in either of the following:

1. "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste", EPA SW-846, 3rd Edition Volume II: Field Manual, Physical/Chemical Method, Chapter Nine (SW-846 Third Edition), 1986, Environmental Protection Agency, Washington, D.C. and no future editions or amendments, incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

2. "Quality Assurance Project Plan", Chapter 9, May 1991 Edition, Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, Phoenix, Arizona and no future editions or amendments incorporated herein by reference and on file with the Department and the Office of the Secretary of State.

C. Where multiple samples are collected from a stockpile of contaminated soil generated from a single source, the stockpile shall be considered as PCS if the arithmetic mean of the TPH concentrations of the samples exceeds 5,000 mg/kg. A sample having a concentration of total petroleum hydrocarbons which is below the analytical method detection limit or reporting limit shall be assigned a concentration which is 1/2 of the reported analytical method detection limit or reporting limit.

D. If soil excavated during the initial investigation of a site to determine the extent of contamination is PCS, the PCS may be returned into the excavation site from which the soil was removed if all of the following conditions are met:

1. There is no freestanding liquid within the excavation, unless the State Fire Marshal or other jurisdictional fire authority directs otherwise, and the requirements of subsections (2) and (3) of this subsection are met.

2. The owner or operator provides notification to the Department that the PCS has been returned to the excavation within 14 days after the return of the PCS to the excavation.

3. The owner or operator completes a site characterization within 120 days and implements remediation within 150 days after the date the site characterization began.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1604 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1605" level="4" title="Transportation">

Transportation

A. PCS transported to a special waste receiving facility in Arizona shall be transported by a special waste shipper which has met the requirements of R18-13-1303.

B. A special waste shipper shall transport the PCS in closed containers pursuant to R18-13-1611(E) or shall ensure that any vehicle used to transport the PCS is loaded and covered in such a manner that the contents will not blow, fall, leak, or spill from the vehicle.

C. A special waste shipper transporting PCS to a special waste receiving facility in Arizona, except a facility located on Indian country, shall deliver PCS to a special waste receiving facility approved by the Department.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1605 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1606" level="4" title="Fees">

Fees

The treatment, storage, or disposal facility that first receives a shipment of PCS shall remit to the Department a fee of $2.00 per ton in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-863.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1606 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1607" level="4" title="Facility Approval; Application">

Facility Approval; Application

A. PCS shall be treated, stored, or disposed only at a PCS disposal facility, storage facility, treatment facility, or temporary treatment facility. A facility shall not be constructed or operated prior to obtaining written approval from the Department, except as provided for in A.R.S. &#167; 49-858.

B. The owner or operator of a PCS treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall submit an application to the Department which contains all of the information required in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-762.

C. In addition to the requirements specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-762, the application shall contain all of the following:

1. A vicinity map, in a scale not over 1:24,000, which shows where the facility is located with respect to the surroundings, including an indication of the use of the adjacent properties.

2. An engineering report which includes all of the following:

a. Detailed plans and specifications for the entire facility including manufacturer's performance data and design features of treatment, pollution control, and monitoring equipment.

b. A site description which includes general information on the geology, hydrogeology, soils, and land use. If a facility is located within the pollution management area of a facility for which an aquifer protection permit has been issued under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241 et seq., then the applicant may resubmit or incorporate by reference the general information.

c. A background soil sampling plan and results which characterize the site, including the rationale used to determine the locations, depths, and number of samples.

3. A site map, in a scale not to exceed 1:2,400, which clearly identifies where the PCS shall be deposited, containment berms, fencing and security measures, access roads, any improvements, wells, and location of surface water courses.

4. An operational plan which includes all of the following:

a. General description of the daily operations of the facility and the processes, techniques, or methods to be employed;

b. The source, amount, concentration of contaminants, and any other relevant information concerning the PCS to be handled;

c. The schedule for sampling the PCS during treatment to evaluate treatment methods;

d. Description of plans for final use and disposal of PCS and remediated soil, liners, piping, carbon canisters, and any other contaminated equipment;

e. Procedures to ensure that only waste which has been characterized is received and that hazardous waste is not received;

f. Procedures for random inspection of incoming loads to verify that only waste which has been characterized is accepted;

g. Procedures for collecting and managing run-off which comes in contact with PCS;

h. Procedures for recordkeeping of all inspection results, training of personnel, and sampling results;

i. Procedures to control public access, and prevent unauthorized entry and illegal dumping.

5. A contingency plan for emergency preparedness which describes alternatives for storage, treatment, or disposal.

6. A closure plan which includes:

a. A description of the steps necessary to close the facility, the specific proposed closure activities, and an implementation schedule;

b. Information on site conditions and characterization of the waste received during the life of the facility;

c. A description of the sampling plan utilized to sample background soil beneath the site following closure;

d. A description of plans for use of the land site after closure;

e. A description of post-closure care.

7. An affidavit that the proposed facility is in compliance with local zoning requirements in effect at the time the application is submitted.

D. Following completion of construction of a facility and prior to placement of PCS on the site, the owner or operator shall submit to the Department a construction certification report, including as-built plans which indicate any changes to the design or operational plans for the facility.

E. Plans required in accordance with this Section shall be sealed by a professional engineer registered in the state of Arizona, if required by statute.

F. A facility shall be in compliance with all other applicable federal, state, and local approvals or permits which are required for the design, construction, and operation of the facility.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1607 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1608" level="4" title="General Design and Performance Standards">

General Design and Performance Standards

A. A facility which receives PCS for treatment, storage, or disposal shall be designed and operated to ensure compliance with the following performance standards relating to aquifer protection:

1. Pollutants discharged shall in no event cause or contribute to a violation of Aquifer Water Quality Standards, at the applicable point of compliance, or, if the facility is a municipal solid waste landfill, it shall comply with the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-761.01(C).

2. Any pollutant discharged shall not further degrade, at the applicable point of compliance, the quality of any aquifer that already violates an Aquifer Water Quality Standard for that pollutant.

B. A facility which receives PCS for treatment, storage, or disposal shall meet the general design criteria of either subsection (B)(1) or (2) as follows:

1. The PCS shall be held within a containment system designed and constructed to preclude the migration of contaminants into subsurface soil, groundwater, or surface water. The containment system shall meet the following criteria:

a. Maintain a maximum hydraulic conductivity of no more than 1 x 10

-7

cm/sec;

b. Be designed to provide structural integrity throughout the life of the facility;

c. Be designed in accordance with the applicable design criteria set forth in subsection (C) of this Section and R18-13-1609 through R18-13-1613; or

2. An alternative design shall contain, at a minimum, all of the following and shall demonstrate that the design will limit discharges listed in A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(D) to the maximum extent practicable:

a. The hydrogeologic setting of the facility and the capacity of the liner and soils to preclude discharge to groundwater or surface water;

b. The operating methods, processes, or other alternatives to be used at the facility;

c. Additional factors which would influence the quality and mobility of the leachate produced and the potential for that leachate to migrate to groundwater or surface water.

C. A PCS treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall meet the following general design criteria:

1. The facility shall be designed to prevent run-on and run-off. The design shall provide run-on control for the peak discharge from a 24-hour, 25-year storm event. Run-off shall be collected and controlled for at least the water volume resulting from a 24-hour, 25-year storm event.

2. The facility shall not restrict the flow of the 100-year floodplain, reduce temporary water storage capacity of the floodplain, or be maintained in a manner which results in a washout or inundation of the PCS.

3. The owner or operator shall control public access and shall prevent unauthorized vehicular traffic and illegal dumping.

4. The owner or operator shall manage any standing water that has come into contact with the PCS in accordance with rules promulgated pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-761 et seq.

D. A facility which manages PCS in accordance with the requirements of this Article shall be exempt from the aquifer protection permit requirements in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-250(B)(21).

E. A facility which has been issued an aquifer protection permit from the Department shall be exempt from the requirements of subsections (A) and (B) of this Section but shall comply with the requirements of subsection (C).

Historical note

Recodified from R18-8-1608 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1609" level="4" title="Treatment Facility">

Treatment Facility

A. The owner or operator of a PCS treatment facility shall obtain approval from the Department prior to commencement of construction or operation and shall comply with all of the following:

1. Not dilute PCS as a method of treatment, except as allowed in the approved plan for the facility;

2. Treat the PCS or, if the chosen treatment process fails to remediate the soil to below the regulatory thresholds, dispose of the PCS pursuant to R18-13-1613.

3. Sample the treated soil and provide the results of the sampling to the Department within 45 days of completion of the treatment.

B. A PCS treatment facility designed in accordance with R18-13-1608(B)(1) shall comply with the following specific design criteria:

1. At a minimum, a containment system shall include a clay, synthetic, concrete, or asphalt liner component which is placed upon a foundation or prepared subgrade which supports the liner, and resists pressure gradients above and below the liner, to prevent failure due to settlement, compression, or uplift.

2. During construction or installation of a containment system, liners and cover systems shall be inspected for uniformity, damage, and imperfections. Immediately after construction or installation is completed, and prior to placement of PCS within the containment system, the systems shall be checked for both of the following:

a. Synthetic liners and covers shall be inspected to ensure tight seams and joints and the absence of tears, punctures, or blisters.

b. Concrete, asphalt, and soil-based liners and covers shall be inspected for imperfections including lenses, cracks, channels, root holes, or other structural non-uniformities that may cause an increase in the permeability of the liner or cover.

3. The liner component shall consist of one of the following:

a. A synthetic liner which is compatible with the waste and which has a minimum 6" buffer layer of sand or soil between the liner and the PCS.

b. A compacted soil or admixed liner provided with a minimum 6" buffer layer of sand or soil between the liner and the PCS.

c. An asphalt or reinforced concrete liner which is not in the drainage area of a dry well and is free of unsealed cracks and seams.

4. Aeration equipment shall be limited to the area above the buffer layers indicated in subsections (B)(2)(a) and (b).

5. The owner or operator of the facility shall utilize protective measures to ensure containment system integrity during placement, treatment, or removal of the PCS.

6. PCS stored at a treatment facility prior to treatment shall be stored in accordance with the requirements of R18-13-1611.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1609 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1610" level="4" title="Temporary Treatment Facility">

Temporary Treatment Facility

A. The owner or operator of a temporary treatment facility shall treat and remove all PCS from the temporary treatment facility within one year from the date of commencement of receipt of PCS for treatment. PCS shall not be diluted to meet any treatment requirement, except in accordance with the approved plan.

B. A temporary treatment facility shall obtain approval from the Department prior to commencing construction or operation. In lieu of the requirements of R18-13-1607(C), an application for approval shall contain all of the following:

1. An affidavit signed by the owner or operator of the temporary treatment facility which states that the facility will comply with the requirements of this Article;

2. An affidavit that the proposed facility is in compliance with local zoning requirements in effect at the time the application is submitted;

3. Application information required pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-762 for plan approval for temporary treatment facilities;

4. A vicinity map, in a scale not over 1:24,000, which shows where the facility is located with respect to the surroundings, including an indication of the use of the adjacent properties;

5. A site description which includes general information on the geology, hydrogeology, soils, and land use;

6. A background soil sampling plan and results which characterize the site, including the rationale used to determine the locations, depths and number of samples;

7. A site map, in a scale not to exceed 1:2,400, which clearly identifies where the PCS shall be deposited, containment berms, fencing and security measures, access roads, any improvements, wells, and location of surface water courses;

8. An operational plan which includes all of the following:

a. General description of the daily operations of the facility and the processes, techniques, or methods to be employed;

b. The source, amount, concentration of contaminants, and any other relevant information concerning the PCS to be handled;

c. The schedule for sampling the PCS during treatment to evaluate treatment methods;

d. Description of plans for final use and disposal of PCS and remediated soil, liners, piping, carbon canisters, and any other contaminated equipment;

9. A closure and post-closure care plan which includes both of the following:

a. A description of the steps necessary to close the facility, the specific proposed closure activities, and an implementation schedule;

b. A description of the sampling plan utilized to sample background soil beneath the site following closure.

C. A temporary treatment facility shall not be operated for more than one year unless a one-time extension is granted by the Department. The Department may grant an extension of up to one additional year if all of the following are met:

1. The inability to perform is caused by events beyond the control of the owner or operator, including acts of God, which include flood, tornado, earthquake, and causes beyond the owner's or operator's control including fire, explosion, unforeseen strikes or work stoppages, riot, sabotage, public enemy, war, requirements established by courts of competent jurisdiction, and other governing law. Financial inability to perform shall not be justification for an extension.

2. The owner and operator submits to the Department verifiable documentation which includes all of the following:

a. A description of the circumstances causing any delay;

b. Evidence of the existence of the circumstance;

c. A description of past, present, and future measures taken or to be taken by the owner or operator to prevent or minimize any delay;

d. A timetable by which the owner and operator will resume and complete required performance.

3. The request is received at least 60 days prior to the expiration of the year in which the facility first received PCS. Where the Department grants an extension, that extension shall be granted prior to the expiration of the deadline and communicated to the owner or operator in writing.

D. A temporary treatment facility shall meet the design criteria as specified in R18-13-1608 and R18-13-1609(B).

E. PCS stored at a temporary treatment facility prior to treatment shall be stored in accordance with the requirements of R18-13-1611.

F. In accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-762(F), a temporary treatment facility shall be exempt from the notice and public hearing requirements set forth in A.R.S. &#167; 49-762(L).

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1610 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1611" level="4" title="Storage Facility">

Storage Facility

A. A shipment of PCS shall not be stored for a period exceeding one year from the date the PCS is received.

B. Each shipment of contaminated soil shall be identified by source and stored in a manner which does not allow commingling of different shipments until all sampling results have been obtained. PCS shall be stored within an approved containment system and shall not be commingled with treated soils.

C. A PCS storage facility shall obtain approval from the Department prior to commencement of construction or operation. A PCS storage facility designed in accordance with R18-13-1608(B)(1) shall comply with either of the following:

1. The containment system shall meet the requirements of R18-13-1609(B).

2. The PCS shall be stored in tanks or containers which meet the requirements of subsection (E) of this Section.

D. A PCS storage area or each tank or container used for storage shall be marked as follows:

CAUTION: CONTAINS PETROLEUM-CONTAMINATED SOIL

GENERATOR NAME:

GENERATOR ID#:

ACCUMULATION START DATE:

The owner or operator of the storage facility shall fill in the accumulation start date at the time the PCS is placed into storage. The letters shall be legible, not obstructed from view, on a high contrast background, and sufficiently durable to equal or exceed the duration of storage. Lettering size shall be 2.5 cm (1 inch) and in Sans Serif, Gothic, or Block style.

E. A tank or container used to store PCS shall meet all of the following requirements:

1. Prevent leakage of PCS and any free liquids from the tank or container;

2. Be made of, or lined with, materials which will not react with the PCS;

3. Be kept closed during storage except to add or remove PCS;

4. Not be opened, handled, or stored in a manner which may rupture the tank or container or cause it to leak;

5. Shall be inspected monthly by the owner or operator of the storage facility for leaks and for deterioration. A written record of the inspection shall be prepared at the time of the inspection and shall document corrective action, if any, taken as a result of the inspection.

F. A PCS storage facility at which PCS is stored in piles shall comply with both of the following:

1. All storage piles shall be covered or otherwise managed to control wind dispersal of the PCS.

2. Storage piles of PCS shall be inspected weekly and a written record of the inspection shall be prepared at the time of the inspection which documents any corrective action taken as a result of the inspection. The record shall document detection of any of the following:

a. Deterioration, malfunctions, or improper operation of run-on and run-off control systems;

b. Malfunctioning of wind dispersal control systems;

c. The presence of leachate in and the malfunctioning of any leachate collection and removal systems.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1611 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1612" level="4" title="Accumulation Sites">

Accumulation Sites

A. PCS from one or more points of generation under the control of a single generator may be accumulated in an accumulation site under the control of that generator for up to 90 days prior to shipment of the PCS to a storage, disposal, or treatment facility.

B. An accumulation site shall comply with the storage facility requirements set forth in R18-13-1611, except subsection (A) of that Section. An accumulation site shall not be required to comply with the requirements in R18-13-1607.

C. While PCS is at an accumulation site, the owner or operator shall control public access and prevent unauthorized vehicular traffic and illegal dumping. PCS shall be managed to prevent the PCS from being exposed to storm water run-on or run-off.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1612 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1613" level="4" title="Disposal">

Disposal

A. PCS shall be disposed at a special waste receiving facility which has been approved for the disposal of PCS, or at a hazardous waste management facility as defined in R18-13-260(E)(13).

B. A PCS disposal facility designed in accordance with R18-13-1608(B)(1) shall comply with the following specific design criteria:

1. The disposal facility shall be designed with a composite liner, as defined in subsection (B)(2), and a leachate collection system that is designed and constructed to maintain less than a 12-inch depth of leachate over the liner.

2. For purposes of this Section, "composite liner" means a system consisting of two components: the upper component shall consist of a minimum 30-mil flexible membrane liner (FML) and the lower component shall consist of at least a two-foot layer of compacted soil with a hydraulic conductivity of no more than 1 x 10

-7

cm/sec. FML components consisting of high density polyethylene (HDPE) shall be at least 60 mil thick. The FML component shall be installed in direct and uniform contact with the compacted soil component.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1613 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="R18.13.1614" level="4" title="Records">

Records

Records required to be kept pursuant to this Article shall be maintained by the owner or operator and made available for inspection by the Director for a period of three years or longer during the course of an enforcement action or litigation.

Historical Note

Recodified from R18-8-1614 at 8 A.A.R. 5172, effective November 27, 2002 (Supp. 02-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 17" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 18" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 19" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 20" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 21" level="3" title="MUNICIPAL SOLID WASTE LANDFILLS">

MUNICIPAL SOLID WASTE LANDFILLS

Article 21, consisting of Sections R18-13-2101 through R18-13-2103, made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1770, effective July 14, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.2101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-701 and 49-701.01, for the purpose of this Article, the terms used in this Article have the following meanings:

1. "Defined time period" means the 12-month period that begins on July 1 of a calendar year and ends on June 30 of the following calendar year and consists of the actual number of calendar days in that 12-month period.

2. "Disposal fee invoice" means the quarterly landfill disposal fee invoice the Department mails to a landfill operator, on which the landfill operator indicates the amount of waste received and the amount of the disposal fees owed to the Department as required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-836.

3. "Full quarter" means any of the standard fiscal quarters of the defined time period for which a municipal solid waste landfill accepted waste on or before the first day of the quarter and on or after the last day of that quarter.

4. "Waste disposal rate" means the average amount of waste disposed in this state by a person daily, which the Department has calculated to be 6.17 pounds per person per day.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1770, effective July 14, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.2102" level="4" title="Formula for Calculating Annual Registration Fee for an Existing Municipal Solid Waste Landfill">

Formula for Calculating Annual Registration Fee for an Existing Municipal Solid Waste Landfill

A. For an existing municipal solid waste landfill, except those described in subsection (C), the Department shall calculate the annual registration fee under A.R.S. &#167; 49-747 after calculating the population served by that municipal solid waste landfill, as follows:

1. Multiply the waste disposal rate by the number of days in the defined time period, and

2. Divide the total number of pounds of waste received by the municipal solid waste landfill by the product from subsection (A)(1).

B. The Department shall determine the number of pounds of waste received by a municipal solid waste landfill by one of the following methods:

1. For a municipal solid waste landfill that accepted waste over the entire defined time period and:

a. Reported tons of solid waste received on the disposal fee invoice, multiply the number of reported tons by 2,000; or

b. Reported units of compacted or uncompacted solid waste received on the disposal fee invoice, multiply the volume of solid waste reported under A.R.S. &#167; 49-836(A)(1) by 2,000; or

2. For a municipal solid waste landfill that accepted waste for only a portion of the defined time period, but no less than a full quarter, the Department shall project the total amount of waste that would have been received by the landfill over the entire defined time period, using one of the following methods:

a. For a municipal solid waste landfill that reported receiving waste for at least a full three quarters but less than the entire defined period, the amount of waste for the remaining quarter is the total amount of the waste reported for the full three quarters divided by three;

b. For a municipal solid waste landfill that reported receiving waste for at least a full two quarters but less than three quarters, the amount of waste for the remaining two quarters is the same as the total amount of waste reported for the two full quarters; or

c. For a municipal solid waste landfill that reported receiving waste for at least one full quarter but less than two quarters, the amount of waste for the remaining three quarters is the total of the amount of the waste reported for the full quarter multiplied by three.

C. For a municipal solid waste landfill that accepted waste for less than a full quarter, the annual landfill registration fee is the minimum fee specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-747(C).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1770, effective July 14, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="R18.13.2103" level="4" title="Annual Landfill Registration: Due Date and Fees">

Annual Landfill Registration: Due Date and Fees

A. An operator of a new municipal solid waste landfill shall register the municipal solid waste landfill and pay the landfill registration fee as follows:

1. The operator shall pay the initial landfill registration fee within 30 days of the date that the Department approves the facility plan. The initial landfill registration fee is the minimum fee specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-747(C).

2. Registration is valid for one year, except if the landfill is initially registered during October, November, or December of a calendar year, the next landfill registration due date is December 31 of the following calendar year and each calendar year thereafter unless released from the annual landfill registration requirement as specified in subsection (C).

3. The annual registration fee remains the minimum fee rate under A.R.S. &#167; 49-747(C) until the first annual registration period after the first full quarter of the defined time period.

B. After the first full quarter, the Department shall calculate the annual registration fee according to R18-13-2102, and specify the fee on the Department's annual landfill registration invoice for the municipal solid waste landfill. The Department shall calculate and the municipal solid waste landfill shall pay the annual landfill registration fee until the first registration period after the municipal solid waste landfill stops accepting waste during a fiscal quarter of the defined time period.

C. From the time a municipal solid waste landfill stops accepting waste as specified in subsection (B), until the owner or operator of the municipal solid waste landfill is released from its obligation to provide financial assurance for closure as required by A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-761 or 49-770, the annual registration fee is the minimum fee specified in A.R.S. &#167; 49-747(C).

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 9 A.A.R. 1770, effective July 14, 2003 (Supp. 03-2).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 22" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 23" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 24" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 25" level="3" title="RECYCLING">

RECYCLING

<regElement name="R18.13.2501" level="4" title="Recycling Emblem Description and Usage">

Recycling Emblem Description and Usage

A. The Department's official state recycling emblem wraps the three arrows of the universal recycling symbol around a saguaro cactus. A double oval frame surrounds the emblem and bears the slogan, Arizona Cares -- Reduce -- Reuse -- Recycle.

B. The purpose of the emblem is to increase public awareness of recycling programs and the potential for reducing waste. Any organization or person that is interested in promoting recycling may use the emblem without receiving approval from the Department. An organization or person can obtain either a printed copy or electronic version of the emblem from the Department by calling the Recycling and Data Management Unit at 1-800-234-5677, ext. 4133, or (602) 207-4133.

C. The emblem may be used in any variety of sizes and colors including black and white. The preferred colors are a green cactus on a white background with a blue double oval frame and lettering. The emblem appears as follows:

<img src="18-13-4.gif"/>Historical Note

Section adopted by final rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 4654, effective November 15, 1999 (Supp. 99-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 14" level="2" title="PERMIT AND COMPLIANCE FEES">

PERMIT AND COMPLIANCE FEES

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="WATER QUALITY PROTECTION FEES">

WATER QUALITY PROTECTION FEES

<regElement name="R18.14.101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-201, 49-241.02, 49-331, and 49-362(I), and A.A.C. R18-9-101 and R18-9-701, the following terms apply to this Article:

1. "Complex modification" means:

a. A revision of an individual Aquifer Protection Permit for a facility within a mining sector as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-241.02(F)(2); and

b. A revision of an individual Aquifer Protection Permit for a facility within a dry well, industrial, or wastewater sector due to any of the following:

i. An expansion of an existing pollutant management area;

ii. A new subsurface disposal including injection or recharge, or new wetlands construction;

iii. Incorporation of an extensive compliance schedule into a permit;

iv. A discharge to the waters of the United States with the potential to impact the downgradient protective uses;

v. Submission of data indicating contamination, or identification of a discharging facility or pollutants not included in previous applications that requires reevaluation of BADCT; or

vi. Closure of a facility that cannot meet the clean closure requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-252 and requires post-closure care, monitoring, or remediation.

2. "Owner or operator" means a person with a vested interest in real or personal property, or an authorized representative or agent of that person.

3. "Request" means a written application, letter, or memorandum submitted by an applicant to the Department for water quality protection services. A request is made at the time it is received by the Department.

4. "Review-related costs" means any of the following costs applicable to a specific application:

a. Presiding officer services for public hearings on a permitting decision;

b. Court reporter services for public hearings on a permitting decision;

c. Facility rentals for public hearings on a permitting decision;

d. Charges for laboratory analyses performed during the application review, and

e. Other reasonable, direct, plan review-related expenses documented in writing by the Department and agreed to by an applicant.

5. "Significant Industrial Users" means the same as in 40 CFR 403.3(t).

6. "Site visit" means an inspection conducted before issuing a permit or approval.

7. "Standard modification" means an amendment to an individual Aquifer Protection Permit that is not a complex modification.

8. "Water quality protection service" means:

a. Reviewing a request for a determination of applicability;

b. Issuing, renewing, amending, transferring, or denying an aquifer protection permit, or a reclaimed water permit;

c. Reviewing supplemental information required by a permit condition, including closure;

d. Performing a clean closure plan review;

e. Issuing a Subdivision Approval;

f. Registering a dry well;

g. Conducting a site visit;

h. Registering a significant industrial user; or

i. Conducting an annual reclaimed water inspection.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.102" level="4" title="Hourly Rate and Flat Rate Fees"> <dwc name="disinfect" times="1">

Hourly Rate and Flat Rate Fees

A. The Department shall assess and collect an hourly rate fee or a flat rate fee for a water quality protection service except for minor permit amendments specified under R18-9-A211(C)(1), (C)(2) and (C)(3).

B. Hourly rate fees. Except as established under subsection (C), the Department shall calculate the fee using an hourly rate of $61 multiplied by the number of review hours to provide a water quality protection service, plus any applicable review-related costs, up to the maximum fee specified under R18-14-104.

1. The Department shall not charge an applicant for the first 60 minutes of Department pre-application consultation time costs.

2. The Department shall not charge the applicant travel time.

C. Flat rate fees. The Department shall assess a flat rate fee for the following water quality protection services:

1. Dry well registration, $10 per dry well;

2. Significant industrial user registration, $250 per year;

3. Determination of applicability, $100 per request:

a. If the Department determines that an individual permit is required or that the applicant qualifies for a Type 2, Type 3, or Type 4 General Permit, the $100 fee shall be applied to the final bill for the individual permit or to the flat rate fee for the general permit.

b. If the determination of applicability is completed as part of an area-wide permit issued under A.R.S. &#167; 49-243(P), the fee for the individual permit applies.

4. Subdivision approval. Approvals are granted in phases of 150 lots or less.

a. Sewage treatment and disposal is provided outside the boundaries of the individual lots, 150 lots or less, $300;

b. Sewage treatment and disposal will be located within the boundary of the lot, 40 lots or less, $500; 41 to 150 lots, $1000;

c. The appropriate fee specified in (C)(4)(a) and (C)(4)(b) applies to each phase if a subdivision includes more than 150 lots.

5. Type 1 General Permits. No fee is required;

6. Type 2 and Type 3 General Permits.

a. New permit, expansion, and renewal fees, established in Table 1;

b. Transfer of ownership, $50 per transfer;

c. If a site contains more than 1 facility covered by the same Type 2 or Type 3 General Permit and each facility is substantially similar in design, construction, and operation, the applicant shall pay the fee established under (C)(6)(a) or (C)(6)(b) for the first facility and one-third of the fee for each additional facility.

7. Type 4 General Permits.

a. New permit and expansion fees established in Table 1 plus any of the following:

i. A request for an alternative design, installation, or operational feature, $75 per change;

ii. A design requiring an interceptor, $100 per interceptor;

iii. A site visit verifying a construction deviation, $150 per site visit.

b. If an onsite wastewater treatment system is based on a design that combines elements from more than one Type 4 General Permit, the applicant shall pay the greatest fee established in Table 1 for the appropriate Type 4 General Permit; $250 for each additional general permit used in the design, and any additional fee specified in subsections (C)(7)(a)(i), (C)(7)(a)(ii), and (C)(7)(a)(iii).

c. Transfer of ownership, $50 per transfer for the first Type 4 General Permit.

D. The Department shall not review a request for a water quality protection service if:

1. The initial fee established in R18-14-103 or flat rate fee established in subsection (C) has not been paid, or

2. The owner or operator has an outstanding water quality protection service bill not under appeal.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Table 1. General Permit Fees

<table> General Permit Type Permit Description New Permit, Expansion, and Renewal Fee With Change Renewal Fee With No Change Type 1 All Type 1 General Permits No Fee No Fee Type 2 All Type 2 General Permits $300 $120 Type 3 All Type 3 General Permits $1500 $500 Type 4 SEWER COLLECTIONS SYSTEMS 4.01 Gravity Sewer Only with Manholes &#183; Serving less than or equal to 50 connections &#183; Serving 51 to 300 connections &#183; Serving 301 or more Connections Force Mains Including Gravity Sewer Components &#183; Serving less than or equal to 50 connections &#183; Serving 51 to 300 connections &#183; Serving 301 or more connections $500 $1000 $1500 $800 $1300 $1800 No Fee No Fee No Fee No Fee No Fee No Fee ONSITE WASTEWATER TREATMENT FACILITIES 4.02 Septic tank/conventional disposal, less than 3000 gallons per day $400 No Fee 4.03 Composting toilet, less than 3000 gallons per day $400 No Fee 4.04 Pressure distribution system, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.05 Gravelless trench, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.06 Natural seal evapotranspiration bed, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.07 Lined evapotranspiration bed, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.08 Wisconsin mound, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.09 Engineered pad system, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.10 Intermittent sand filter, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.11 Peat filter, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.12 Textile filter, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.13 Ruck&#174; system, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.14 Sewage vault, less than 3000 gallons per day $400 No Fee 4.15 Aerobic system/subsurface disposal, less than 3000 gallons per day $800 No Fee 4.16 Aerobic system/surface disposal, less than 3000 gallons per day $1000 No Fee 4.17 Cap system, less than 3000 gallons per day $400 No Fee 4.18 Constructed wetlands, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.19 Sand-lined trench, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.20 Disinfection device, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.21 Sequencing batch reactor, less than 3000 gallons per day $600 No Fee 4.22 Subsurface drip irrigation, less than 3000 gallons per day $500 No Fee 4.23 Onsite wastewater treatment facility, flow from 3000 to less than 24,000 gallons per day $1800 No Fee </table>

Historical Note

New Table adopted by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.103" level="4" title="Initial Fees">

Initial Fees

A. Except for annual reclaimed water inspections, an applicant shall submit a $1000 initial fee for each water quality protection service subject to an hourly rate fee established under R18-14-102(B) at the time an application is submitted to the Department for review.

B. If requested by an applicant, the Department may set a lower initial fee when the Department estimates a review fee that is less than the applicable initial fee.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.104" level="4" title="Maximum Fees">

Maximum Fees

A. Maximum fees for Aquifer Protection Permit actions.

1. Maximum fees for individual Aquifer Protection Permits, complex modifications, standard modifications, clean closures, and denials shall be determined as prescribed under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241.02(A) and the hourly rate specified under R18-14-102(B).

a. The public shall have an opportunity to comment on factors used to obtain the maximum fee.

b. The Department shall list the maximum fees in an Annual Fee Schedule which shall be published in the Arizona Administrative Register by June 1 of each year, except for FY01 when it will be published by January 1, 2001.

2. When an application is deemed administratively complete, the Department shall notify the applicant of the applicable maximum fee for review of the application. The maximum fee will be the lesser of the effective maximum fee determined under subsection (A)(1) or the applicable maximum fee specified under A.R.S. &#167; 49-241.02(B).

3. Unless the applicant has been previously noticed, the Department shall issue a supplemental notice specifying the maximum fee for a pending project deemed administratively complete before January 1, 2001.

B. Maximum fees for Reclaimed Water Individual Permits. The Department shall charge no more than $16,000 for review of each reclaimed water individual permit application.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Schedule A. Repealed

Historical Note

Schedule A adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Schedule repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Schedule B. Repealed

Historical Note

Schedule B adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Schedule repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Schedule C. Repealed

Historical Note

Schedule C adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Schedule repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

Schedule D. Repealed

Historical Note

Schedule D adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Schedule repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.105" level="4" title="Fee Assessment and Collection">

Fee Assessment and Collection

A. Billing. The Department shall bill an applicant for water quality protection services no more than monthly, but at least quarterly. The following information shall be included in each bill:

1. The number of hours of the review (excluding hours for travel time and the first 60 minutes of pre-application consultation time) accrued by employee position type by activity and subactivity code during the billing period, and the effective hourly rate for all activities;

2. A description and amount of each review-related cost incurred for the project;

3. The total fees due and paid and the maximum fee for the project; and

4. A description, by date, of each water quality protection service performed.

B. Annual reclaimed water inspection. If the Department conducts an annual reclaimed water inspection, the owner or operator shall pay the final itemized bill within 30 days from the date on which the final inspection report and final itemized bill are mailed to the owner or operator.

C. Final bill. After the Department makes a final determination whether to grant or deny a request for a permit or an approval, or when an applicant withdraws or closes the application, the Department shall prepare a final itemized bill for an application review.

1. If the total fee exceeds the amount of the initial fee plus all invoicing, the Department shall issue a final itemized bill for the cost of the water quality protection services up to the applicable maximum fee established under R18-14-104.

2. If the total fee is less than the initial fee and all paid invoicing charges, the Department shall refund the difference to the applicant.

3. Fees for water quality protection services shall be paid in U.S. dollar by cash, check, cashier's check, money order, or any other method acceptable to the Department.

4. The Department shall not release the final permit or approval until the final itemized bill is paid in full.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.106" level="4" title="Reconsideration of a Bill; Appeal Process">

Reconsideration of a Bill; Appeal Process

A. A person may seek review of a bill by filing a written request for reconsideration with the Director.

1. The request shall specify, in detail, why the bill is in dispute and shall include any supporting documentation.

2. The written request for reconsideration shall be delivered to the Director in person, by mail, or by facsimile on or before the payment due date or within 35 days of the invoice print date, whichever is greater.

B. The Director shall make a final decision on the request for reconsideration of the bill and mail a final written decision to the person within 20 working days after the date the Director receives the written request.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.107" level="4" title="Effect on County Fees">

Effect on County Fees

Nothing in this Chapter affects the authority of county or other local governments to charge fees for implementing delegated Department water quality protection programs in accordance with statutory authority.

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="R18.14.108" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective November 15, 1996 (Supp. 96-4). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 564, effective January 2, 2001 (Supp. 01-1).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 15" level="2" title="WATER INFRASTRUCTURE FINANCE AUTHORITY OF ARIZONA">

WATER INFRASTRUCTURE FINANCE AUTHORITY OF ARIZONA

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="MANAGEMENT">

MANAGEMENT

<regElement name="R18.15.101" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions prescribed in A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-101, 49-201, and 49-1201, the terms of this Chapter, unless otherwise specified, have the following meanings:

"Applicant" means a governmental unit, a non-point source project sponsor, or a drinking water facility that is seeking financial assistance from the Authority under the provisions of this Chapter.

"Application" means a request for financial assistance submitted to the Board, by an applicant.

"Approval to Construct" means the written approval issued by the Department or the Department's designee to an applicant or recipient indicating that project construction may begin.

"Authority" means the Water Infrastructure Finance Authority of Arizona pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1201.

"Board" means the board of directors of the Authority pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1201.

"Certified Water Quality Management Plan" means a plan prepared by the designated Water Quality Management Planning Agency, pursuant to &#167; 208 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1288.

"Clean Water Revolving Fund" means the fund established by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1221.

"Construction" means, for a project, any placement, assembly, or installation of a building, structure, equipment, treatment process, collection lines, distribution lines, pumps, or related drinking water or water pollution control activity.

"Dedicated Revenue Source for Repayment" means the source of revenue pledged by a borrower to repay the financial assistance.

"Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"Designated Water Quality Management Planning Agency" means a single representative organization designated by the Governor pursuant to &#167; 208 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1288, to develop a Certified Water Quality Management Plan for the area.

"Disbursement" means the transfer of cash from the fund to a recipient.

"Drinking Water Facility" means a community water system as defined in R18-4-101, or a nonprofit non-community water system as defined in R18-4-101.

"Drinking Water Revolving Fund" means the fund established by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1241.

"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency and its successor.

"Equivalency Project" means a wastewater treatment facility under &#167; 212 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1292, constructed in whole or in part before October 1, 1994, with funds equaling the amount of the federal capitalization grant.

"Executive Director" means the executive director of the Water Infrastructure Finance Authority of Arizona.

"Federal capitalization grant" means the assistance agreement by which the EPA obligates and awards funds allotted to the Authority for purposes of capitalizing the Clean Water Revolving Fund and the Drinking Water Revolving Fund.

"Financial assistance" means the use of monies for any of the purposes identified in R18-15-201, R18-15-301, and R18-15-401.

"Financial assistance agreement" means any agreement, including a financial assistance loan repayment agreement, technical assistance loan repayment agreement, or grant agreement that defines the terms for financial assistance given pursuant to this Article.

"First Use Project" means a project identified by EPA and the state as part of the National Municipal Policy List for the state.

"Governmental unit" means a political subdivision or Indian tribe that may receive financial assistance from the Authority pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-1203.

"Infiltration" means water other than wastewater that enters a sewer system, including sewer service connections and foundation drains, from the ground through such means as defective pipes, pipe joints, connections, or manholes.

"Intended Use Plan" means the document prepared by the Authority identifying the intended uses of Clean Water Revolving Fund and Drinking Water Revolving Fund capitalization grants pursuant to R18-15-203 and R18-15-303.

"Master Priority List" means the Master Priority List for Capacity Development developed by the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality under 18 A.A.C. 8., which ranks public water systems according to their need for technical assistance.

"MBE, WBE, SBRA report" means a report that identifies and documents each small business or business enterprise owned by a woman or minority in a rural area that participates in a contract funded in whole or in part by the Authority.

"Nonpoint Source Management Program" means Arizona's Nonpoint Source Management Program, approved by EPA under &#167; 319 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1329, for controlling pollution from nonpoint sources.

"Operational technical assistance" means the use of monies for a specific water or wastewater system to assist that system to improve its operations.

"Policy technical assistance" means the use of monies by or on behalf of the Authority to conduct research, conduct studies, conduct surveys, develop guidance, and perform related activities that benefit more than one water or wastewater system.

"Preconstruction" means any activity that occurs on the project before any physical activity onsite such as the erection, acquisition, alteration, remodeling, improvement, or extension of treatment works, collection lines, distribution lines, or pumps.

"Priority List" means the document developed by the Board that ranks projects pursuant to R18-15-204, R18-15-304, R18-15-504 and R18-15-508.

"Project" means any distinguishable segment or segments of a wastewater treatment facility, drinking water facility, or the Nonpoint Source Management Program that can be bid separately and for which financial assistance is being requested or provided.

"Project technical assistance" means the use of monies for a specific water or wastewater system to assist that system achieve technical, managerial, or financial capability and to facilitate the design, construction, acquisition, improvement, or consolidation of a drinking water or wastewater system.

"Recipient" means an applicant who has entered into a financial assistance agreement with the Authority.

"Replacement" means obtaining and installing equipment or accessories that are necessary during the design and operation of the drinking water and wastewater infrastructure to maintain the capacity and performance for which such infrastructure were designed and constructed.

"Regulatory authority" means the Department, EPA, the Department of Health Services, a county, city, or other local health department, a county environmental agency, or a sanitary district.

"Service area" means the area within a municipality's boundaries, or the boundaries of a municipal, sanitary, irrigation, or county improvement district (for wastewater treatment or drinking water facilities), or is the area served by either a public service corporation (as defined in Article XV, Section 2 of the Arizona Constitution) or a homeowners association.

"State match" means the monies that may be used to meet the requirements of &#167; 602(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1382 and &#167; 1452(e) of the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300j-12.

"Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan" means the document prepared by the Authority identifying the intended sources and uses of funding for technical assistance.

"Treatment works" means any devices and systems for the storage, treatment, recycling, and reclamation of municipal sewage, domestic sewage, or liquid industrial wastes used to implement &#167; 201 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1281, or necessary to recycle or reuse water over the design life of the works.

"User charge" means a charge levied on users of drinking water and wastewater infrastructure.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.102" level="4" title="Application Process">

Application Process

A. An applicant for financial assistance shall apply to the Authority for each type of financial assistance on forms provided by the Authority. After the Board determines that an application is complete and correct, the Authority may enter into a financial assistance agreement with the applicant.

B. An applicant seeking Clean Water Revolving Fund financial assistance shall apply for financial assistance pursuant to Articles 1 and 2 of this Chapter.

C. An applicant seeking Drinking Water Revolving Fund financial assistance shall apply for financial assistance pursuant to Articles 1 and 3 of this Chapter.

D. An applicant seeking other types of financial assistance available through the Water Infrastructure Finance Authority shall apply for financial assistance pursuant to Articles 1 and 4 of this Chapter.

E. Any confidential information shall be marked with the words "confidential information" on each page of the material containing such information. A claim of confidential information may be asserted for a trade secret or information that, upon disclosure, would harm a person's competitive advantage. The Authority shall not disclose any confidential information.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.15.103" level="4" title="Legal Capability">

Legal Capability

A. The applicant shall demonstrate that it is legally authorized to enter into long-term indebtedness and legally authorized to pledge the dedicated revenue source for repayment required by R18-15-104.

B. If the applicant is a political subdivision and the long-term indebtedness is authorized through an election, the applicant shall provide all of the following:

1. One copy of the sample election ballot and election pamphlet at least 45 days prior to the election.

2. One copy of the governing body resolution calling for the election at least 45 days prior to the election.

3. One copy of the election results following the election.

4. An attorney's opinion on the current legal status of the applicant and the applicant's ability to legally enter into the financial assistance agreement.

C. If the applicant is a political subdivision and the long-term indebtedness is authorized through a special taxing district creation process, the applicant shall provide all of the following:

1. One copy of all final documentation, notices, petitions, and related information at the conclusion of each step in the special taxing district creation process.

2. An attorney's opinion on the current legal status of the applicant and the applicant's ability to legally enter into the financial assistance agreement.

D. If the applicant is regulated by the Arizona Corporation Commission, the applicant shall provide all of the following:

1. Evidence that the financial assistance from the Authority to the applicant has been authorized by the Arizona Corporation Commission.

2. An attorney's opinion on the current legal status of the applicant and the applicant's ability to legally enter into the financial assistance agreement.

E. All other applicants who are not included in subsections (B), (C), and (D), shall demonstrate that a majority of the beneficiaries consent to the terms and conditions of the financial assistance. The Authority shall assist each applicant to devise a process by which this consent is documented.

F. Based on the Board's determination of the applicant's legal capability, the Authority may recommend modifications to the proposed project or the Authority may recommend modifications to the applicant's legal structure and organization.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.104" level="4" title="Financial Capability">

Financial Capability

A. The applicant shall identify a dedicated revenue source for repayment of the financial assistance. When determining an applicant's financial capability, the Board shall consider all the following:

1. The amount of money collected through the dedicated revenue source for each of the previous five fiscal years.

2. An estimate of the amount of money that will be collected through the dedicated revenue source for the current fiscal year.

3. A projection of the amount of money that will be collected through the dedicated revenue source for each of the next five fiscal years.

B. The applicant shall provide an estimate of the project costs, including applicable planning, design, and construction costs, as well as estimated annual operation, maintenance, and replacement costs.

C. The applicant shall provide an estimated schedule of required disbursements of the financial assistance.

D. The applicant shall provide the following information:

1. One copy of each financial statement, audit, or comprehensive financial statement from the previous five fiscal years.

2. One copy of each budget, business plan, management plan, or financial plan from the previous three fiscal years and the current fiscal year.

3. One copy of the proposed budget, business plan, management plan, or financial plan for the next fiscal year.

4. A summary of current fees for drinking or wastewater services including, as applicable, any resolutions passed by the governing body of a political subdivision.

5. The most recent version of the applicant's capital improvement plan or other plan explaining proposed infrastructure investments.

6. Copies of documentation relating to outstanding indebtedness including official statements, financial assistance agreements, and amortization schedules.

7. The number of connections to be served by the proposed project.

E. Based on the Board's determination of the applicant's financial capability and the Board's review of the estimated costs of the project, the Authority may recommend modifications to the proposed project or the Authority may recommend modifications to the dedicated revenue source.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.105" level="4" title="Technical Capability">

Technical Capability

A. The Board shall review each applicant's technical capability to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed project.

B. The applicant shall provide the following information:

1. One copy of each feasibility study, engineering report, design memorandum, set of plans and specifications, and other technical documentation related to the proposed project.

2. Copies of resumes, biographies or related information of the certified operators, system employees, or contractors employed by the applicant to operate and maintain the existing facilities and the proposed project.

3. A description of the service territory including maps.

4. A description of the existing physical facilities.

C. The Board may consider the applicant's compliance history, as applicable, to the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1251 to 1387, Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25, related Arizona statutes, and related rules, regulations, and policies.

D. Based on the Board's determination of the applicant's technical capability and the Board's review of the proposed project, the Authority may recommend modifications to the proposed project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.106" level="4" title="Managerial and Institutional Capability">

Managerial and Institutional Capability

A. The Board shall review each applicant's capability to manage the proposed project.

B. The applicant shall provide the following information:

1. As applicable, copies of resumes, biographies, years of experience, term of office, and related information of the owners, managers, chief elected officials, and governing body members of the applicant.

2. A list of professional and outside services retained by the applicant and the proposed project.

C. The Board may consider the following:

1. As applicable, compliance history of the applicant relative to the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1251 to 1387, Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25, related Arizona statutes, and related rules, regulations, and policies.

2. The scope and size of the proposed project and the applicant's ability to manage the project once completed.

D. Based on the Board's determination of the applicant's managerial capability and the Board's review of the proposed project, the Authority may recommend modifications to the proposed project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.107" level="4" title="Environmental Review">

Environmental Review

A. The Authority shall conduct an environmental review pursuant to this Section for impacts of the design or construction of water infrastructure works in accordance with applicable federal and state law. As part of the application process, the Authority shall request information from the applicant to conduct an environmental review consistent with the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251 to 1387, and A.R.S. Title 49.

B. If, based on the application and other information submitted by the applicant, the Authority determines that a categorical exemption from an environmental review is warranted, the project is exempt from the requirements of this Section. The Authority shall grant an exemption if existing information and documents demonstrate that the project qualifies under 1 or more of the following categories:

1. Any project which is directed towards rehabilitation of existing facilities, functional replacement of equipment, or the construction of new ancillary facilities adjacent or appurtenant to existing facilities which do not affect the degree of treatment or capacity of the existing facility.

2. Any project in sewered communities which is for minor upgrading and minor expansion of existing treatment works.

3. Any project in unsewered communities where onsite technologies are proposed.

C. The Authority shall deny an exemption if the project falls under any of the following categories:

1. The project will create a new, or relocate an existing, discharge to surface, or ground waters.

2. The project will result in substantial increases in the volume of discharge or the loading of pollutants from an existing source or from new facilities to receiving waters.

3. The project is known or expected to have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment, either individually, cumulatively over time, or in conjunction with other federal, state, local, or private actions.

4. The project is known or expected to directly or indirectly affect cultural resources, habitats of endangered or threatened species, environmentally important natural resource areas such as floodplains, wetlands, important farmlands, and aquifer recharge zones; or other resource areas.

5. The project is known or expected to cause significant public controversy.

6. The project is known or expected not to be cost effective.

D. If the Authority determines that a categorical exemption is not warranted under subsection (B), the applicant shall prepare an Environmental Information Document (EID) in a format prescribed by the Authority. The EID shall be of sufficient scope to allow development of an Environmental Assessment (EA) under subsection (E).

E. The EA may be conducted by the Authority or by the applicant under the supervision of the Authority and shall include consideration of all of the following factors:

1. For the delineated planning area, the existing environmental conditions relevant either to the analysis of alternatives or to determining the environmental impacts of the proposed project.

2. The relevant future environmental conditions of the delineated planning area, including the alternative of no action.

3. The purpose and need for the project in the planning area, including the existing public health or water quality problems and their severity and extent.

4. A comparative analysis of feasible alternatives, including no action, throughout the project area. The comparison shall focus on the beneficial and adverse consequences, both direct and indirect, on the existing environment, the future environment, and individual sensitive environmental issues that are identified by project management or through public participation conducted under this Section. The comparison shall also include an analysis of all of the following factors:

a. Land use and other social parameters, including recreation and open-space considerations.

b. Consistency with population projects used to develop state implementation plans under the Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. 7401 to 7671.

c. Cumulative impacts, including anticipated community growth within the project study area.

d. Other anticipated public works projects, including coordination with such projects.

5. A full range of relevant impacts of the project, including any irreversible or irretrievable commitments of resources to the project and the relationship between local short-term uses of the environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity.

6. Proposed structural and nonstructural measures to mitigate or eliminate adverse effects on the human and natural environments. Among other measures, structural provisions include changes in project design, size, and location; and nonstructural provisions include staging facilities, monitoring and enforcement of environmental rules, and local commitments to develop and enforce land use rules.

F. Upon completion of the EA required by subsection (E), the Authority shall determine whether an environmental impact statement (EIS) is necessary.

1. The Authority shall prepare an EIS pursuant to subsection (G) if any of the following conditions exist.

a. The project is known or expected to have a significant adverse effect on the quality of the human environment, either individually, cumulatively over time, or in conjunction with other federal, state, local, or private actions.

b. The project is known or expected to directly or indirectly adversely affect recognized cultural resources, habitats of endangered or threatened species, environmentally important natural resource areas such as floodplains, wetlands, important farmlands, and aquifer recharge zones, or other resource areas.

c. The project is likely to cause significant public controversy or is known or expected not to be cost effective.

d. The project discharges into a body of water where the present protected or designated use is not being met or is being challenged as inadequate to protect existing uses, and the discharge will not be of sufficient quality or quantity to meet the requirements of these uses.

2. If the Authority determines pursuant to subsection (F)(1) that an EIS is not necessary, the Authority shall issue a finding of no significant impact (FNSI). The FNSI shall be accompanied by the submitted EA with an attached memorandum from the Authority explaining any changes made to the submitted document. Upon issuance of the FNSI, the project may proceed under the other requirements of this Article.

G. An EIS required by subsection (F)(1) shall be prepared as follows:

1. The Authority shall 1st prepare and distribute a Notice of Intent.

2. As soon as possible after the publication of the Notice of Intent required by subsection (G)(1), the Authority shall convene a meeting of affected federal, state, and local agencies, affected Indian tribes, the applicant, and other interested parties. At the meeting, the scope of the EIS shall be determined by considering a number of factors, including all of the following:

a. The significant issues to be analyzed in depth in the EIS.

b. The preliminary range of alternatives to be considered.

c. The potential cooperating agencies and information or analyses that may be needed from cooperating agencies or other parties.

d. The method for EIS preparation and the public participation strategy.

3. Upon completion of the process described in subsection (G)(2), the Authority shall identify and evaluate all potentially viable alternatives to adequately address the range of issues identified. Additional issues may also be addressed, or others eliminated, and the reasons documented as part of the EIS.

4. After the analysis of issues is conducted pursuant to subsection (G)(3), the Authority shall issue a draft EIS for public comment. Following public comment pursuant to subsection (J), the Authority shall prepare a final EIS, consisting of all of the following:

a. The draft EIS.

b. Comments received on the draft EIS.

c. A list of persons commenting on the draft EIS.

d. The Authority's responses to significant comments received.

e. A determination of consistency with the Certified Water Quality Management Plan, if applicable.

f. Any other information added by the Authority.

H. After a final EIS has been issued under subsection (G), the Authority shall prepare and issue a record of decision (ROD) containing the Authority's decision whether to proceed or not proceed with a project. A ROD issued with a decision to proceed shall include mitigation measures derived from the EIS process. A ROD issued with a decision not to proceed shall preclude the project from receiving financial assistance under this Article.

I. Any project awaiting financial assistance which has a 5 or more year old categorical exclusion, FNSI, or ROD under this Section shall be subject to an environmental re-evaluation. The Authority shall re-evaluate the project, environmental conditions, and public views and, in writing, either reaffirm or modify its original decision. Any new information used by the Authority in making its determination shall be included.

J. Public notice and participation under this Section shall be conducted as follows:

1. If a categorical exclusion is granted under subsection (B), the Authority shall provide public notice of that fact by publishing the notice as a legal notice at least once, in 1 or more newspapers of general circulation in the county or counties concerned.

2. If a FNSI is issued under subsection (F)(2), the Authority shall provide public notice pursuant to R18-1-401(A) that the FNSI is available for public review. The notice shall provide that comments on the FNSI may be submitted to the Authority for a period of 30 days from the date of publication of the notice. If no comments are received, the FNSI shall immediately become effective.

3. If a Notice of Intent is prepared and distributed under subsection (G)(1), the Authority shall publish it as a legal notice at least once, in 1 or more newspapers of general circulation in the county or counties concerned.

4. If a draft EIS is issued under subsection (G)(4), the Authority shall provide public notice pursuant to A.A.C. R18-1-401(A) that the draft EIS is available for public review. The notice shall provide that comments on the draft EIS may be submitted to the Authority for a period of 30 days from the date of publication of the notice. In addition, if the Authority determines that a project may be controversial, the notice shall provide for a general public hearing to receive public comment pursuant to A.A.C. R18-1-401(B).

5. If the Authority reaffirms or revises a decision pursuant to subsection (I), the Authority shall provide public notice of that fact by publishing the notice as a legal notice at least once, in 1 or more newspapers of general circulation in the county or counties concerned.

6. When public notice is required under this subsection, the Authority shall also provide written notice to the applicable Designated Water Quality Management Planning Agency.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2).

<regElement name="R18.15.108" level="4" title="Interest Rate Determinations">

Interest Rate Determinations

A. In establishing interest rates for financial assistance made under this Chapter, the Authority:

1. Shall consider the interest rate on bonds issued by the Authority, prevailing market rates, the recommendations of financial advisors, equity growth, and asset growth;

2. Shall not establish a rate which exceeds prevailing market rates for similar types of financial assistance;

3. Shall not establish a rate that is less than is needed to retire the Authority's bonds.

B. The Authority shall establish interest rates on a loan by loan basis. Such determinations shall be adopted and amended as required by the Board at public meetings of the Board.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Section repealed; new Section R18-15-108 renumbered from R18-15-109 by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.109" level="4" title="Bid Document Review">

Bid Document Review

To ensure compliance with all Arizona statutes and federal requirements for funding the project, the applicant shall submit bid documents for review and comment by the Authority prior to the release of the documents to prospective bidders or contractors.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Former Section R18-15-109 renumbered to R18-15-108; new Section R18-15-109 renumbered from R18-15-110 by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.110" level="4" title="Disbursements and Repayments">

Disbursements and Repayments

A. The Authority shall honor disbursement requests if the disbursements are consistent with the financial assistance agreement and the disbursement schedule agreed to by both parties at the beginning of the contract, or the amended schedule based upon prior Authority approval.

B. The Authority shall charge a late fee for any loan repayment 30 days past the due date and every 30 days thereafter. The Authority shall refer any loan repayment over 90 days past due to the Office of the Attorney General for appropriate action pursuant to A.R.S. &#167; 49-375(J).

C. The recipient shall maintain a project account in accordance with generally accepted government accounting standards. After reasonable notice by the Authority, the recipient shall make available any project records reasonably required to determine compliance with the provisions of this Article and the financial assistance agreement.

D. Each disbursement request shall be on the forms provided by the Authority. Each disbursement request shall include a certification and signature document, a cost-incurred report, and a MBE, WBE, SBRA report. All disbursement forms shall be completely filled out before the disbursement can be processed by the Authority.

E. Each disbursement request shall include copies of invoices, canceled checks, or other documents that show proof of payment.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Former Section R18-15-110 renumbered to R18-15-111; new Section adopted effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-110 renumbered to R18-15-109; new Section R18-15-110 renumbered from R18-15-111 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.111" level="4" title="Administration">

Administration

A. The Authority may use up to 4% of federal capitalization grant awards to pay the reasonable costs of administering the Clean Water Revolving Fund and the Drinking Water Revolving Fund.

B. The Authority may also require a recipient to pay a proportionate share of the expenses of the Authority's operating costs.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Former Section R18-15-111 renumbered to R18-15-112; new Section R18-15-111 renumbered from R18-15-110 and amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-111 renumbered to R18-15-110; new Section R18-15-111 renumbered from R18-15-112 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.112" level="4" title="Disputes">

Disputes

A. Any party having a substantial financial interest in or suffering a substantial adverse financial impact from an action taken pursuant to this Chapter may file a formal letter of dispute with the Executive Director. Within 30 days of receipt of a dispute letter, the Authority shall issue a preliminary decision in writing, to be forwarded by certified mail to the party.

B. Any party filing a dispute under subsection (A) that disagrees with a preliminary decision of the Authority may file a formal letter of appeal with the Board, provided such letter is received by the Executive Director not more than 15 days after the receipt by the party of the preliminary decision.

C. The Board shall issue a final decision on issues appealed under subsection (B) not more than 60 days after receipt of the appeal.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Former Section R18-15-112 renumbered to R18-15-113; new Section R18-15-112 renumbered from R18-15-111 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-112 renumbered to R18-15-111; new Section R18-15-112 renumbered from R18-15-113 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.113" level="4" title="Renumbered">

Renumbered

Historical Note

Section R18-15-113 renumbered from R18-15-112 (Supp. 98-2). Section R18-15-113 renumbered to R18-15-112 by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="CLEAN WATER REVOLVING FUND">

CLEAN WATER REVOLVING FUND

<regElement name="R18.15.201" level="4" title="Types of Financial Assistance Available">

Types of Financial Assistance Available

A. The Authority may use the Clean Water Revolving Fund for any of the following purposes:

1. Financial assistance, which includes any of the following:

a. Financial assistance loan repayment agreements consistent with &#167; 603(d)(1) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167; 1383;

b. The purchase or refinance of local debt obligations that were incurred after March 7, 1985, if building began after that date;

c. The guarantee or purchase of insurance for local obligations to improve credit market access or reduce interest rates;

d. Security as a source of repayment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the Authority provided that the net proceeds of the bonds are deposited in the fund;

e. Guarantees of debt obligations by governmental units, which are issued to finance eligible projects.

2. Technical assistance loan repayment agreements.

3. Investments to earn interest to be deposited into the fund.

4. Payments of costs to administer the fund.

5. Other uses as additional funds are made available.

B. The Authority shall describe projects and proposed financial assistance in the Clean Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan, developed under R18-15-203.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.202" level="4" title="Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance">

Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance

A. To be eligible to receive financial assistance an applicant shall propose a project to: design, construct, acquire, improve or refinance a publicly owned wastewater treatment facility or projects eligible for the Department's Water Quality Improvement Grant Program.

B. A project eligible under subsection (A) shall also meet all of the following applicable requirements before receiving financial assistance:

1. The project shall appear on the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List developed under R18-15-204.

2. The applicant shall demonstrate legal capability under R18-15-103.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate financial capability under R18-15-104.

4. The applicant shall demonstrate technical capability under R18-15-105.

5. The applicant shall demonstrate managerial and institutional capability under R18-15-106.

6. The applicant shall demonstrate completion of the environmental review process under R18-15-107.

7. The applicant shall obtain or be in the process of obtaining all permits and approvals required by federal, state, and local authorities.

8. The applicant shall ensure that the project is consistent with the Certified Water Quality Management Plan.

9. For nonpoint source projects, the applicant shall ensure that the project is consistent with &#167; 319 and Title VI of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1329, 1381 to 1387.

C. The Authority, through its Board, shall provide financial assistance to eligible governmental units for proposed projects in priority order according to the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List developed pursuant to R18-15-204. If the Board determines that an applicant will not be able to proceed with a project in a manner consistent with the Clean Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan, the Board shall bypass that project. The Board shall provide written notice to the applicant that the project has been bypassed. The Board shall replace the bypassed project with the next project on the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List in rank order that is ready to accept financial assistance.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.203" level="4" title="Clean Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan">

Clean Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan

The Authority shall publish an Intended Use Plan for each funding cycle in which it anticipates that it will provide financial assistance for eligible projects. At a minimum the Intended Use Plan shall include a Priority List, a Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance, and a Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance and shall identify the projects by eligible applicant, project name, type of project, type of financial assistance, amount of financial assistance, and estimated interest rates to be charged. The Intended Use Plan shall also identify first use and equivalency projects. The Intended Use Plan shall be prepared after providing for public comment and review. If an Intended Use Plan is to be submitted as one of the documents required to obtain a grant under Title VI of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1381 to 1387, the Intended Use Plan shall include any additional information required by federal law.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.204" level="4" title="Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List">

Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List

A. The Board shall adopt a Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List for the funding cycle described in the Intended Use Plan. The Board shall not adopt a new list for years where funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. If the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List is required pursuant to subsection (A), the Authority shall rank the projects by priority points and the year the applicant requests project assistance.

C. An applicant, desiring placement on the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List, shall make its request for placement of one or more proposed projects on or before a date specified by the Authority. If requesting placement on the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List, an applicant shall submit information within an application format specified by the Authority.

D. The Authority shall prepare a draft Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List. In developing a draft Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List, the Authority shall consider all requests submitted under subsection (B), all requests made by regulatory authorities, all plans prepared pursuant to the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1251 to 1387, and the most recently adopted Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List.

E. The Authority shall hold a public meeting to receive comments on the draft Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List. The Authority shall publish a notice of the public meeting in newspapers statewide at least 14 days before the meeting date and make copies of the draft Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List available to the public at least 7 days before the meeting date.

F. The Authority shall consider all comments submitted in writing before the meeting, given orally at the meeting, submitted in writing at the meeting, or submitted subsequent to the meeting but before the close of the written comment period. The Authority shall establish a written comment period and shall publish the date upon which the comment period closes in the meeting notice. After the Authority summarizes the comments received and prepares responses, the Board shall adopt the final Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List.

G. The Board shall make additions to the final Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List if both of the following conditions are met:

1. The project scores a minimum of 40 points under R18-15-207(C)(2).

2. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

H. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may make modifications to the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List, based on changes in circumstances under R18-15-207(C)(2).

I. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may remove a project from the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has received all financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant,

2. The project has been financed with long-term indebtedness from another source,

3. The project is no longer an eligible project,

4. The applicant requests removal, or

5. The applicant is no longer an eligible applicant.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.205" level="4" title="Ranking Criteria for the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List">

Ranking Criteria for the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List

A. The Authority, through its Board, shall rank projects using priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = EC + PB + LFC, where:

PV = Priority Value

EC = Existing Conditions

PB = Project Benefits

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

1. Existing Conditions (EC) -- The Authority shall award EC points up to a maximum of 200 points using the following formula:

EC = CC + PYF, where:

CC = Current Conditions

PYF = Prior Year Funding

a. Current Conditions (CC) -- The Authority shall award CC points up to a maximum of 100 points using only one of the following categories:

i. Surface Water Pollution (Sewerage Facilities):

(1) 100 points if the project corrects a sewer overflow.

(2) 80 points if the project corrects a wastewater treatment facility non-compliance.

(3) 60 points if the project corrects excessive inflow and infiltration.

(4) 40 points if the project repairs a lift or pump station.

ii. Untreated or Uncontrolled Runoff (shown to be polluting either surface or ground water):

(1) 100 points if the project constructs or repairs a stormwater treatment or management facility.

(2) 80 points if the project implements agricultural best management practices.

(3) 60 points if the project involves landfill capping.

(4) 40 points if the project is non-traditional.

iii. Groundwater Pollution:

(1) 100 points if the project corrects onsite wastewater systems shown to be polluting either surface or ground water.

(2) 50 points if the project corrects surface or ground water pollution from sources other than onsite wastewater systems.

b. Prior Year Funding (PYF) -- The Authority shall award PYF points up to a maximum of 100 points with only one set of points awarded as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant requests additional financial assistance for a multi-year construction project that received financial assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

ii. 80 points if the applicant requests financial assistance to construct a project that received pre-design or design financial or technical assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

iii. 40 points if the applicant requests additional financial assistance to offset actual costs or justified overruns.

2. Project Benefits (PB) -- The Authority shall award PB points up to a maximum of 200 points using the following formula:

PB = WQI + CI + CR, where:

WQI = Water Quality Improvement

CI = Conservation Index

CR = Consolidation &amp; Regionalization

a. Water Quality Improvement (WQI) -- The Authority shall award WQI points up to a maximum of 100 points from a combination of Surface Water Restoration and Surface Water Protection or a maximum of 100 points from Groundwater Protection as follows:

i. Surface Water Restoration

(1) 50 points if the project benefits a current Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(2) 40 points if the project benefits the development of a Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(3) 30 points if the project benefits a future Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(4) 20 points if the project indirectly addresses a Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(5) 10 bonus points if the project benefits a project funded by a Water Quality Improvement Grant from the Department.

ii. Surface Water Protection

(1) 50 points if the project benefits a waterbody identified by the Department as not supporting its designated use.

(2) 40 points if the project benefits a waterbody identified by the Department as in partial support of its designated use.

(3) 30 points if the project benefits a waterbody by the Department as in full support of its designated use.

(4) 10 bonus points to projects that address a regional or local watershed plan to benefit water quality.

iii. Groundwater Protection

(1) 100 points if the project benefits a wellhead protection area for a community water system well.

(2) 75 points if the project benefits groundwater not meeting aquifer water quality standards.

(3) 50 points if the project benefits groundwater meeting aquifer water quality standards.

b. Conservation Index (CI) -- The Authority shall award Conservation Index points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

i. 50 points if the project will generate Class A+ reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

ii. 40 points if the project will generate Class A reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

iii. 30 points if the project will generate Class B+ reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

iv. 20 points if the project will generate Class B reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

v. 10 points if the project will generate Class C reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

vi. 0 points if the project will not generate reclaimed water for direct or indirect reuse.

c. Consolidation &amp; Regionalization (CR) -- The Authority shall award CR points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

i. 20 points if the applicant is consolidating the physical facilities of existing multiple facilities.

ii. 20 points if the applicant is extending service to existing areas currently served by another facility.

iii. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the operations of existing multiple facilities.

iv. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the ownership of existing multiple facilities.

3. Local Fiscal Capacity (LFC) -- The Authority shall award LFC points up to a maximum of 100 points using the following formula:

LFC = MHI + UF + I + CE, where:

MHI = Median Household Income

UF = User Fees

I = Indebtedness

CE = Cost Effectiveness

a. Median Household Income (MHI) -- The Authority shall divide the MHI from the area served by the applicant by the state's MHI (Service Area MHI/State MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 40 points if the area's MHI is less than 40% of the State's MHI.

ii. 30 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60% of the State's MHI.

iii. 20 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80% of the State's MHI.

iv. 10 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 80% but less than 100% of the State's MHI.

v. 0 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 100% of the State's MHI.

b. User Fees (UF) - The Authority shall divide the applicant's proposed residential user fees, rates, and charges by the service area's MHI (Proposed User Fees, Rates and Charges/Area MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if the rates are more than 1.5% of the area's MHI.

ii. 10 points if the rates are from 1% to 1.5% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the rates are less than 1% of the area's MHI.

c. Indebtedness (I) - The Authority shall divide existing indebtedness and proposed indebtedness by the number of users (Indebtedness/Number of Users) and divide the result by the service area's MHI to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is more than 1% of the area's MHI.

ii. 10 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is from .5% to 1% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is less than .5% of the area's MHI.

d. Cost Effectiveness (CE) -- The Authority shall divide the estimated costs of construction by the number of benefitting connections (Construction Costs/# of Benefitting Connections) to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if CE is less than $2,500 per benefitting connection.

ii. 10 points if CE is from $2,500 to $5,000 per benefitting connection.

iii. 0 points if CE is more than $5,000 per benefitting connection.

e. The Authority may use the most recent United States census data to determine the applicant's and the state's median household income. If the Authority or the applicant determines that this data is insufficient, the applicant shall use a reliable and impartial entity to conduct an income survey of the applicant's service area. If the applicant's service area is included in more than one income area, the Authority shall use an average of income areas to define the service area's median household income.

B. The Authority shall rank tied scores by placing the project with the lowest cost effectiveness ratio above all other tied projects.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Section repealed; new Section R18-15-205 renumbered from R18-15-206 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.206" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Clean Water Revolving Fund Design Financial Assistance">

Fundable Range for Clean Water Revolving Fund Design Financial Assistance

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List in accordance with R18-15-204 (D) through (F).

C. The Board shall rank projects within the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance based on priority values obtained from the Priority List, the year the applicant requires funding, and the receipt of a complete Design Finance Application.

D. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

E. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List,

2. The project has received all design financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-206 renumbered to R18-15-205; new Section R18-15-206 made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.207" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Clean Water Revolving Fund Construction Financial Assistance">

Fundable Range for Clean Water Revolving Fund Construction Financial Assistance

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List in accordance with R18-15-204(D) through (F).

C. The Authority shall rank projects within the Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance based on priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = MPLP + RP, where:

PV = Priority Value

MPLP = Master Priority List Points

RP = Readiness to Proceed

1. The Authority shall award Master Priority List Points in accordance with R18-15-205.

2. Readiness to Proceed (RP) -- The Authority shall award RP points up to a maximum of 100 points as follows:

a. 40 points if the applicant has obtained debt authorization.

b. 30 points if the applicant has solicited the project for bidding.

c. 20 points if the applicant has the necessary plan and specification approvals.

d. 10 points if the applicant has completed the project design.

D. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List,

2. The project scores a minimum of 40 RP points under (C)(2),

3. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

4. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

E. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List,

2. The project has received all construction financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Section repealed; new Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.208" level="4" title="Clean Water Revolving Fund Requirements">

Clean Water Revolving Fund Requirements

A. The Authority shall identify Clean Water Revolving Fund requirements applicable to each project pursuant to the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. &#167;&#167; 1251 to 1387.

B. If applicable, the applicant shall design a user charge system to produce adequate revenues for operation and maintenance, including replacement. The user charge system shall provide that a user discharging pollutants that cause an increase in the cost of managing the effluent or sludge from the treatment works shall pay proportionately for the increased cost. An applicant's user charge system, based on actual or estimated use of wastewater treatment services, shall provide that each user or user class pays its proportionate share of operation and maintenance, including replacement costs of treatment works within the applicant's service area, based on the user's proportionate contribution to the total wastewater loading from all users or user classes.

C. After a project is completed, the governmental unit shall use revenue from the project, including the sale of sludges, gases, liquids, crops, or revenue from leases, to offset the costs of operation and maintenance.

D. The applicant shall certify that it has not violated any federal, state, or local law pertaining to fraud, bribery, graft, kickbacks, collusion, conflict of interest, or other unlawful or corrupt practices relating to or in connection with facilities planning or design work on a wastewater treatment facility project.

E. First use and equivalency projects shall comply with the provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Pub.L. 88-352, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 2000(a) to 2000h-6, and all other applicable federal laws.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="DRINKING WATER REVOLVING FUND">

DRINKING WATER REVOLVING FUND

<regElement name="R18.15.301" level="4" title="Types of Financial Assistance Available">

Types of Financial Assistance Available

A. The Authority may use the Drinking Water Revolving Fund for any of the following purposes:

1. Financial assistance, which includes any of the following:

a. Financial assistance loan repayment agreements consistent with &#167; 1452 (a)(2)(f) of the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300j-12.

b. The purchase or refinance of local debt obligations of political subdivisions that were incurred after July 1, 1993, if building began after that date.

c. The guarantee or purchase of insurance for local obligations to improve credit market access or reduce interest rates.

d. Security as a source of repayment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the Authority, provided that the net proceeds of the bonds are deposited in the fund.

e. Guarantees of debt obligations by governmental units, which are issued to finance eligible projects.

2. Technical assistance loan repayment agreements.

3. Investments to earn interest to be deposited into the fund.

4. Payments of costs to administer the fund.

5. Other uses authorized by the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25.

B. The Authority shall describe projects and proposed financial assistance in the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan, developed pursuant to R18-15-303.

C. Pursuant to the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25, 15% of available Drinking Water Revolving Fund financial assistance shall be available solely for drinking water facilities serving fewer than 10,000 persons consistent with the requirements for financial assistance within Article 3. On an annual basis, if there are insufficient requests for Drinking Water Revolving Fund financial assistance from drinking water facilities serving fewer than 10,000 persons, the Authority, through its Board, may direct the remainder of the 15% to all other drinking water facilities requesting financial assistance consistent with the requirements within Article 3.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.302" level="4" title="Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance">

Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance

A. To be eligible to receive financial assistance an applicant shall be a drinking water facility as defined by A.R.S. &#167; 49-1201. An applicant shall propose a project to: plan, design, construct, acquire, or improve a drinking water facility, or refinance an eligible drinking water facility.

B. A project eligible under subsection (A) shall also meet all of the following requirements before receiving financial assistance:

1. The project shall appear on the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List developed under R18-15-304.

2. The applicant shall demonstrate legal capability under R18-15-103.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate financial capability under R18-15-104.

4. The applicant shall demonstrate technical capability under R18-15-105.

5. The applicant shall demonstrate managerial and institutional capability under R18-15-106.

6. The applicant shall demonstrate completion of the environmental review process under R18-15-107.

7. The applicant shall obtain or be in the process of obtaining all permits and approvals required by federal, state, and local authorities.

C. The Authority, through its Board, shall provide financial assistance to eligible applicants for proposed projects in priority order according to the priority list developed under R18-15-304. If the Board determines that an applicant will not be able to proceed with a project in a manner consistent with the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan, the Board shall bypass that project. The Board shall provide written notice to the applicant that the project has been bypassed. The Board shall replace the bypassed project with the next project on the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List in rank order that is ready to accept financial assistance.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.303" level="4" title="Drinking Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan">

Drinking Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan

The Authority shall publish an Intended Use Plan for each funding cycle in which it anticipates that it will provide financial assistance for eligible projects. At a minimum, the Intended Use Plan shall include a Priority List, a Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance, and a Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance and shall identify the projects by eligible applicant, project name, type of project, type of financial assistance, amount of financial assistance, population served by the project, and estimated interest rates to be charged. The Intended Use Plan shall be prepared after providing for public comment and review. If an Intended Use Plan is to be submitted as one of the documents required to obtain a grant under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25, the Intended Use Plan shall include any additional information required by federal law.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.304" level="4" title="Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List">

Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List

A. The Board shall adopt a Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List for the funding cycle described in the Intended Use Plan. The Board shall not adopt a new list for years where funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. If the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List is required pursuant to subsection (A), the Authority shall rank the projects by priority points and the year the applicant requests project assistance.

C. An applicant, desiring placement on the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List, shall make its request for placement of one or more proposed projects on or before a date specified by the Authority. If requesting placement on the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List, an applicant shall submit information within an application format specified by the Authority.

D. The Authority shall prepare a draft Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List. In developing a draft Priority List, the Authority shall consider all requests submitted under subsection (B), all requests made by regulatory authorities, all plans prepared under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25, and the most recently adopted Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List.

E. The Authority shall hold a public meeting to receive comments on the draft Priority List. The Authority shall publish a notice of the public meeting in newspapers statewide at least 14 days before the meeting date and make copies of the draft Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List available to the public at least 7 days before the meeting date.

F. The Authority shall consider all comments submitted in writing before the meeting, given orally at the meeting, submitted in writing at the meeting, or submitted subsequent to the meeting but before the close of the written comment period. The Authority shall establish a written comment period and shall publish the date upon which the comment period closes in the meeting notice. After the Authority summarizes the comments received and prepares responses, the Board shall adopt the final Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List.

G. The Board shall make additions to the final Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List if both of the following conditions are met:

1. The project scores a minimum of 40 points under R18-15-307(C)(2), and

2. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

H. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may make modifications to the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List, based on changes in circumstances under R18-15-307(C)(2).

I. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may remove a project from the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has received all financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant,

2. The project has been financed with long-term indebtedness from another source,

3. The project is no longer an eligible project,

4. The applicant requests removal, or

5. The applicant is no longer an eligible applicant.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.305" level="4" title="Ranking Criteria for the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List">

Ranking Criteria for the Drinking Water Revolving Fund Priority List

A. The Authority, through its Board, shall rank projects using priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = EC + PB + LFC, where:

PV = Priority Value

EC = Existing Conditions

PB = Project Benefits

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

1. Existing Conditions (EC) - The Authority shall award EC points up to a maximum of 200 points, using the following formula:

EC = CC + PYF, where:

CC = Current Conditions

PYF = Prior Year Funding

a. Current Conditions (CC) - The Authority shall award CC points up to a maximum of 100 points as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 80th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

ii. 80 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 60th percentile but less than the 80th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

iii. 60 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 40th percentile but less than the 60th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

iv. 40 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 20th percentile but less than the 40th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

v. 20 points if the applicant's system is less than the 20th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

vi. 0 points if the applicant's system is not listed on the Department's Master Priority List.

b. Prior Year Funding (PYF) -- The Authority shall award PYF points up to a maximum of 100 points with only 1 set of points awarded as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant requests additional financial assistance for a multi-year construction project that received financial assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

ii. 80 points if the applicant requests financial assistance to construct a project that received pre-design or design financial or technical assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

iii. 40 points if the applicant requests additional financial assistance to offset actual costs or justified overruns.

2. Project Benefits (PB) - The Authority shall award PB points up to a maximum of 200 points, using the following formula:

PB = WSI + CR, where:

WSI = Water System Improvement

CR = Consolidation &amp; Regionalization

a. Water System Improvement (WSI) -- The Authority shall award WSI points up to a maximum of 150 points from the following categories:

i. A maximum of 100 points if the applicant's proposed project addresses deficiencies identified by the Department on the Department's Master Priority List.

ii. 25 points if the applicant submitted a complete Capacity Development Plan to the Department.

iii. 25 points if the proposed project includes installing meters to monitor water use.

b. Consolidation &amp; Regionalization (CR) -- The Authority shall award CR points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

i. 20 points if the applicant is consolidating the physical facilities of existing multiple facilities.

ii. 20 points if the applicant is extending service to existing areas currently served by another facility.

iii. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the operations of existing multiple facilities.

iv. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the ownership of existing multiple facilities.

3. Local Fiscal Capacity (LFC) -- The Authority shall award LFC points up to a maximum of 100 points, using the following formula:

LFC = MHI + UF + I + CE, where:

MHI = Median Household Income

UF = User Fees

I = Indebtedness

CE = Cost Effectiveness

a. Median Household Income (MHI) -- The Authority shall divide the MHI from the area served by the applicant by the state's MHI (Service Area MHI/State MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 40 points if the area's MHI is less than 40% of the State's MHI.

ii. 30 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60% of the State's MHI.

iii. 20 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80% of the State's MHI.

iv. 10 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 80% but less than 100% of the State's MHI.

v. 0 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 100% of the State's MHI.

b. User Fees (UF) -- The Authority shall divide the applicant's proposed residential user fees, rates, and charges by the service area's MHI (Proposed User Fees, Rates and Charges/Area MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if the rates are more than 1.5% of the area's MHI.

ii. 10 points if the rates are from 1% to 1.5% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the rates are less than 1% of the area's MHI.

c. Indebtedness (I) -- The Authority shall divide existing indebtedness and proposed indebtedness by the number of users (Indebtedness/Number of Users) and divide the result by the service area's MHI to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is more than 1% of the area's MHI.

ii. 10 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is from .5% to 1% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is less than .5% of the area's MHI.

d. Cost Effectiveness (CE) -- The Authority shall divide the estimated costs of construction by the number of benefitting connections (Construction Costs/# of Benefitting Connections) to award points as follows:

i. 20 points if CE is less than $2,500 per benefitting connection.

ii. 10 points if CE is from $2,500 to $5,000 per benefitting connection.

iii. 0 points if CE is more than $5,000 per benefitting connection.

e. The Authority may use the most recent United States census data to determine the applicant's and the state's median household income. If the Authority or the applicant determines that this data is insufficient, the applicant shall use a reliable and impartial entity to conduct an income survey of the applicant's service area. If the applicant's service area is included in more than one income area, the Authority shall use an average of the income areas to define the service area's median household income.

B. The Authority shall rank tied scores by placing the project with the lowest cost effectiveness ratio above all other tied projects.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-305 repealed; new Section R18-15-305 renumbered from R18-15-306 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.306" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Drinking Water Revolving Fund Design Financial Assistance">

Fundable Range for Drinking Water Revolving Fund Design Financial Assistance

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List in accordance with R18-15-304(D) through (F).

C. The Board shall rank projects within the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance based on priority values obtained from the Priority List, the year the applicant requires funding, and the receipt of a complete Design Finance Application.

D. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

E. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List.

2. The project has received all design financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant.

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Former Section R18-15-306 renumbered to R18-15-305; new Section R18-15-306 made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.307" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Drinking Water Revolving Fund Construction Financial Assistance">

Fundable Range for Drinking Water Revolving Fund Construction Financial Assistance

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List in accordance with R18-15-304(D) through (F).

C. The Authority shall rank projects within the Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance based on priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = MPLP + RP, where:

PV = Priority Value

MPLP = Master Priority List Points

RP = Readiness to Proceed

1. The Authority shall award Priority List Points in accordance with R18-15-305.

2. Readiness to Proceed (RP) -- The Authority shall award RP points up to a maximum of 100 points as follows:

a. 40 points if the applicant has obtained debt authorization.

b. 30 points if the applicant has solicited the project for bidding.

c. 20 points if the applicant has the necessary plan and specification approvals.

d. 10 points if the applicant has completed the project design.

D. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range for Design Financial Assistance if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List,

2. The project scores a minimum of 40 RP points under to R18-15-307(C)(2),

3. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

4. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

E. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range for Construction Financial Assistance under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List,

2. The project has received all construction financial assistance from the fund requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Section repealed; new Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.308" level="4" title="Drinking Water Revolving Fund Requirements">

Drinking Water Revolving Fund Requirements

A. The Authority shall identify Drinking Water Revolving Fund requirements applicable to each project under the Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300f to 300j-25.

B. If applicable, the applicant shall design a user charge system to produce adequate revenues for operation and maintenance, including replacement. An applicant's user charge system, based on actual or estimated use of the drinking water facilities, shall provide that each user or user class pays its proportionate share of operation and maintenance, including replacement costs of facilities within the applicant's service area, based on the user's proportionate use of the facilities.

C. The applicant shall certify that it has not violated any federal, state, or local law pertaining to fraud, bribery, graft, kickbacks, collusion, conflict of interest, or other unlawful or corrupt practices relating to or in connection with facilities planning or design work on a project.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="OTHER FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE">

OTHER FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE

<regElement name="R18.15.401" level="4" title="Types of Financial Assistance Available">

Types of Financial Assistance Available

A. The Authority may issue Water Quality Bonds on behalf of eligible applicants for any of the following types of financial assistance:

1. Loans.

2. The purchase or refinance of local debt obligations.

B. The Authority may guarantee or purchase insurance for local obligations to improve credit market access or reduce interest rates for eligible applicants.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.15.402" level="4" title="Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance">

Eligibility Requirements for Financial Assistance

A. To be eligible to receive financial assistance, an applicant shall propose a project to: plan, design, construct, improve, acquire, or refinance a wastewater facility, a drinking water facility, or a nonpoint source project.

B. A project eligible under subsection (A) shall also meet all of the following requirements prior to receiving financial assistance:

1. The applicant shall demonstrate legal capability pursuant to R18-15-103.

2. The applicant shall demonstrate financial capability pursuant to R18-15-104.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate technical capability pursuant to R18-15-105.

4. The applicant shall demonstrate managerial and institutional capability pursuant to R18-15-106.

5. The applicant shall demonstrate completion of the environmental review process pursuant to R18-15-107.

6. The applicant shall demonstrate readiness to proceed pursuant to R18-15-108.

7. The applicant shall obtain or be in the process of obtaining all applicable permits and approvals required by federal, state, and local authorities.

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3).

<regElement name="R18.15.403" level="4" title="Repealed">

Repealed

Historical Note

Adopted effective September 18, 1997 (Supp. 97-3). Amended effective June 4, 1998 (Supp. 98-2). Section repealed by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE">

TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE

<regElement name="R18.15.501" level="4" title="Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan">

Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan

A. The Authority shall publish a Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan for each funding cycle in which it anticipates that it will fund technical assistance. At a minimum, the Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan shall include:

1. Descriptions of the types of technical assistance the Authority expects to fund including operational, policy, and project technical assistance;

2. Sources and uses of funds for technical assistance;

3. A Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance;

4. A Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Grants;

5. A Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Loans;

6. A Priority List for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance;

7. A Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Grants; and

8. A Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Loans.

B. The Authority shall adopt the Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan after providing for public comment and review.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.502" level="4" title="Eligibility Requirements for Project Technical Assistance">

Eligibility Requirements for Project Technical Assistance

A. To be eligible to receive project technical assistance, an applicant shall own or operate a drinking water or wastewater system eligible for financial assistance under A.R.S. &#167;&#167; 49-1223(A)(1) or 49-1243(A)(1).

B. A project eligible under subsection (A) shall also meet both of the following requirements:

1. Proposed project technical assistance will assist the system to achieve technical capability pursuant to R18-15-105, managerial and institutional capability pursuant to R18-15-106, or financial capability pursuant to R18-15-104; and

2. Proposed project technical assistance will facilitate the design, construction, acquisition, improvement, or consolidation of a drinking water or wastewater system.

C. The Authority shall provide project technical assistance to eligible applicants in priority order according to the priority lists developed pursuant to this Article.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.503" level="4" title="Types of Project Technical Assistance Available">

Types of Project Technical Assistance Available

The Authority may award project technical assistance in any one or a combination of the following forms:

1. Project technical assistance grants to local units of government. If consultants are required to complete the project technical assistance, the grant agreement shall specify that the local unit of government is required to select and pay consultants in accordance with applicable procurement requirements.

2. Consultants selected and paid by the Authority to provide project technical assistance on behalf of the recipient of the project technical assistance award.

3. Project technical assistance loans subject to terms and conditions approved by the Board.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.504" level="4" title="Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List">

Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List

A. The Board shall adopt the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List for the funding cycle described in the Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan. The Board shall not adopt a list for a funding cycle in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. If the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List is required pursuant to subsection (A), the Authority shall rank the projects by priority points and the year the applicant requests project technical assistance.

C. An applicant seeking placement on the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List shall make a request for placement of one or more proposed projects on or before a date specified by the Authority. If requesting placement on the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List, an applicant shall submit an application specified by the Authority.

D. The Authority shall prepare a draft Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List and shall hold at least one public meeting to receive comments on the list and make copies of the draft list available to the public at least seven days before the meeting date.

E. The Authority shall consider all comments given orally at the public meeting or submitted in writing before the close of the written comment period. The Authority shall establish a written comment period and shall publish the date upon which the comment period closes in the meeting notice. After the Authority summarizes the comments received and prepares responses, the Board shall adopt the final Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List.

F. Throughout the funding cycle, the Board shall make additions after the adoption of the final Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project scores a minimum of 50 points under R18-15-505(A)(1).

2. The additions are made at a public meeting of the Board.

G. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may make modifications to the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List based on changes to existing conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1).

H. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting of the Board, the Board may remove a project from the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The applicant has completed the technical assistance project,

2. The project is no longer an eligible project,

3. The applicant requests removal, or

4. The applicant is no longer an eligible applicant.

I. The Authority shall provide clean water project technical assistance to eligible applicants for proposed projects in priority order according to the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List developed pursuant to this Section. If the Authority determines that an applicant will not be able to proceed with a project, the Board shall bypass that project. The Authority shall provide written notice to the applicant that the project has been bypassed. The Authority shall replace the bypassed project with the next project on the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List in rank order that is ready to accept technical assistance.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Former Section R18-15-504 repealed; new Section R18-15-504 renumbered from R18-15-505 and amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.505" level="4" title="Priority List Ranking Criteria for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance">

Priority List Ranking Criteria for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance

A. The Authority, through its Board, shall rank projects using priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = EC + PB + LFC, where:

PV = Priority Value

EC = Existing Conditions

PB = Project Benefits

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

1. Existing Conditions (EC) -- The Authority shall award EC points up to a maximum of 200 points using the following formula:

EC = CC + PYF, where:

CC = Current Conditions

PYF = Prior Year Funding

a. Current Conditions (CC) -- The Authority shall award CC points up to a maximum of 100 points using only one of the following categories:

i. Surface Water Pollution (Sewerage Facilities):

(1) 100 points if the project corrects a sewer overflow.

(2) 80 points if the project corrects a wastewater treatment facility non-compliance.

(3) 60 points if the project corrects excessive inflow and infiltration.

(4) 40 points if the project repairs a lift or pump station.

ii. Untreated or Uncontrolled Runoff (shown to be polluting either surface or ground water):

(1) 100 points if the project constructs or repairs a stormwater treatment or management facility.

(2) 80 points if the projects implements agricultural best management practices.

(3) 60 points if the project involves landfill capping.

(4) 40 points if the project is non-traditional.

iii. Groundwater Pollution

(1) 100 points if the project corrects onsite wastewater systems shown to be polluting either surface or ground water.

(2) 50 points if the project corrects surface or ground water pollution from sources other than onsite wastewater systems.

b. Prior Year Funding (PYF) -- The Authority shall award PYF points up to a maximum of 100 points with only one set of points awarded as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant requests project technical assistance to design a project that received pre-design project technical assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

ii. 50 points if the applicant requests additional technical assistance to offset actual costs or justified overruns.

2. Project Benefits (PB) -- For requests for pre-design project technical assistance the Authority shall award PB points up to a maximum of 200 points as follows:

a. 200 points if the project receives a combined score of 160 to 200 points for Current Conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

b. 150 points if the project receives a combined score of 120 to 159 points for Current Conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

c. 100 points if the project receives a combined score of 80 to 119 points for Current Conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

d. 50 points if the project receives a combined score of 40 to 79 points for Current Conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

e. 0 points if the project receives a combined score of fewer than 40 points for Current Conditions pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

3. Project Benefits (PB) -- For requests for design project technical assistance, the Authority shall award points up to a maximum of 200 points using the following formula:

PB = WQI + CI + CR, where:

WQI = Water Quality Improvement

CI = Conservation Index

CR = Consolidation &amp; Regionalization

a. Water Quality Improvement (WQI) -- The Authority shall award WQI points up to a maximum of 100 points from a combination of Surface Water Restoration and Surface Water Protection or a maximum of 100 points from Groundwater Protection as follows:

i. Surface Water Restoration

(1) 50 points if the project benefits a current Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(2) 40 points if the project benefits the development of a Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(3) 30 points if the project benefits a future Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(4) 20 points if the project indirectly addresses a Total Maximum Daily Load Implementation Plan.

(5) 10 bonus points if the project benefits a project funded by a Water Quality Improvement Grant from the Department.

ii. Surface Water Protection

(1) 50 points if the project benefits a waterbody identified by the Department as not supporting its designated use.

(2) 40 points if the project benefits a waterbody identified by the Department as in partial support of its designated use.

(3) 30 points if the project benefits a waterbody by the Department as in full support of its designated use.

(4) 10 bonus points to projects that address a regional or local watershed plan to benefit water quality.

iii. Groundwater Protection

(1) 100 points if the project benefits a wellhead protection area for a community water system well.

(2) 75 points if the project benefits groundwater not meeting aquifer water quality standards.

(3) 50 points if the project benefits groundwater meeting aquifer water quality standards.

b. Conservation Index (CI) -- The Authority shall award Conservation Index points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

i. 50 points if the project will generate Class A+ reclaimed water for direct reuse.

ii. 40 points if the project will generate Class A reclaimed water for direct reuse.

iii. 30 points if the project will generate Class B+ reclaimed water for direct reuse.

iv. 20 points if the project will generate Class B reclaimed water for direct reuse.

v. 10 points if the project will generate Class C reclaimed water for direct reuse.

vi. 0 points if the project will not generate reclaimed water for direct reuse.

c. Consolidation &amp; Regionalization (CR) -- The Authority shall award CR points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

i. 20 points if the applicant is consolidating the physical facilities of existing multiple facilities.

ii. 20 points if the applicant is extending service to existing areas currently served by another facility.

iii. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the operations of existing multiple facilities.

iv. 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the ownership of existing multiple facilities.

4. Local Fiscal Capacity (LFC) -- The Authority shall award LFC points up to a maximum of 100 points using the following formula:

LFC = MHI + UF + I. where:

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

MHI = Median Household Income

UF = User Fees

I = Indebtedness

a. Median Household Income (MHI) -- The Authority shall divide the MHI from the area served by the applicant by the state's MHI (Service Area MHI/State MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 40 points if the area's MHI is less than 40% of the State's MHI.

ii. 30 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60% of the State's MHI.

iii. 20 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80% of the State's MHI.

iv. 10 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 80% but less than 100% of the State's MHI.

v. 0 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 100% of the State's MHI.

b. User Fees (UF) -- The Authority shall divide the applicant's proposed residential user fees, rates, and charges by the service area's MHI (Proposed User Fees, Rates and Charges/Area MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 30 points if the rates are more than 1.5% of the area's MHI.

ii. 15 points if the rates are from 1% to 1.5% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the rates are less than 1% of the area's MHI.

c. Indebtedness (I) -- The Authority shall divide existing indebtedness and proposed indebtedness by the number of users (Indebtedness/Number of Users) and divide the result by the service area's MHI to award points as follows:

i. 30 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is more than 1% of the area's MHI.

ii. 15 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is from .5% to 1% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is less than .5% of the area's MHI.

d. The Authority may use the most recent United States census data to determine the applicant's and the state's median household income. If the Authority or the applicant determines that this data is insufficient, the applicant shall use a reliable and impartial entity to conduct an income survey of the applicant's service area. If the applicant's service area is included in more than one income area, the Authority shall use an average of income areas to define the service area's median household income.

B. The Authority shall rank tied scores by placing the project with the highest Local Fiscal Capacity points pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4) above all other tied projects.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Former Section R18-15-505 renumbered to R18-15-504; new Section R18-15-505 made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.5.506" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Grants">

Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Grants

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Grants based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance in accordance with R18-15-504(D) and (E).

C. The Board shall rank projects within the Fundable Range based on priority values obtained from the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance and the year the applicant requires funding. The Fundable Range addressed by this Section is limited to systems serving fewer than 10,001 people.

D. As a guide to award project technical assistance grants or consultant contributions, the Board may require applicants to contribute to fund total project costs as follows, based on ability to contribute:

1. 25% contribution towards total project costs if the project received 70 or more points for Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

2. 50% contribution towards total project costs if the project received fewer than 70 but at least 50 points for Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

3. 75% contribution towards total project costs if the project received fewer 50 but at least 30 points for Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4).

4. If the applicant receives fewer than 30 points for Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-505(A)(4), the applicant may still be eligible for a project technical assistance loan under R18-15-507.

5. An applicant's contribution can include cash contributions, in-kind contributions, and contributions financed by loans or debt from any source including a loan from the Authority. The Board may waive or modify the applicant's contribution for total project costs if the Board determines, at a public meeting, that the applicant is unable to fund the contribution in accordance with this subsection.

E. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

F. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance,

2. The project has received all technical assistance requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Section repealed; new Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.507" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Loans">

Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Loans

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Loans based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range at the same time and in the same manner as the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance in accordance with R18-15-504(D) and (E).

C. The Authority shall rank projects within the Fundable Range based on priority values obtained from the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance and the year the applicant requires funding.

D. The Authority shall only provide project technical assistance loans to applicants eligible under this Section.

E. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

F. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Priority List for Clean Water Project Technical Assistance,

2. The project has received all technical assistance requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Section repealed; new Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.508" level="4" title="Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List">

Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List

A. The Board shall adopt a Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List for the funding cycle described in the Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan. The Board shall not adopt a list for a funding cycle in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. If a Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List is required under subsection (A), the Authority shall rank the projects by priority points and the year the applicant requests project technical assistance.

C. An applicant seeking placement on the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List shall make a request for placement of one or more proposed projects on or before a date specified by the Authority. If requesting placement on the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List, an applicant shall submit an application specified by the Board.

D. The Authority shall prepare a draft Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List and shall hold at least one public meeting to receive comments on the list and make copies of the draft list available to the public at least seven days before the meeting date.

E. The Authority shall consider all comments given orally at the public meeting or submitted in writing before the close of the written comment period. The Authority shall establish a written comment period and shall publish the date upon which the comment period closes in the meeting notice. After the Authority summarizes the comments received and prepares responses, the Board shall adopt the final Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List.

F. Throughout the funding cycle, the Board shall make additions after the adoption of the final Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List if both of the following conditions are met:

1. The project scores a minimum of 50 points pursuant to R18-15-509(A)(1), and

2. The additions are made at a public meeting of the Board.

G. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board may make modifications to the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List based on changes to the existing conditions under R18-15-509(A)(1).

H. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting of the Board, the Board shall remove a project from the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The applicant has completed the technical assistance project,

2. The project is no longer an eligible project,

3. The applicant requests removal, or

4. The applicant is no longer an eligible applicant.

I. The Authority shall provide project technical assistance to eligible applicants for proposed projects in priority order according to the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List developed under this Section. If the Authority determines that an applicant will not be able to proceed with a project, the Board shall bypass that project. The Authority shall provide written notice to the applicant that the project has been bypassed. The Authority shall replace the bypassed project with the next project on the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List in rank order that is ready to accept technical assistance.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.509" level="4" title="Priority List Ranking Criteria for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance">

Priority List Ranking Criteria for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance

A. The Authority, through its Board, shall rank projects using priority values obtained from the following formula:

PV = EC + PB + LFC, where:

PV = Priority Value

EC = Existing Conditions

PB = Project Benefits

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

1. Existing Conditions (EC) -- The Authority shall award EC points up to a maximum of 200 points using the following formula:

EC = CC + PYF, where:

CC = Current Conditions

PYF = Prior Year Funding

a. Current Conditions (CC) -- The Authority shall award CC points up to a maximum of 100 points as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 80th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

ii. 80 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 60th percentile but less than the 80th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

iii. 60 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 40th percentile but less than the 60th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

iv. 40 points if the applicant's system is at or above the 20th percentile but less than the 40th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

v. 20 points if the applicant's system is less than the 20th percentile of the community water systems on the Department's Master Priority List.

vi. 0 points if the applicant's system is not listed on the Department's Master Priority List.

b. Prior Year Funding (PYF) -- The Authority shall award PYF points up to a maximum of 100 points with only 1 set of points awarded as follows:

i. 100 points if the applicant requests project technical assistance to design a project that received pre-design project technical assistance from the Authority in a previous funding cycle.

ii. 50 points if the applicant requests additional technical assistance to offset actual costs or justified overruns.

2. Project Benefits (PB) -- The Authority shall award PB points up to a maximum of 200 as follows:

a. For requests for pre-design project technical assistance, the Authority shall award points as follows:

i. 200 points if the project receives a combined score of 160 to 200 points for Current Conditions under R18-15-509(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

ii. 150 points if the project receives a combined score of 120 to 159 points for Current Conditions under to R18-15-509(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

iii. 100 points if the project receives a combined score of 80 to 119 points for Current Conditions under R18-15-509(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

iv. 50 points if the project receives a combined score of 40 to 79 points for Current Conditions under R18-15-509(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

v. 0 points if the project receives a combined score of fewer than 40 points for Current Conditions under R18-15-509(A)(1) and Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

b. For requests for design project technical assistance, the Authority shall award points as follows:

PB = WSI + CR, where:

WSI = Water System Improvement

CR = Consolidation &amp; Regionalization

i. Water System Improvement (WSI) -- The Authority shall award WSI points up to a maximum of 150 points from the following categories:

(1) A maximum of 100 points if the applicant's proposed project address deficiencies identified by the Department on the Department's Master Priority List.

(2) 25 points if the applicant submitted a complete Capacity Development Plan to the Department.

(3) 25 points if the proposed project includes installation of meters.

ii. Consolidation &amp; Regionalization (CR) -- The Authority shall award CR points up to a maximum of 50 points as follows:

(1) 20 points if the applicant is consolidating the physical facilities of existing multiple facilities.

(2) 20 points if the applicant is extending service to existing areas currently served by another facility.

(3) 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the operations of existing multiple facilities.

(4) 5 points if the applicant is consolidating the ownership of existing multiple facilities.

3. Local Fiscal Capacity (LFC) -- The Authority shall award LFC points up to a maximum of 100 points using the following formula:

LFC = MHI + UF + I, where:

LFC = Local Fiscal Capacity

MHI = Median Household Income

UF = User Fees

I = Indebtedness

a. Median Household Income (MHI) - The Authority shall divide the MHI from the area served by the applicant by the state's MHI (Service Area MHI/State MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 40 points if the area's MHI is less than 40% of the State's MHI.

ii. 30 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60% of the State's MHI.

iii. 20 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80% of the State's MHI.

iv. 10 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 80% but less than 100% of the State's MHI.

v. 0 points if the area's MHI is greater than or equal to 100% of the State's MHI.

b. User Fees (UF) -- The Authority shall divide the applicant's proposed residential user fees, rates, and charges by the service area's MHI (Proposed User Fees, Rates and Charges/Area MHI) to award points as follows:

i. 30 points if the rates are more than 1.5% of the area's MHI.

ii. 15 points if the rates are from 1% to 1.5% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the rates are less than 1% of the area's MHI.

c. Indebtedness (I) -- The Authority shall divide existing indebtedness and proposed indebtedness by the number of users (Indebtedness/Number of Users) and divide the result by the service area's MHI to award points as follows:

i. 30 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is more than 1% of the area's MHI.

ii. 15 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is from .5% to 1% of the area's MHI.

iii. 0 points if the existing and proposed indebtedness is less than .5% of the area's MHI.

d. The Authority may use the most recent United States census data to determine the applicant's and the state's median household income. If the Authority or the applicant determines that this data is insufficient, the applicant shall use a reliable and impartial entity to conduct an income survey of the applicant's service area. If the applicant's service area is included in more than one income area, the Authority shall use an average of income areas to define the service area's median household income.

B. The Authority shall rank tied scores by placing the project with the highest Local Fiscal Capacity points under R18-15-509(A)(3) above all other tied projects.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.510" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Grants">

Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Grants

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Grants based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range at the same time and in the same manner as the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List in accordance with R18-15-508(D) and (E).

C. The Authority shall rank projects within the Fundable Range based on priority values obtained from the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List and the year the applicant requires funding. The Fundable Range addressed by the section shall be limited to systems fewer than 10,001 people.

D. As a guide to award project technical assistance grants or consultant contributions, the Board may require applicants to contribute to fund total project costs as follows, based on ability to contribute:

1. 25% contribution towards total project costs if the project received 70 or more points for Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

2. 50% contribution towards total project costs if the project received fewer than 70 but at least 50 points for Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

3. 75% contribution towards total project costs if the project received fewer than 50 but at least 30 points for Local Fiscal Capacity under R18-15-509(A)(3).

4. If the applicant receives fewer than 30 points for Local Fiscal Capacity pursuant to R18-15-509(A)(3), the applicant may still be eligible for a project technical assistance loan under R18-15-511.

5. An applicant's contribution can include cash contributions, in-kind contributions, and contributions financed by loans or debt from any source including a loan from the Authority. The Board may waive or modify the applicant's contribution for total project costs if the Board determines, at a public meeting, that the applicant is unable to fund the contribution in accordance with this subsection.

E. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

F. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List,

2. The project has received all technical assistance requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.511" level="4" title="Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Loans">

Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Loans

A. The Board shall adopt a Fundable Range for Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Loans based on projects ranked on the Priority List. The Board shall not adopt a new Fundable Range for funding cycles in which funds are not adequate to assist any projects.

B. The Authority shall prepare a draft and a final Fundable Range at the same time and in the same manner as the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List in accordance with R18-15-508(D) and (E).

C. The Authority shall rank projects within the Fundable Range based on priority values obtained from the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List and the year the applicant requires funding.

D. The Authority shall provide only project technical assistance loans to applicants eligible under this Section.

E. The Board shall make additions to the Fundable Range if each of the following conditions are met:

1. The project is on the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List,

2. Funds are available to cover the cost of the project and to honor funding commitments made to other projects, and

3. The additions are made by the Board at a public meeting.

F. After an opportunity for public comment at a public meeting, the Board shall remove a project from the Fundable Range under one or more of the following circumstances:

1. The project has been removed from the Drinking Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List,

2. The project has received all technical assistance requested by the applicant, or

3. The applicant fails to proceed with the project.

Historical Note

New Section made by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 6" level="3" title="HARDSHIP GRANT FUND">

HARDSHIP GRANT FUND

<regElement name="R18.15.601" level="4" title="Types of Assistance Available">

Types of Assistance Available

A. The Authority may provide hardship grants for any of the following purposes:

1. In accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1267(D)(1), financial assistance in the form of grants to political subdivisions and Indian tribes to design, plan, acquire, construct, or improve wastewater collection and treatment facilities.

2. In accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-1267(D)(2), technical assistance related to the operation and maintenance of wastewater systems.

B. The Authority shall describe projects and proposed assistance in the Clean Water Revolving Fund Intended Use Plan developed under R18-15-203 or in the Technical Assistance Intended Use Plan developed under R18-15-501.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.602" level="4" title="Eligibility Requirements for Hardship Grant Financial Assistance">

Eligibility Requirements for Hardship Grant Financial Assistance

A. To be eligible to receive financial assistance an applicant shall propose a project to design, plan, acquire, construct, or improve wastewater collection and treatment facilities owned by political subdivisions or Indian tribes.

B. An applicant eligible under subsection (A) shall also meet all of the following requirements before receiving financial assistance:

1. The applicant has applied for financial assistance in accordance with R18-15-102(A), (B), and (E).

2. The project is on the Clean Water Revolving Fund Priority List developed under Article 2 of this Chapter or the project is on the Clean Water Project Technical Assistance Priority List developed under Article 5 of this Chapter.

3. The applicant is a community in a rural area.

4. The applicant is a community of more than a single household but no more than 3,000 persons as measured by the most recent United States decennial census.

5. The applicant is a community that lacks centralized wastewater treatment or collection systems or needs improvements to wastewater treatment systems.

6. On the date the applicant applies for assistance, the per capita annual income of the community's residents does not exceed 80% of national per capita income.

7. On the date the applicant applies for assistance, the community's local unemployment rate exceeds by one percentage point or more the most recently reported average yearly national unemployment rate.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="R18.15.603" level="4" title="Hardship Grant Financial Assistance Awards">

Hardship Grant Financial Assistance Awards

A. The Board shall award financial or technical assistance to eligible applicants for proposed projects in priority order according to the priority lists developed under Articles 2 and 5 of this Chapter. If the Authority determines that an eligible applicant will not be able to proceed with a project, the Board shall bypass that project. The Authority shall provide written notice to the applicant that the project has been bypassed. The Authority shall replace the bypassed project with the next eligible applicant and eligible project pursuant to priority lists developed under Articles 2 and 5 of this Chapter.

B. The Board shall award financial or technical assistance to eligible applicants based on the Local Fiscal Capacity points assigned to an applicant under R18-15-205(A)(3) or R18-15-505(A)(4) and an applicant's ability to generate sufficient revenues to pay debt service.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 7" level="3" title="INTEREST RATE SETTING AND FORGIVABLE PRINCIPAL">

INTEREST RATE SETTING AND FORGIVABLE PRINCIPAL

<regElement name="R18.15.701" level="4" title="Interest Rate Setting and Forgivable Principal">

Interest Rate Setting and Forgivable Principal

A. The Authority shall prescribe the rate of interest, including interest rates as low as 0% on Authority loans, bond purchase agreements, and linked deposit guarantees based on the Local Fiscal Capacity points assigned to an applicant under R18-15-205(A)(3) or R18-15-305(A)(3), and an applicant's ability to generate sufficient revenues to pay debt service.

B. The Authority may forgive principal on Authority loans, bond purchase agreements, and linked deposit guarantees made to local units of government to plan, acquire, construct, or improve drinking water facilities.

C. In accordance with subsection (B) of this Section, the Authority may forgive principal based on the Local Fiscal Capacity points assigned to an applicant under R18-15-305(A)(3), and an applicant's ability to generate sufficient revenues to pay debt service.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by final rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2116, effective May 16, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by final rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 5956, effective December 4, 2001 (Supp. 01-4).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 16" level="2" title="WATER QUALITY ASSURANCE REVOLVING FUND PROGRAM">

WATER QUALITY ASSURANCE REVOLVING FUND PROGRAM

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="RESERVED">

RESERVED

<regElement name="ARTICLE 2" level="3" title="PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATIONS AND SITE SCORING">

PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATIONS AND SITE SCORING

<regElement name="R18.16.201" level="4" title="Preliminary Investigations">

Preliminary Investigations

A. Based on information of a possible release or threatened release of a hazardous substance, the Department may conduct a preliminary investigation to obtain additional information necessary to determine the potential risk to public health, welfare, and the environment in order to score the site and include it on the registry established under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(D).

B. Before conducting a preliminary investigation, the Department shall consider whether the possible release or threatened release of a hazardous substance:

1. Is being addressed by or should be referred to another applicable program administered by the Department or another federal, state or local governmental agency with jurisdiction over the matter; or

2. Is being adequately addressed through voluntary action.

C. At any time before or during a preliminary investigation, if the Department determines that a possible release or threatened release of a hazardous substance is being adequately addressed by another program or agency or voluntarily, the Department may suspend or terminate a preliminary investigation under this Section.

D. A preliminary investigation is a screening level investigation based primarily upon existing information. The Department may collect existing information regarding a release or threatened release of a hazardous substance from any appropriate source, including Department programs, governmental agencies, water providers, complainants, and owners and operators of facilities where the release may have occurred. When existing information, such as soil or water sampling data, cannot be validated, or when sufficient data does not exist, additional data may be collected as necessary.

E. The Department shall terminate the preliminary investigation prior to completion if:

1. The Department determines that the release of a hazardous substance has not occurred and is not likely to occur; or

2. The Department determines:

a. Based on valid sampling data, that soil contaminated by a release of a hazardous substance meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2; and

b. Based on valid sampling data, that the release or a threatened release of a hazardous substance does not and will not result in an exceedance of water quality standards, or if there is no water quality standard, a risk level approved by the Department to protect public health, welfare, and the environment.

F. The Department shall notify affected water providers of the termination of a preliminary investigation under R18-16-201(E).

G. If the Department does not terminate or suspend a preliminary investigation under subsections (C) or (E), the Department shall proceed with the preliminary investigation by collecting any additional information necessary to score a potential site using the eligibility and evaluation site scoring model under R18-16-202. The Department shall notify affected water providers and affected local governments of the initiation of the preliminary investigation. A work plan shall be developed and implemented to collect additional information and shall include the following information:

1. The location and description of the potential site, including a map.

2. A list of hazardous substances known or suspected to have been released.

3. A proposal to search available records to determine:

a. The historic and current uses of facilities within the potential site.

b. The physical and environmental conditions within the potential site.

c. Any previous environmental investigations or regulatory involvement by federal, state, or local authorities.

4. A proposal to obtain information from any affected water providers.

H. If the Department determines that additional information is necessary to score a potential site using the eligibility and evaluation site scoring model under R18-16-202, the work plan shall be supplemented with the following information:

1. A conceptual site model to determine:

a. Potential sources of contamination.

b. Potential exposure pathways.

c. Potential human, aquatic, and terrestrial receptors.

2. If sampling is necessary, the work plan shall contain the following information:

a. The objectives of the sampling.

b. A quality assurance project plan.

c. A sampling and analysis plan to verify whether a suspected release has occurred, and if the release has occurred, to adequately characterize the release to score the site using the eligibility and evaluation site scoring model.

d. A health and safety plan consistent with 29 CFR. 1910.120.

I. Following completion of the preliminary investigation, a preliminary investigation report shall be prepared. The report shall contain the following information:

1. Information gathered and reviewed under subsection (G), including a summary of the information with references to relevant reports.

2. If applicable, the conceptual site model developed under subsection (H).

3. If sampling was conducted under subsection (H):

a. A description of the sampling activities.

b. Analytical results including a summary of the results with references to relevant reports.

c. A map of sample locations.

d. Data quality information including a summary with references to relevant reports.

J. The Department shall approve the preliminary investigation report prepared under subsection (I) if it contains sufficient valid information to score the site using the eligibility and evaluation site scoring model under R18-16-202 or to make a determination that no further investigation or action is needed under subsection (K).

K. Based on a review of the preliminary investigation report prepared under subsection (I), the Department shall:

1. Determine that no further investigation or action is needed using the criteria in subsection (E); or

2. Prepare a draft site registry report under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(B).

L. The Department may allow any person to conduct any part of the preliminary investigation by written agreement. A person requesting to conduct all or any part of a preliminary investigation shall submit a written request to the Department that includes the following information:

1. The name and address of the person making the request and the nature of the relationship of the person to the site.

2. The portion of the preliminary investigation the person wants to conduct.

3. A work plan to conduct the preliminary investigation in accordance with subsection (G).

4. A schedule for completion of the activities specified in the work plan.

5. If requested by the Department, information regarding the financial capability of the person to conduct the work plan.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.202" level="4" title="Site Scoring">

Site Scoring

In order to score a site or portion of a site, the Department shall use the eligibility and evaluation site scoring model established by the Department on October 3, 1996. The eligibility and evaluation site scoring model as established on October 3, 1996, is incorporated by reference. This incorporation by reference does not include any later amendments or editions. A copy of the incorporated material is available for inspection and reproduction at the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, 3033 North Central Avenue, Phoenix, Arizona 85012-2809 and the Office of the Secretary of State. A copy of the incorporated material can be obtained from the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality, 3033 North Central Avenue, Phoenix, Arizona 85012-2809.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 3" level="3" title="PUBLIC INFORMATION">

PUBLIC INFORMATION

<regElement name="R18.16.301" level="4" title="Public Notification and Opportunities for Public Comment">

Public Notification and Opportunities for Public Comment

A. If notification by publication in a newspaper is required by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 or by any community involvement plan created under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 does not specify the frequency of the notification, the Department or person publishing notice shall publish notice according to the following minimum requirements:

1. One day in a daily newspaper of general circulation in the county where the site is located; or

2. If other than a daily newspaper, two days in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the site is located.

B. If notification by direct mail is required by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 or by any community involvement plan created under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 does not specify the form of the mailing, the Department or person providing the notification shall provide the notification according to the following requirements:

1. By bulk or first-class mailing; or

2. If the bulk or first-class mailing would cause unreasonable delay in receiving time-sensitive materials, the Department or person shall provide the notification in a manner sufficient to timely reach those who may be impacted.

C. If an opportunity for public comment is required by A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 or by any community involvement plan under &#167; A.R.S. 49-287.03 and A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 does not specify the duration during which the public may comment, the Department or person providing the opportunity for public comment shall provide at least 30 calendar days for public comment.

D. The requirements of this Section shall not prevent or delay a timely remedial action that the Director has determined is necessary to address the release or threat of release of a hazardous substance that may present an immediate danger to public health, welfare, or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.302" level="4" title="Location of Information Repositories">

Location of Information Repositories

Public information repositories required or authorized under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 shall be located in at least one of the following areas:

1. An office of the Department.

2. A public or semi-public facility to which the public has reasonable access that is substantially equivalent to the access to the public information repository that is provided by the Department.

3. A private facility to which the public has reasonable access that is substantially equivalent to the access to the public information repository that is provided by the Department.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 4" level="3" title="REMEDY SELECTION">

REMEDY SELECTION

<regElement name="R18.16.401" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

The following definitions shall apply in this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Alternative remedy" means a combination of remedial strategies and remedial measures different from the reference remedy that is capable of achieving remedial objectives. The alternative remedies are compared with the reference remedy for purposes of selecting a proposed remedy at the conclusion of the feasibility study.

"Comparison criteria" means risk, cost, benefit, and practicability, as those terms are described in R18-16-407(H)(3).

"Community involvement area" has the same meaning as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281(3).

"Contaminant of concern" means a hazardous substance that results from a release and that has been identified by the Department as the subject of remedial action at a site.

"Hazardous substances" has the same meaning as in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281(8).

"Nonrecoverable costs" has the same meaning as in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281(9).

"Proposed remedy" means a combination of remedial strategies and remedial measures which, as a whole, is capable of achieving remedial objectives that is identified at the conclusion of a feasibility study and is incorporated in the proposed remedial action plan.

"Reference remedy" means a combination of remedial strategies and remedial measures which, as a whole, is capable of achieving remedial objectives. The reference remedy is compared with the alternative remedies for purposes of selecting a proposed remedy at the conclusion of the feasibility study.

"Remedial measure" means a specific action taken in conjunction with remedial strategies as part of the remedy to achieve one or more of the remedial objectives. For example, remedial measures may include well replacement, well modification, water treatment, provision of replacement water supplies, and engineering controls.

"Remedial objective" means the goal, as established through the process in R18-16-406, to be achieved by a remedy selected under this Article. Remedial objectives include the following elements:

Protecting against the loss or impairment of identified uses of land and waters of the state;

Restoring, replacing, or otherwise providing for identified uses of land and waters of the state;

Time-frames when action is needed to protect against or provide for the impairment or loss of the use; and

The projected duration of the action needed to protect or provide for the use.

"Remedial strategy" means one or a combination of the six general approaches described in R18-16-407(F) which may be employed in conjunction with remedial measures as part of the remedy to achieve the remedial objectives.

"Remedy" has the same meaning as in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281(13).

"Site-specific human health risk assessment" means a scientific evaluation of the probability of an adverse effect to human health from exposure to specific types and concentrations of contaminants at or from a site. A site-specific human health risk assessment contains four components: identification of potential contaminants; an exposure assessment; a toxicity assessment; and a risk characterization.

"Site registry" or "registry" means the registry of scored sites maintained by the Department under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01(D).

"Vadose zone" has the same meaning as in A.R.S. &#167; 49-201(39).

"Water provider" means the owner or operator of a public water system, an agricultural improvement district, or an irrigation and water conservation district.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.402" level="4" title="Applicability">

Applicability

A. This Article applies to sites on the site registry and as otherwise made applicable by law.

B. This Article applies only to remedial actions as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281. Nothing in this Article is intended to require a remedial action, including a remedy or early response action, to provide for or cover any costs that a property owner, a well owner, or water provider would incur if the release of hazardous substances that is the subject of the remedial action had not affected the property or water supply of the property owner, well owner or water provider. A property owner, well owner or water provider shall not be required to provide reimbursement for coincidental benefits resulting from a remedial action otherwise necessary and appropriate to address a release or threatened release of a hazardous substance. Nothing in this Article shall be interpreted to require remedial action to address a land use that is impaired by properties of materials located on or under that land other than the current or potential exposure to hazardous substances contained in that material.

C. For purposes of this Section, "transition site" means a site that is on the site registry where some remedial action has occurred prior to the effective date of this Article.

D. Any person who has performed any remedial action prior to the effective date of this Article at a transition site may submit a written request for the Department's approval of the remedial action under R18-16-413 if the remedial action has not been approved by the Department prior to the effective date of this Article. The request shall include a description of the remedial action, a demonstration that the work is reasonable and necessary and meets the applicable purposes of this Article, and copies of all documentation of the remedial action for which approval is requested. The Department shall approve:

1. Remedial investigation work performed prior to the effective date of this Article if the work meets the applicable purposes stated in R18-16-406(A),

2. Feasibility study work performed prior to the effective date of this Article if the work meets the purposes stated in R18-16-407(A), and

3. Early response action work performed prior to the effective date of this Article if the work meets the purposes stated in R18-16-405(A).

E. Remedial action work approved by the Department prior to the effective date of this Article shall be deemed approved for purposes of this Article. Remedial action work conducted under a work plan approved by the Department prior to the effective date of this Article shall be evaluated for approval by the Department under the terms of the approved work plan.

F. Notwithstanding subsections (D) and (E), neither a remedial investigation nor a feasibility study shall be considered complete under this Article until the information described in R18-16-406(D) is collected, a draft remedial investigation report is prepared and distributed under R18-16-406(F), and remedial objectives are selected under R18-16-406(I) and reported under R18-16-406(J). Thereafter, the procedures set forth in R18-16-407 through R18-16-412 shall apply to the selection of a remedy based upon the remedial investigation or feasibility study. To the extent that any of the alternative remedies discussed in a feasibility study that is substantially complete before the effective date of this Article will not achieve the remedial objectives, the feasibility study shall be modified so that the alternative remedies achieve remedial objectives. Additional evaluation of alternative remedies, if necessary, shall be conducted in accordance with R18-16-407 and reported in a supplemental report before preparation of a final feasibility study report under R18-16-407(I).

G. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Article, this Article shall not apply to certain remedial action plans, written agreements, and court decrees or judgements approved, made or entered prior to the effective date of this Article as follows:

1. If prior to the effective date of this Article, the Department has approved a remedial action plan or entered into a written agreement for work under Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5, Arizona Revised Statutes, that includes the implementation of a remedy or the substantial equivalent of a remedy for a site or a portion of a site, the terms and conditions of the Department's approval or agreement, and not this Article, shall govern work within the scope of the approved remedial action plan or agreement and any modification thereto.

2. The terms and conditions of any court decree or judgement entered prior to the effective date of this Article, and not this Article, shall govern the work that is within the scope of the court decree and any modification thereto. If the work required by the court decree or judgement does not include the implementation of a remedy or the substantial equivalent of a remedy at a site or a portion of a site, then the selection of a remedy for the site or portion of the site shall be under this Article, and this Article may require additional remedial actions before a remedy can be selected, but a party to the consent decree shall not be required to conduct or pay for the additional remedial actions if the liability of the party is resolved by the court decree.

3. If an approval, agreement, court decree or judgement subject to subsection (G)(1) or (2) addresses only a portion of a site on the site registry and includes the implementation of a remedy or the substantial equivalent of a remedy for that portion of the site, then the work covered by the approval, agreement or decree shall be included as part of the remedial action plan and the record of decision selecting a remedy under this Article for the remainder of the site if agreed to by the parties to the approval, agreement, court decree or judgement.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.403" level="4" title="Scope of Work, Fact Sheet, Outline of the Community Involvement Plan, and Notification of Availability">

Scope of Work, Fact Sheet, Outline of the Community Involvement Plan, and Notification of Availability

A. Unless the Department determines that the necessary remedy at a site can be completed within 180 calendar days, the Department shall prepare a scope of work for the remedial investigation and feasibility study, a fact sheet, and an outline of a community involvement plan for the site before the Department conducts a remedial investigation and feasibility study under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03.

B. The scope of work for a remedial investigation shall generally describe the extent of the remedial investigation based upon site-specific conditions and information obtained from the preliminary investigation. The scope of work for a remedial investigation shall provide for the preparation of the following, as applicable:

1. Characterization of soil and vadose zone contamination, including identification of sources;

2. Characterization of groundwater contamination, including identification of sources;

3. Characterization of surface water contamination, including identification of sources;

4. Identification of actual and potential human and ecological receptors;

5. Identification of current and reasonably foreseeable uses of waters of the state that have been or are threatened to be impaired;

6. Identification of current and reasonably foreseeable land uses that have been or are threatened to be impaired;

7. Assessment of current risk to public health;

8. Assessment of ecological risk;

C. The scope of work for a feasibility study shall generally describe the process for conducting the feasibility study as prescribed in R18-16-407, and may specify additional work to be performed taking into account the information gathered in the remedial investigation.

D. The fact sheet shall include, at a minimum, all of the following:

1. A brief history of the site;

2. A general description of the results of the preliminary investigation, including the known extent of contamination;

3. The site's score determined under R18-16-202;

4. General information regarding the potential risk of and routes of exposure to the contaminants at the site; and

5. The Department personnel to be contacted for further information regarding the site.

E. The outline of a community involvement plan shall generally describe the activities which will be included in the community involvement plan as required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-289.03 and R18-16-404(C).

F. The Department shall provide written notice of the availability of the scope of work, the fact sheet, and the outline of the community involvement plan as required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(C) to each person who, according to information available to the Department, may be liable for remedial actions. The notice shall state that any person, by written agreement with the Department may develop and implement a remedial investigation work plan or a feasibility study work plan for a site or a portion of a site under R18-16-406 or R18-16-407. The notice shall be provided in accordance with R18-16-301.

G. The Department shall publish the newspaper notice required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(C) and shall provide written notice by mail or other delivery to residents, owners or operators of facilities being investigated, commercial occupants, affected water providers and owners of known wells within the community involvement area of the availability of the scope of work, the fact sheet, and the outline of the community involvement plan. These notices shall comply with R18-16-301. These notices shall also provide an opportunity for a public meeting. If the remedial investigation is being performed within one year of the scoring of the site under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01, the notices required by this Section may be combined with the notice required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-289.02.

H. Before implementing a work plan for a remedial investigation or feasibility study, the Department shall prepare a responsiveness summary addressing any public comments on the scope of work as required under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(D).

I. Community involvement under this Article shall comply with Article 3 of this Chapter, except that the community involvement plan may provide for additional requirements.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.404" level="4" title="Community Involvement Requirements">

Community Involvement Requirements

A. The Department or any person who conducts remedial action work at a site on the registry shall conduct community involvement activities in accordance with the requirements of this Section.

B. If the Department has prepared a community involvement plan under subsection (C) or adopted a plan under subsection (D)(1), the Department or any person conducting remedial action work at a site on the registry shall conduct community involvement activities at the site according to the community involvement plan. If the Department has issued a notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 for a site, a person may conduct community involvement activities only under a written agreement with the Department. However, a person who submits a notice of remediation under R18-16-415(A) may conduct community involvement activities for the soil remediation described in the notice according to the community involvement plan prepared or adopted by the Department for the site without a written agreement.

C. Unless the Department determines that the necessary remedy at a site can be completed within 180 calendar days, the Department shall prepare and implement a community involvement plan prior to initiating or approving a work plan to implement the remedial investigation or a feasibility study under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03. The community involvement plan shall:

1. Be updated annually and shall provide information, if applicable, regarding the establishment of a selection committee and community advisory board. The plan also shall provide for the following required activities:

a. Notification to interested persons of the availability of the work plan developed under R18-16-406(B) to implement the remedial investigation and the solicitation of information from interested persons under R18-16-406(D) regarding the current and reasonably foreseeable uses of the land and waters of the state.

b. Notice to the public of the opportunity to comment on the draft remedial investigation report developed under R18-16-406(F) and public meetings to establish remedial objectives under R18-16-406(I).

c. Notice to the public of the opportunity to comment on remedial objectives proposed under R18-16-406(I)(5) and the availability of the final report prepared by the Department under R18-16-406(J).

d. Notification to interested persons of the availability of the work plan developed under R18-16-407(B) to implement the feasibility study.

e. Notice to the public and notification to interested persons of the availability of the proposed remedial action plan prepared under R18-16-408(A) and of the opportunity to comment on the proposed remedial action plan.

f. Notice to the public of the availability of the record of decision and responsiveness summary prepared by the Department under R18-16-410.

g. Notice to the public and notification to interested persons of availability of and opportunity to comment on the operation and maintenance plan prepared under R18-16-411(E).

h. Notice to the public and notification to interested persons of a request for approval of work under R18-16-413.

i. Newsletters to be distributed to residents and interested persons regarding the status of the remedial action and other pertinent information.

j. Notice within the community involvement area regarding public meetings to provide and discuss information regarding sites on the registry.

k. The location of and types of information contained in a public document repository.

l. Notice to the public and notification to interested persons of a request for a waiver under A.R.S. &#167; 49-290.

m. Notice to the public of field work that is conducted to remove contaminants of concern or that may result in noise, light, odor, dust or other adverse impacts off of the site.

n. Notice to the public of a determination under R18-16-416(B).

o. Notice to the public of community advisory board meetings.

2. Describe the following procedures for conducting each of the required activities listed in subsection (C)(1).

a. Methods of notice and notification.

b. Identification of a spokesperson to inform the public and act as a liaison.

c. The means to identify interested persons to receive notices.

d. Coordination of community involvement activities with the Department for community involvement conducted by persons other than the Department.

3. In determining how the community involvement activities are to be implemented, the Department shall consider the following:

a. A community profile.

b. Assessment of community concerns and issues through community interviews, public comment, and other means.

c. Public health and environmental impacts.

D. If the Department has not provided notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(C) and has not prepared a community involvement plan under subsection (C) or adopted a plan under subsection (D)(1), a person who proposes to conduct remedial action work at a site on the registry shall either:

1. Prepare a community involvement plan for the site according to the requirements set forth in subsection (C) and submit a request under R18-16-413 for the Department to approve the plan and adopt it as the community involvement plan for the site. The Department may approve and adopt a community involvement plan if the plan complies with the requirements of subsection (C).

2. Conduct community involvement activities appropriate to the scope and schedule of the work performed including, as applicable, all of the following:

a. For field work conducted to remove contaminants of concern or that may result in noise, light, odor, dust and other adverse impacts off of the site, provide general public notice prior to conducting the work. The general public notice may be in the form of signage, direct mailing, door hangings, news articles, or any other form of notice that is distributed in an manner sufficient to reach those who may be impacted. The general public notice shall provide a general description of the field work and anticipated adverse impacts, and the name and telephone number of a person who may be contacted for information regarding the field work.

b. Prior to conducting a remedial action that will take more than 180 calendar days to complete, provide general notice regarding the nature of the action and establish a document repository accessible to the public where information regarding the site and the remedial action is available for review. The general notice may be in the form of fact sheets, newsletters, or news articles distributed by direct mailings, door hangings or any other method of distribution sufficient to reach or be accessible to local government agencies, persons within the community involvement area for the site and other persons who have requested information regarding the site. Notice to affected water providers shall be by direct mail. The general notice shall describe the nature and progress of the remedial action, the location of the repository, and provide the name and telephone number of a person who may be contacted for information regarding the remedial action. The document repository shall be accessible during normal business hours and shall contain all documents and information required to be prepared or maintained by this Article and any other documents and information deemed appropriate by the person conducting the work. An updated general notice shall be provided at least once per year while the remedial action is being conducted.

c. Comply with the process for establishing remedial objectives under R18-16-406(F) through R18-16-406(J).

d. Provide notice of the availability of the proposed remedial action plan prepared under R18-16-408 and convene a public meeting prior to the close of the public comment period to provide information concerning the proposed remedial action plan.

E. Copies of notices and notifications required under this Section shall be provided to the Department five days before publication, mailing, posting, or other distribution.

F. Community involvement under this Article shall comply with Article 3 of this Chapter, except that the community involvement plan may provide for additional requirements.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.405" level="4" title="Early Response Actions">

Early Response Actions

A. The Department or any person may perform an early response action if the action is initiated prior to selection of a remedy at a site under R18-16-410 and is necessary to:

1. Address current risk to public health, welfare, and the environment;

2. Protect or provide a supply of water;

3. Address sources of contamination; or

4. Control or contain contamination where such actions are expected to reduce the scope or cost of the remedy needed at the site.

B. The method or technology used to implement the early response action shall be selected based upon best engineering, geological, or hydrogeological judgment following engineering, geological, or hydrogeological standards of practice, considering the following information:

1. Best available information characterizing the site;

2. Best available scientific information concerning available remedial methods and technologies; and

3. Best available information regarding whether the technology or method could increase the scope or costs of possible remedies for the site or result in increased risk to public health or welfare or the environment.

C. A written rationale shall be prepared for each early response action explaining how the early response action will achieve the applicable goals in subsection (A) and how the early response action is consistent with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06(A). The written rationale shall identify the information used to select the early response action as provided in subsection (B), how that information was considered, and how the selected method or technology was selected. Performance of a remedial investigation or feasibility study shall not be required to select or conduct an early response action.

D. A work plan shall be prepared for each early response action. Each work plan shall include:

1. A description of work to be done, a description of known site conditions, and a plan for conducting the work;

2. A description of community involvement activities for the early response action under R18-16-404; and

3. A schedule.

E. If immediate action is necessary to address a current risk to public health or the environment, to protect a source of water, or to provide a supply of water, the work plan and written rationale may be prepared and the community involvement activities may be conducted after commencement of the early response action.

F. Approval of an early response action under this Section does not constitute approval of the remedy for the site. The remedy for a site where an early response action is conducted shall be selected in accordance with R18-16-406 through R18-16-410. An early response action may be addressed, incorporated and modified as needed in the remedy selected under R18-16-410.

G. After the Department has issued notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 for a site or a portion of a site, a person conducting an early response action at a site or portion of a site shall notify the Department, in writing, of the early response action. The notice shall contain a brief description of the early response action and shall be given at least 15 calendar days before the early response action is commenced, or as soon thereafter as practicable depending upon the exigencies of the circumstances. If the early response action has commenced before the Department issues notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03, written notice of the early response action shall be given within 15 calendar days after the Department's notice is given. After notice of a proposed remedial action plan has been given under R18-16-408(C), an early response action may be initiated only after the Department has approved the early response action.

H. Any person may submit a request to the Department under R18-16-413 to approve an early response action or a work plan for an early response action. The request shall include the work plan and the written rationale for the early response action. The Department shall approve the work plan or early response action if it complies with the following:

1. The requirements of this Section and A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06(A);

2. Community involvement activities under R18-16-404;

3. The work plan provides for modifications to address unknown or changed conditions; and

4. Any applicable requirements of R18-16-411 and R18-16-412.

I. In considering whether an early response action is necessary to protect or provide a supply of water because a well is threatened by contamination, a well located in the area within 1/4 mile upgradient, 1/2 mile cross-gradient and 1 mile downgradient of the areal extent of contamination at the site shall be presumed to be threatened by the contamination. This presumption may be rebutted by evidence of local hydrology, geology, or geochemistry or by available information regarding the capture zone or rate of flow. In considering whether wells a greater distance from the areal extent of contamination are threatened, any evidence regarding local hydrology, geology, geochemistry, zone of capture, or rate of flow may be considered.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.406" level="4" title="Remedial Investigations">

Remedial Investigations

A. The remedial investigation for a site or portion of a site shall:

1. Establish the nature and extent of the contamination and the sources thereof,

2. Identify current and potential impacts to public health, welfare, and the environment,

3. Identify current and reasonably foreseeable uses of land and waters of the state, and

4. Obtain and evaluate any other information necessary for identification and comparison of alternative remedial actions.

B. The Department or any person may perform all or any portion of a remedial investigation, except that once the Department has issued a notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 for a site, a person may perform such work only under a written agreement with the Department. A work plan shall be developed and implemented for all or any portion of a remedial investigation for a site or a portion of the site, as follows:

1. The work plan shall demonstrate that the work performed will meet the requirements of subsections (C) and (D) and that the work will be performed in accordance with guidance documents issued by the Department or standards or other guidance documents that are commonly accepted in the scientific community. Standards or guidance documents are considered to be commonly accepted in the scientific community if they are published in peer-reviewed literature such as a professional journal or publication of standards of general circulation, and if there is general consensus within the scientific community about the guidance document or standard.

2. Each work plan shall include the following elements:

a. A description of the work, including any community involvement activities to satisfy any applicable requirements of R18-16-403 or R18-16-404, a statement of justification for the work, and a plan for conducting the work;

b. A quality assurance project plan;

c. A site location map;

d. A schedule;

e. A health and safety plan consistent with 29 CFR 1910.120; and

f. A sampling and analysis plan.

3. A work plan may be modified as work proceeds to address unknown or changed conditions or access problems.

4. Any person proposing to implement a work plan for all or a portion of a remedial investigation shall, before implementing the work plan, notify the Department in writing of the name and address of the working party and a general description of the work being performed. This notice is for the Department's information only and receipt of the notice shall not constitute approval of the work plan. A person seeking approval of a work plan by the Department shall submit a written request under R18-16-413.

C. The remedial investigation, which may be conducted in one or more phases to focus sampling efforts and increase the efficiency of the investigation, shall include field investigations to assess the following factors:

1. Physical characteristics of the site, including important surface features, soils, geology, hydrogeology, meteorology, and ecology;

2. The extent and general characteristics of the hazardous substances released, including physical state, concentration, toxicity, propensity to bioaccumulate, persistence, and mobility;

3. The extent, general characteristics, and degree of the source of the release;

4. Current and reasonably foreseeable exposure routes for the hazardous substances released, such as inhalation, ingestion and dermal;

5. Other factors, such as sensitive populations, that pertain to the characterization of the site or support the analysis of potential remedies; and

6. Current and reasonably foreseeable impacts to aquatic and terrestrial biota.

D. The remedial investigation shall include the collection of information regarding current and reasonably foreseeable uses of land or of waters of the state that have been or are threatened to be impacted by the release, and projected time-frames for future changes in those uses. Reasonably foreseeable uses of land are those uses of land likely to occur at the site. Reasonably foreseeable uses of water are those likely to occur within 100 years unless a longer time period is shown to be reasonable based on site-specific circumstances. Information may be solicited from any interested person including any known well owner. Information collected shall include:

1. Information regarding current and reasonably foreseeable uses of water for each aquifer that is impacted or threatened to be impacted by the release, considering any hydraulic connection between aquifers. The information shall include the locations and uses of existing wells, including all wells already impaired due to contamination, the locations and uses, if known, of any planned wells, and any written water management plans used by water providers whose water supplies may be impacted by the release. This information shall be collected in consultation with affected water providers.

2. Information regarding current and reasonably foreseeable uses of water for each segment of surface water impacted or threatened to be impacted by the release. This information shall be collected in consultation with affected water providers.

3. Information regarding current and reasonably foreseeable uses of land impacted or threatened to be impacted by the release within the community involvement area. General land use information shall include the current type of use, density, character, and governmental jurisdictions. Future land use changes shall be considered using population projections, growth, plans for future development and local land use plans. This information shall be collected in consultation with local governments with land use jurisdiction. The information collected shall also include specific land uses and property ownership for properties where the land use is impacted or threatened to be impacted by the release.

E. Using the data developed during the field investigation and information collected concerning uses of land and of waters of the state, a site-specific risk evaluation may be conducted to characterize the current risks to public health and the environment from contaminants of concern.

F. Following the collection of data necessary to adequately characterize the site or portion of the site and the collection of information necessary to determine the uses of land and of waters of the state, a draft remedial investigation report shall be prepared, and if prepared by a person other than the Department, submitted to the Department. The draft remedial investigation report shall include the results of any risk evaluation conducted under subsection (E). The draft remedial investigation report may consist of a summary of the data and information collected with references to the supporting documentation and the location of the public repository where those documents may be reviewed. Copies of the draft remedial investigation report prepared by or approved for release by the Department shall be provided to the community advisory board, interested local government agencies, affected water providers, and the Department of Water Resources. Copies of the draft remedial investigation report also shall be made available to the community under the community involvement plan. Public notice shall be given of the opportunity to comment on the draft remedial investigation report. This notice may be combined with the notice given under subsection (I)(1).

G. For remedial objectives used to select a soil remediation remedy, the landowner has the right to identify the type of land use in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2. If the remedy for the site or portion of a site will address landfill or other non-soil materials other than waters of the state, the landowner may establish the current and reasonably foreseeable uses of its land provided that the remedial objectives for the site are not required to address land uses impaired by properties of materials located on or under the land other than the current or potential exposure to the hazardous substances contained in that material.

H. If the remedy for the site or a portion of the site will not address waters of the state, a final remedial investigation report may be prepared containing the results of the site characterization and a listing of remedial objectives. The remedial objectives shall be based on the current and reasonably foreseeable uses of the property in accordance with subsection (G) and stated in accordance with subsection (I)(4). The report shall be accompanied by responsiveness summaries regarding comments, issues, and concerns regarding the draft remedial investigation report under subsection (F), and if the report is prepared by a person other than the Department, copies of the comments received. The report may be submitted to the Department for review under R18-16-413. If the Department approves the report, the procedures in subsections (I) and (J) do not apply, and the approved report may be used to select a remedy under R18-16-407(C) or R18-16-407(D). Notice of the availability of the final remedial investigation report shall be provided with the notice under R18-16-408(C).

I. Except as provided in subsection (H), remedial objectives shall be developed as follows:

1. After the draft remedial investigation report is made available, the Department shall hold 1 or more public meetings to obtain information for purposes of establishing remedial objectives for the site. The Department shall provide notice of the public meeting. If a community advisory board has been formed for the site, public meeting arrangements shall be coordinated with the community advisory board. The initial public meeting shall be held not less than 45 calendar days and not more than 90 calendar days after release of the draft remedial investigation report, unless the Department sets a different date for good cause.

2. At the public meeting, the Department shall solicit and consider proposed remedial objectives for the site. The Department also may receive and consider written information regarding proposed remedial objectives.

3. Remedial objectives shall be generally consistent with the water management plans of all water providers whose water supplies are or may be impaired by the contamination and with the general land use plan established by the local land use jurisdiction.

4. The Department shall prepare a report of the proposed remedial objectives for the site that shall list the current and reasonably foreseeable uses of land and the current and reasonably foreseeable beneficial uses of waters of the state. These uses shall be identified based upon information provided during the public meeting and any other information received. The report shall state the remedial objectives for each listed use in the following terms:

a. Protecting against the loss or impairment of each listed use that is threatened to be lost or impaired as a result of a release of a hazardous substance;

b. Restoring, replacing or otherwise providing for each listed use to the extent that it has been or will be lost or impaired as a result of a release of a hazardous substance;

c. Time-frames when action is needed to protect against or provide for the impairment or loss of the use; and

d. The projected duration of the action needed to protect or provide for the use.

5. The Department shall provide notice and accept and consider public comment on the proposed remedial objectives in the remedial objectives report and shall hold at least 1 additional public meeting if significant public interest exists or if significant issues or information have been brought to the attention of the Department which have not been considered previously.

6. The Department shall prepare a final remedial objectives report.

J. Following the community involvement activities regarding the draft remedial investigation report and the remedial objectives report, a final remedial investigation report shall be prepared containing the results of the site characterization and the final remedial objectives report. The final remedial investigation report shall be accompanied by responsiveness summaries regarding comments, issues and concerns raised in the community involvement process and, if the report is prepared by a person other than the Department, copies of the comments received. After completion of the final remedial investigation report, changes to the remedial objectives are subject to the requirements of subsection (I). The Department shall provide notice of the availability of the final remedial investigation report.

K. Any person, other than a person proposing to perform work under an agreement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(C), may submit a request under R18-16-413 for the Department to approve a work plan or a report for all or any portion of a remedial investigation. The Department shall approve a work plan for a remedial investigation if the request shows that the work will comply with this Section, community involvement activities will comply with R18-16-404, and the work plan provides for modifications to address unknown or changed conditions or access problems. The Department shall approve a draft remedial investigation report if the work is in compliance with an approved work plan or, if no work plan was approved, the remedial investigation complies with this Section and the community involvement activities have been conducted under this Article.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.407" level="4" title="Feasibility Study">

Feasibility Study

A. The feasibility study is a process to identify a reference remedy and alternative remedies that appear to be capable of achieving remedial objectives and to evaluate them based on the comparison criteria to select a remedy that complies with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06.

B. The Department or any person may perform all or any portion of a feasibility study, except that once the Department has issued a notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 for a site, a person may perform such work only under a written agreement with the Department. The feasibility study process shall include community involvement procedures in compliance with R18-16-404 and may be reported concurrently with the remedial investigation. A work plan shall be developed and implemented for all or any portion of a feasibility study for a site or a portion of a site, as follows:

1. The work plan shall demonstrate that the work performed will meet the requirements of this Section.

2. A work plan may be modified as appropriate.

3. Any person proposing to implement a work plan for all or a portion of a feasibility study shall, before implementing the work plan, notify the Department in writing of the name and address of the working party and a general description of the work being performed. This notice is for the Department's information only and receipt of the notice shall not constitute approval of the work plan. A person seeking approval of a work plan by the Department shall proceed under R18-16-413.

C. For remedies addressing only soils, an analysis of alternative remedies is not required. A feasibility study report shall be prepared that demonstrates:

1. That the proposed remedy addresses the contaminated soil in a manner that achieves compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2 and will achieve the remedial objectives for the use of the property.

2. That the proposed remedy was selected based upon best engineering, geological, or hydrogeological judgment following engineering, geological, or hydrogeological standards of practice, considering the following information:

a. The remedial investigation;

b. Best available scientific information concerning available remedial methods and technologies;

c. A written analysis explaining how the remedy is consistent with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06, including a brief explanation of the comparison criteria as applied to the remedy.

D. For remedies addressing only landfills that have not and will not impact groundwater or similar sites or portions of sites that have not and will not impact groundwater, and that contain material not subject to A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2, an analysis of alternative remedies is not required. A feasibility study report shall be prepared that demonstrates:

1. That the proposed remedy is designed to prevent human exposure to hazardous substances through the achievement of:

a. Soil remediation levels established under 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2, or

b. Site-specific remediation levels based on a site-specific human health risk assessment, meeting a cumulative excess lifetime cancer risk between 1 x 10-4 and 1 x 10-6 and a hazard index no greater than 1. The excess lifetime cancer risk shall be selected by the Department based upon site specific factors including the presence of multiple contaminants, the existence of multiple pathways of exposure, the uncertainty of exposure, and the sensitivity of the exposed population. With prior approval of the Department, a person may achieve a site specific remediation level based on the use of institutional and engineering controls. The approval shall be based in part on the demonstration that the institutional and engineering controls will be maintained.

2. That the proposed remedy was selected based upon best engineering, geological, or hydrogeological judgment following engineering, geological, or hydrogeological standards of practice, considering the following information:

a. The remedial investigation;

b. Best available scientific information concerning available remedial methods and technologies;

c. A written analysis explaining how the remedy is consistent with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06, including a brief explanation of the comparison criteria as applied to the remedy.

3. That the proposed remedy will achieve all of the remedial objectives.

E. For remedies other than provided in subsections (C) and (D), the feasibility study shall provide for the development of a reference remedy and at least two alternative remedies as follows:

1. The reference remedy and alternative remedies shall be capable of achieving all of the remedial objectives. The reference remedy and each alternative remedy shall consist of a remedial strategy under subsection (F) and all remedial measures to be employed. The combination of the remedial strategy and the remedial measures for each alternative remedy shall achieve the remedial objectives. The reference remedy and any alternative remedy also may include contingent remedial strategies or remedial measures to address reasonable uncertainties regarding the achievement of remedial objectives or uncertain time-frames in which remedial objectives will be achieved. The reference remedy and other alternative remedies shall be developed and described in the feasibility study report in sufficient detail to allow evaluation using the comparison criteria, but plans at construction level detail are not required. The units of measure set forth in Appendix A may be used, as applicable, for comparison of the relevant factors. Where appropriate, the reference remedy and an alternative remedy may incorporate different strategies for different aquifers or portions of aquifers.

2. The reference remedy shall be developed based upon best engineering, geological, or hydrogeological judgment following engineering, geological, or hydrogeological standards of practice, considering the following:

a. The information in the remedial investigation;

b. The best available scientific information concerning available remedial technologies; and

c. Preliminary analysis of the comparison criteria and the ability of the reference remedy to comply with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06.

3. At a minimum, at least two alternative remedies shall be developed for comparison with the reference remedy. At least one of the alternative remedies must employ a remedial strategy or combination of strategies that is more aggressive than the reference remedy, and at least one of the alternative remedies must employ a remedial strategy or combination of strategies that is less aggressive than the reference remedy. For the purposes of this Section, a more aggressive strategy is a strategy that requires fewer remedial measures to achieve remedial objectives, a strategy that achieves remedial objectives in a shorter period of time, or a strategy that is more certain in the long term and requires fewer contingencies. With the Department's approval, one of the minimum required alternative remedies may use the same strategy as the reference remedy but use different viable technologies or a more intensive use of the same technology utilized in the reference remedy.

F. The remedial strategies to be developed under subsection (E) are listed below. Source control shall be considered as an element of the reference remedy and all alternative remedies, if applicable, except for the monitoring and no action alternatives. A strategy may incorporate more than one remediation technology or methodology, such as a plume remediation strategy that consists of a combination of pumping and treating in portions of an aquifer and monitored natural attenuation for other portions of the aquifer. The remedial strategies are:

1. Plume remediation is a strategy to achieve water quality standards for contaminants of concern in waters of the state throughout the site.

2. Physical containment is a strategy to contain contaminants within definite boundaries.

3. Controlled migration is a strategy to control the direction or rate of migration but not necessarily to contain migration of contaminants.

4. Source control is a strategy to eliminate or mitigate a continuing source of contamination.

5. Monitoring is a strategy to observe and evaluate the contamination at the site through the collection of data.

6. No action is a strategy that consists of no action at a site.

G. Remedial measures necessary for each alternative remedy developed under subsection (E) to achieve remedial objectives or to satisfy the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06(B)(4)(b) shall be identified in consultation with water providers or known well owners whose water supplies are affected by the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance. In identifying the remedial measures, the needs of the well owners and the water providers and their customers, including the quantity and quality of water, water rights and other legal constraints on water supplies, reliability of water supplies and any operational implications shall be considered. Such remedial measures may include, but are not limited to, well replacement, well modification, water treatment, provision of replacement water supplies, and engineering controls. Where remedial measures are relied upon to achieve remedial objectives, such remedial measures shall remain in effect as long as required to ensure the continued achievement of those objectives. The Department may require financial mechanisms to provide for the cost of implementation of the remedial measures.

H. The Department or any person who conducts a feasibility study by agreement with the Department shall conduct a comparative evaluation of the reference remedy and the alternative remedies developed under subsection (E). For each alternative, the evaluation shall be reported in a feasibility study report and shall include:

1. A demonstration that the remedial alternative will achieve the remedial objectives.

2. An evaluation of consistency with the water management plans of affected water providers and the general land use plans of local governments with land use jurisdiction.

3. An evaluation of the comparison criteria, including:

a. An evaluation of the practicability of the alternative, including its feasibility, short and long-term effectiveness, and reliability, considering site-specific conditions, characteristics of the contamination resulting from the release, performance capabilities of available technologies, and institutional considerations.

b. An evaluation of risk, including the overall protectiveness of public health and aquatic and terrestrial biota under reasonably foreseeable use scenarios and end uses of water. This evaluation shall address:

i. Fate and transport of contaminants and concentrations and toxicity over the life of the remediation;

ii. Current and future land and resource use;

iii. Exposure pathways, duration of exposure, and changes in risk over the life of the remediation;

iv. Protection of public health and aquatic and terrestrial biota while implementing the remedial action and after the remedial action; and

v. Residual risk in the aquifer at the end of remediation.

c. An evaluation of the cost of the remedial alternative, including the expenses and losses including capital, operating, maintenance, and life cycle costs. The cost analysis may include the analysis of uncertainties that may impact the cost of a remedial alternative, analysis of projected water uses and costs associated with use-based treatment, other use impairment costs of water not remediated to water quality standards, and the cost of measures such as alternative water supply or treatment. Transactional costs necessary to implement the remedial alternative, including the transactional costs of establishing long-term financial mechanisms, such as trust funds, for funding of an alternative remedy, shall be included in the cost estimate.

d. An evaluation of the benefit, or value, of the remediation. This analysis includes factors such as:

i. Lowered risk to human and aquatic and terrestrial biota;

ii. Reduced concentration and reduced volume of contaminated water;

iii. Decreased liability; acceptance by the public;

iv. Aesthetics; preservation of existing uses;

v. Enhancement of future uses; and

vi. Improvements to local economies.

e. A discussion of the comparison criteria, as evaluated in relation to each other.

I. Based upon the evaluation and comparison of the reference remedy and the other alternative remedies developed under subsection (E), a proposed remedy shall be developed and described in the feasibility study report. The proposed remedy may be the reference remedy, any of the other alternative remedies evaluated in the feasibility study, or a different combination of remedial strategies and remedial measures that were included in the alternative remedies evaluated in the feasibility study. The feasibility study report shall describe the reasons for selection of the proposed remedy, including all of the following:

1. How the proposed remedy will achieve the remedial objectives;

2. How the comparison criteria were considered; and

3. How the proposed remedy meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06.

J. Any person, other than a person proposing to perform work under an agreement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(C), may submit a request in compliance with R18-16-413 for the Department to approve a work plan or a report for all or any portion of a feasibility study. The Department shall approve a work plan for a feasibility study if the request shows that the work will comply with this Section, community involvement activities will be performed in compliance with R18-16-404, and the work plan provides for modifications to comply with this Section. The Department shall approve a feasibility study report if the feasibility study complies with this Section and community involvement activities have been conducted under this Article.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.408" level="4" title="Proposed Remedial Action Plan">

Proposed Remedial Action Plan

A. Following the completion of the feasibility study report under R18-16-407(I), the Department or any person shall prepare a proposed remedial action plan, except once the Department has issued a notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03, a person may prepare a proposed remedial action plan only under a written agreement with the Department.

B. The proposed remedial action plan shall include the following:

1. A description of the proposed remedy.

2. The information required in A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04(a).

3. A description of how the proposed remedy will achieve each of the remedial objectives identified in the final remedial investigation report under R18-16-406(J) and how accomplishment of the remedial objectives is to be measured.

4. A description of all recharge, reinjection, discharge, transportation and use of remediated water as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-283.01.

C. Notice of the proposed remedial action plan shall be provided as follows:

1. At a site where the A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 notice has been provided, notice shall be provided by the Department in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04(b) and the community involvement plan prepared under R18-16-404. If the Department intends to seek recovery of costs and conduct a cost allocation proceeding for the site, the notice shall also include the following:

a. The information required by A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04(c).

b. A statement of costs incurred at the site by the Department prior to the date of the notice and projected future costs for the site.

c. All necessary information regarding the opportunities to submit costs, object to costs, or respond to objections to costs under R18-16-409, including a schedule for such submittal, review, objection and response to objection. The time period for submittal of costs shall not be less than 90 calendar days.

d. If on the basis of new information or investigation notice is required to newly-identified parties, the notice sent under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04 shall also include the information required by this Section.

2. At a site where the A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 notice has not been provided, the person who prepared the plan shall provide notice under R18-16-404. The notice shall include the information contained in A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04(C).

D. Any person, other than a person proposing to perform work under an agreement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03(c), may submit a proposed remedial action plan to the Department for approval under R18-16-413. The plan may be accompanied by a request for a determination of whether cost recovery by the Department may be appropriate under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.02. If the Department determines that cost recovery by the Department is not appropriate, notice shall be provided under subsection (C)(2).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.409" level="4" title="Remedial Action Costs Credit">

Remedial Action Costs Credit

A. Any person seeking credit against potential liability at a site may submit to the Department, within the time period established in the notice given under R18-16-408(D), evidence of costs it has incurred or will incur for remedial actions undertaken at the site. The evidence of costs submitted shall include:

1. Two copies of an itemized statement of costs, including a certification by the person submitting the statement that the statement is true, accurate and complete;

2. Sufficient supporting documentation to establish that the costs are consistent with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06 and this Article; and

3. An agreement in which the person submitting the evidence of costs agrees to reimburse the Department for the Department's costs under subsection (F).

B. Any itemized statements of costs submitted shall be available for review at both the repository for the site and the Department on or after the expiration of the time period established in subsection (A).

C. Within a reasonable period of time set by the Department but not less than 30 calendar days, any person may object in writing to costs submitted by the Department or any other person under this Section. Written objections shall identify the specific costs to which the party objects and shall state specific reasons for the objection. Two copies of the objections shall be submitted to the Department and one copy of the objections shall be submitted to the person whose costs are the subject of objection.

D. The Department and each person who submits an itemized statement of costs shall have an opportunity to respond to any objections within the time period specified in the notice given under R18-16-408 subsection (C) or (D). Two copies of the response shall be submitted to the Department and one copy of the response shall be submitted to the person objecting to the costs.

E. The Department shall evaluate the statements of costs submitted, any objections to such statements, or other information available to the Department and shall approve those costs determined by the Department to be recoverable and in substantial compliance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06. The Department shall prepare a list of these approved costs for inclusion as part of the total estimated costs of the remedy in the record of decision under R18-16-410.

F. Any person who requests the Department's approval of costs under this Section shall reimburse the Department for the total reasonable cost to the Department for the review unless the Department waives all or a part of the reimbursement. The total reasonable costs include direct and indirect costs to the Department in conducting these activities. Costs that are reimbursed to the Department by a person that obtains the Department's approval of costs under this Section constitute remedial action costs that may be recovered from responsible parties.

G. The Department shall give credit not exceeding the amount of a person's liability for the costs approved under this Section. Nothing in this Article shall create a right of reimbursement from the fund for any costs incurred or to be incurred at a site.

H. If the remedial action for which approval of costs is sought under this Section has not been previously approved by the Department, the submittal under subsection (A) shall be accompanied by a request for approval of the remedial action under R18-16-413.

I. This Section is the exclusive process for the Department to approve the costs of a remedial action, and no other Department approval of a remedial action shall be considered as an approval of the costs of that remedial action.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.410" level="4" title="Record of Decision">

Record of Decision

A. After the conclusion of all required public comment periods prescribed by A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04, the Department shall prepare a record of decision regarding the proposed remedial action plan. However, any person may prepare a proposed record of decision for consideration by the Department under R18-16-413 by submitting copies of the final remedial investigation report, the final feasibility study report, the proposed remedial action plan, all public comments and a proposed record of decision.

B. The record of decision shall contain the following:

1. A description of the remedy, including a description of any differences from the proposed remedial action plan.

2. A comprehensive responsiveness summary regarding all comments received on the proposed remedial action plan.

3. A description of how the process for selecting the remedy complied with A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 and this Article, including all public comment and community involvement requirements.

4. A demonstration that the remedy selected will achieve the remedial objectives selected in R18-16-406 and will remain in place as long as necessary to ensure continued achievement of those objectives.

5. A demonstration that the remedy selected meets the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06 and this Article.

6. A time for commencing implementation of the remedy and a specific time period for completing the remedy.

7. The total estimated cost of the remedy.

8. A time-frame for review of the remedy to determine the effectiveness of the remedy in achieving the remedial objectives.

C. The total estimated cost of the remedy shall include:

1. Remedial action costs other than nonrecoverable costs incurred by the Department, including credit given in a settlement.

2. Remedial action costs other than nonrecoverable costs incurred by the state.

3. Remedial action costs other than nonrecoverable costs that have been approved by the Department under R18-16-409.

4. Projected future remedial action costs other than nonrecoverable costs.

D. The record of decision shall be issued only by the Department. Notice of the record of decision shall be provided under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.04(G) and R18-16-404.

E. A record of decision may be amended in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-289(B), (C), and (D).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.411" level="4" title="Design, Implementation, Operation and Maintenance of the Early Response Action or Remedy.">

Design, Implementation, Operation and Maintenance of the Early Response Action or Remedy.

A. Any person who intends to implement all or any portion of a remedy or an early response action shall obtain the Department's approval when required in either a record of decision or under subsection (C) or (E). The design and implementation of the remedy shall conform with the remedial action plan as adopted in the record of decision.

B. If the remedy or an early response action includes well replacement or provision of an alternative water supply, the Department or any person developing the design shall consult with the affected well owner or water provider. For a well owner, the design of that portion of the remedy or early response action shall meet the well owner's water quality and quantity needs in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06(B)(4)(b) and R18-16-407(G). For a water provider, the design of that portion of the remedy or early response action shall:

1. Comply with laws and regulations governing the water provider's obligations to its customers;

2. Be implementable without significant alteration of the water provider's existing system; and

3. Meet the water provider's water quality and quantity needs in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06(B)(4)(b) and R18-16-407(G).

C. The Department's approval of the design of any water treatment facilities is required prior to the construction as part of the remedy or an early response action. The design shall be based on an evaluation of potential treatment system failure that could affect public health and shall incorporate safeguards including any site-specific engineering and operation controls necessary to assure protection of public health against such failure. The safeguards shall incorporate, at a minimum, if applicable to the technology:

1. Monitors and alarms on all key treatment system components, e.g. power, air flow.

2. Automatic termination of discharge from the treatment system when monitors detect abnormal operation of key treatment system components.

D. If operation and maintenance of a remedy following completion of construction are necessary to ensure the continued achievement of the remedial objectives, an operation and maintenance plan shall be prepared and implemented.

E. The Department's approval of an operation and maintenance plan shall be required for each WQARF site where the remedy or an early response action involves treatment of water to remove contaminants of concern at the site. The community advisory board, if one has been established for the site, shall be provided with the opportunity to comment on the operations and maintenance plan. Notice and community involvement shall be in accordance with R18-16-404. The operation and maintenance plan shall include:

1. Certification by the Department that the elements of the operations and maintenance plan adequately protect public health against treatment system failure.

2. A schedule and plan for water quality monitoring.

3. A requirement that affected water providers receive a copy of the completed application and a copy of the final permit for any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the site.

4. A process for the treatment system operator to promptly notify potentially affected water providers of a failure of a key treatment system component that could affect the quality of a discharge of treated water.

5. For a discharge to a water of the United States, operational, maintenance and management practices to assure achievement of water quality discharge standards established in 18 A.A.C. 11 prior to the point of discharge for those volatile organic compounds which are contaminants of concern at the site.

F. Any person who intends to implement any portion of a remedy may request the Department to approve the design or the operation and maintenance plan. A request for approval of a remedial design shall be submitted in accordance with R18-16-413. The Department shall approve any remedial design that is in compliance with this Section and the remedial action plan as adopted in the record of decision.

G. The well owner or water provider whose water use is being addressed may, in its sole discretion, elect to construct, operate, or construct and operate the water treatment, well replacement or alternative water supply component of the remedy or early response action which is designed to address its use. This election shall not alter the responsibility of the Department or any person under A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5 to fund all or a portion of the remedy or early response action. The well owner or water provider shall enter into a written agreement with the appropriate person that will govern the terms of the construction, operation or construction and operation of the water treatment, well replacement or alternative water supply component of the remedy.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.412" level="4" title="Innovative Technologies">

Innovative Technologies

A. The Department may approve the use of an innovative technology for a site if the Department determines that the technology has been demonstrated to be reasonably likely to achieve its objectives and meets the other criteria set forth in this Article. Such a demonstration may be made through pilot or bench testing studies, peer reviewed studies, or other appropriate means of demonstration. If an innovative technology is approved as part of a remedy, the remedial action plan shall provide for a contingency in the event that the technology fails to achieve its objectives.

B. The Department may use monies from the WQARF fund to contract for review of an innovative technology.

C. The Department may provide incentives for the selection of the innovative technology that may include the following:

1. The Department may agree not to assess penalties, issue a notice of violation, pursue an order, or take other enforcement action authorized by law for a delay that is caused by the use of the innovative technology provided that the party conducting the remedial action remains in compliance with the plans for implementing the innovative technology and implements a contingent remedial action in a timely manner.

2. The Department may use monies from the Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund to finance some or all of the use of the innovative technology.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.413" level="4" title="Approval of Remedial Actions Under A.R.S. &#167; 49-285(B)">

Approval of Remedial Actions Under A.R.S. &#167; 49-285(B)

A. Any person who seeks approval of a remedial action at a site or a portion of a site on the registry under A.R.S. &#167; 49-285(B) shall submit a written request to the Department that contains all of the following:

1. The name and address of the person submitting the request and the nature of the relationship of the person to the site, if any.

2. The location and boundaries of the site or portion of the site addressed by the remedial action

3. The nature, degree, and extent of the hazardous substance contamination, if known.

4. A description of any remedial action performed before the request is submitted.

5. A work plan for any remedial action to be performed after the request is submitted.

6. A demonstration of how the remedial action complied, or will comply, with this Article.

7. A proposal for public notice and an opportunity for public comment on the application for approval under this Section. The proposal shall include a list of the names and addresses of persons whom the applicant believes to be responsible parties under A.R.S. &#167; 49-283 and a summary of the basis for that belief.

8. An agreement in which the person requesting the approval agrees:

a. To grant access to the Department as necessary to evaluate the request for approval.

b. To reimburse the Department for the Department's costs under subsection (G).

9. An original seal imprint and signature of a registered professional if required by the Arizona Board of Technical Registrations under A.R.S. Title 32, Chapter 1 and the rules made under that Chapter.

B. A request for approval under this Section may be combined with a no further action request under R18-16-414.

C. The Department may request additional information necessary to evaluate or to take action on the request for approval.

D. The Department shall provide notice of the request for approval and of the opportunity to comment on the request for approval.

E. The Department shall, after considering public comments, approve a remedial action under this Section if the Department determines that the remedial action is in substantial compliance with this Article. The Department's approval shall be in writing and shall state the basis for the approval.

F. The Department may deny approval of a remedial action under this Section if the remedial action does not meet the requirements of this Article, may request additional information, may request modification of the remedial action, or may condition approval of the remedial action on modifications necessary to achieve substantial compliance with this Article.

G. The person making the request for approval shall reimburse the Department for the total reasonable cost of the Department's review and action under this Section, including costs of notices, unless the Department waives all or part of the reimbursement. The total reasonable costs include direct and indirect costs to the Department in conducting these activities.

H. Approval of a remedial action under this Section does not constitute approval of the costs of conducting the remedial action.

I. A remedial action approved by the Department under this Section shall be deemed to be in substantial compliance with this Article. The Department's approval under this Section is not required to preserve any right to recover remedial action costs under A.R.S. &#167; 49-285.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.414" level="4" title="Determination of No Further Action">

Determination of No Further Action

A. The Department shall determine that no further action is necessary at a site or a portion of a site if, based upon the information submitted under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.01, the Department finds that the site or portion of the site does not present a significant risk to the public health, welfare, or the environment. The determination may be made by the Department based upon any of the following:

1. A finding by the Department that the requirements of A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2 have been met shall be sufficient to support a determination that no further action is necessary for soils at the site or a portion of the site.

2. A finding by the Department that no hazardous substances at the site or a portion of the site have impacted or will impact groundwater shall be sufficient to support a determination that the site or a portion of the site does not present a significant risk to groundwater.

3. The determination of no further action for waters of the state at a site or a portion of the site may be made by the Department based upon any of the following:

a. A finding that the site or portion of a site has been remediated under a Title 49 program other than A.R.S. Title 49, Chapter 2, Article 5.

b. A finding that the release of a hazardous substance does not and will not exceed water quality standards in Title 18, Chapter 11 or if there is no water quality standard, a risk level approved by the Department to protect public health, welfare, and the environment.

c. A finding that there is no current or reasonably foreseeable use of water that would be impaired by the release, as determined by information collected under R18-16-406.

B. A determination of no further action for a site or a portion of a site shall be published in the registry.

C. If the remedial action for which a no further action determination is sought under this Section has not been previously approved by the Department, the submittal under subsection (A) may be accompanied by a request for approval of the remedial action under R18-16-413.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.415" level="4" title="Soil Remediation">

Soil Remediation

A. Soil remediation may be conducted as part of a remedy selected under R18-16-410 or may be conducted by any person at a site or portion of a site on the registry prior to the selection of a remedy if the following requirements are met:

1. The soil remediation is performed in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-152 and 18 A.A.C. 7, Article 2.

2. Community involvement activities are conducted in accordance with R18-16-404.

3. A notice of remediation under R18-7-209 is prepared and submitted to the Department before the remediation is conducted. The notice of remediation shall be accompanied by a written report including the information described in R18-16-406(C)(1), (2), and (3). If the Department has issued a notice under A.R.S. &#167; 49-287.03 for the site or portion of a site, the notice of remediation shall be submitted to the Department 15 calendar days before commencing the remediation or, if the remediation has commenced prior to the Department's notice, within 15 calendar days after the Department's notice is given.

B. Submission of the information required under subsection (A) to the Department shall not be considered to be an approval of the soil remediation. Approval of a work plan for soil remediation work to be performed or approval for remediation performed under this Section may be obtained by submitting a request under R18-16-413. The Department shall approve the request if the request demonstrates that the soil remediation was conducted in accordance with this Section.

C. The Department may request any additional information regarding the soil remediation in accordance with A.R.S. &#167; 49-288.

D. The Department may include information regarding soil remediation conducted under this Section in a record of decision for a remedy for the site or portion of the site under R18-16-410.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.416" level="4" title="Satisfaction of Settlement Agreement and Achievement of Remedial Objectives"> <dwc name="lead" times="1">

Satisfaction of Settlement Agreement and Achievement of Remedial Objectives

A. If the Department enters into a settlement under A.R.S. &#167; 49-292 with a person who agrees to perform all or any portion of the remedy, the settlement agreement shall include criteria to determine when the work required by the settlement agreement is completed. A party to the settlement agreement who has performed all or a portion of a remedy may request a determination that the required work has been completed. The request shall describe how the requirements of the settlement agreement have been satisfied. The Department may require additional information to consider the request.

B. Any person may request that the Department determine whether each of the remedial objectives for the site have been satisfied and will continue to be satisfied. The request shall demonstrate how the remedial objectives have been satisfied in accordance with the remedy and will continue to be satisfied, including information regarding any financial mechanisms in place to ensure the continued satisfaction of the remedial objectives. The Department may require additional information to consider the request. The Department shall issue notice of the request and provide an opportunity for public comment. Based upon the request and the public comments, the Department shall issue a written determination to approve or deny the request. If the request is approved, the written determination shall identify all actions that must continue to be taken to continue to satisfy the remedial objectives for the site.

C. Following an approval under subsection (B), the Department shall not undertake or require additional remedial action under this Article for the site or portion of the site other than the actions stated in the determination under subsection (B). However, the Department may reopen an investigation and take or require additional remedial action for any of the following reasons:

1. On discovery of new information which would result in the potential denial of a request under subsection (B).

2. That information submitted to the Department under subsection (B) was inaccurate, misleading, or incomplete.

3. The reopening of an investigation or the taking of a remedial action is necessary to respond to a release or the threat of a release of a hazardous substance that may present an imminent and substantial danger to the public health, welfare, or the environment.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

Appendix A. Standard Measurements for Comparison of Remedial Alternatives

<table> Plume Characterization Typical Units Length feet Width feet Depth (thickness) feet Areal extent acres Volume acre-feet Plume leading edge advancement rate feet/year Plume volume expansion rate acre-feet/year Contaminant and Source Characterization Probable contributing sources (number) Number of contaminants (number) Maximum concentration of each contaminant &#181;g/l Contaminant concentration vs. MCL ratio Contaminant mass in plume pounds Weighted average contaminant concentration in plume &#181;g/l If present, estimated mass of LNAPL pounds If present, estimated mass of DNAPL pounds Sorbed contaminant mass in plume pounds Rate of downgradient contaminant mass transport pounds/year Remedial Efficiency Contaminant mass naturally degraded pounds/year Contaminant mass removed through remediation pounds/year Groundwater removed through remediation acre-feet/year Groundwater added (injected) by remediation acre-feet/year Net groundwater removed/added acre-feet/year Groundwater removed per year vs. plume volume expansion per year percentage Contaminant mass removed per year vs. pre-remedial contaminant mass transported downgradient per year percentage Time per first log cycle decline in average concentration years per log cycle decline Cost Efficiency Contaminant mass removal $ per pound Groundwater removal $ per acre-foot Cost per first cycle decline in average concentration $ per log cycle decline </table>

Historical Note

New Appendix made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="ARTICLE 5" level="3" title="INTERIM REMEDIAL ACTIONS">

INTERIM REMEDIAL ACTIONS

<regElement name="R18.16.501" level="4" title="Definitions">

Definitions

In addition to the definitions set forth in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281, the following definitions shall apply in this Article, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Abandoned well" means a well that has been permanently sealed or closed with cement or a cement-bentonite mixture that cannot be re-entered except by redrilling the wellbore, or a well that has been formally abandoned under R12-15-816.

"Currently supplies water" means a well that supplies water at the time the request for interim remedial action is submitted to the Department. Wells that supply water as needed to meet demand, including wells that serve water on an infrequent basis, are considered to currently supply water under this definition.

"Department" means the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality.

"Interim remedial action" means an action taken by the Department or by a well owner or operator under A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.03.

"Part of a public water system" means a well that is owned or operated by an operator of a public water system, but has not been abandoned. A well that has been capped, air gapped or closed due to contamination, but not abandoned, shall be considered part of a public water system.

"Public water system" has the same meaning as defined in 42 U.S.C. &#167; 300(f).

"Registry sites" means sites that have been investigated and placed on the Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund registry of sites.

"Remedy" has the same meaning as defined in A.R.S. &#167; 49-281(13).

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.502" level="4" title="Eligibility">

Eligibility

A. A well is eligible for consideration for funding or performance of interim remedial action if a remedy has not been selected and the well meets the following criteria:

1. The well currently supplies water for municipal, domestic, irrigation, or agricultural use or is currently part of a public water system;

2. The well produces water, or in the reasonably foreseeable future will produce water, that is not fit for its current or reasonably foreseeable end-use without treatment due to the release of hazardous substances at or from a site on the registry; and

3. The well is not an abandoned well.

B. Only costs directly related to an interim remedial action approved by the Department are eligible for funding from a grant from the Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund. Costs incurred by any person after the date of submittal of a complete request which meets the requirements of R18-16-503 are eligible for funding if the request and proposed interim remedial action are subsequently approved by the Department. Costs incurred by any person prior to the submittal of a request under R18-16-503 are not reimbursable by the Department.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.503" level="4" title="Request for Interim Remedial Action">

Request for Interim Remedial Action

A. Any person may request that the Department perform or provide a grant for an interim remedial action. The request shall be in writing and shall include a statement describing the eligibility of the well under R18-16-502 and a statement describing the reasons why interim remedial action is appropriate considering the factors in R18-16-504(A)(1) through (4). The request shall also include all of the following information that is in the possession of or is readily available to the person submitting the request:

1. A description of the well, including its location, Arizona Department of Water Resources registration number, construction details, and water production history.

2. An explanation of any water rights associated with the well and uses of the well, including any quality and quantity requirements associated with the end use of the water.

3. Any available water quality and water level data from the requesting party's wells that are the subject of the request.

4. Information that demonstrates that the well is contaminated or threatened by contamination from a release of hazardous substance from a registry site.

5. A proposal for interim remedial action, including a description of the proposed action, a schedule for implementation, and an estimate of the cost of the action.

6. A description of reasonable alternate interim remedial actions, costs associated with each alternative, and documentation supporting a finding that the proposed interim remedial action is the minimum necessary to address the loss or reduction of available water until a remedy is selected.

7. A description of any impacts the loss of the well would have on any assured water supply designation or any adequacy statement under 12 A.A.C. 7, Article 15, or on the ability of the water system to meet its legal obligations or its customer or user needs.

8. A description of the person's interest in the well and any limitations on the owner or operator's legal rights to use the well.

B. If the person requesting interim remedial action intends to perform all or part of the remedial action work, the Department may require submittal of a detailed work plan for the proposed action.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.504" level="4" title="Review and Approval of Requests for Interim Remedial Action">

Review and Approval of Requests for Interim Remedial Action

A. The Department shall approve or deny requests for interim remedial action or request modifications to the proposal based on the following:

1. Whether immediate action may prevent contamination of the well.

2. Whether immediate action is necessary to provide for supply of water because contamination of the well is imminent.

3. Whether the well is currently contaminated, and there are water supply needs including needs related to drought or emergency supply that would be addressed by the well but for the contamination.

4. Whether the well is critical to the ability to satisfy the water supply needs of the well's users, including drought or emergency supply needs.

5. Whether the proposed action or alternative actions are the minimum necessary to address the loss or reduction of water.

6. Whether a proposed action is likely to be inconsistent with the final remedy.

7. Any information that might reasonably suggest that the party requesting the interim remedial action is responsible for the release of hazardous substances contaminating the well.

8. Funding considerations of the Department.

B. The Department may gather additional information before making a decision under subsection (A).

C. The Department shall condition approval of the request for interim remedial action upon execution by the requesting party of the following:

1. A reimbursement agreement under R18-16-505(C).

2. An agreement, as appropriate, to provide the Department access to the property at reasonable times for the purpose of conducting or overseeing the interim remedial action or to gather information necessary to evaluate the interim remedial action.

D. If any person other than the Department performs the work, the Department shall require that person to submit contracts, invoices or other evidence that the work was performed.

E. The Department may initiate an early response action in lieu of granting the request for interim remedial action if the requested remedial action meets the requirements of R18-16-405.

F. An interim remedial action shall be the minimum action necessary to address the loss or reduction of water available to well users during the period before selection and implementation of a final remedy at a site. The Department may approve an action that provides a permanent solution to the water supply problem if a temporary solution is unavailable, more expensive, or incapable of fully addressing the problem during the period before a final remedy is implemented for the site.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="R18.16.505" level="4" title="Reimbursement">

Reimbursement

A. If, in the record of decision, the Department determines that the interim remedial action taken was not necessary, based on criteria established in A.R.S. &#167; 49-282.06, the Department shall require the person requesting the interim remedial action to reimburse all costs incurred in taking that action.

B. A person requesting the interim remedial action who is later determined by the Department to be a responsible party contributing to the contamination of the affected well shall reimburse the Department for all costs incurred by the Department in conducting or funding the interim remedial action.

C. The Department shall provide the person requesting the interim remedial action with a reimbursement agreement that clearly states the conditions under which the person requesting the interim remedial action must reimburse the Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund. The person requesting the interim remedial action shall execute the reimbursement agreement as a prerequisite to approval of the interim remedial action. The Department may require that the person requesting the interim remedial action provide financial assurance for the obligation to reimburse the Water Quality Assurance Revolving Fund.

Historical Note

New Section made by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 1491, effective March 4, 2002 (Supp. 02-1).

<regElement name="CHAPTER 17" level="2" title="POLLUTION PREVENTION">

POLLUTION PREVENTION

<regElement name="ARTICLE 1" level="3" title="GENERAL">

GENERAL

<regElement name="R18.17.101" level="4" title="Reserved">

Reserved

<regElement name="R18.17.102" level="4" title="Toxic Substances List">

Toxic Substances List

Under A.R.S. &#167; 49-968 the Director adopts the substances listed in Table II titled "EPCRA Section 313 Chemical List for Reporting Year 2001 (including Toxic Chemical Categories)" as found in "Toxic Chemical Release Inventory Reporting Forms and Instructions, Revised 2001 Version," adopted by the Environmental Protection Agency as of February 2002, and no future additions or amendments, is incorporated by reference.

Historical Note

New Section adopted by exempt rulemaking at 5 A.A.R. 3707, effective September 17, 1999 (Supp. 99-3). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 6 A.A.R. 2302, effective May 30, 2000 (Supp. 00-2). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 7 A.A.R. 2519, effective May 21, 2001 (Supp. 01-2). Amended by exempt rulemaking at 8 A.A.R. 5230, effective February 2, 2003 (Supp. 02-4).